GRE10-6(96.

4)
SECTION 1 (B) misanthropy
Time –30 minutes (C) virtuosity
38 Questions (D) equanimity
(E) prodigality
1.While scientists dismiss as fanciful the idea of sudden
changes in a genetic code (spontaneous mutation), it 6. If the state government's latest budget problems
is possible that nature, like some master musician, were ----, it would not be useful to employ them as
---- on occasion, departing from the expected or ----examples in the effort to avoid the inevitable
predictable. effects of shortsighted fiscal planning in the future.
(A) repeats (A) typical.. representative
(B) improvises (B) exceptional.. aberrant
(C) ornaments (C) anomalous.. illuminating
(D) corrects (D) predictable.. helpful
(E) harmonizes (E) solvable.. insignificant

2. Despite the ---- of time, space, and history, human 7. Just as some writers have ---- the capacity of
societies the world over have confronted the same language to express meaning, Giacometti ---- the
existential problems and have come to remarkably failure of art to convey reality.
---- solutions, differing only in superficial details. (A) scoffed at .. abjured
(A) continuity.. identical (B) demonstrated.. exemplified
(B) uniformity.. diverse (C) denied.. refuted
(C) actualities.. varied (D) proclaimed.. affirmed
(D) contingencies.. similar (E) despaired of .. bewailed
(E) exigencies.. unique
8. WALLET: MONEY::
3. Although he was known to be extremely ---- in his (A) bank: vault
public behavior, scholars have discovered that his (B) suitcase: clothing
diaries were written with uncommon ----. (C) checkbook: balance
(D) wealth: prestige
(A) reserved.. frankness
(E) envelope: stamp
(B) polite.. tenderness
(C) modest.. lucidity 9. INSTRUMENTALIST: SYMPHONY::
(D) reticent.. vagueness (A) author: drama
(E) withdrawn.. subtlety (B) photographer: cinema
(C) composer: concerto
4. With the ---- of scientific knowledge, work on (D) artist: painting
the new edition of a textbook begins soon after (E) dancer: ballet
completion of the original.
10. PLATEAU: CHANGE:
(A) limitation
(A) respite: activity
(B) culmination
(B) asylum: security
(C) veneration (C) terminus: journey
(D) certainty (D) interval: time
(E) burgeoning (E) lull: rest

5. She is most frugal in matters of business, but in her 11. ISTHMUS: LAND::
private life she reveals a streak of ----. (A) peninsula: island
(A) antipathy (B) canal: river
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(C) stratosphere: air the British treacherously resold many into slavery in the
(D) strait: water West Indies, while others obtained freedom in Canada
(E) tunnel: mountain and Africa. Building on Quarles' analysis of the latter
group, Sylvia Frey studied the former slaves who
12. EMBARGO: COMMERCE:: emigrated to British colonies in Canada. According to
(A) abstention: election Frey, these refugees -the most successful of the African
(B) strike: lockout American Revolutionary War participants-viewed
(C) boycott: development themselves as the ideological heirs of the American
(D) quarantine: contact Revolution. Frey sees this inheritances reflected in their
(E) blockade: port demands for the same rights that the American
revolutionaries had demanded from the British: land
13. DILATORY: PROCRASTINATE:: ownership, limits to arbitrary authority and burdensome
(A) recalcitrant: comply taxes, and freedom of religion.
(B) malcontent: complain
(C) ambivalent: decide 17.According to the passage, which of the following
(D) inept: modify is true about the African American Revolutionary
(E) credulous: learn War participants who settled in Canada after the
American Revolution?
14. NOMINAL: SIGNIFICANCE:: (A) Although they were politically unaligned with
(A) titular: honor either side, they identified more with British
(B) ephemeral: brevity ideology than with American ideology.
(C) divisible: continuity (B) While they were not immediately betrayed by
(D) anomalous: distinction the British, they ultimately suffered the same
(E) disjunctive: unity fate as did African American Revolutionary.
War participants who were resold into slavery
15. PLAGIARISM: IDEAS:: in the West Indies.
(A) libel: words (C) They settled in Canada rather than in Africa
(B) forgery: documents because of the greater religious freedom
(C) arson: buildings available in Canada.
(D) kidnapping: ransom (D) They were more politically active than were
(E) rustling: cattle African American Revolutionary War participants
who settled in Africa.
16. POLITIC: OFFEND:: (E) They were more successful than were African
(A) distressing: terrify American Revolutionary War participants who
(B) aloof: associate settled Africa.
(C) misunderstood: surmise
(D) vacuous: deplete 18.Which of the following is most analogous to the
(E) trivial: bore relationship between the African American
Revolutionary War participants who settled in
For many years, Benjamin Quarles' seminal Canada after the American Revolution and the
account of the participation of African Americans in the American revolutionaries, as that relationship is
American Revolution has remained the standard work described in the passage?
in the field. According to Quarles, the outcome of this (A) A brilliant pupil of a great musician rebels
conflict was mixed for African American slaves who against the teacher, but adopts the teacher's
enlisted in Britain's fight against its rebellious musical style after the teacher's unexpected
American colonies in return for the promise of freedom: death.
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GRE10-6(96.4)
(B) Two warring rulers finally make peace after a (E) To reduce the debt incurred during the war, the
lifetime of strife when they realize that they British imposed even higher taxes on the Cana-
have been duped by a common enemy. dian colonists than they had on the American
(C) A child who has sided with a domineering colonists.
parent against a defiant sibling later makes
demands of the parent similar to those once Over the years, biologists have suggested two main
made by the sibling. pathways by which sexual selection may have shaped the
(D) A writer spends much of her life popularizing evolution of male birdsong. In the first, male competition
the work of her mentor, only to discover late in and intrasexual selection produce relatively short, simple
life that much of the older writer's work is songs used mainly in territorial behavior. In the second,
plagiarized from the writings of a foreign female choice and intersexual selection produce longer,
contemporary. more complicated songs used mainly in mate attraction;
(E) Two research scientists spend much of their like such visual ornamentation as the peacock's tail, elabo-
careers working together toward a common rate vocal characteristics increase the male's chances of
goal, but later quarrel over which of them should being chosen as a mate, and he thus enjoys more repro-
receive credit for the training of a promising ductive success than his less ostentatious rivals. The two
student. pathways are not mutually exclusive, and we can expect to
find examples that reflect their interaction. Teasing them
19. The author of the passage suggests that which of the apart has been an important challenge to evolutionary biol-
following is true of Benjamin Quarles' work? ogists.
(A) It introduced a new and untried research method- Early research confirmed the role of intrasexual selection.
ology. In a variety of experiments in the field, males responded
(B) It contained theories so controversial that they aggressively to recorded songs by exhibiting territorial
gave rise to an entire generation of scholarship behavior near the speakers. The breakthrough for
(C) It was a pioneering work that has not yet been research
displaced by subsequent scholarship. into intersexual selection came in the development of a new
(D) It launched the career of a scholar who later wrote technique for investigating female response in the labor-
even more important works. atory. When female cowbirds raised in isolation in sound-
(E) At the time it appeared, its author already enjoyed proof chambers were exposed to recordings of male song,
a well-established reputation in the field. they responded by exhibiting mating behavior. By quanti-
fying the responses, researchers were able to determine
20.Which of the following can be inferred from the what particular features of the song were most important.
passage concerning Britain's rule in its Canadian In further experiments on song sparrows, researchers found
colonies after the American Revolution? that when expos ed to a single song type repeated several
(A) Humiliated by their defeat by the Americans, the times or to a repertoire of different song types, females
British sharply curtailed civil rights in their Canadian responded more to the latter. The beauty of the experi-
colonies. mental design is that it effectively rules out confounding
(B) The British largely ignored their Canadian variables; acoustic isolation assures that the female can
colonies. respond only to the song structure itself.
(C) The British encouraged the colonization of Canada If intersexual selection operates as theorized, males with
by those African Americans who had served on more complicated songs should not only attract females
the American side as well as by those who had more readily but should also enjoy greater reproductive
served on the British side. success. At first, however, researchers doing fieldwork with
(D) Some of Britain's policies in its Canadian colonies song sparrows found no correlation between larger reper-
were similar to its policies in its American colo- toires and early mating, which has been shown to be one
nies before the American Revolution. indicator of reproductive success; further, common measures
132
GRE10-6(96.4)
of male quality used to predict reproductive success, such 23.According to the passage, which of the following is
as weight, size, age, and territory, also failed to correlate specifically related to intrasexual selection?
with song complexity. (A) Female choice
The confirmation researchers had been seeking was (B) Territorial behavior
finally achieved in studies involving two varieties of war - (C) Complex song types
blers. Unlike the song sparrow, which repeats one of its (D) Large song repertoires
several song types in bouts before switching to another, the (E) Visual ornamentation
warbler continuously composes much longer and more vari-
able songs without repetition. For the first time, researchers 24.Which of the following, if true, would most clearly
found a significant correlation between repertoire size and demonstrate the interaction mentioned in lines 11-13?
early mating, and they discovered further that repertoire (A) Female larks respond similarly both to short,
size had a more significant effect than any other measure simple songs and to longer, more complicated
of male quality on the number of young produced. The evi- songs.
dence suggests that warblers use their extremely elaborate (B) Male canaries use visual ornamentation as well as
songs primarily to attract females, clearly confirming the elaborate song repertoires for mate attraction.
effect of intersexual selection on the evolution of birdsong. (C) Both male and female blackbirds develop elabo-
rate visual and vocal characteristics.
21. The passage is primarily concerned with (D) Male jays use songs to compete among themselves
(A) showing that intrasexual selection has a greater and to attract females.
effect on birdsong than does intersexual selection (E) Male robins with elaborate visual ornamentation
(B) contrasting the role of song complexity in several have as much reproductive success as rivals with
species of birds elaborate vocal characteristics.
(C) describing research confirming the suspected rela-
tionship between intersexual selection and the 25. The passage indicates that researchers raised female
complexity of birdsong cowbirds in acoustic isolation in order to
(D) demonstrating the superiority of laboratory work (A) eliminate confounding variables
over field studies in evolutionary biology (B) approximate field conditions
(E) illustrating the effectiveness of a particular (C) measure reproductive success
approach to experimental design in evolutionary (D) quantify repertoire complexity
biology (E) prevent early mating

