CISSP Exam Insights: Practice Questions & Explanations

​CONTENTS

●   INTRODUCTION

●  CHAPTER 1: TEST 1

●  CHAPTER 2: TEST 2

●  CHAPTER 3: TEST 3

●  CHAPTER 4: ADDITIONAL Q&A

●  CHAPTER 5: 30-DAY STUDY PLAN

●  CHAPTER 6: FINAL TIPS FOR SUCCESS

●  ENDNOTE

●  IMPORTANT NOTICE & DISCLAIMER

​Introduction

IN TODAY’S RAPIDLY evolving cybersecurity landscape, earning your Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) certification is a significant milestone for security professionals aiming to master information security principles and best practices. CISSP Exam Insights: Practice Questions & Explanations is a comprehensive study resource designed to help you confidently prepare for and succeed in the CISSP exam.

This book is ideal for both aspiring and experienced professionals seeking to validate their expertise in all eight CISSP domains: Security and Risk Management, Asset Security, Security Architecture and Engineering, Communication and Network Security, Identity and Access Management (IAM), Security Assessment and Testing, Security Operations, and Software Development Security.

With 350 exam-style multiple-choice questions, including three full-length practice tests and 50 additional questions, this book offers:

✔ Comprehensive CISSP Coverage – A deep dive into all eight domains, ensuring a well-rounded understanding.

✔ Real Exam Experience – Practice questions designed to mirror the format, complexity, and difficulty of the actual CISSP exam.

✔ Detailed Explanations – In-depth answer explanations to reinforce learning and clarify key concepts.

✔ Scenario-Based Questions – Gain real-world insights by solving security challenges aligned with CISSP principles.

✔ 30-Day Study Plan – A structured roadmap covering all domains to keep you on track and maximize retention.

✔ Confidence-Boosting Strategies – Expert tips to strengthen your test-taking skills and ensure exam success.

Whether you are a security analyst, IT manager, network architect, or cybersecurity consultant, this book provides a structured learning approach and realistic practice to help you pass the CISSP exam with confidence and ease.

​CHAPTER 1

​TEST 1

Question 1

What is the primary purpose of a non-disclosure agreement (NDA) in relation to confidentiality?

A) To establish a legal framework for data breach notification

B) To define the scope of a security assessment

C) To protect sensitive information shared between parties

D) To outline incident response procedures

Answer: C) To protect sensitive information shared between parties

Explanation: A non-disclosure agreement (NDA) is a legally binding contract between two or more parties that outlines the terms and conditions for sharing sensitive or confidential information. The primary purpose of an NDA is to protect this sensitive information from unauthorized disclosure or use.

Question 2

Which of the following confidentiality controls is designed to prevent unauthorized access to sensitive data by ensuring that only authorized individuals can view specific data fields?

A) Data encryption

B) Access controls

C) Data masking

D) Secure data storage

Answer: C) Data masking

Explanation: Data masking is a confidentiality control that involves hiding or obscuring specific data fields to prevent unauthorized access. This control ensures that only authorized individuals can view sensitive data, while others can only see masked or anonymized data.

Question 3

Which of the following integrity controls is designed to detect unauthorized modifications to data by creating a unique digital fingerprint of the data?

A) Hash-based message authentication code (HMAC)

B) Digital signature

C) Message authentication code (MAC)

D) Data checksum

Answer: A) Hash-based message authentication code (HMAC)

Explanation: A hash-based message authentication code (HMAC) is a type of integrity control that uses a cryptographic hash function to create a unique digital fingerprint of the data. This fingerprint can be used to detect unauthorized modifications to the data.

QUESTION 4

What is the primary purpose of a change management process in relation to integrity?

A) To ensure the confidentiality of sensitive data

B) To detect and respond to security incidents

C) To ensure that changes to systems or data do not introduce unauthorized modifications or vulnerabilities

D) To ensure the availability of critical systems and data

Answer: C) To ensure that changes to systems or data do not introduce unauthorized modifications or vulnerabilities

Explanation: A change management process is a critical integrity control that ensures changes to systems or data are properly assessed, approved, and implemented. This process helps prevent unauthorized modifications or vulnerabilities from being introduced into the environment.

