Simulasi Tes TOEFL

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Simulasi
v rsit
Tes
Un ive r s i ta s Sy i ah
s Sumatera Utara
ve r s it a s
TOEFL
A n d a l a s
Kual
U n i ve rs i ta s
U n i ve r s i t a s
L a mp u n g
B a n g k a B e l i t n g
Un ive r s i t a s Ria
I n s t i t u t P e r t a n i aa n B og o r
Un iv rsitas Jambi
U n i v e r s i t a s R i a
ive sit a s Sriwijay U n i v e r s i t a s B rr a w i jj a y
ive rsit a s Bengkul Universitas Hasanuddin

Un ive rsitas Airlangggg Universitas Patti u a
i e sitas Indonesia
Un iversitas Uday n a
n ive r itas Pad ajara U n i v e r s i t a s S r i w ii j a y
I n t i t u t T e k n o l o g i B a ndd u n
Universitas Matara
n v e r s i t as D i p o n e g or o
U n i v e r s i t a s B a n g kk a B e li u
i v r i t a s G a j a h M a d Universitas Andala
S m Rat ang gi U n i v e r s i t a s N e g e r i S uu r a k a rr t a
u
;
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TOEFL® INTRODUCTION
A. A Brief Introduction
TOEFL® (Test of English as a Foreign Language) adalah suatu tes yang terdiri dari
kumpul- an pertanyaan-pertanyaan yang terstandarkan secara internasional. TOEFL®
memiliki fungsi untuk mengukur sejauh mana kecakapan atau proficiency bahasa Inggris kita.
Pada perkem- bangannya, TOEFL® menjadi sebuah tes yang paling banyak digunakan di
dunia. Hal ini dapat diketahui karena TOEFL® diterima di lebih dari 9.000 perguruan tinggi,
universitas, dan agen tersebar di lebih dari 130 negara. Sehingga, ke manapun kita akan
belajar, tes TOEFL® akan membantu kita untuk mencapainya.
Berikut ini adalah beberapa keuntungan yang akan kita dapatkan dengan tes TOEFL®.
1. Lebih Banyak Pilihan
Dengan kita memiliki sertifikat tes TOEFL®, kita akan memiliki lebih banyak pilihan se-
bagai tempat untuk belajar kita. Ribuan perguruan tinggi dan universitas di lebih dari
130 negara menggunakan TOEFL® sebagai salah satu persyaratan administrasinya.
2. Lebih Tepat/Cocok
Anda sangat dipermudah dengan terdapatnya lebih dari 4.500 lembaga
penyelenggara tes TOEFL® yang tersebar di sekitar 165 negara, termasuk Indonesia.
Selain itu, kita juga dapat menghemat waktu karena tes TOEFL® hanya diselenggarakan
dalam satu hari sehingga kita tidak perlu datang kembali pada hari berikutnya.
3. Mengukur Kemampuan Akademik

Tes TOEFL® menjadi suatu alat untuk membuktikan kemampuan kita dalam penguasaan
keterampilan berbahasa Inggris yang nantinya akan sangat kita butuhkan ketika
dalam perkuliahan. Hal ini dikarenakan pertanyaan dan tugas yang terdapat dalam tes
TOEFL® bersifat akademik. Karena pertanyaan dan tugas bersifat akademik, banyak
perguruan tinggi dan universitas menganggap bahwa tes TOEFL® adalah tes yang
paling tepat dalam proses seleksi masuk.
B. Jenis-Jenis Tes TOEFL®

Tes TOEFL® memiliki beberapa jenis dengan kegunaan yang berbeda pula. Berikut ini adalah
tabel yang menjelaskan tentang jenis-jenis tes TOEFL®.
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No. Nama Keterangan

Tes ini digunakan untuk mengukur proficiency siswa-siswa
yang berada pada sekolah menengah pertama. Tes ini
didistribusikan dalam format paper-based. Tes ini
1. TOEFL Junior® Test
mengukur kecakapan dalam kemampuan listening,
language form dan meaning, dan reading.
Tes ini mengukur kecakapan berbahasa Inggris pada tatar-

an intermediate sampai dengan advanced dan
TOEFL® ITP digunakan pada situasi di mana tidak membutuhkan
2.
Assessment Series suatu lingkung- an tes yang aman. Contoh: untuk
evaluasi kemajuan, tes penempatan akademik, dan lain-
lain.
Tes ini digunakan untuk mengukur kecakapan berbaha-
sa Inggris penutur yang bahasa Inggris sebagai bahasa
asing. Tes ini mengukur sejauh mana kecakapan ses-
eorang dalam berkomunikasi dengan menggunakan ba-
3. TOEFL® Test
hasa Inggris dalam konteks kelas di perguruan tinggi
atau universitas. Bentuk dari tes ini yang sering dikenal
adalah TOEFL iBT test.
Tes ini didesain untuk mengukur proficiency siswa-siswa

4. TOEFL® PrimaryTM Test
usia 8+.
C. Bagian-bagian dalam Tes TOEFL®

Khusus untuk pembahasan pada bagian ini, bagian-bagian tes TOEFL® yang akan dijelaskan
adalah yang terdapat dalam tes TOEFL® ITP yang sering dijumpai dalam konteks akademik
di Indonesia. Tes TOEFL® terbagi menjadi 3 bagian utama, yakni: Listening Comprehension,
Structure and Written Expression, dan Reading Comprehension. Dan untuk mengerjakannya
pun selalu berurutan, dimulai dengan Listening Comprehension dan diakhiri dengan Reading
Comprehension.
1. Listening Comprehension
Sesi Listening Comprehension akan mengukur kecakapan kita dalam memahami apa
yang terdapat dalam rekaman. Terdapat 3 jenis rekaman dalam sesi ini, yakni: short con-
versations, longer conversations, dan talks/lectures. Sesi ini memiliki 50 pertanyaan
dalam bentuk pilihan ganda. 50 pertanyaan ini dibagi dalam 3 bagian, yakni Part A, B,
dan C.
Part A terdiri dari 30 pertanyaan. Seluruh pertanyaan dalam bagian ini diawali oleh
percakapan pendek (short conversation) antara dua orang penutur. Sedangkan Part B
terdapat kurang lebih 8 pertanyaan yang diawali dengan percakapan yang lebih
4
panjang
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(longer conversation). Part C memiliki kurang lebih 12 pertanyaan. Biasanya pertanyaan-

pertanyaan yang terdapat pada bagian ini didistribusikan ke dalam 3 talks/lectures.
Alokasi waktu yang diberikan untuk mengerjakan sesi Listening Comprehension ini
adalah sekitar 35 menit. Selain itu, kita juga hanya memiliki waktu sekitar 12 detik
untuk menjawab setiap pertanyaan.
2. Structure and Written Expression

Sesi Structure and Written Expression akan mengukur kemampuan kita dalam mema-
hami kalimat-kalimat dalam bahasa Inggris secara gramatikal. Sesi ini dibagi dalam dua
bagian, yakni melengkapi kalimat rumpang dan mengidentifikasi kata/frasa yang
salah dalam kalimat.
Bagian melengkapi kalimat rumpang terdiri dari 15 pertanyaan. Dan sisanya, 35 per-
tanyaan, terdapat dalam bagian mengidentifikasi kata/frasa yang salah. Sehingga jum-
lah pertanyaan dalam sesi Structure and Written Expression berjumlah 40.
Alokasi waktu yang diberikan untuk mengerjakan sesi Structure and Written Expres-
sion adalah 25 menit. Ini berarti, kita hanya memiliki waktu 37,5 detik untuk setiap per-
tanyaan.
3. Reading Comprehension
Sesi Reading Comprehension akan mengukur kemampuan kita mengenai sejauh
mana kita dapat memahami bacaan yang akademis dalam bahasa Inggris. Sesi ini
tidak terdapat pembagian seperti halnya pada sesi-sesi sebelumnya. Akan tetapi,
pada sesi ini terdapat kurang lebih lima bacaan yang masing-masing disertai dengan
beberapa pertanyaan.
Jumlah pertanyaan pada sesi Reading Comprehension adalah 50 pertanyaan. Jadi, se-
tiap satu bacaan terdapat kurang lebih 10 pertanyaan yang mengikuti.
Alokasi waktu yang diberikan untuk menjawab seluruh pertanyaan dalam sesi ini
adalah 55 menit. Maka, kita memiliki waktu sekitar 1 menit 6 detik untuk
menjawab setiap pertanyaan.
D. Kegunaan Tes TOEFL®

Tes TOEFL® memiliki banyak kegunaan. Berikut ini beberapa kegunaan dari tes TOEFL®.
1. Untuk mengetahui tingkat proficiency bahasa Inggris seseorang.
2. Sebagai salah satu persyaratan untuk melengkapi persyaratan administrasi untuk melan-
jutkan kuliah atau melamar pekerjaan.
3. Jika kita memiliki skor TOEFL® yang baik (>550), kita akan merasa nyaman untuk beper-
gian ke banyak negara.
E. Penilaian dalam Tes TOEFL®

Penilaian dalam tes TOEFL® memiliki ciri khas tersendiri. Tabel berikut ini menunjukkan pe-
nilaian dalam tes TOEFL®.
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Konversi Nilai Konversi Nilai Konversi Nilai

Jumlah Jawaban Listening Structure and Reading
Benar Comprehension Written Expression Comprehension
I II III
50 68 - 67
49 67 - 66
48 66 - 65
47 65 - 63
46 63 - 61
45 62 - 60
44 61 - 59
43 60 - 58
42 59 - 57
41 58 - 56
40 57 68 55
39 57 67 54
38 56 65 54
37 55 63 53
36 54 61 52
35 54 60 52
34 53 58 51
33 52 57 50
32 52 56 49
31 51 55 48
30 51 54 48
29 50 53 47
28 49 52 46
27 49 51 46
26 48 50 45
25 48 49 44
24 47 48 43
23 47 47 43
22 46 46 42
21 45 45 41
20 45 44 40
19 44 43 39
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18 43 42 38
17 42 41 37
16 41 40 36
15 41 40 35
14 39 38 34
13 38 37 32
12 37 36 31
11 35 35 30
10 33 33 29
9 32 31 28
8 32 29 28
7 31 27 27
6 30 26 26
5 29 25 25
4 28 23 24
3 27 22 23
2 26 21 23
1 25 20 22
0 24 20 21
Bagaimanakah cara menggunakan tabel di atas?

Sebagai contoh, kita mendapatkan jawaban benar pada sesi Listening comprehension adalah 30, 28
jawaban benar pada sesi Structure and Written Expression, dan 43 jawaban benar untuk sesi
Reading Comprehension. Konversi nilai dari 30 jawaban benar pada sesi I adalah 51. Konversi
nilai dari 28 jawaban benar pada sesi II adalah 52. Konversi nilai dari 43 jawaban yang benar pada
sesi III adalah
58. Perhatikan tabel berikut ini.
Sesi I Sesi II Sesi III

Jumlah jawaban benar 30 28 43
Konversi nilai 51 52 58
Berikut ini adalah cara penghitungannya.