22.The author mentions the peacock's tail in line 8 most 26. According to the passage, the song sparrow is unlike
probably in order to the warbler in that the song sparrow
(A) cite an exception to the theory of the relationship (A) uses songs mainly in territorial behavior
between intrasexual selection and male compe- (B) continuously composes long and complex songs
tition (C) has a much larger song repertoire
(B) illustrate the importance of both of the pathways (D) repeats one song type before switching to another
that shaped the evolution of birdsong (E) responds aggressively to recorded songs
(C) draw a distinction between competing theories of
intersexual selection 27.The passage suggests that the song sparrow experiments
(D) give an example of a feature that may have mentioned in lines 37-43 failed to confirm the role
evolved through intersexual selection by female of intersexnal selection because
choice (A) females were allowed to respond only to the
(E) refute a commonly held assumption about the role song structure
of song in mate attraction (B) song sparrows are unlike other species of birds
(C) the experiments provided no evidence that
133
GRE10-6(96.4)
elaborate songs increased male reproductive (D) lack of generosity
success (E) lack of distinction
(D) the experiments included the songs of only a small
number of different song sparrows 34. TAME:
(E) the experiments duplicated some of the limitations (A) resolute
of previous field studies (B) ruinous
(C) racy
28. STRINGENT: (D) erratic
(A) lax (E) experienced
(B) elusive
(C) impartial 35. INDURATE:
(D) evident (A) soften
(E) vast (B) puncture
(C) denude
29. INTERIM: (D) immure
(A) obscure (E) exchange
(B) permanent
(C) prudent 36. PROLIXITY:
(D) resolute (A) succinctness
(E) secure (B) profundity
(C) persuasiveness
30. SCATHING: (D) complacency
(A) easily understood (E) cleverness
(B) politely cooperative
(C) intentionally involuted 37. CALLOW:
(D) calmly complimentary (A) displaying keen intelligence
(E) strongly partisan (B) behaving with adult sophistication
(C) reacting cheerfully
31. CAPITULATE: (D) showing foresight
(A) enjoin (E) deciding quickly
(B) resist
(C) observe closely 38. FRIABLE:
(D) consider carefully (A) not easily crumbled
(E) appraise critically (B) not easily torn
(C) not easily melted
32. RECONSTITUTE: (D) not easily eroded
(A) detail (E) not easily punctured
(B) invent
(C) spoil
(D) conform
(E) dehydrate