Question 5

Which of the following CIA concepts is most closely related to ensuring that data is accurate, complete, and not modified without authorization?

A) Confidentiality

B) Integrity

C) Availability

D) Authenticity

Answer: B) Integrity

Explanation: Integrity is the CIA concept that ensures data is accurate, complete, and not modified without authorization. This includes ensuring that data is not altered or deleted without proper authorization, and that data is consistent and accurate.

QUESTION 6

A company's IT system is experiencing a denial-of-service (DoS) attack, which is preventing legitimate users from accessing the system. Which of the following CIA concepts is most impacted by this attack?

A) Confidentiality

B) Integrity

C) Availability

D) Authentication

Answer: C) Availability

Explanation: Availability is the CIA concept that ensures that data and systems are accessible and usable when needed. A DoS attack, which prevents legitimate users from accessing the system, directly impacts the availability of the system.

Question 7

Which of the following security governance principles is responsible for ensuring that an organization's security policies and procedures are aligned with its overall business strategy and objectives?

A) Due care

B) Due diligence

C) Strategic alignment

D) Risk management

Answer: C) Strategic alignment

Explanation: Strategic alignment is a security governance principle that ensures an organization's security policies and procedures are aligned with its overall business strategy and objectives. This principle helps ensure that security decisions support the organization's mission and goals.

QUESTION 8

Which of the following security governance principles requires an organization to assign responsibility for security to a specific individual or team, and to hold them accountable for security decisions and actions?

A) Accountability

B) Responsibility

C) Due care

D) Separation of duties

Answer: A) Accountability

Explanation: Accountability is a security governance principle that requires an organization to assign responsibility for security to a specific individual or team, and to hold them accountable for security decisions and actions. This principle helps ensure that security responsibilities are clearly defined and that individuals are held accountable for their security-related actions.

Question 9

Which of the following types of security documentation provides a high-level statement of management's intent and expectations regarding security, and is typically used to establish the overall security strategy and direction?

A) Standard

B) Procedure

C) Policy

D) Guideline

Answer: C) Policy

Explanation: A security policy is a high-level statement of management's intent and expectations regarding security. It provides the overall security strategy and direction, and is used to establish the organization's security posture.

QUESTION 10

Which of the following types of security documentation provides detailed, step-by-step instructions for implementing security controls and procedures, and is typically used to support the implementation of security standards?

A) Standard

B) Procedure

C) Policy

D) Guideline

Answer: B) Procedure

Explanation: A security procedure provides detailed, step-by-step instructions for implementing security controls and procedures. It supports the implementation of security standards, and provides specific guidance on how to perform security-related tasks.

Question 11

Which of the following security roles is responsible for ensuring that security policies and procedures are implemented and enforced within an organization, and for providing guidance and support to other employees on security-related matters?

A) Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)

B) Data Owner

C) Security Officer

D) Compliance Officer

Answer: C) Security Officer

Explanation: A Security Officer is responsible for ensuring that security policies and procedures are implemented and enforced within an organization. They provide guidance and support to other employees on security-related matters, and serve as a liaison between the organization and external entities on security-related issues.

QUESTION 12

Which of the following security roles is responsible for making decisions regarding the classification and ownership of data, and for ensuring that appropriate security controls are in place to protect the data?

A) Data Custodian

B) Data User

C) Data Owner

D) System Administrator

Answer: C) Data Owner

Explanation: A Data Owner is responsible for making decisions regarding the classification and ownership of data, and for ensuring that appropriate security controls are in place to protect the data. They are ultimately accountable for the security and integrity of the data, and for ensuring that it is handled in accordance with organizational policies and procedures.

Question 13

Which of the following best describes the concept of due care in the context of security governance?