1. Semua nilai yang sudah dikonversi dijumlahkan. 51 + 52 + 58 = 161
2. Hasil penjumlahan dibagi 3. 161 / 3 = 53.7
3. Hasil pembagian dikali 10. 53.7 x 10 =
537 Hasil skor keseluruhan TOEFL® pada contoh di atas adalah
537.
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SECTION 1: LISTENING COMPREHENSION
Time - approximately 35 minutes (including the reading of the directions for each
part)
In the Listening Comprehension section of the TOEFL test, you will have an opportunity
to demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks in English. Answer all
the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers you hear. Do not
take notes or write in your book at any time. Do not turn the pages until you are told to do
so.
Part A
Directions: In Part A you will hear short conversations between two people. After
each conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversations
and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible
answers in your book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the
number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer
you have chosen.
Now, we will begin with Part A. 4. (Listening)
1. (Listening) (A) He was so surprised there were
(A) He is selfish. eight skirts.
(B) He does not sell fish. (B) It was an unexpectedly
(C) David is selfish. inexpensive skirt.
(D) What David said was unjust. (C) He wants to know the price
of the skirt.
2. (Listening) (D) The skirt was not cheap.
(A) She thinks it’s better than
the others. 5. (Listening)
(B) The two other books are better. (A) The man should give an
(C) It resembles the last one. assignment to her this week.
(D) It’s the best book ever. (B) The woman will help the man
with the assignments this week.
3. (Listening) (C) The man needs to study
(A) He graduated last in his class. harder to complete the
(B) He is the last person to assignments.
graduate. (D) The man will not do
(C) He believes that he is gradually the assignments this
improving. week.
(D) He has finally finished his
studies. 6. (Listening)
(A) He does not like to hold the CD.
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(B) There is no store in his town.
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(C) It’s not possible to obtain the

12. (Listening)
CD yet.
(A) She doesn’t have time to
(D) He needs to talk to the
complete additional reports.
shopkeeper.
(B) She has finished doing
the reports she’s working
7. (Listening)
on.
(A) It was incomplete. (C) She doesn’t have responsibility.
(B) It was finished on time. (D) It’s not time to do the
(C) It was not ending. field report.
(D) It was too long.
13. (Listening)
8. (Listening) (A) He will fix the computer later.
(A) She needs to use the (B) He’s had enough computers
man’s notes. at home..
(B) The chemistry class yesterday (C) He’s going to stay for quite
was boring. some time.
(C) She took some notes in (D) He will not continue trying to
the class. repair the computer.
(D) She will let the man borrow her
notes. 14. (Listening)
(A) He cannot see the
9. (Listening) big mountain.
(A) It’s the man’s birthday today. (B) The mountain is not huge.
(B) She’s looking for a birthday (C) He would like the woman
present. to repeat what she said.
(C) She will go shopping with (D) He agrees with the woman.
her sister.
(D) She’s going to buy a new pair 15. (Listening)
of shoes for herself.
(A) The exam was postponed.
(B) The man should have
10. (Listening)
studied harder.
(A) He likes cold water. (C) Night is the best time for
(B) His toes are big. studying when there is an
(C) He doesn’t like the beach. exam.
(D) He did not enjoy the water. (D) She is completely ready for the
exam.
11. (Listening)
(A) She just left her uncle’s house. 16. (Listening)
(B) She knows where her scarf is. (A) The woman must turn around.
(C) Her uncle is at home. (B) Problems will occur if the
(D) She is not sure where her scarf woman turns.
is.
(C) The project report must be
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handed in
immediately
.
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(D) The project report shouldn’t be

(D) Asking the doctor to meet
turned in.
the woman.
17. (Listening)
22. (Listening)
(A) In a garden.
(A) It’s almost six o’clock.
(B) In a field.
(B) The man doesn’t really need
(C) In a grocery.
the pens.
(D) In a pharmacy.
(C) It’s a long way to the stationary
shop.
18. (Listening)
(D) It would be better to go after
(A) A visit to the man’s house.
six o’clock.
(B) The man’s name is Bill.
(C) The high electricity cost.
23. (Listening)
(D) The bill of the new electronic
(A) The book was placed on reserve.
tools.
(B) The woman must ask
the professor for a copy.
19. (Listening)
(C) The woman should search
(A) She hasn’t met her new
for the book herself.
secretary yet.
(D) He has reservations about the
(B) She has a good opinion of
book.
her secretary.
(C) Her secretary asked her about
24. (Listening)
her impression of the
(A) He needs to take a holiday.
company.
(B) He hopes the woman will
(D) She has been putting to
help him to be more relaxed.
much push on her secretary.
(C) The woman just phoned him.
(D) He is extremely relaxed.
20. (Listening)
(A) The performance starts in two
25. (Listening)
hours.
(A) She doesn’t think what Sarah
(B) He intends to do
said is false.
two performances.
(B) She has never before told the
(C) He will perform on the third of
man about it.
the month.
(C) She trusts Sarah.
(D) He thinks that the performance
(D) She shares the man’s
begins at three.
opinion about what Sarah
said.
21. (Listening)
(A) Choose a new doctor.
26. (Listening)
(B) Cure the pain himself.
(A) The department will offer a
(C) Make an appointment with
new dean next week.
his doctor.
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(B) The new dean has not

(B) She thinks she did a good
yet decided.
job on the exam.
(C) The department is looking
(C) She has not yet taken the
for air.
history exam.
(D) The man likes to discuss
(D) She’s unhappy with how
about the new dean.
she did.
27. (Listening)
29. (Listening)
(A) He doesn’t believe that it
(A) The door was unlocked.
is raining hard.
(B) It is better to wait outside.
(B) The hard rain had
(C) He couldn’t open the door.
been predicted.
(D) He needed to have a walk.
(C) The exact amount of hard rain
is unclear.
30. (Listening)
(D) He expected the woman to
(A) He nailed the wall.
go out in the rain.
(B) He is heading to the library.
(C) He is absolutely correct.
28. (Listening)
(D) He has some nails.
(A) She’s going to take the test over
again.
Part B
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversation. After each
conversation, you will hear several questions. The conversations and questions will not
be repeated.
After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and
choose the best answer. Then blacken the space of the answer you have chosen.
31. (Listening)
32. (Listening)
(A) Because he has much money.
(A) It’s brand new.
(B) Because he can repair the old
(B) It’s a second hand one.
one.
(C) It has bad quality.
(C) Because the old computer
(D) It’s difficult.
was broken.
(D) Because he wanted to
33. (Listening)
have more computers.
(A) It’s good.
(B) It’s bad.
(C) It’s cheap.
(D) It’s better than brand new
computers.
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Part C
34. (Listening) Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear sev
(A) He felt happy. After you hear a question, read the four possible answ
(B) He felt that it was easy for
him to choose a computer.
(C) He was confused.
(D) He was not amazed.
35. (Listening)
(A) She ate in the canteen.
(B) She met her best friend in the
canteen
(C) She phoned Sarah and had 39. (Listening)
a long chat.
(A) 25 km2
(D) She spent fifteen minutes in the
(B) 250 km2
canteen.
(C) 1 km2
(D) 26 km2
36. (Listening)
(A) Sarah is unkind.
40. (Listening)
(B) Sarah rarely gives suggestions.
(A) Indonesian architecture
(C) Sarah makes her calm.
collection.
(D) Sarah is not busy.
(B) Indonesian clothing collection.
(C) Indonesian dances and
37. (Listening)
traditions.
(A) Sarah is kind. (D) Indonesian paintings.
(B) Sarah is the woman’s best
friend.
41. (Listening)
(C) The woman is a student.
(A) TMII has a swimming pool.
(D) Both women can be met easily.
(B) TMII is one of the most
popular tourist destinations.
38. (Listening)
(C) There are many miniatures in
(A) Because Sarah doesn’t want to.
TMII.
(B) Because Sarah is meeting her
(D) There is a theatre in TMII.
supervisor.
(C) Because Sarah works
42. (Listening)
on weekends.
(A) Have lunch.
(D) Because Sarah preferred talking
(B) Buy tickets for the tour.
on the phone.
(C) Have a tour.
(D) Finish the tour.
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43. (Listening)
47. (Listening)
(A) It’s about the life of
(A) Astronomer
Habibie’s family.
(B) Astronomy
(B) It’s about Habibie’s career.
(C) Galaxy
(C) It’s about the decription of
(D) Universe
Habibie.
(D) It’s about the life of Habibie.
48. (Listening)
(A) It’s the sun only.
44. (Listening)
(B) It’s the planets and the stars.
(A) He became the president of
(C) It’s the stars only.
Indonesia in 1998.
(D) It’s the Sun and the objects
(B) He married a woman
that orbit the Sun.
from Yogyakarta.
(C) He studied in Germany.
49. (Listening)
(D) He had a son in 1960.
(A) 46 million years ago
(B) 4.6 million years ago.
45. (Listening)
(C) 46 billion years ago.
(A) Habibie got his doctoral
(D) 4.6 billion years ago.
degree in Indonesia.
(B) Habibie only became a vice
50. (Listening)
president.
(A) They are all of the planets.
(C) Habibie moved to Germany
(B) They are the small planets.
in 1960.
(C) They are the four small planets
(D) Habibie married the daughter
closest to the sun.
of R. Mohamad Besari.
(D) The biggest planet.
46. (Listening)
— This is the end of the Listening Section
(A) Because he got ill.
—
(B) Because he got married.
(C) Because he had a son.
(D) Because he has finished
his study.
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SECTION2: STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
STRUCTURE
Asia that are commonly viewed as
becoming part of the world war
1. , the inventor
had begun earlier than 1939.
of light bulb, was one of the
(A) the 1939
first invetors to apply the
(B) between 1939
principles.
(C) in between 1939
(A) It is Thomas Alva Edison
(D) in the between 1939
(B) Thomas Alva Edison
(C) Thomas Alva Edison is
6. Conditions required to be
(D) Thomas Alva Edison is famous
accepted in reputable international
universities include good mastery
2. Elizabeth in Pride and Prejudice
of the field of study, good mastery
and Elinor Dashwood in Sense
of English, and .
and Sensibility of Jane
(A) the confidence must be high.
Austen’s famous characters.
(B) having high confidence.
(A) they are two
(C) high confidence.
(B) two of them are
(D) highly confident.
(C) two of them
(D) are two
7. When the earth, sun and moon

3. Barack Obama has not one
are lined up in a row, .
two children.
(A) spring tides are formed.
(A) and also
(B) forming spring tides.
(B) but
(C) the forming of spring tides.
(C) and there are
(D) to form spring tides.
(D) but there are
8. Some people of money.