33. REPUTE:
(A) lack of caution
(B) lack of knowledge
(C) lack of emotion
134
GRE10-6(96.4)
SECTION 2 (C) Average fuel efficiency of newly manufactured
Time –30 inutes imported cars has steadily worsened since 1988.
25 Questions (D) Average fuel efficiency of newly manufactured
imported cars has steadily improved since 1983.
1.The ancient Greek playwright Euripides followed the (E) Average fuel efficiency of imported cars manu-
established conventions of verse composition less rig- factured in 1983 was better than that of
orously at the end of his career than at the beginning. imported cars manufactured in 1988.
Since the lines from a recently discovered Euripidean
play adhere to those conventions as rigorously as do Questions 3-8
lines from Euripides' early plays, the recently discov-
ered play must have been composed early in Euripides’ In order to remodel a kitchen, exactly six major tasks—
career. installing appliances, plumbing, refinishing, sanding,
tiling, and wallpapering? are to be done over six con-
Whic h of the following is an assumption made in the secutive days? numbered 1 through 6. The order of the
argument? tasks is governed by the following conditions：
(A) All of Euripides' plays were written in verse.
(B) Euripides did not write any plays late in his Exactly one task must be done each day.
career in which he imitated the style of his Refinishing must be done on the day after sanding is done.
early plays. Installing appliances and tiling must each be done on
(C) Euripides grew increasingly unaware of the some day after the day on which plumbing is done.
established conventions of verse composition Wallpapering must be done on some day after the day
as his career progressed. on which refinishing is done.
(D) Late in his career, Euripides was the only
playwright of his day who consciously broke 3.Which of the following is an acceptable order in
with the established conventions of verse which the tasks can be done on days 1 through 6?
composition. (A) Installing appliances, sanding, refinishing,
(E) Ancient playwrights tended to be less willing to wallpapering, plumbing, tiling
violate certain conventions early in their (B) Plumbing, installing appliances, wallpapering,
careers than they were later in their careers sanding, refinishing, tiling
(C) Plumbing, sanding, refinishing, installing
2.In the United States, average fuel efficiency of appliances, wallpapering, tiling
newly manufactured domestic cars, although (D) Sanding, plumbing, installing appliances,
remaining worse than that of newly manufactured refinishing, tiling, wallpapering
imported cars, substantially improved between 1983 (E) Sanding, refinishing, tiling, wallpapering,
and 1988. Average fuel efficiency of new domestic plumbing, installing appliances
cars has not improved since, but the difference in
average fuel efficiencies of new domestic cars and 4.The latest day on which plumbing can be done is day
new imported cars has steadily decreased. (A) 1
(B) 2
If the statements above are true, which of the (C) 3
following must also be true on the basis of them? (D) 4
(A) Average fuel efficiency of domestic cars manu- (E) 5
factured after 1988 was better than that of
imported cars manufactured before 1988. 5.If sanding is done on day 1, then wallpapering
(B) Average fuel efficiency of newly manufactured CANNOT be done on day
domestic cars has steadily worsened since 1988. (A) 2
135
GRE10-6(96.4)
(B) 3 to a similar degree in the four countries
(C) 4 (B) a country can withstand a severe famine without
(D) 5 a substantial increase in mortality
(E) 6 (C) a substantial decline in production of food per
person in a country does not necessarily result
6.If tiling is done on day 2 and installing appliances is in famine and increased deaths
done on day 5, which of the following are the tasks (D) the drought was more severe in the four countries
that must be done on days 1 and 6, respectively? by 1984 than it had been in 1982
(A) Plumbing, refinishing (E) there is no way to differentiate between coun-
(B) Plumbing, wallpapering tries that will and countries that will not suffer
(C) Sanding, plumbing severe famine when food production drops
(D) Sanding, wallpapering sharply
(E) Wallpapering, sanding
10.Which of the following, if true, contributes most to
7.If plumbing is done on day 1 and wallpapering is an explanation of differences in the presence of
done on day 5, which of the following can be the famine that are shown on the graph?
tasks that are done on days 2 and 6, respectively?
(A) The drought that began in 1981 was more severe
(A) Refinishing, tiling
in the countries of Botswana and Zimbabwe
(B) Sanding, installing appliances
than in Sudan and Ethiopia.
(C) Sanding, refinishing
(B) Before the drought, Sudan, Ethiopia, and Bots-
(D) Tiling, refinishing
wana were exporters of their major food crops,
(E) Tiling, sanding
including grain, but Zimbabwe was not an
exporter of its major food crops.
8.If tiling is done on day 3, which of the following
(C) During 1979-1984, the population of Botswana
must be done on day 2?
and Zimbabwe combined was less than the
(A) Installing appliances
population of either Sudan or Ethiopia.
(B) Plumbing
(D) At the beginning of the drought, surplus food
(C) Refinishing
stocks in Sudan and Botswana were larger,
(D) Sanding
relative to population, than in Ethiopia and
(D) Wallpapering
Zimbabwe.
(E) Popular demand for relief elic ited a prompt
Questions 9-10 are based on the following graph.
response from the governments of Botswana
and Zimbabwe, because they were democracies,
but not from the nondemocratic governments
of Sudan and Ethiopia.

11. Between 1970 and 1980, energy consumption by

United States industry peaked and then declined, so
that by 1980 total industrial use of energy was below
the 1970 level even though total industrial output
had grown substantially in the same period. Industry
must have instituted highly effective energy conser-
vation measures in those years to have achieved such
impressive results.
9. It can be properly concluded from the graph that
(A) the drought beginning after 1981 affected crops
136
GRE10-6(96.4)
Which of the following, if true, most seriously weak- Questions 13-17
ens the conclusion of the argument?
Exactly seven detectives? G, H, J, K, M, O, and P—
(A) Many industries switched to the greatest extent
will investigate two cases— case 1 and case 2. Each of
possible from high-priced oil to lower-priced
the seven detectives will investigate exactly one of the
alternatives throughout the 1970's.
two cases. Four of the detectives will investigate case 1,
(B) Total residential energy consumption was higher
and three of the detectives will investigate case 2. Detec-
in the United States in 1980 than it had been
tives will be assigned to cases in accordance with the
in 1970
following conditions：
(C) Many industrial users of energy had paid little
attention to energy conservation prior to 1970.
G cannot investigate the same case that J investigates.
(D) Industrial output grew less rapidly from 1970 to
Whichever case K investigates must also be the case
1980 than it had from 1960 to 1970.
that M investigates.
(E) The industries whose production dropped sharply
H must investigate case 1.
during the 1970's included a disproportionately
large number of energy-intensive industries.
13. Which of the following is an acceptable assignment
of the detectives to the two cases?
12.Many people acquire software programs for their
Case 1 Case 2
home computers by illegally copying those programs
(A) G, H, J, P K, M, O
rather than purchasing them. People who own home
(B) G, K, M, O H, J, P
computers must be making, on average, fewer illegal
(C) H, J, O G, K, M, P
copies of software programs than before, however,
(D) H, J, K, M G, O, P
since the average number of software programs that
(E) H, J, K, P G, M, O
people purchase to use on their home computers has
increased substantially over the past five years.
14.If J investigates the same case that P investigates,
which of the following detectives must investigate
Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the
the same case that K investigates?
argument?
(A) G
(A) The number of home computers in use has (B) H
increased substantially over the past five years. (C) J
(B) Five years ago, about half of the software pro- (D) O
grams used on home computers had been (E) P
illegally copied rather than purchased.
(C) Most people who have home computers use 15.If O investigates case 2, which of the following must
their computers more frequently the longer also investigate case 2?
they have them. (A) G
(D) Few people who prefer to copy computer (B) J
software programs illegally cannot copy the (C) K
software programs they want because they (D) M
have no acquaintances who have those (E) P
software programs.
(E) On average, people with home computers have 16.If J investigates case 2, which of the following is a
the same number of software programs today as pair of detectives who must investigate the same
people with home computers did five years ago. case as each other?
(A) G and H
(B) G and P
137
GRE10-6(96.4)
(C) H and O (D) 4
(D) J and K (E) 5
(E) J and M
20.Which of the following must be true in a year in
17.Any of the following can be true EXCEPT： which G is planted in row 5?
(A) G investigates the same case that H investigates. (A) F is planted in row 1.
(B) H investigates the same case that M investigates. (B) J is planted in row 3.
(C) K investigates the same case that O investigates. (C) K is planted in row 2.
(D) J investigates case 1. (D) M is planted in row 1.
(E) P investigates case 2. (E) M is planted in row 3.