A) Taking reasonable care to prevent harm to others

B) Conducting thorough risk assessments and implementing controls

C) Providing evidence of compliance with regulatory requirements

D) Assigning liability for security breaches to specific individuals

Answer: A) Taking reasonable care to prevent harm to others

Explanation: Due care refers to the obligation to take reasonable care to prevent harm to others, including employees, customers, and other stakeholders. This concept is closely related to the principle of negligence, and organizations have a duty to exercise due care to protect their assets and prevent harm.

QUESTION 14

Which of the following is an example of due diligence in the context of security governance?

A) Conducting regular security audits to identify vulnerabilities

B) Implementing a security awareness training program for employees

C) Purchasing cybersecurity insurance to mitigate potential losses

D) Outsourcing security operations to a third-party provider

Answer: A) Conducting regular security audits to identify vulnerabilities

Explanation: Due diligence refers to the process of conducting a thorough and systematic review of an organization's security controls and processes to identify potential vulnerabilities and weaknesses. Conducting regular security audits is an example of due diligence, as it helps organizations to identify and address potential security risks.

Question 15

Which of the following laws requires organizations to implement reasonable security measures to protect sensitive personal data, and provides individuals with the right to access and correct their personal data?

A) General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)

B) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

C) Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI-DSS)

D) Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA)

Answer: A) General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)

Explanation: The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a comprehensive data protection law that requires organizations to implement reasonable security measures to protect sensitive personal data. The GDPR also provides individuals with the right to access and correct their personal data, as well as the right to erasure and data portability.

QUESTION 16

Which of the following is a key requirement of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX) that impacts security governance?

A) Implementation of a incident response plan

B) Conducting regular security audits and risk assessments

C) Ensuring the accuracy and reliability of financial reporting data

D) Providing security awareness training to employees

Answer: C) Ensuring the accuracy and reliability of financial reporting data

Explanation: The Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX) requires publicly traded companies to ensure the accuracy and reliability of financial reporting data. This requirement has significant implications for security governance, as organizations must implement controls to prevent unauthorized access or modification of financial data.

Question 17

Which of the following compliance frameworks requires organizations to implement a minimum of 114 security controls to protect Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI)?

A) NIST Cybersecurity Framework (CSF)

B) NIST 800-171

C) ISO 27001

D) PCI-DSS

Answer: B) NIST 800-171

Explanation: NIST 800-171 is a compliance framework that requires organizations to implement a minimum of 114 security controls to protect Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI). This framework is specifically designed for non-federal organizations that handle CUI on behalf of the US government.

QUESTION 18

Which of the following compliance requirements mandates that organizations implement a data protection program that includes data encryption, access controls, and incident response procedures to protect personal data?

A) HIPAA

B) PCI-DSS

C) GDPR

D) CCPA

Answer: B) PCI-DSS

Explanation: The Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI-DSS) is a compliance requirement that mandates organizations implement a data protection program to protect personal data. This program must include data encryption, access controls, and incident response procedures to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of cardholder data.

Question 19

Under the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), which of the following is a key responsibility of the Data Protection Officer (DPO)?

A) Conducting regular security audits to ensure compliance

B) Providing training to employees on GDPR requirements

C) Monitoring compliance with GDPR and providing advice to the organization

D) Representing the organization in legal proceedings related to GDPR

Answer: C) Monitoring compliance with GDPR and providing advice to the organization

Explanation: Under the GDPR, the Data Protection Officer (DPO) is responsible for monitoring compliance with the regulation and providing advice to the organization. The DPO must have expertise in data protection law and practices, and must be able to provide guidance on GDPR compliance.

QUESTION 20

Which of the following GDPR principles requires organizations to implement data protection by design and by default, and to conduct Data Protection Impact Assessments (DPIAs) for high-risk processing activities?

A) Lawfulness, fairness, and transparency

B) Purpose limitation

C) Data minimization

D) Data protection by design and by default

Answer: D) Data protection by design and