4. During the Indonesian
(A) have a limited number
Independence, the Indonesian
(B) have a limited amount
society was happy, and the
(C) having a limited number
new government .
(D) having a limited amount
(A) was formed
(B) was to from
9. In the presidential election in
(C) is forming
Indonesia, the government invites
(D) forming
the society to determine who
by voting.
5. World War II is generally considered
(A) should the president be
to have happened and
(B) the president being
1945, although some conflicts in
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(C) the president should be
(C) does the sun
(D) it should be the president
(D) is the sun
10. Electricity can be produced by

15. J.K. Rowling wrote many amazing
or combs.
novels famous
(A) rulers are rubbed
worldwide.
(B) rubbing rulers
(A) that are became
(C) to rub rulers
(B) that became
(D) rulers rubbing
(C) what became
(D) what had became
11. Orville Wright and Wilbur Wright,
of the world’s first
successful airplane, were both born WRITTEN EXPRESSION
in Dayton.
(A) they were inventing 16. Thunder happen because of the
(B) were inventors A B
(C) invented vibration resulting from lightening
(D) the inventors C D
when it strikes.
12. The particles in an atom
a neutral charge are called 17. A atom consists of a dense
neutrons. central A B
(A) having nucleus surrounded by a cloud of
(B) is having
(C) it is having negatively charged electrons.
(D) which having
C D
13. Glaciers are made up of
that, over many years, compresses 18. Most heart attacks involves
into large, thickened ice masses. discom- A B C
(A) the snow is falling fort in the center or left side of the
(B) snow is falling D
(C) fallen snow chest.
(D) snow fallen
19. When the general price level rises,
14. Not only provide energy A
that maintains many things on each unit of currency buys fewer
earth, but it also provides sunlight B C
which is important for vitamin D goods as well services.
production. D
(A) The sun
(B) It is the sun that
15
20. The cerebral hemispheres, the ce- black patches around it eyes, over
A B C
rebrum, form the largest part of the the ears, and across its round body.
B D
human brain and are situated
C 25. The outer space has effectively
above other brain structure. A
D no friction, allowing stars, plan
B
21. Borobudur is the world’s largest ets and moons to move free
A C
Buddhist temple, as well as one of along their ideal orbits.
B D
the great Buddhist monuments
in C D 26. Port Jackson is known for its
the world. A
beauty, and in particular, as the
B
22. Although George Washington lost location of the Sydney Opera
A B
many of his battles, he never surren House and Sydney Harbor Bridge
dered his army during the war, which connect central Sydney
C
and with the Northern Suburbs region
he continued to fighting the British metropolitan area.

C D
relentlessly until the war ended.
D 27. A stiil camera is an optically device
A
23. Uluru is notable for appear to which creates a single image of an
A
change color at different times of object or scene, and records it on
B C an B C
the day and year, most notably electronic sensor or photographic
D
glowing red at dawn and sunset. film.
D
28. Different species of bats selecting
24. The giant panda is easily recog- A B
A different habitats during different
nized by the large, distinctive C
16
seasons, ranging from mountains 33. Born in Stratford-upon-Avon, Wil
A
and even deserts. liam Shakespeare produces most of
D B
his known work between 1589 and
29. Managing the balance between rec C D
A 1613.
reational, commercial, and industry
B
uses has been a challenge for the 34. Hail consists of balls or irregular
C A B
stewards of the Niagara falls since lumps of ice, they of which is called
D C D
the 19th century. a hailstone.
35. Orchidaceae is a diverse and wide-

30. Captain James Cook reached the A
spread family of flowering plants
south-eastern coast of Australia on
A with blooms that are often colorful
19 April 1770, and in doing so his B
B and often fragrant, commonly
expedition became the first record C
C known as the orchid family.
Europeans to have encountered its D
D
eastern coastline. 36. Many newspapers, besides employ-
A
31. Roald Dahl rose to prominence in ing journalists on its own payrolls,
A B
the 1940s with works for both chil- also subscribe to news agencies.
B C D
dren and adults and became one of
C 37. The term cartoon originated in the
the world’s best-selling author. A
D Middle Ages and first describe a
B
32. Unlikely other birds in this world, preparatory drawing for a piece of
A B C
penguins cannot fly. art, such as a painting, fresco, tapes
D C
17
try, or stained glass window.
40. The bicycle’s invention has had
D
A
an enormous effects on society,
38. The successful completing of the
B C
A
both in terms of culture and of
Suramadu bridge has encouraged
B
advancing modern industrial
interest in the possibility of con-
D
methods.
structing a much larger Sunda Strait
C
Bridge across the Sunda Strait at the
D
western end of Java.
39. Bill Clinton presided over the longer

A
period of peacetime economic
B
expansion in American history, and
C
signed into law the North American
D
Free Trade Agreement.
18
SECTION 3: READING COMPREHENSION
Questions 1-10
Line The platypus (Ornithorhynchus anatinus) is a semiaquatic mammal endemic to

eastern Australia, including Tasmania. Together with the four species of echidna, it is
one of the five extant species of monotremes, the only mammals that lay eggs
instead of giving birth. It is the sole living representative of its family
5 (Ornithorhynchidae), and genus (Ornithorhynchus), though a number of related species
have been found in the fossil record. The unusual appearance of this egg-laying, duck-
billed, beaver-tailed, otter-footed mammal baffled European naturalists when
they first encountered it, with some considering it an elaborate fraud. It is one of
the few venomous mammals, the male platypus having a spur on the hind foot that
10 delivers venom capable of causing severe pain to humans. The unique features of
the platypus make it an important subject in the study of evolutionary biology and a
recognizable and iconic symbol of AVTUSBMJB; it has appeared as a mascot at national
events and is featured on the reverse of its 20-cent coin.
The platypus is the animal emblem of the state of New South Wales.
15 Until the early 20th century, it was hunted for its fur, but it is now
protected throughout its range. Although captive breeding programs have had
only limited success and the platypus is vulnerable to the effects of pollution, it
is not under any immediate threat.
(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Platypus)
Australia
1. The topic of this passage is
(A) the general information of
platypus
(B) the features of platypus
(C) the unusual appearance
of platypus
(D) the platypus in this world
2. It can be inferred from the passage

that
(A) the platypus is not a mammal
(B) the platypus does not lay eggs
(C) the platypus can be
dangerous for human being
(D) the platypus does rarely lives in
19
3. The possessive its in line 4 refers to
(A) platypus
(B) species
(C) mammal
(D) representative
4. It can be inferred
from the passage
that
(A) the platypus gives birth
(B) the platypus
is not famous
in Australia
(C) the platypus is
not hunted for
its fur today
(D) there are still
many
platypus
living in
Australia
20
5. The word ‘features’ in line 10 is
closest in meaning to 8. The passage states that
(A) descriptions (A) the female platypus can
(B) characteristics produce venom
(B) the male platypus can
(C) explanations
produce venom
(D) characters
(C) all platypus can produce venom
(D) all platypus are poisonous
6. According to the passage, what is
NOT the unusual appearance of
9. The passage states that the
the platypus?
platypus does not
(A) egg-laying
(A) Live in Tasmania
(B) duck-billed
(B) Give birth
(C) small-tailed
(C) Have poison
(D) otter-footed
(D) Have flat tails
7. The word ‘emblem’ in line 13
10. The word ‘immediate’ in line 17
is closest in meaning to
is the closest in meaning to
(A) picture
(A) direct
(B) drawing
(B) sudden
(C) meaning
(C) fast
(D) symbol
(D) quick
Line The Wright brothers, Orville (August 19, 1871 – January 30, 1948) and Wilbur
(April 16, 1867 – May 30, 1912), were two American brothers, inventors, and aviation
pioneers who were credited with inventing and building the world’s first successful
airplane and making the first controlled, powered and sustained heavier-than-
5 air human flight, on December 17, 1903. From 1905 to 1907, the brothers
developed their flying machine into the first practical fixed-wing aircraft. Although
not the first to build and fly experimental aircraft, the Wright brothers were the
first to invent aircraft controls that made fixed-wing powered flight possible.
The brothers’ fundamental breakthrough was their invention of three-axis
10 control, which enabled the pilot to steer the aircraft effectively and to maintain its
equilibrium. This method became standard and remains standard on fixed-wing
aircraft of all kinds. From the beginning of their aeronautical work, the Wright
brothers focused on developing a reliable method of pilot control as the key to
solving “the flying problem”. This approach differed significantly from other
15 experimenters of the time who put more emphasis on developing powerful
engines. Using a small homebuilt wind tunnel, the Wrights also collected more
accurate data than any before, enabling them to design and build wings and
propellers that were more efficient than any before. Their first U.S. patent,
1
8
2
1
,
3
9
3
,
d
i
d
n
o
t
c
l
a
i
m
i
n
v
e
n
t
i
o
n
o
f
0
a flying machine, but rather, the invention of a system of aerodynamic control that
20 manipulated a flying machine’s surfaces.
They gained the mechanical skills essential for their success by working for years
in their shop with printing presses, bicycles, motors, and other machinery. Their work
with bicycles in particular influenced their belief that an unstable vehicle like a flying
machine could be controlled and balanced with practice. From 1900 until their
first
25 powered flights in late 1903, they conducted extensive glider tests that also developed
their skills as pilots. Their bicycle shop employee Charlie Taylo became an important
part of the team, building their first airplane engine in close collaboration with
the brothers.
The Wright brothers’status as inventors of the airplane has been subject to counter-
30 claims by various parties. Much controversy persists over the many competing claims
of early aviators.
(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wright_brothers)
11. The passage is mainly about solve the flying problem.