Questions 18-22 21.If M is to be planted in row 5 in the second year the

garden is planted, then which of the following must
Each year, a gardener will plant five kinds of vegetables — be planted in row 4 in the first year?
F, G, J, K, and M, not necessarily in that order— in a (A) F
garden consisting of five parallel, adjacent rows, numbered (B) G
consecutively 1 through 5. One kind of vegetable will be (C) J
planted per row each year according to the following (D) K
rules： (E) M

K cannot be planted in the same row in any two 22.If in a given year J is planted in row 1, then in the
successive years. next year K can be planted in row
If J is planted in a given row in one year, M must be (A) 1 or 5 but cannot be planted in any other row
planted in that row the next year. (B) 2 or 4 but cannot be planted in any other row
Because of nutrient requirements, F and M cannot in (C) 2 or 5 but cannot be planted in any other row
any year be planted in rows that are adjacent to each (D) 3 or 5 but cannot be planted in any other row
other. (E) 4 or 5 but cannot be planted in any other row
In any year, J must be planted in a row that is adjacent
to the row in which G is planted. 23.From a newspaper editorial：
Many people who are addicted to heroin will even-
18.Which of the following is an acceptable plan for tually attempt to overcome their addiction, prin-
planting in the first year the garden is planted, with cipally for two reasons ：the expense of maintaining
the kinds of vegetables in order from row 1 through a heroin addiction and the fear of arrest. If heroin
row 5? were legalized and made available cheaply, as some
(A) F, G, J, M, K people advocate, neither of these reasons would
(B) G, M, J, K, F apply
(C) J, K, M, G, F
(D) K, J, G, M, F The considerations above can best serve as part of an
(E) M, G, K, J, F argument that
(A) legalizing the sale of heroin would cause the
19.If in a given year the order of the vegetables planted, price of this drug to go down
from row 1 through row 5, is K, F, G, J, M, then in (B) making it easier for heroin addicts to obtain
the next year. F must be planted in row treatment for their addiction would encourage
(A) 1 many heroin addicts to attempt to overcome
(B) 2 their addiction
(C) 3 (C) legalizing the sale of heroin would increase the
138
GRE10-6(96.4)
number of crimes committed by heroin addicts (B) There is wide popular support in Laurelia for the
to support their addiction reintroduction of strict limits on the sale of lock-
(D) making heroin available legally and cheaply picking equipment.
would make it less likely that heroin addicts (C) The reintroduction of strict limits on the sale of
will attempt to overcome their addiction lock-picking equipment in Laurelia would not
(E) decreasing the severity of penalties for individuals prevent legitimate use of this equipment by
who use heroin would not increase the number police and other public safety officials.
of new heroin addicts (D) Most lock-picking equipment used in Laurelia is
fragile and usually breaks irreparably within a
24.Stem borers are insect pests that often ruin North few years of purchase.
American corn crops. On some other continents, crop (E) The introduction five years ago of harsher punish-
damage by stem borers is controlled by a certain ments for people convicted of burglary had little
species of wasp. Since these wasps eat nothing but effect on Laurelia's burglary rate.
stem borers, importing them into North America will
keep crop damage from stem borers under control
without endangering other North American insect
species.

Which of the following is an assumption on which the

argument depends?
(A) Corn is the principal food of stem borers that
live on continents other than North America.
(B) The wasps are capable of surviving in North
America long enough to eat significant
numbers of stem borers.
(C) No wasp in North America is closely related to
the species of wasp that eats stem borers.
(D) On continent other than North America, the
wasps control stem borers more effectively
than does any other pest control measure.
(E) Corn crops on continents other than North
America are not damaged by any insect pests
other than stem borers.

25.In the country of Laurelia, legal restrictions on the sale

of lock-picking equipment were relaxed ten years ago,
and since then Laurelia's burglary rate has risen dramat-
ically. Hence, since legally purchased lock-picking
equipment was used in most burglaries, reintroducing
strict limits on the sale of this equipment would help to
reduce Laurelia's burglary rate.

Which of the following, if true, gives the strongest

support to the argument?
(A) Laurelia's overall crime rate has risen dramatically
over the last ten years.
139
GRE10-6(96.4)
SECTION 3
Time –30 minutes
30 Questions

1 1
1.
0.82 0.81

2. The number of miles 10,000

the rocket travels in
10. The area of square a 2 + b2
2 hours
region TUVW
11. The median of the positive integers l, m, n, r, and s is
− x + 4 y = 20
10, where l < m < n < r < s.
x − y =1 +s
10
3. x y 2

3
4. 2 (2 )
(2 2 )3

0 < n <1
4
5.
n+3

O is the center of both circles.

6. 2 + 2 2 2 12. The area of the The area of the
circular region shaded sector ROQ
with radius OP

−4≤ x≤ 4
− 8 ≤ y ≤ −4
13. The greatest possible 200
7. r+v s+t value of 25x – 12.5y

A grocer buys apples at the regular price of 38

cents per pound.
8. The amount saved by The additional amount p, q, r, and s are the coordinates of
the grocer on a pur- paid by the grocer on a the points indicated on the number line.
chase of 100 pounds purchase of 100 pounds
of apples if the price of apples if the price 14. p+q r +s
per pound is x cents per pound is x cents
less than the regular more han the regular x≠0
price price 15. − −x − (x)

9. 2x + y x+y

140
GRE10-6(96.4)
16. If 3x + 9y = 7x + y. then 8y= were derived by subtracting 1/3 of the number of
(A) 4x wrong answers from the number of right answers.
(B) 6x On a 40-question test, if none of the questions was
(C) 8x omitted and the score reported was 20, how many
(D) 10x wrong answers were there?
(E) 12x (A) 5
(B) 10
17. If the number of microbes in a test tube increases by (C) 15
25 percent per day, how many microbes are there in (D) 25
the test tube at the end of a given day if the number (E) 30
of microbes at the end of the next day is 240,000 ?
(A) 180,000
(B) 192,000
(C) 210,000
(D) 288,000
(E) 300,000

18. The average (arithmetic mean) of five numbers is 88.

Four of the numbers are 92, 89, 91.....84. What is 20. In the figure above, a – 2b =
the fifth number? (A)-10
(A) 82 (B)-8
(B) 84 (C) 0
(C) 86 (D) 8
(D) 89 (E) 10
(E) 92

19. The scores reported for a certain multiple-choice test

21. Which program resulted in an increase in energy use 22. For which Program were actual energy savings a closest
instead of a decrease as projected? to 3/4 of the projected savings?
(A) Program G (A) Program G
(B) Program J (B) Program H
(C) Program K (C) Program P
(D) Program M (D) Program Q
(E) Program R (E) Program T

141
GRE10-6(96.4)
23. How many of the programs resulted in greater energy (A) two perpendicular line segments
savings than were projected? (B) two parallel line segments
(A) One (C) a circular region
(B) Three (D) a triangular region
(C) Four (E) a square region
(D) Five
(E) Eight

24. For which program was the ratio of actual energy

savings to projected energy savings closest to 1?
(A) Program G
(B) Program K
(C) Program M
(D) Program P
(E) It cannot be determined from the information given. 29. The figure above shows a rectangular play area in which
one child stands at B while another child runs back and
25. Actual energy savings for Program G were forth along the entire side AD. If the running child is in a
approximately what fraction of actual energy savings for position randomly located along side AD at a given time,
Program T ? what is the probability that the two children are at most
(A) 1/5 50 feet apart at that time?
(B) 1/4 1
(A)
(C) 3/5 5
(D) 5/3
2
(E) It cannot be determined from the information given
(B) 5

26. If x is the sum of seven consecutive odd integers

3
beginning with 3 and y is the sum of seven consecutive
(C) 5
odd integers beginning with 5, then y-x equals
(A) 2
4
(B) 7
(D) 5
(C) 8
(D) 12 (E) 1
(E) 14

30. On a highway there is an electric pole every 96 feel. If

5 −1 × 55
27. If 4
= 5 y , what is the value of y? the poles am numbered consecutively, what is the
5 number of the pole 2 miles past pole number 56 ? (1
(A) 0 mile = 5,280 feet)
(B) 1 (A) 109
(C) 2 (B) 110
(D) 3 (C) 152
(E) 4 (D) 165
(E) 166
28. In a rectangular coordinate system, the set of all points (x,
y) such that -2< x < 2 and -2 < y < 2 comprises

142
GRE10-6(96.4)
SECTION 4
Time –30 minutes
30 Questions

9 90
1.
13 130 9. The area of triangular The area of triangular
region ABC region ABC

x < 10 < y
x 2 + (2 5 ) 2 = 6 2
2. x – 10 y – 10
10. |x| 4
3. 10 percent of 25 percent 35 percent of
of $69.97 $69.97
x = y2
1 = cy
a = −1
11. xc y
b=2
c =3
Cylindrical tank X has radius 4 meters and height 3
meters. Cylindrical tank Y has radius 3 meters and
a2 + b 2 1
4. height 4 meters.
c2 3
12. The volume of tank X The volume of tank Y

x 4
=
y 6
13. y-x 1

5. x 50 O is the center of the circle.