(A) the life of the Wright brothers
(B) the history of airplane
(C) the inventions of the
Wright brothers
(D) the description of the Wright
Brothers
12. The word ‘credited’ in line 3

(A) Honored
(B) Skilled
(C) Determined
(D) Decided
13. In the second paragraph, the author

mainly discusses
(A) the three-axis control invented
by the Wright brothers
(B) how the Wright brothers
invented fixed-wing
aircrafts.
(C) how the Wright brothers
1
(D) the
invention of
a system of
aerodynamic
control by
the Wright
brothers
14. The word ‘remains’

in line 11 is closest
in meaning to
(A) saves
(B) gives
(C) stays
(D) brings
15. The word ‘any’ in line 16 refers to

(A) the Wright brothers
(B) other experimenters
(C) powerful engines
(D) accurate data
16. The passage states that

(A) the Wright
brothers did
not make the
first practical
fixed- wing
aircraft in
their life
(B) the Wright
brothers did not
invent the three-
axis control at all
0
(C) the Wright brothers collected
more accurate data using a (C) The three-axis control method
small homebuilt wind tunnel became standard on fixed-
(D) the Wright brothers’ first wing aircraft of all kinds.
U.S. patent was not the (D) The Wright brothers’ status
invention of a system of as inventors of the airplane
aerodynamic control that has been credited by all
manipulated a flying parties
machine’s surfaces.
19. The word ‘their’ in line 26 refers to
17. The word ‘essential’ in line 21 (A) the Wrights
is closest in meaning to (B) pilots
(A) good (C) employee
(B) useful (D) Charlie Taylor
(C) available
(D) important 20. According to the passage, it
is concluded that
18. The following statements are true (A) The Wrights had a shop
according to the passage (B) The Wrights worked with
EXCEPT bicycles
(A) The Wright brothers are real (C) The Wrights contributed
siblings much to the invention of
(B) The Wrights invented aircraft airplanes
controls that made fixed-wing (D) The Wrights could fly airplanes
powered flight possible
3
Line Insomnia, or sleeplessness, is a sleep disorder in which there is an inability to
fall asleep or to stay asleep as long as desired. While the term is sometimes
used to describe a disorder demonstrated by polysomnographic evidence of
disturbed sleep, this sleep disorder is often practically defined as a positive
response to either
5 of two questions: “Do you experience difficulty sleeping?” or “Do you have difficulty
falling or staying asleep?”
Insomnia is most often thought of as both a medical sign and a symptom
that can accompany several sleeps, medical, and psychiatric disorders
characterized by a persistent difficulty falling asleep and/or staying asleep or
sleep of poor quality.
10 Insomnia is typically followed by functional impairment while awake. Insomnia
can occur at any age, but it is particularly common in the elderly. Insomnia can be
short term (up to three weeks) or long term (above 3–4 weeks), which can lead
to memory problems, depression, irritability and an increased risk of heart disease
and automobile related accidents.
15 Those who are having trouble sleeping sometimes turn to sleeping pills,
which can help when used occasionally but may lead to substance dependence
2
Insomnia can be grouped into primary and secondary, or comorbid,
insomnia. Primary insomnia is a sleep disorder, not attributable to a medical,
psychiatric, or
20 environmental cause. It is described as a complaint of prolonged sleep onset latency,
disturbance of sleep maintenance, or the experience of non-refreshing sleep. A
complete diagnosis will differentiate between free-standing primary insomnia,
insomnia as secondary to another condition, and primary insomnia co-morbid with
one or more conditions.
(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Insomnia)
21. What is the author’s main point in treat Insomnia?

the passage?
(A) See the doctor
(A) Another name of insomnia
(B) Do jogging
(B) The poor quality of sleep
(C) Drink sleeping medicine
(C) The general idea of sleepless-
(D) Eat much
ness
(D) The disadvantages of
26. The word ‘dependence’ in line
sleep disorder
16 has similar meaning with
(A) Addiction
22. The word “demonstrated” in line
(B) Existence
3 can be best replaced by ....
(C) Addition
(A) Showed
(D) Usage
(B) Argued
(C) Demoed
27. It is stated in the passage that
(D) Suggested
Insomnia
(A) can be occurred only to elderly
23. Who can get Insomnia?
people.
(A) Children
(B) is waking up problem.
(B) Elderly people
(C) can cause memory problem.
(C) Teenager
(D) can be treated by only
(D) All of the people
consuming sleeping pills.
24. What is NOT the problem caused 28. The word “grouped” in line 18
by Insomnia? is closest in meaning to
(A) Depression (A) classified
(B) Headache (B) formed
(C) Irritability (C) listed
(D) Heart disease (D) ranked
25. What is the simple solution which

29. Which of the following is NOT true
is usually conducted by the people about the passage?
to
3
(A) Sleep disorder is the other
name of Insomnia. 30. Where in the passage does the
(B) Insomnia can lead people author mention about the
to have physical definition of Insomnia?
impairment. (A) Line 1 and 2
(C) Consuming sleeping pills (B) Line 6 and 7
doesn’t cause addiction. (C) Line 13 and 14
(D) Insomnia can be grouped (D) Line 19 and 20
into two categories.
Questions 31-40
Line The Arecaceae are a botanical family of perennial lianas, shrubs, and trees
commonly known as palm trees. (Due to historical usage, the family is
alternatively called Palmae or Palmaceae.) They are flowering plants, the only
family in the monocot order Arecales. Roughly 202 gener with around 2600
5 species are currently known, most of them restricted to tropical, subtropical,
and warm temperate climates. Most palms are distinguished by their large,
compound, evergreen leaves arranged at the top of an unbranched stem.
However, many palms are exceptions, and in fact exhibit an enormous
diversity in physical characteristics. As well as being morphologically diverse,
10 palms also inhabit nearly every type of habitat within their range, from
rainforests to deserts.
Most palms grow in the tropics. They are abundant throughout the tropics,
and thrive in almost every habitat therein. Their diversity is highest in wet,
lowland tropical forests, especially in ecological “hotspots” such as
15 Madagascars, which has more endemic palms than all of Africa. Colombia may
have the highest number of palm species in one country. Palms are most
commonly seen throughout Africa, South America, Mexico, and areas of the
United States such as North Carolina, Texas, Florida, Arizona, California,
Georgia, Louisiana, Alabama, Mississippi, South Carolina, Puerto Rico, and Hawaii.
20 Palms are among the best known and most extensively cultivated plant
families. They have been important to humans throughout much of history.
Many common products and foods are derived from palms, and palms are also
widely used in landscaping for their exotic appearance, making them one of
the most economically important plants. In many historical cultures, palms
25 were symbols for such ideas as victory, peace, and fertility. Today, they remain a
popular symbol for the tropics and vacations.
(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Arecaceae)
31. The best title for this passage
36. The word ‘extensively’ in line 19
would be is closest in meaning to
(A) Palm trees
(A) large
(B) Types of palm tress
(C) larger
(C) Palm trees in rainforests and
(B) largely
desserts
(D) largest
(D) The importance of palm trees
37. The word ‘they’ in line 24 refers to
32. The word ‘currently’ in line 4
(A) palms
(C) peace
(A) new
(B) victory
(C) now
(D) symbols
(B) present
(D) then
38. The word ‘appearance’ in line 22
33. The expression ‘distinguished by’ in
(A) character
line 6 could be replaced by
(C) scene
(A) Seen by
(B) look
(C) Lost by
(D) scenery
(B) Covered by
(D) Closed by
39. Which of the following is NOT
true about the cultural symbols of
34. It can be inferred from the passage
palms?
that
(A) They are symbols for victory
(A) Most of the leaves of palms are
(B) They are symbols for peace
not green.
(C) They are symbols for fertility
(B) Rarely do palms have
(D) They are symbols for health
compound leaves.
(C) Most palm trees can live in
40. From the passage, it can be inferred
tropical areas.
that
(D) All palms live in Cambodia.
(A) Palms are not useful
(B) Palms do not live in
35. According to the passage,
subtropical areas
palms live in these countries
(C) There are not many kinds of
EXCEPT
palms
(A) Mexico
(D) Palms are cultivated
(D) South Africa
(B) Florida
(E) Arctic
(C) Arizona
5
Questions 41-50
Line The United Nations (UN) is an intergovernmental organization established on
24 October 1945 to promote international co-operation. A replacement for the
ineffective League of Nations, the organization was created following the Second
World War to prevent another such conflict. At its founding, the UN had 51 NFNCFS
5 TUBUFT; there are now 193. The UN Headquarters resides in international territory
in New York City, with further main offices in Geneva, Nairobi, and Vienna. The
organization is financed by assessed and voluntary contributions from its member
states. Its objectives include maintaining international peace and security,
promoting human rights, fostering social and economic development, protecting
10 the environment, and providing humanitarian aid in cases of famine, natural
disaster, and armed conflict.
During the Second World War, US President Franklin D. Roosevelt initiated talks
on a successor agency to the League of Nations, and the United Nations Charter
was drafted at a conference JO AQSJM–+VOF 1945; UIJT DIBSUFS UPPL FffFDU PO 24
15 0DUPCFS 1945, BOE UIF
UN began operation. The UN’s mission to preserve world peace was complicated in
its early decades by the Cold War between the US and Soviet Union and their
respective allies. The organization participated in major actions in Korea and the
Congo, as well as approving the creation of the state of Israel in 1947. The
20 organization’s membership grew significantly following widespread decolonization
in the 1960s, and by the 1970s its budget for economic and social development
programs far outstripped its spending on peacekeeping. After the end of the Cold
War, the UN took on major military and peacekeeping missions across the world
with varying degrees of success.
25 The UN has six principal organs: the General Assembly (the main deliberative
BTTFNCMZ); UIF Security Council (for deciding certain resolutions for peace and
TFDVSJUZ); UIF Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) (for promoting international
FDPOPNJD BOE TPDJBM DP-PQFSBUJPO BOE EFWFMPQNFOU); UIF Secretariat (for providing
TUVEJFT, JOGPSNBUJPO, BOE GBDJMJUJFT OFFEFE CZ UIF 6/); UIF International Court of
30 Justice (UIF QSJNBSZ jVEJDJBM PSHBO); BOE UIF United Nations Trusteeship Council
(inactive since 1994). UN System agencies include the World Bank Group, the World
Health Organization, the World Food Programme, UNESCO, and UNICEF. The
UN’s most prominent officer is the Secretary-General, an office held by South
Korean Ban Ki-moon since 2007. Non-governmental organizations may be granted
35 consultative status with ECOSOC and other agencies to participate in the UN’s
work.
The organization won the Nobel Peace Prize in 2001, and a number of its
officers and agencies have also been awarded the prize. Other evaluations of
the UN’s effectiveness have been mixed. Some commentators believe the
organization to be an important force for peace and human development, while
others have called the organization ineffective, corrupt, or biased.
6
(
en.wikipedia.org/
wiki/
United_Nations
7
41. The passage is mainly about 46. Below are the principals organs
(A) The history of UN that are still active now of UN
(B) The story of UN EXCEPT
(C) The general description of UN (A) General Assembly
(D) The UN organization principals (B) Security Council
(C) Economic and Social
42. According to the passage Council (ECOSOC)
(A) UN did not replace (D) United Nations Trusteeship
League Nations Council
(B) UN first had more
than members 51 47. The word ‘prominent’ in line 30
members is closest in meaning to
(C) One of UN’s job is to prevent (A) large
conflicts (B) famous
(D) The UN office is only in New (C) well
York. (D) fond
43. These are the aims of UN EXCEPT 48. Where in the passage does the
(A) Maintaining international author describe about UN
peace and security System agencies?
(B) Promoting human rights (A) Line 20-24
(C) Fostering social and (B) Line 24-26
economic development (C) Line 28-32
(D) Destructing the environment
(D) Line 33-34
44. The word ‘its’ in line 14 refers to

49. The word ‘granted’ in line 31 can
(A) United Nations Charter be best replaced by the word
(B) Conference (A) bought
(C) Operation (B) brought
(D) UN’s (C) given
(D) appeared
45. The word ‘major’ in line 16 is
closest in meaning to 50. The paragraph following the
(A) basic passage most likely
(B) big discusses
(C) base (A) The next UN leaders
(D) many (B) The good status of UN
(C) The effectiveness of UN
(D) The ineffectiveness of UN
8
ANSWER KEY AND DISCUSSION
LISTENING COMPREHENSION
PART A
1. (woman) : David said that you were rather selfish.
(man) : It’s unfair of him to say that about me.
(narrator) : What does the man mean?
JAWABAN: D
What David said was unjust.
2. (man) : I don’t think this book is very good.

(woman) : It’s better than the other two, isn’t it?
(narrator) : What does the woman say about the
book? JAWABAN: A
She thinks it’s better than the others.
3. (woman) : Your graduation ceremony is two days

again. (man) : I can’t believe it. I’ve graduated at last!
JAWABAN: D
He has finally finished his studies.
4. (woman) : I got this skirt for only eight dollars!

(man) : Eight dollars! How did you get it so cheap?
JAWABAN: B
It was an unexpectedly inexpensive skirt.
5. (man) : I just got a new assignment again this afternoon.

(woman) : You need to work harder this week.
(narrator) : What does the woman mean?
JAWABAN: C
The man needs to study harder to complete the assignments.
6. (woman) : Were you able to get a hold of the CD that you wanted?
(man) : I couldn’t. At the store, they told me that it wasn’t available yet.
JAWABAN: C
It’s not possible to obtain the CD yet.
9
7. (woman) : Professor’s Ann lecture went on and on for quite some time.
(man) : I thought she was never going to end the class.
(narrator) : What does the man imply about the lecture?
JAWABAN: D
It was too long.
8. (man) : Do you have the notes from yesterday’s chemistry class?

(woman) : No, I don’t. Do you think I could borrow yours?
JAWABAN: A
She needs to use the man’s notes.
9. (man) : You said you wanted to go shopping this afternoon. What do you want to get?
(woman) : I think I’d like to get my sister a new pair of shoes for her birthday.

JAWABAN: B
She’s looking for a birthday present.
10. (woman) : You didn’t even go into the water, even for a quick dip at the
beach. (man) : I put my big toe in and decided that the water is too cold
for me. (narrator) : What does the man mean?
JAWABAN: D
He did not enjoy the water.
11. (man) : Do you know where your scarf is?

(woman) : I think I left it at my uncle’s house yesterday.
JAWABAN: B
She knows where her scarf is.
12. (man) : I need you to work on these field reports.

(woman) : But I hardly have time to finish the ones I already have.
(narrator) : What does the woman imply?
JAWABAN: A
She doesn’t have time to complete additional reports.
13. (woman) : How much longer do you think you’re going to work on that broken computer?
(man) : I give up!
JAWABAN: D
He will not continue trying to repair the computer.
1
0
www.syaiflash.com
14. (woman) : Look at that mountain. It’s the highest I’ve ever seen!
(man) : You can say that again.
(narrator) : What does the man
mean? JAWABAN: D
He agrees with the woman.
15. (man) : Are you ready for the geometry exam today? I stayed up all night studying for it.
(woman) : Didn’t you know that the professor put it off until next week?
JAWABAN: A
The exam was postponed.
16. (woman) : I haven’t turned in the project report yet. Do you think that’s a problem?
(man) : You haven’t turned it in yet? It’s absolutely essential that you turn the project
report immediately.
JAWABAN: C
The project report must be handed in immediately.
17. (woman) : I would like some apples, avocados, and grapes please.
(man) : Yes, certainly.
(narrator) : Where does this conversation probably take place?
JAWABAN: C
In a grocery.
18. (woman) : Look at this. You used the electronics too much last month. The bill is higher
than usual.
(man) : I had a lot of paper work to do. That’s why I always turn on the computer all
day long for a couple of weeks.
(narrator) : What are the man and woman probably discussing?
JAWABAN: C
The high electricity cost.
19.(man) : What do you think of your new

secretary? (woman) : I couldn’t be more
impressed with him. (narrator) : What does the
woman mean? JAWABAN: B
She has a good opinion of her secretary.
30
www.syaiflash.com
20. (woman) : Tony, do you know when the performance

starts? (man) : It starts at two o’clock, doesn’t it?
JAWABAN: D
He thinks that the performance begins at three.
21. (woman) : If your headache doesn’t get any better, perhaps you should see the doctor.
(man) : I don’t really want to, but I guess I don’t have much choice.
(narrator) : What will the man probably do next?
JAWABAN: C
Make an appointment with his doctor.
22. (man) : I need to buy some new pens.

(woman) : Then you’d better get to the stationary shop. It closes at six o’clock.
(narrator) : What can be inferred from the conversation?
JAWABAN: A
It’s almost six o’clock.
23. (woman) : Do you know where I can find the book for the exam next
week? (man) : The professor copied it and put it on reserve in the
library. (narrator) : What does the man mean?
JAWABAN: A
The book was placed on reserve.
24. (woman) : I think you should be a little bit relaxed.

(man) : If I were any relaxed, I’d be on my
holidays. (narrator) : What does the man mean?
JAWABAN: D
He is extremely relaxed.
25. (man) : I don’t think what Sarah said is possibly true.

(woman) : Neither do I!.
JAWABAN: D
She shares the man’s opinion about what Sarah said.
26. (woman) : Has the department decided the new dean?

(man) : It’s still up in the air. I think it will be discussed again next week.
JAWABAN: B
The new dean has not yet decided.
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27. (woman) : I can’t believe it! It’s raining hard

today. (man) : It’s wasn’t exactly unexpected.
JAWABAN: B
The hard rain had been predicted.
28. (man) : How do you think you did on the history exam this morning?
(woman) : I really wish I could take it over again.
JAWABAN: D
She’s unhappy with how she did.
29. (woman) : You didn’t have to wait outside. You could’ve just opened the door.
(man) : So the door was not locked!
(narrator) : What had the man assumed?
JAWABAN: C
He couldn’t open the door.
30. (man) : My guess is that you’re leaving the class now and heading straight to the library.
(woman) : You’ve hit the nail on the head!
(narrator) : What does the woman say about the man?
JAWABAN: C
(A) He is absolutely correct.
PART B
Questions 31-34 refer to the following conversation.
(narrator) : Listen to a conversation between a man and a woman about the man’s new com-
puter.
(woman) : Wow! You have a new computer.
(man) : Yes, I bought it yesterday. My old one is broken and I couldn’t do anything about it.
So I decided to buy one. It’s not new actually. It’s a second hand one.
(woman) : Why didn’t you buy a new one? Aren’t new things better?
(man) : Well, I have a lot of expense this semester and I need to take priority. And
probably I’ll only be using this one two semesters again.
(woman) : Well, it’s pretty good actually. Where did you buy it?
(man) : At the electronic center near the post office. There were so many choices there
and I was confused which one to choose. All of them were good.
(woman) : You certainly chose a good one.
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31. Why did the man buy a new computer?

JAWABAN: C
Because the old computer was broken.
32. What is right about his new computer?

JAWABAN: B
It’s a second hand one.
33. What is the woman’s opinion about the new computer?

JAWABAN: A
It’s good.
34. What did the man feel at the shop?

JAWABAN: C
He was confused.
Questions 35-38 refer to the following conversation.

(narrator) : Listen to a conversation between a man and a woman about the woman’s best friend.
(man) : Hi. What took you so long? You’re fifteen minutes late.
(woman) : I’m sorry. I met my best friend at the canteen and we had a chat. It was our first
meeting in two years.
(man) : Is she the one you keep talking to me about?
(woman) : Yes. Well now she lives in California and she came here to visit her supervisor. Mr.
Jones is a lecturer here too you know.
(man) : Oh, I see.
(woman) : She is so nice to me you know. Usually when I have problems, I tell her. Then she’ll
give me advices or suggestions. She always makes me calm. I also always try
to do the same thing to her. Usually we meet in the park or café. But now, we
just talk on the phone. It’s pretty difficult to meet each other now.
(man) : You can meet up with each other on weekends, can’t you?
(woman) : Unfortunately not, she works on weekends. She’s extremely busy.
(man) : Oh, I see.
35. Why was the woman late?

JAWABAN: B
She met her best friend in the canteen
36. How did the woman describe Sarah?

JAWABAN: C
Sarah makes her calm.
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37. What did the man assume?

JAWABAN: D
Both women can be met easily.
38. Why can’t the woman easily meet Sarah?

JAWABAN: C
(A) Because Sarah works on weekends.
PART C
Questions 39-42 refer to the following talk.
(narrator) Listen to a talk by a tour guide in a landmark.
(man) Let me give you a general overview of this beautiful place.
Taman Mini Indonesia Indah (TMII) or “Beautiful Indonesia Miniature Park” (literally
translated) is a culture-based recreational area located in East Jakarta, Indonesia.
It has an area of about 250 acres (1.0 km2). The park is a synopsis of
Indonesian culture, with virtually all aspects of daily life in Indonesia’s 26 (in
1975) provinces encapsulated in separate pavilions with the collections of
Indonesian architecture, clothing, dances and traditions are all depicted
impeccably. Apart from that, there is a lake with a miniature of the archipelago in
the middle of it, cable cars, museums, Keong Emas Imax cinema, a theater called
the Theatre of My Homeland (Theater Tanah Airku) and other recreational
facilities which make TMII one of the most popular tourist destinations in the
city. Since 2007 Taman Mini Indonesia Indah launched new logo with branding
slogan Pesona Indonesia (“Indonesian Charm”).
Okay, that’s enough. Let’s start the tour.
(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Taman_Mini_Indonesia_Indah)
39. What is the area of TMII?

JAWABAN: C
1 km2
40. Which is not available in TMII?

JAWABAN: D
Indonesian paintings
41. Which statement is false according to the talk?

JAWABAN: A
TMII has a swimming pool.
42. What will the participants probably do next?

JAWABAN: C
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(narrator) Listen to a talk by a professor about Habibie.
(woman) Today we will be discussing about a very famous Indonesian former president.
Bacharuddin Jusuf Habibie.
He was born 25 June 1936. He is a former politician of the State of Indonesia.
His presidency (1998–1999) was the third, and the shortest, after
independence. Habibie was born in Parepare, South Sulawesi Province to Alwi
Abdul Jalil Habibie and R. A. Tuti Marini Puspowardojo. His father was an
agriculturist from Gorontalo of Bugis descent and his mother was a Javanese
noblewoman from Yogyakarta. His parents met while studying in Bogor.
Habibie’s father died when he was 14 years old.
Following his father’s death, Habibie continued his studies in Jakarta and then
in 1955 moved to Germany. In 1960, Habibie received a degree in engineering
in Germany, giving him the title Diplom-Ingenieur. He remained in Germany as
a research assistant under Hans Ebner to conduct research for his doctoral degree.
In 1962, Habibie returned to Indonesia for three months on sick leave. During this
time, he was reacquainted with Hasri Ainun, the daughter of R. Mohamad Besari.
Habibie had known Hasri Ainun in childhood, junior high school and in
senior high school at SMA-Kristen, Bandung. The two married on 12 May 1962,
returning to Germany shortly afterwards. Then, in May 1963 they had a son,
Ilham Akbar Habibie.
Okay, that’s only some information about Habibie. I would like all of you to
find more information on his next years of life.
(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/B._J._Habibie)
43. What is the talk about?