PQ < OP
14. x 60
6. 26 + 10 8

15.The mean of the The median of

45 scores the 45 scores

7. The area of rectangular 84 16. If the temperature of a compound increases at a constant

region ABCD rate of 15 degrees per minute, how many minutes does it
M(r, s, t) denotes the average (arithmetic mean) of r, take for the temperature of the compound to increase
s, and t, and M(x, y) denotes the average of x and y. from 60 degrees to 300 degrees?
8. M(70, 80, 90) M(x, 90) where (A) 12
x =M(70,80) (B) 16
143
GRE10-6(96.4)
(C) 20
(D) 24
(E) 30

12
17. If = 2, which of the following must be true?
r
7−
s
(A) r = 0
(B) r = 6
(C) r = s
(D) r = 2s
(E) r = 3s

18. If the edges of a 3-inch by 4-inch rectangular photograph 21. For the year after 1940 in which box office receipts were
were each lengthened by 50 percent, what would be the less than they were ten years before, what was the
area. in square inches, of the enlarged rectangular average admission charge?
photograph? (A)$0.53
(A)18 (B)$0.69
(B)20 (C)$1.55
(C)24 (D)$2.69
(D)27 (E)$4.75
(E)30
22. Which of the following is closest to the ratio of the
average admission charge in 1950 to that in 1990?
x 1
19. If = 2 and = 3, then y= 1
y x (A) 오후 9:59
2
(A)1/6 1
(B)
(B)2/3 4
(C)1 1
(C)
(D)3/2 2
(E)6 1
(D)
9
20. Three pumps, X, Y, and Z. removed water from a tank. 1
(E)
Pump X removed 550 gallons, pump Y removed 1,250 15
gallons, and pump Z removed 1/3 of the total number of
gallons removed by the three pumps combined. How 23. Approximately how many admissions were paid in
many gallons of water did pump Z remove from the 1940 ?
tank? (A)300,000
(A) 450 (B)1,800,000
(B) 600 (C)3,000,000
(C) 900 (D)177,000,000
(D) 1,800 (E)3,000,000,000
(E) 2,700

144
GRE10-6(96.4)
(A) 8

(B) 8 2

(C) 16

(D) 16 2

(E) 32 2

24. What was the percent decrease in the number of farms 28. How many 3-digit integers, greater than 100. are there
from 1970 to 1990 ? in which the sum of the digits equals 3?
(A) 9% (A) Three
(B) 21% (B) Four
(C) 30% (C) Six
(D) 70% (D) Nine
(E) 90% (E) Twelve

25. The average acreage per farm was approximately 140 in

1910 and 220 in 1950. The ratio of the total farmland
acreage in 1910 to the total in 1950 was most nearly
3
(A)
4
2 29. An equilateral triangle with perimeter p, a square and a
(B)
3 semicircle were joined to form the figure shown above.
3 What is the perimeter of this figure?
(C)
5 (A) 3p
1 p
(D) (B) + πp
2 2
2 π
(E) (C) 7 p + p
5 2
7 π
(D) p+ p
26. A research scientist wants to study a certain attribute of 3 3
dogs. It is estimated that approximately 5 percent of all 4 π
(E) p+ p
dogs have this attribute. If the scientist wants to study a 3 6
sample of N dogs having the attribute, approximately
how many dogs should be screened in order to obtain the 1
30. If x is 11 percent more than y, then y is what percent
desired sample size? 9
(A) N/5 less than x?
(B) 5N (A) 9%
(C) 2ON (B) 10%
(D) 105N. 1
(C) 11 %
(E) 120N 9
1
(D) 12 %
27. A square is inscribed in a circle. If the circle has radius 4. 2
what is the perimeter of the square ? (E) 15%

145
GRE10-6(96.4)
SECTION 5 5. Despite vigorous protestations, the grin on the teen-
Time –30 minutes ager's face ----her denial that she had known
38 Questions about the practical joke before it was played on her
parents.
1. In spite of the fact that it is convenient to divide the (A) belied
life span of animals into separate stages such as pre- (B) illustrated
natal, adolescent, and senescent, these periods are not (C) reinforced
really----. (D) exacerbated
(A) advanced (E) trivialized
(B) variable
(C) repeatable 6. Far from undermining the impression of permanent
(D) connected decline, the ---- statue seemed emblematic of its
(E) distinct ---- surroundings.
(A) indecorous.. opulent
2. Although the number of reported volcanic eruptions (B) grandiose.. ramshackle
has risen exponentially since 1850, this indicates not (C) pretentious.. simple
---- volcanic activity but rather more widespread (D) ungainly.. elegant
and ---- record keeping. (E) tawdry.. blighted
(A) abating..detailed
(B) increasing..systematic 7. Despite the fact that it is almost universally ----,
(C) substantial..erratic the practice of indentured servitude still ---- in
(D) stable..superficial many parts of the world.
(E) consistent..meticulous (A) condemned… abates
(B) tolerated.. survives
3. The challenge of interpreting fictional works written (C) proscribed.. persists
under politically repressive regimes lies in distin- (D) mandated.. lingers
guishing what is ---- to an author's beliefs, as (E) disdained.. intervenes
opposed to what is ---- by political coercion.
(A) innate.. understood 8. CANDY: SUGAR::
(B) organic.. imposed (A) chick: egg
(C) contradictory.. conveyed (B) tire: rubber
(D) oblique.. captured (C) pen: ink
(E) peripheral.. demanded (D) mushroom: spore
(E) rag: scrap
4. I am often impressed by my own ---- other
people's idiocies: what is harder to ---- is that they, 9. SCRIPT: DRAMA::
in their folly, are equally engaged in putting up with (A) theater: play
mine. (B) movement: symphony
(A) analysis of.. justify (C) photograph: scene
(B) forbearance toward.. underestimate (D) map: town
(C) exasperation with .. credit (E) score: music
(D) involvement in .. allow
(E) tolerance of .. appreciate 10. AMBIGUOUS: UNDERSTAND::
(A) veracious: defend
(B) blatant: ignore

146
GRE10-6(96.4)
(C) prosaic: classify
(D) arcane: conceal An experiment conducted aboard Space Lab in 1983 was
(E) plausible: believe the first attempt to grow protein crystals in the low-gravity
environment of space. That experiment is still cited as evi-
11. MERCURIAL: MOOD:: dence that growing crystals in microgravity can increase
(A) callous: emotion crystal size: the authors reported that they grew lysozyme
(B) doleful: energy protein crystals 1,000 times larger than crystals grown in
(C) jaundiced: attitude the same device on Earth. Unfortunately, the authors did
(D) whimsical: behavior not point out that their crystals were no larger than the
(E) unversed: experience average crystal grown using other, more standard tech-
niques in an Earth laboratory.
12. PRISTINE: DECAY:: No research has yet produced results that could justify
(A) adequate: imprecision the enormous costs of producing crystals on a large scale in
(B) stable: fluctuation space. To get an unbiased view of the usefulness of micro-
(C) volatile: force gravity crystal growth, crystals grown in space must be
(D) symmetric: flaw compared with the best crystals that have been grown with
(E) valid: exception standard techniques on Earth. Given the great expense of
conducting such experiments with proper controls, and the
13. DIGRESS: EXCURSIVE:: limited promise of experiments performed thus far, it is
(A) improvise: studied questionable whether further experiments in this area
(B) reiterate: redundant should even be conducted.
(C) excise: prolix
(D) refute: plausible 17.According to the passage, which of the following
(E) accede: contentious is true about the Space Lab experiment conducted in
1983?
14. PONTIFICATE: SPEAK:: (A) It was the first experiment to take place in the
(A) indoctrinate: preach microgravity environment of space.
(B) impersonate: imitate (B) It was the first experiment in which researchers
(C) obey: listen in space were able to grow lysozyme protein
(D) soar: fly crystals greater in size than those grown on
(E) strut: walk Earth.
(C) Its results have been superseded by subsequent
15. OFFICIOUS: MEDDLE:: research in the field of microgravity protein
(A) disaffected: rebel crystal growth.
(B) bustling: excel (D) Its results are still considered by some to be
(C) profligate: conserve evidence for the advantages of microgravity
(D) subservient: esteem protein crystal growth.
(E) acrimonious: soothe (E) Its results are considered by many to be invalid
because nonstandard techniques were employed.
16. ATTENUATE: THICKNESS::
(A) separate: substance 18.It can be inferred from the passage that the author
(B) ventilate: circulation would find the Space Lab experiment more impressive
(C) vaccinate: immunity if which of the following were true?
(D) transfer: location (A) The results of the Space Lab experiment could be
(E) cool: temperature replicated in producing other kinds of crystals in

147
GRE10-6(96.4)
addition to lysozyme protein. In 1923 the innovative Russian filmmaker Dziga Vertov
(B) The device used in the experiment produced larger described filmmaking as a process that leads viewers toward
crystals on Earth than it did in space. a "fresh perception of the world." Vertov's description of
(C) The size of the crystals produced in the experi- filmmaking should apply to films on the subject of art. Yet
ment exceeded the size of crystals grown in films on art have not had a powerful and pervasive effect
Earth laboratories using standard techniques. on the way we see.
D)The cost of producing the crystals in space Publications on art flourish, but these books and articles
exceeded that of producing them using standard do not necessarily succeed in teaching us to see more deeply
laboratory techniques. or more clearly. Much writing in art history advances the
(E) The standard techniques used in Earth laboratories discourse in the field but is unlikely to inform the eye of
were modified in the Space Lab experiment due one unfamiliar with its polemics. Films, however, with their
to the effects of microgravity. capacity to present material visually and to reach a broader
audience, have the potential to enhance visual literacy (the
19.Which of the following can be inferred from the pas- ability to identify the details that characterize a particular
sage about the device used to grow crystals in the style) more effectively than publications can. Unfortunately,
Space Lab experiment? few of the hundred or so films on art that are made each
(A) The device is more expensive to manufacture than year in the United States are broadcast nationally on prime-
are the devices used in standard techniques in an time television.
Earth laboratory. The fact that films on art are rarely seen on prime-time
(B) The device has not been used to grow crystals in television may be due not only to limitations on distribution
space since the Space Lab experiment of 1983. but also to the shortcomings of many such films. Some of
(C) Crystals grown in the device on Earth tend to be these shortcomings can be attributed to the failure of art
much smaller than crystals grown in it in space. historians and filmmakers to collaborate closely enough
(D) Crystals grown in the device in space have been when making films on art. These professionals are able,
exceeded in size by crystals grown in subsequent within their respective disciplines, to increase our aware-
experiments in space using other devices. ness of visual forms. For close collaboration to occur,
(E) The experiments in which the device was used professionals in each discipline need to recognize that films
were conducted with proper controls. on art can be both educational and entertaining, but this
will require compromise on both sides.
20.The passage suggests that the author would most prob- A filmmaker who is creating a film about the work of
ably agree with which of the following assessments of an artist should not follow the standards set by rock videos
the results of the Space Lab experiment? and advertising. Filmmakers need to resist the impulse to
(A) Although the results of the experiment are move the camera quickly from detail to detail for fear of
impressive, the experiment was too limited in boring the viewer, to frame the image for the sake of drama
scope to allow for definitive conclusions. alone, to add music for fear of silence. Filmmakers are
(B) The results of the experiment are impressive on aware that an art object demands concentration and, at the
the surface, but the report is misleading. same time, are concerned that it may not be compelling
(C) The results of the experiment convincingly enough? and so they hope to provide relief by interposing
confirm what researchers have long suspected. "real" scenes that bear only a tangential relationship to the
(D) Because of design flaws, the experiment did not subject. But a work of art needs to be explored on its own
yield any results relevant to the issue under terms. On the other hand, art historians need to trust that
investigation. one can indicate and analyze, not solely with words, but
(E) The results of the experiment are too contradictory also by directing the viewer's gaze. The specialized written
to allow for easy interpretation. language of art history needs to be relinquished or at least
tempered for the screen. Only an effective collaboration

148
GRE10-6(96.4)
between filmmakers and art historians can create films that presented.
will enhance viewers' perceptions of art. (E) A strategy is presented, reasons for its past failure
are discussed, and then a recommendation that
21.The passage suggests that a filmmaker desiring to will be abandoned is offered.
enhance viewers’perceptions of art should do which of
the following? 24.The passage is primarily concerned with
(A) Rely on the precise language of art history when (A) discussing why film's potential as a medium for
developing scripts for films on art. presenting art to the general public has not been
(B) Rely on dramatic narrative and music to set a fully realized and how film might be made more
film's tone and style. effective in this regard
(C) Recognize that a work of art by itself can be (B) discussing the shortcomings of films on art and
compelling enough to hold a viewer's attention the technological innovations required to increase
(D) Depend more strongly on narration instead of the impact of film on visual literacy
camera movements to guide the viewer's gaze. (C) discussing the advantages and the disadvantages of
(E) Emphasize the social and the historical contexts using films rather than publications to present
within which works of art have been created. works of art to the general public
(D) presenting information to support the view that
22.The author of the passage refers to Vertov in the first films on art must focus more on education and
paragraph most probably in order to less on entertainment in order to increase visual
(A) provide an example of how films can be used to literacy
influence perceptions (E) presenting information to support the view that
(B) present evidence to support the argument that films on art, because they reach a broader audi-
films have been used successfully to influence ence than many other kinds of media, have had
viewers' perceptions greater success in promoting visual literacy
(C) introduce the notion that film can influence how
viewers see 25.The author would most likely agree with which of the
(D) contrast a traditional view of the uses of film following statements about film and visual literacy?
with a more modern view (A) Reading a publication about a work of art and
(E) describe how film can change a viewer's then seeing a film about the same work is the
perception of a work of art most effective way to develop visual literacy.
(B) An increase in a viewer's awareness of visual
23.Which of the following best describes the organization forms will also lead to an increased attention
of the passage? span.
(A) An observation about an unsatisfactory situation (C) Film has a great but not yet fully exploited capac-
is offered, the reasons for the situation are dis- ity to increase viewers' awareness of visual
cussed, and then ways to change it are suggested. forms.
(B) Two opinions regarding a controversial phenom- (D) A film that focuses on the details of a work of art
enon are contrasted, supporting evidence for will hinder the development of visual literacy.
each is presented, and then the two opinions are (E) Films on art would more effectively enhance the
reconciled. visual literacy of teenagers if filmmakers
(C) Criticism of a point of view is discussed, the followed the standards set by rock videos.
criticism is answered, and then the criticism is
applied to another point of view. 26.According to the passage, art historians desiring to
(D) A point of view is described, evidence supporting work with filmmakers to enhance the public's appreci-
the view is provided, and then a summary is ation of art need to acknowledge which of the fol-