JAWABAN: D
It’s about the life of Habibie.
44. The following statements are TRUE according to the talk EXCEPT
JAWABAN: D
He had a son in 1960.
45. From the talk, it is known that

JAWABAN: D
Habibie married the daughter of R. Mohamad Besari.
46. Why did Habibie return to Indonesia in 1962?

JAWABAN: A
Because he got ill.
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(narrator) Listen to a talk by a lecturer about the solar system.
(woman) This poster I have is a poster of the Solar System. Of course you knew that.
Well, the Solar System is the Sun and the objects that orbit the Sun. These are
aplanetary system of eight planets and various secondary bodies, dwarf planets
and small Solar System objects that orbit the Sun directly, as well as satellite
(moons) that orbit many planets and smaller objects. The Solar System formed 4.6
billion years ag. The vast majority of the system’s mass is in the Sun, with most of
the remaining mass contained in Jupiter. The four smaller inner planets,
Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars, also called the terrestrial planets, are primarily
composed of rock and metal. The four outer planets, called the gas giants, are
substantially more massive than the terrestrials. The two largest, Jupiter and
Saturn, are composed NBJOMZ PG IZESPHFO BOE IFMJVN; UIF UXP PVUFSNPTU QMBOFUT,
Uranus and Neptune,
are composed largely of substances with relatively high melting points, called ices,
such as water, ammonia and methane, and are often referred to separately as “ice
giants”. All planets have almost circular orbits that lie within a nearly flat disc
called the ecliptic plane.
Okay, are there any questions?
(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Solar_System)
47. What subject might this lecture be?

JAWABAN: B
Astronomy
48. What is the Solar System?

JAWABAN: D
It’s the Sun and the objects that orbit the Sun.
49. The Solar System was formed...

JAWABAN: D
4.6 billion years ago.
50. What is meant by terrestrial planets?