149
GRE10-6(96.4)
lowing?
(A) The art historian's role in the creation of a film on 31. OPACITY:
art is likely to be a relatively minor one. (A) transparency
(B) Film provides an ideal opportunity to acquaint (B) smoothness
viewers with a wide range of issues that relate (C) colorlessness
incidentally to a work of art. (D) elongation and thinness
(C) An in-depth analysis of a work of art is not an (E) hardness and durability
appropriate topic for a film on art.
(D) Although silence may be an appropriate back- 32. MISGIVING:
ground when viewing a work of art in a (A) consistency
museum, it is inappropriate in a film. (B) certainty
(E) Film can use nonverbal means to achieve some of (C) generosity
the same results that a spoken or written dis- (D) loyalty
course can achieve. (E) affection

27.Which of the following would describe the author's 33. HARANGUE:

most likely reaction to a claim that films on art would (A) overtly envy
more successfully promote visual literacy if they (B) intermittently forget
followed the standards set for rock videos? (C) gratefully acknowledge
(A) Ambivalence (D) speak temperately
(B) Indifference (E) sacrifice unnecessarily
(C) Sympathy
(D) Interest 34. GERMANE:
(E) Disdain (A) unproductive
(B) irregular
28. ACCESSORY: (C) indistinguishable
(A) insubordinate (D) irrelevant
(B) invisible (E) unsubstantiated
(C) of high quality
(D) of massive proportions 35. IMPUGN:
(E) of primary importance (A) rectify
(B) classify
29. CHAMPION: (C) vindicate
(A) emulate (D) mollify
(B) disparage (E) chastise
(C) compel
(D) anticipate 36. INEXORABLE:
(E) disappoint (A) discernible
(B) quantifiable
30. DECADENCE: (C) relenting
(A) cheerfulness (D) inspiring
(B) promptness (E) revealing
(C) cleanliness
(D) wholesomeness 37. RESTIVE:
(E) carefulness (A) necessary

150
GRE10-6(96.4)
(B) interesting SECTION 6
(C) calm Time –30 minutes
(D) healthy 25 Questions
(E) deft

38. BAIT: Questions 1-7

(A) perplex
(B) disarm A professor of economics is writing a textbook that will
(C) delude consist of eight chapters, numbered consecutively from 1
(D) release through 8, each of which will explain exactly one of eight
(E) fortify subjects：N, O, R, S, T, X, Y, and Z. No subject will be
explained in more than one chapter. Considerations of
background knowledge and relatedness between subjects
require that the order in which the eight subjects are
explained be subject to the following conditions：

N and O must be explained in two successive chapters,

not necessarily in that order.
R, S, and T must be explained in three successive
chapters, with S explained in an earlier chapter than
T is explained.
X, Y, and Z must be explained in three successive
chapters,with Z explained in an earlier chapter than
X is explained and in an earlier chapter than Y is
explained.
R must be explained in chapter 6.

1.Which of the following is an acceptably ordered list

of the subjects to be explained, in order from chapter 1
through chapter 8?

(A) N, O, Y, Z, X, R, S, T
(B) O, N, S, T, X, R, Y, Z
(C) O, N, Z, X, Y, S, T, R
(D) Z, X, Y, S, T, R, N, O
(E) Z, X, Y, T, S, R, N, O

2.If O is explained in chapter 5, which of the following

could be true?

(A) S is explained in chapter 4.

(B) T is explained in chapter 7.
(C) X is explained in chapter 2.
(D) Y is explained in chapter 1.
(E) Z is explained in chapter 3.

151
GRE10-6(96.4)
3.If S is explained in an earlier chapter than N is 8.Salesperson：The picture tube is the central com-
explained, which of the following must be true? ponent of any television, and Picturesque tele-
visions use the same high-quality picture tubes
(A) N is explained in chapter 7.
as those used in TruVue televisions. Since you
(B) O is explained in chapter 8.
pay a much lower price for a Picturesque, you
(C) X is explained in chapter 3.
pay a lower price for a television with the same
(D) Y is explained in chapter 2.
picture quality when you buy a Picturesque
(E) Z is explained in chapter 1.
instead of a TruVue.
Which of the following is an assumption that, if
4.If N is explained in the chapter immediately pre-
justified, would allow the conclusion of the sales-
ceding the chapter in which Z is explained, which of
person's argument to be properly drawn?
the following could be explained in chapter 5?
(A) TruVue televisions are much more widely
(A) N
advertised than are Picturesque televisions.
(B) O
(B) The picture quality of a television is determined
(C) S
solely by the quality of its picture tube.
(D) T
(C) A salesperson earns much less on the sale of
(E) X
each Picturesque television than on the sale of
each TruVue television.
5.If T is not explained in chapter 5, which of the
(D) Many more Picturesque televisions are sold
following must be true?
each year than TruVue television.
(A) N is explained in chapter 3. (E) Picturesque televisions are assembled in the
(B) O is explained in chapter 8. same factory that assembles TruVue tele-
(C) S is explained in chapter 7. visions.
(D) X is explained in chapter 2.
(E) Y is explained in chapter 4.

6.O can be explained in any of the following chapters

EXCEPT

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 7

7.If Y is explained in the chapter immediately pre-

ceding the chapter in which O is explained, which of
the following must be explained in chapter 5?

(A) N
(B) T
(C) X
(D) Y
(E) Z

152
GRE10-6(96.4)

9. The claim that Civenia's antismoking television 10.Which of the following, if true, most helps to
advertising campaign contributed significantly to the explain why cigarette purchases in Civenia declined
steep decline in cigarette purchases in that province more slowly after the completion of the television
during 1991 is best supported if which of the follow- antismoking advertising campaign than they did
ing has been true about the province of Halbernia before the campaign began?
from the beginning of 1991? (A) Laws restricting smoking in public places in
(A) It kept its cigarette tax at the 1990 level and Civenia went into effect at the beginning of
instituted an antismoking television advertising 1992.
campaign similar to Civenia's. (B) Most of those smokers in Civenia who were
(B) It kept its cigarette tax at the 1990 level and did likely to quit or cut down on smoking had
not institute an antismoking television adver- done so by the beginning of 1992.
tising campaign. (C) At the beginning of 1992, health insurance
(C) It rescinded the 1990 cigarette tax increase and companies in Civenia offered lower rates to
did not institute an antismoking television nonsmoking residents than to those who
advertising campaign. smoked.
(D) It eliminated all cigarette taxes and did not insti- (D) Cigarette companies increased their prices to
tute an antismoking television advertising cam- Civenia distributors at the beginning of 1992
paign. to offset the decrease in the number of packs
(E) It increased its cigarette tax by an additional sold.
40 percent over the 1990 level and instituted (E) Some cigarette companies withdrew their adver-
an antismoking television advertising cam- tisements from Civenia newspapers and maga-
paign similar to Civenia's. zines at the beginning of 1992.

153
GRE10-6(96.4)
A real estate agent will show exactly five apartments, 14.If R is shown fourth, which of the following must be
one after another, in a single afternoon. The apartments true?
will be selected from among four large apartments— G, (A) H is shown first.
H, J, and K— and three small apartments— P, Q and R. (B) H is shown third.
The agent will show three large apartments and two (C) K is shown third.
small apartments. The agent's selection of apartments (D) P is shown second.
and the order in which they will be shown are (E) Q is shown second.
constrained as follows：
15.If J is shown first, then a pair of apartments that can
The two small apartments selected must be shown be shown fourth and fifth, respectively, are
second and fourth, respectively. (A) K and P
H and Q cannot both be shown. (B) K and R
If G is shown, it must be shown first. (C) P and K
If P is shown, H must also be shown. (D) Q and K
If J and K are both shown, J must be shown at some (E) R and K
time before K is shown.
If R and P are both shown, R must be shown at some Out of nine nominees, seven will be selected to form a
time before P is shown. committee. Exactly four of the nine nominees— two
women and two men? belong to party P; another
11.Which of the following can be the apartments selected three— one woman and two men— belong to party Q,
in an order, from first through fifth, in which they and the remaining two? one woman and one man—
can be shown? belong to party R. The rules governing the selection of
(A) G, H, R, K, P the committee are as follows：
(B) G, Q, J, P, K
(C) G, Q, J, R, K At least three women must be selected.
(D) H, P, J, R, K No party can have more than three of its members
(E) J, Q, H, P, K selected.

12.Which of the following is a pair of apartments that 16.Which of the following is an acceptable committee?
CANNOT both be shown? Party P Party Q Party R
(A) G and H (A) 1 woman --- 1 woman
(B) G and P 2 men 2 men 1 man
(C) H and J (B) 2 women --- 1 woman
(D) P and Q 1 man 2 men ---
(E) Q and R (C) 2 women 1 woman ---
2 men 1 man 1 man
13.If Q and K are both shown, which of the following (D) 2 women 1 woman ---
must be true? 1 man 2 men 1 man
(A) J is shown third. (E) --- 1 woman 1 woman
(B) J is shown fifth. 2 men 2 men 1 man
(C) K is shown third.
(D) Q is shown second. 17.If both of the men belonging to party P are selected,
(E) Q is shown fourth. which of the following must be true?
(A) More men than women are selected.
(B) More women than men are selected.

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(C) More members of party P than members of (C) The man belonging to party R is not selected.
party Q are selected. (D) A woman belonging to party P is not selected.
(D) More members of party Q than members of (E) The woman belonging to party R is not
party R are selected. selected.
(E) More women than members of party Q are
selected. 22.If members of party Q outnumber members of party
P on the committee, which of the following can be
18.If more women than men are selected, which of the true?
following must be true? (A) The man belonging to party R is not selected.
(A) The man belonging to party R is selected (B) The woman belonging to party R is not
(B) At least one of the men belonging to party Q is selected.
selected. (C) Both of the men belonging to party P are
(C) Members of party Q outnumber members of selected.
party P on the committee. (D) All of the women who were nominated are
(D) Members of party P outnumber members of selected.
party Q on the committee. (E) All of the men who were nominated are
(E) There are equal numbers of members of party P selected.
and members of party Q on the committee.
23.In a recent film set in seventeenth-century Europe, the
19.Which of the following can be true? hero is seen doing the crawl, a swimming stroke not
(A) All of the members of party P are selected. known in Europe before the 1920's.However, since
(B) The only members of party P who are selected moviegoers obviously are not experts in the history of
are men. swimming strokes, for most of the film's audiences this
(C) The only members of party P who are selected blunder clearly cannot have interfered with whatever
are women. sense of historical authenticity the film otherwise
(D) The only nominees selected who are not mem- achieved.
bers of party P are men.
(E) The only nominees selected who are not mem- Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens
bers of party P are women. the argument given?
(A) The film was widely praised for being historically
20.Which of the following must be true? plausible, even though it portrayed many events
(A) Exactly four women are selected. that were not historically attested.
(B) Exactly four men are selected. (B) The scene that shows the film's hero doing the
(C) At least one nominee belonging to party R is crawl is a rescue scene pivotal to the film's action,
selected. and parts of it are even shown a second time, in a
(D) At least three of the nominees belonging to flashback.
party P are selected. (C) Makers of historical films, even of those set as
(E) All three of the nominees belonging to party Q recently as the nineteenth century, routinely strike
are selected. compromises between historical authenticity and
the need to keep their material accessible to a
21.If one of the people not selected is the woman modern audience, as in the actors' speech patterns.
belonging to party Q, which of the following must (D) The crawl that European swimmers used in the
be true? 1920's was much less efficient and more
(A) A man belonging to party P is not selected. awkward-looking than the crawl that is currently
(B) A man belonging to party Q is not selected. taught.

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(E) A slightly earlier film featuring an eighteenth is found in food.
century sea battle in Europe was ridiculed in (C) Whether the consequences of not getting vitamin
numerous popular reviews for the historical lapse B6 in required daily amounts are more serious for
of showing a sailor doing the crawl in swimming older people than for young adults.
to safety. (D) Whether the diets of most people, when they are
young adults, include vitamin B6 in amounts far
24.The government of Pontran claims that Tor City, one of in excess of their daily needs.
the six major cities in that country, is alone among (E) Whether the diets of older people are more likely
Pontran's cities in having sustained strong job growth than those of young adults to include one or more
this year. Clearly, however, any job growth this year. meals a day that are devoid of foods containing
Clearly, however, any job growth there must be vitamin B6.
purely imaginary; in fact, in Tor City and only there, more
people are unemployed this year than were last year.

The argument countering the government's claim

depends on the assumption that：
(A) unemployed workers in Pontran did not, in
significant numbers, move to Tor City when the
government claimed Tor City had strong job
growth
(B) the unemployment rate in Tor City is higher year
than in any previous year
(C) actions taken by the government of Pontran
significantly affect the unemployment rate in Tor
City
(D) the unemployment rate in Tor City, though
increased, is still the lowest of any city in Pontran
(E) there is no significant seasonal variation in the
unemployment rate for Pontran as a whole

25.As people age, the number of calories they need each day
decreases while their daily requirement of vitamin B6
increases. Clearly, unless older people take B6 supple-
ments or eat a diet that contains more B6 than did the
diet they ate when they were young adults, there is little
likelihood that they will get B6 in needed amounts.

Which of the following would be most helpful to know

to evaluate the argument?
(A) Whether the relative decrease in the daily requirement
of calories is greater than the relative
increase in the daily requirement of vitamin B6.
(B) Whether the form of vitamin B6 found in dietary
supplements is more readily absorbed and utilized
by the body than is the form of this vitamin that

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