JAWABAN: C
They are the four small planets closest to the sun.
STRUCTURE
1. Pembahasan:
Bagian yang hilang dalam kalimat ini adalah subjek kalimat. Walaupun terdapat frasa kata
benda di antara dua koma (...,the inventor of light bulb,...), frasa kata benda ini bukan
merupakan
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Subjek kalimat melainkan hanya keterangan tambahan dari subjek. Salah satu bentuk subjek
kalimat adalah frasa kata benda (noun phrase). Pilihan (B) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat
karena merupakan sebuah frasa kata benda.
2. Pembahasan:
Yang hilang dari kalimat tersebut adalah bagian dari predikat yang merupakan verb. Subjek
kalimat sudah ada. Jika kita pilih jawaaban pilihan (A), (B), atau (C) akan terjadi subjek
ganda. Oleh karena itu, pilihan yang paling tepat adalah pilihan (D).
3. Pembahasan:
Kalimat ini mengisyaratkan adanya pertentangan. Sehingga, pilihan jawaban (B) but adalah
pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat untuk melengkapi kalimat rumpang di atas.
4. Pembahasan:
Kalimat ini memiliki kaitan dengan materi Parallelism dan bentuk-bentuk dari verb. Hal yang
hilang dari kalimat ini adalah verb. Bentuk verb pada kalimat yang hilang harus senada
dengan bentuk kalimat sebelumnya, karena kedua kalimat tersebut paralel (terdapat
conjunction
..., and ...). Bentuk verb kalimat pertama adalah ... was happy, sehingga bentuk verb kalimat
kedua harus terdapat kata ... was Pilihan (B) tidak tepat karena kata “was to form” masih
membutuhkan objek. Pilihan (A) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat karena setelah kata “was
formed” tidak perlu dibubuhi objek kata apa pun.
5. Pembahasan:
Dari semua pilihan jawaban, yang paling tepat untuk melengkapi kalimat di atas adalah
pilihan (B) karena artinya’ di antara tahun 1939’ dan 1945.
6. Pembahasan:
Dari kalimat berikut ini dapat diktahui bahwa kata-kata “good mastery ” adalah bentuk dari
noun phrase. Maka, kalimat yang rumpang harus diisi dengan bentuk noun phrase juga. Pilih-
an (C) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat karena “high confidence” merupakan bentuk noun
phrase. Sedangkan pilihan (D) tidak tepat karena ‘confident’ bukan noun melainkan
adjective.
7. Pembahasan:
Bagian yang hilang dari kalimat ini adalah kalimat utama. Pilihan (B), (C), dan (D) tidak tepat
karena bukan dalam bentuk sebuah kalimat. Pilihan (A) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat
karena dalam bentuk sebuah kalimat (S+V). “Spring tides” sebagai subjek, dan “are formed”
sebagai predikat/verb.
8. Pembahasan:
Ada dua hal hilang dari kalimat ini. Yang pertama adalah verb, dan yang kedua adalah kata
sandang. Karena subjek kalimat ini “some people” adalah jamak, maka kata kerja yang bisa
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mengikuti adalah kata kerja dalam bentuk aslinya (tidak ada imbuhan apa pun). Kata “have”
adalah kata yang tepat untuk menjadi kerja kalimat ini. Sedangkan kata sandang yang tepat
untuk menemani kata “money” adalah “amount”, karena kata “amount” hanya dapat
menjadi kata sandang pada kata benda yang tidak dapat dihitung (uncountable noun).
Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (B) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat.
9. Pembahasan:
Bagian kalimat yang paling tepat untuk melengkapi kalimat tersebut ada pada pilihan
(C). Setelah kata “who” harus ada subjek dan predikat. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban
yang paling tepat adalah pilihan (C).
10.Pembahasan:
Setelah kata ‘by’yang boleh mengikuti hanyalah kata dalam bentuk noun atau yang
dianggap sebagai noun (contoh: gerund/Ving). Pilihan (B) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat
karena kata ‘rubbing’ adalah bentuk gerund, dan kata ‘rules’ memiliki bentuk yang paralel
dengan kata ‘combs’ karena sama-sama kata benda dalam bentuk jamak.
11.Pembahasan:
Phrasa yang berada di antara , ..., merupakan keterangan dari kata benda (noun) yang ada di
depannya. Salah satu bentuk phrasa yang digunakan adalah dalam bentuk frasa kata
benda (noun phrase). Selanjutnya, salah satu jenis kata yang boleh berada di depan kata ‘of’
adalah noun/noun phrase. Oleh karena itu, pilihan (D) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat.
12.Pembahasan:
Bagian kalimat yang rumpang ini memiliki kaitan dengan penyederhanaan bentuk klausa
kata sifat. Bentuk klausa kata sifat “... which has...,” dapat disederhanakan menjadi
“...having...,”. Mengapa having, karena kata yang memperoleh imbuhan –ing harus dalam
aslinya.
13.Pembahasan:
Kata atau frasa yang bisa hadir setelah preposition “of” adalah noun atau noun phrase.
Jawaban (C) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat, karena fallen snow adalah noun phrase.
14.Pembahasan:
Pada kalimat ini, bagian yang hilang adalah subject. Akan tetapi, karena kalimat ini diawali
dengan ungkapan negative, maka posisi subjek dan verb harus dibalik. Karena verb transitif
kalimat ini sudah ada, kata kerja penghubung (does) harus disertakan. Oleh karena itu,
pilihan (C) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat.
15.Pembahasan:
Kalimat ini membutuhkan adjective clause yang menjelaskan kata benda “novels”. Dalam
adjective clause, apabila noun yang dijelaskan adalah benda mati maka kata that/which dapat
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digunakan untuk memulai menjelaskan noun. Setelah kata“that” dapat langsung diikuti oleh
kata kerja. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (B) adalah pilihan jawaban yang tepat.
WRITTEN EXPRESSION
16. Pembahasan:
Subjek ‘Thunder’ adalah kata benda (orang ke III) tunggal, sehingga seharusnya diikuti
oleh kata kerja V+s/es. Pilihan (A) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat, karena kata kata
kerja ‘happen’ tidak mendapatkan imbuhan –s/es.
17. Pembahasan:
Kata “atom” dalam pengucapannya diawali oleh huruf vokal /æ/, sehingga artikel yang
tepat adalah “an”. Oleh karena itu, pilihan (A) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat.
18. Pembahasan:
Subjek kalimat ini adalah jamak, sehingga perlu diikuti oleh verb dalam bentuk
aslinya (tanpa ada imbuhan apa pun). Oleh karena itu, pilihan (B) “involves” harus diganti
menjadi “involve”.
19. Pembahasan:
Pada kalimat ini yang salah adalah pilihan (D) karena frasa tersebut tidak lengkap. Seha-
rusnya ‘as well’ ditambahi menjadi ’as well as’ atau diganti dengan kata ‘and’. Oleh
karena itu, pilihan (D) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat.
20. Pembahasan:
Frasa ‘other brain structure’ salah karena ‘other’ berarti yang lainnya (jamak). Yang benar
adalah ‘other brain structures’. Oleh karena itu, pilihan (D) adalah pilihan yang paling
tepat.
21. Pembahasan:
Frasa ‘the great Buddhist monuments’ salah. Yang benar adalah ‘the greatest Buddhist
monuments’. Oleh karena itu, pilihan (C) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat.
22. Pembahasan:
Frasa ‘to fighting’ salah karena ‘to’ pada frasa tersebut harus diikuti oleh infinitive (V1).
Yang benar adalah ‘to fight’. Oleh karena itu, pilihan (C) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat.
23. Pembahasan:
Frasa ‘for appear’ salah. Kata ‘for’ adalah preposition (kata depan). Preposition harus diikuti
noun/gerund/pronoun/noun phrase/noun clause. Yang benar adalah ‘for appearing’. Oleh
karena itu, pilihan (A) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat.
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24. Pembahasan:
Kata “it eyes” merupakan kata yang tidak memiliki susunan yang benar. Seharusnya, kata
“it” diganti dengan kata “its” untuk merepresentasikan kata ganti kepemilikan “the giant
panda”. Oleh karena itu, pilihan (C) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat.
25. Pembahasan:
Kata “move” seharusnya dijelaskan oleh adverb (kata keterangan). Kata “free” bukan
merupakan keterangan, melainkan kata sifat. Untuk mengubah kata “free” menjadi kata
keterangan, maka perlu ditambahkan akhiran “–ly”. Kata “free” diubah menjadi
“freely”. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (C) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat.
26. Pembahasan:
Pada adjective clauase, penggunaan kata kerja harus menyesuaikan dengan kata benda
yang dijelaskan. Sydney Harbor Bridge adalah kata benda tunggal, maka kata kerjanya
harus dibubuhi akhiran –s/es. Kata “connect” menjadi “connects”. Oleh karena itu, pilihan
jawaban (C) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat.
27. Pembahasan:
Dalam pembahasan noun phrase, adverb (kata keterangan) tidak bisa menjelaskan noun.
Maka, kata “optically” harus diubah dalam bentuk kata sifat, yakni: “optical”. Oleh karena
itu, pilihan jawaban (A) adalah pilihan jawban yang paling tepat.
28. Pembahasan:
Bentuk Ving tidak bisa berperan sebagai verb dalam sebuah kalimat. Untuk konteks
kalimat ini kata “selecting” harus dibuah kedalam bentuk present tense, yakni: “select”.
29. Pembahasan:
Kata-kata yang diletakkan secara paralel dalam kalimat ini adalah kata sifat, yakni:
“recreational, commercial, and industry...”. Namun, kata “industry” bukan kata sifat,
melainkan kata benda. Maka kata “industry” harus diubah dalam bentuk kata sifat, yakni:
“industrial”. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (B) adalah pilihan jawaban yang benar.
30. Pembahasan:
Kata ‘record’ salah. Yang benar adalah ‘recorded’ karena adjective (kata sifat) yang
dibutuh- kan. Oleh karena itu, pilihan (C) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat.
31. Pembahasan:
Frasa ‘one of the world’s best-selling author’ salah karena seharusnya ‘one of the world’s
best-selling authors’. Oleh karena itu, pilihan (D) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat.
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32. Pembahasan:
Kata “unlikely” adalah kata adjective. Kata tersebut seharusnya diubah menjadi ‘unlike’.
Oleh karena itu, pilihan (A) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat.
33. Pembahasan:
Karena kalimat ini mengungkapkan suatu kejadian yang lampau (ditandai dengan
penggunaan “between 1589 and 1613”), maka penggunaan verb pada kalimat ini
juga harus dalam bentuk lampau. Kata “produces” menjadi “produced”. Oleh karena
itu, pilihan jawaban (B) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat.
34. Pembahasan:
Kata ‘they’ seharusnya diganti oleh ‘each’ yang artinya masing-masing. Karena subjeknya
tunggal, yaitu ‘hail’. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (C) adalah pilihan jawaban yang pa-
ling tepat.
35. Pembahasan:
Kata ‘are’ seharusnya diganti oleh ‘is’ karena subjeknya tunggal, yaitu ‘Orchidaceae’. Oleh
karena itu, pilihan jawaban (B) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat.
36. Pembahasan:
Kata “many newspapers” tidak dapat digantikan oleh kata “its” karena kata “its” hanya
bisa menggantikan benda tunggal, sedangkan “many newspapers” adalah benda jamak.
Kata “its” diubah menjadi “their”. Oleh karena itu, pilihan (C) adalah pilihan yang paling
benar.
37. Pembahasan:
Penggunaan kata kerja setelah kata hubung “and” harus paralel dengan kata kerja sebe-
lumnya. Kata kerja pada kalimat pertama dalam bentuk past (lampau), maka kata kerja
pada kalimat setelah “and” harus juga dalam bentuk lampau. Kata “describe” diubah
menjadi “described”. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (B) adalah pilihan jawaban yang
paling tepat.
38. Pembahasan:
Bentuk kata Ving bukan merupakan bentuk noun, sehingga frasa yang berada sebelum
kata “of” tidak berfungsi sebagai noun phrase. Untuk itu, kata “completing” harus diubah
menjadi “completion” supaya frasa tersebut manjadi noun phrase. Oleh karena itu,
pilihan jawaban (A) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat.
39. Pembahasan:
Frasa ‘ the longer’ salah. Seharusnya diubah menjadi ‘the longest’. Oleh karena itu,
pilihan jawaban (A) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat.
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40. Pembahasan:
Penggunaan artikel “an” menunjukan bahwa kata benda tersebut tunggal, sedangkan
kata “effects” menunjukkan bahwa hal tersebut bersifat jamak. Maka, kata “effects”
harus diubah menjadi “effect”. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (C) adalah pilihan
jawaban yang paling tepat.
READING COMPREHENSION
1. Pembahasan:
Keterangan mengenai topik dari bacaan ini dapat diketahui dari kalimat 1 paragraf I: “The
platypus (Ornithorhynchus anatinus) is a semiaquatic mammal endemic to eastern Australia,
including Tasmania.” Kalimat ini menunjukan tentang gambaran umum mengenai platypus.
Maka, pilihan (A) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat.
2. Pembahasan:
Pertanyaan ini mengisyaratkan bahwa hanya ada 1 pilihan jawaban yang benar. “the male
platypus having a spur on the hind foot that delivers venom capable of causing severe
pain to humans” ungkapan yang digarisbawahi menunjukkan bahwa platypus dapat
menyebabkan rasa sakit yang hebat terhadap manusia. Sehingga, pilihan jawaban (C)
adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat.
3. Pembahasan:
Kata its pada baris ke-4 secara jelas merujuk pada subjek kalimat pertama. Pilihan jawaban
(A)adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat.
4. Pembahasan:
Pertanyaan ini mengisyaratkan yang ditanyakan adalah sesuatu yang benar dari bacaan.
Pilihan (C) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling benar karena sesuai dengan peryataan
dalam kalimat “Until the early 20th century, it was hunted for its fur, but it is now protected
throughout its range.” Kalimat “it is now protected.” berarti bahwa sekarang platypus sudah
tidak diburu lagi.
5. Pembahasan:
Kata ‘features’ memiliki makna yang sama dengan ‘characteristics’ (ciri-ciri). Maka, pilihan
(B) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling benar.
6. Pembahasan:
Pertanyaan ini mengisyaratkan jawaban yang TIDAK sesuai dengan bacaan. Pilihan (C)
adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat karena pada kalimat “The unusual appearance of
this egg-laying, duck-billed, beaver-tailed, otter-footed mammal...” yang benar adalah
beaver- tailed bukan small-tailed.
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7. Pembahasan:
Kata ‘emblem’ memiliki arti ‘lambang’. Pilihan yang memiliki makna sama dengan ‘lambang’
adalah kata ‘symbol’. Sehingga, pilihan (D) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat.
8. Pembahasan:
Dari bacaan, dapat diketahui bahwa yang dapat menghasilkan racun adalah platypus jantan.
Informasi ini ada pada baris ke 8-10. Sehingga, pilihan (B) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat.
9. Pembahasan:
Sangat jelas sekali dalam kalimat ini “the only mammals that lay eggs instead of giving
birth” dinyatakan bahwa platypus bertelur bukan melahirkan. Sehingga, pilihan jawaban (B)
adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat.
10.Pembahasan:
Kata ‘immediate’ memiliki arti ‘langsung’. Selanjutnya, pilihan (A) direct juga berarti
‘langsung’. Sehingga pilihan (A) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat.
11.Pembahasan:
Jawaban pertanyaan ini sangat jelas sekali terlihat dari setiap kalimat pertama dari
setiap paragraf. Pilihan (A) terlalu spesifik karena hanya merupakan topik dari paragraf
tertentu. Pilihan (B) dan (D) tidak tepat karena tidak memiliki keterkaitan dengan bacaan.
Oleh karena itu, pilihan (D) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat.
12.Pembahasan:
Kata ‘credited’ memiliki arti diberikan atau dipersembahkan. Kata ‘honored’ juga berarti di-
berikan atau dipersembahkan. Sehingga, pilihan jawaban (A) adalah pilihan jawaban
yang paling tepat.
13.Pembahasan:
Topik dari paragraf ke-2 dapat kita lihat dari kalimat pertama paragraf ke-2, yakni: “The
brothers’ fundamental breakthrough was their invention of three-axis control, which enabled
the pilot to steer the aircraft effectively and to maintain its equilibrium. This method ” Dari
penggalan paragraf ini, kita dapat mengetahui bahwa kalimat kedua menjelaskan
tentang “three-axis control”. Oleh karena itu, pilihan (A) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat.
14.Pembahasan:
Kata “remains” dalam “...remains standard ” berarti tetap menjadi. Kata “stays” adalah satu-
satunya kata yang memiliki makna yang sama dengan “remains”. Oleh karena itu, pilihan (C)
adalah pilihan yang paling tepat.
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15.Pembahasan:
Kata “any” menggantikan klausa “Using a small homebuilt wind tunnel” yang mana klausa
ini secara tidak langsung berarti “percobaan”. Sehingga dapat disimpulkan bahwa kata “any”
mengacu pada “other experiments”. Oleh karena itu, pilihan (B) adalah pilihan yang paling
tepat.
16.Pembahasan:
Pertanyaan ini dimaksudkan untuk mencari satu pernyataan yang paling sesuai
dengan bacaan. Pilihan jawaban (A), (B), dan (D) bertentangan dengan isi bacaan. Oleh
karena itu, pilihan (C) adalah pilihan yang paling sesuai.
17.Pembahasan:
Kata “essential” berarti penting. Pilihan jawaban (A) good = baik, pilihan jawaban (B) useful
= berguna, pilihan jawaban (C) available = tersedia, dan pilihan jawaban (D) important =
penting. Maka dari itu, pilihan jawaban (D) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat.
18.Pembahasan:
Pertanyaan ini meminta kita untuk mencari pernyataan yang salah dari bacaan. Pilihan
jawaban (A) dan (B) benar karena kedua keterangan tadi terdapat dalam paragraf pertama.
Pilihan jawaban (C) benar karena pernyataannya terdapat pada paragraf kedua. Oleh karena
itu, pilihan (D) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat.
19.Pembahasan:
Kata ‘their’ merujuk pada the Wrights. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (A) adalah pilihan
20.Pembahasan:
Jawaban mengenai pertanyaan mengenai kesimpulan tidak dapat diketahui secara
langsung (explicit) dari bacaan akantetapi kita harus membaca secara mendalam bacaan
ini. Pilihan (A), (B), dan (D) merupakan informasi pendukung dari suatu topik maka
ketiga pilihan ini tidak tepat. Maka, pilihan (C) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat.
21.Pembahasan:
Maksud pertanyaan ini adalah menanyakan tentang topik dari bacaan. Dapat kita ketahui
bahwa setiap paragraf membahas hal yang sama tetapi dengan konteks yang berbeda,
yakni: “Insomnia” atau “sleeplessness”. Hal ini menunjukkan bahwa topik dari bacaan ini
adalah tentang “the general idea of sleeplessness. Oleh karena itu, pilihan (C) adalah pilihan
yang paling tepat.
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22.Pembahasan:
Kata “demonstrated” = ditunjukkan. Pilihan (A) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat
karena “showed” = ditunjukkan. Pilihan jawaban (B) argued = diperdepatkan, (C) demanded
= diminta, dan (D) suggested = disarankan.
23.Pembahasan:
Jawaban pertanyaan ini sudah sangat jelas terdapat pada baris ke-9, yakni: “Insomnia can
occur at any age,”. “Any age” di sini berarti semua umur atau dengan kata lain semua orang.
Oleh karena itu, pilihan (D) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat.
24.Pembahasan:
Pilihan (A), (C), dan (D) sudah sangat jelas sekali terdapat pada baris 11-14. Maka dari itu,
pilihan (B) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat karena tidak terdapat dalam bacaan.
25.Pembahasan:
Jawaban pertanyaan ini sangat jelas terdapat pada baris ke-15, yaitu: “Those who are having
trouble sleeping sometimes turn to sleeping pills”. Kata “pills” memiliki padanan kata yang
sama dengan “medicine”. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (C) adalah pilihan jawaban yang
paling benar.
26.Pembahasan:
Kata “dependence” = ketergantungan. Kata lain yang memiliki makna yang serupa adalah
kata “addiction”. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (A) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling
benar.
27.Pembahasan:
Pertanyaan ini mengisyaratkan sebuah jawaban yang memiliki kesesuaian dengan
bacaan. Pilihan (A), (B), dan (D) tidak tepat, karena apa yang diungkapkan pada masing-
masing pilihan jawaban bertentangan dengan isi bacaan. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban
yang paling tepat adalah (C).
28.Pembahasan:
Kata “grouped” = dikelompokkan/diklasifikasikan. Kata yang memiliki kemiripan makna
dengan “grouped” adalah “classified. Oleh karene itu, pilihan jawaban (A) adalah pilihan
29.Pembahasan:
Pertanyaan jenis ini meminta sebuah jawaban yang tidak sesuai dengan isi bacaan. Pilihan
(A), (B), dan (D) adalah pilihan jawaban yang memiliki kesesuaian dengan isi bacaan.
Sedangkan pilihan jawaban (C) bertentangan dengan isi jawaban. Oleh karena itu,
pilihan inilah yang paling tepat.
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30.Pembahasan:
Pengertian insomnia terdapat pada baris 1 dan 2 pada kalimat “Insomnia, or sleeplessness, is
a sleep disorder in which there is an inability to fall asleep or to stay asleep as long as
desired.” Oleh karena itu, pilihan (A) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat.
31.Pembahasan:
Judul yang tepat untuk bacaan di atas adalah “Palm Trees” karena setiap paragraf dalam
bacaan ini menjelaskan tentang “Palm Trees” dari berbagai segi. Pilihan (B) tidak disebutkan
dalam bacaan, pilihan (C) dan (D) hanya mewakili paragraf tertentu. Oleh karena itu, pilihan
jawaban (A) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat.
32.Pembahasan:
Kata “currently” berarti “saat ini”. Pilihan (A) new = baru, (B) present = hadir, (C) now = saat ini,
dan (D) then = kemudian. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (C) adalah pilihan jawaban yang
paling tepat.
33.Pembahasan:
Ekspresi ‘distinguished by’ memiliki arti tertutupi oleh. Kata ‘covered by’ juga memiliki arti
tertutupi oleh. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (B) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling
tepat.
34.Pembahasan:
Pertanyaan ini mengisyaratkan sebuah jawaban yang sesuai dengan bacaan. Pilihan jawaban
(C) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat karena keterangan ini ada pada baris ke-11.
35.Pembahasan:
Pilihan (A), (B), dan (C) terdapat dalam bacaan. Pilihan (D) tidak terdapat dalam
bacaan, karena secara logika di Arctic tidak ada tanaman karena seluruh daerahnya dilapisi
oleh es.
36.Pembahasan:
Kata ‘extensively’ memiliki arti dengan luas. Kata ‘largely’ juga memiliki arti dengan luas.
37.Pembahasan:
Kata ‘they’ merujuk pada kata ‘palms’. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (A) adalah pilihan
38.Pembahasan:
Kata ‘appearence’ memiliki arti penampilan. Kata ‘look’ juga memiliki arti penampilan. Oleh
karena itu, pilihan jawaban (B) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat.
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39.Pembahasan:
Pernyataan yang tidak benar adalah ‘They are symbols for health’. Pernyataan yang ada
pada pilihan (A), (B), dan (C) benar dan terdapat pada baris ke 21-22. Oleh karena itu,
pilihan jawaban (D) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat.
40.Pembahasan:
Dari bacaan, dapat diketahui bahwa pohon palm dibudidayakan. Informasi ini dapat
didapatkan pada baris ke-19. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (D) adalah pilihan
41.Pembahasan:
Bacaan tersebut berisi tentang gambaran umum PBB. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban
(C) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat.
42.Pembahasan:
Berdasarkan bacaan, dapat diketahui bahwa salah satu tugas PBB adalah mencegah konflik.
Informasi tersebut ada pada baris ke 3-4. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (C) adalah pilihan
43.Pembahasan:
Yang bukan menjadi tujuan PBB ada pada pilihan (D). Informasi pada pilihan (A), (B), dan (C)
ada pada baris ke 7-10. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (D) adalah pilihan jawaban
yang paling tepat.
44.Pembahasan:
Kata ‘its’ merujuk pada kata UNS’s. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (D) adalah pilihan
45.Pembahasan:
Kata ‘major’ memiliki arti besar. Kata ‘big’ juga memiliki arti besar. Oleh karena itu, pilihan
jawaban (B) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat.
46.Pembahasan:
Pernyataan yang tidak sesuai dengan bacaan ada pada pilihan (D). Informasi pada pilihan
(A), (B), dan (C) ada pada baris ke 22-28. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (D) adalah pilihan
47.Pembahasan:
Kata ‘prominent’ memiliki arti terkemuka. Kata ‘famous’ juga memiliki arti terkemuka atau
terkenal. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (B) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat.
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48.Pembahasan:
Penulis menjelaskan tentang ‘UN System agencies’ pada baris ke 28-32. Oleh karena
itu, pilihan jawaban (C) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat.
49.Pembahasan:
Kata ‘granted’ memiliki arti diberikan. Kata ‘given’ juga memiliki arti diberikan. Oleh
karena itu, pilihan jawaban (C) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat.
50.Pembahasan:
Paragraf selanjutnya akan membicarakan masalah ketidakefektifan PBB. Hal ini dapat
diketahui pada akhir paragraf ke-4. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (D) adalah pilihan
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DAFTAR PUSTAKA
Referensi soal-soal TPA masuk pascasarjana UNY dan UGM tahun 2013
artikata.com
mediaindonesia.com
kompas.com
kr.com
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Thomas_Edison
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/World_War_II
http://www.onegeology.org/extra/kids/earthprocesses/tides.html
www.chem4kids.com/files/atom_neutron.html
http://nsidc.org/cryosphere/glaciers/questions/what.htm
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Atom
https://www.nhlbi.nih.gov/health/health-topics/topics/heartattack/
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inflation
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Human_brain
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Borobudur
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/George_Washington
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Uluru
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Giant_panda
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Outer_space
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Port_Jackson
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Camera
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bat
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Niagara_Falls
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Roald_Dahl
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/William_Shakespeare
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hail
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Orchidaceae
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Newspaper
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cartoon
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bicycle
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Suramadu_Bridge
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bill_Clinton
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Platypus
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Insomnia
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Arecaceae
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/United_Nations
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Taman_Mini_Indonesia_Indah
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Solar_System
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TENTANG PENULIS
Cinthia Reswari, M.Pd., adalah instructor TOEFL (ProTEFL) di

Pusat Pengembangan Bahasa UNY dan ikut terlibat dalam
pengembangan bahan ajar TOEFL (ProTEFL). Lahir di Yogya-
karta, 3 Agustus 1989. Dulu Sekolah Dasar di SD Singosaren
Bantul dan Epping Public School (Sydney, Australia). SMP di
Cheltenham Girl’s High School (Sydney, Australia) dan di SMP
Muhammadiyah 2 Yogyakarta. SMA di SMA N 1 Kasihan (SMA
N Tirtonirmolo). Menyelesaikan pendidikan S1 jurusan Pendi-
dikan Bahasa Inggris di Universitas Negeri Yogyakarta tahun
2012. Telah menyelesaikan pendidikan S2 jurusan
Pendidikan Bahasa Inggris di Universitas Sebelas Maret.
Selain menjadi instructor TOEFL (ProTEFL) di P2B UNY, juga
aktif menu- lis buku pengayaan bahasa Inggris untuk SMP
dan SMA. Juga sedang mengembangkan lembaga
pendidikan bahasa Inggris
yang bernama A.S. English House di Kotagede Yogyakarta.
Sekarang sedang menempuh pendidikan S3 di UNNES.
50

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ive rsit a s Bengkul Universitas Hasanuddin

3. Mengukur Kemampuan Akademik

B. Jenis-Jenis Tes TOEFL®

No. Nama Keterangan

Tes ini mengukur kecakapan berbahasa Inggris pada tatar-

Tes ini didesain untuk mengukur proficiency siswa-siswa

C. Bagian-bagian dalam Tes TOEFL®

(longer conversation). Part C memiliki kurang lebih 12 pertanyaan. Biasanya pertanyaan-

2. Structure and Written Expression

D. Kegunaan Tes TOEFL®

E. Penilaian dalam Tes TOEFL®

Konversi Nilai Konversi Nilai Konversi Nilai

Bagaimanakah cara menggunakan tabel di atas?

Sesi I Sesi II Sesi III

Berikut ini adalah cara penghitungannya.

537 Hasil skor keseluruhan TOEFL® pada contoh di atas adalah

SECTION 1: LISTENING COMPREHENSION

(B) There is no store in his town.

(C) It’s not possible to obtain the

(D) The project report shouldn’t be

(B) The new dean has not

7. When the earth, sun and moon

8. Some people of money.

10. Electricity can be produced by

he continued to fighting the British metropolitan area.

35. Orchidaceae is a diverse and wide-

39. Bill Clinton presided over the longer

Line The platypus (Ornithorhynchus anatinus) is a semiaquatic mammal endemic to

2. It can be inferred from the passage

11. The passage is mainly about solve the flying problem.

12. The word ‘credited’ in line 3

13. In the second paragraph, the author

14. The word ‘remains’

15. The word ‘any’ in line 16 refers to

16. The passage states that

21. What is the author’s main point in treat Insomnia?

25. What is the simple solution which

44. The word ‘its’ in line 14 refers to

2. (man) : I don’t think this book is very good.

3. (woman) : Your graduation ceremony is two days

4. (woman) : I got this skirt for only eight dollars!

5. (man) : I just got a new assignment again this afternoon.

8. (man) : Do you have the notes from yesterday’s chemistry class?

(narrator) : What does the woman mean?

11. (man) : Do you know where your scarf is?

12. (man) : I need you to work on these field reports.

19.(man) : What do you think of your new

20. (woman) : Tony, do you know when the performance

22. (man) : I need to buy some new pens.

24. (woman) : I think you should be a little bit relaxed.

25. (man) : I don’t think what Sarah said is possibly true.

26. (woman) : Has the department decided the new dean?

27. (woman) : I can’t believe it! It’s raining hard

31. Why did the man buy a new computer?

32. What is right about his new computer?

33. What is the woman’s opinion about the new computer?

34. What did the man feel at the shop?

Questions 35-38 refer to the following conversation.

35. Why was the woman late?