OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. Abresive jet machining is used for (a) Plastics only (b) brittle materials (a) M V -1 (c) ductile materials only (c) M V2 (d) any of the above

2. In EDM process, rate of metal removal M varies with discharge voltage V as (b) M V (d) M V-2

3. In ECM, the gap between the tool and workpiece is nearly kept as (a) 0.25 mm (b) 0.75 mm (c) 1.5 mm (d) 1.0 mm

4. Suggest the process to be adopted for drilling small sized holes (dia. of hole 1 mm) in glass (a) Ultrasonic Machining (b) EDM (c) ECM (d) Electron beam machining

5. Ultrasonic Machining is generally used for (a) Hard & brittle materials (d) Stainless steel 6. Which of the following operations does not use a jig (a)Drilling (b) Reaming (c) Turning (d) Tapping (b)Non ferrous metals (c) Electrically insulating material

7. The selection of tool material in EDM is based on its having (a) High resistance (d) Low melting point 8. In taper turning operation on lathe, amount of taper = 0.05, difference in diameters = 8 mm, Then length of tapered portion will be (a) 40 mm (b) 120 mm (c) 160 mm (d) 80 mm (b) High electro-errosive strength (c) Poor thermal conductivity

9. Four consecutive spindle speeds in a gear box are stated to be 18, 27, 41, 62 rpm. Find next speed (a) 93 rpm (b) 78 rpm (c) 117 rpm (d) 140 rpm

10. The cutting angle of a flat drill varies from (a) 5-10 degree (b) 15-25 degree (c) 45-70 degree (d) 90-120 degree

11. Narrow grooves or slots can be produced on a workpiece by a milling operation known as (a) Saw milling (b) face milling (c) end milling (d) helical milling 12. Grinding is a . operation (a) Dressing (b) surface finishing (c) forming (d) facing

13. Gears used in watches are manufactured by (a) Broaching (b) Stamping (c) Milling (d) Extrusion

14. It is required to drill a hole through a 20 mm thick plate at 300 rpm at a feed rate of 0.2 mm/rev. the time taken to complete this task will be (a) 10 sec (b) 15 sec (c) 40 sec (d) 20 sec

15. In a orthogonal turning process: Chip thickness = 0.62 mm, feed = 0.2 mm/rev, rake angle = 15O, then chip reduction coefficient will be (a) 0.32 (b) 1.8 (c) 2.7 (d) 3.1

16. In a orthogonal turning process: Chip thickness = 0.62 mm, feed = 0.2 mm/rev, rake angle = 15O, then shear angle of the tool will be (a) 12.59O (b) 18.75O (c) 15.27O (d) 21.38O

17. All of the following are orthogonal cutting processes except (a) Sawing (b) broaching (c) Slotting cutter (d) Milling cutter

18. All of the following are oblique cutting processes except (a) Drilling (b) Planner (c) broaching (d) Milling cutter

19. Which part of cutting tool is prone to crater wear (a) Flank (b) Face (c) Shank (d) Base

20. Strength of the tool essentially depends upon (a) Rake angle (b) Lip angle (c) Cutting angle (d) Relief Angle

21. Shewart control charts are used in (a) Quality Control (b) Work Study (c) Production Activity (d) Inventory Management

22. A television set manufactured by XYZ company failed thrice in 200 hours of operation. The failure rate of the XYZ television in percent failure per 1000 hours is (a) 5 (b) 15 (c) 30 (d) 45

23. Simplex method is the method used in (a) Queuing theory Analysis 24. Which of the followings is not a control chart used in SQC (a) X bar chart (b) R chart (c) p chart (d) SIMO chart (b) CPM network (c) Linear Programming (d) Value

25. CPM considers the trade between cost and (a) Time (b)Machines (c) Materials (d) Man power

26. A manufacturing industry produces 300 spark plugs per shift of 8 hours. If the standard time per piece is 1.5 minute, the productivity would be (a)3/4 (b) 5/8 (c) 7/16 (d) 15/16

27. The process layout is considered best if it minimises the total cost of (a) Machine Used (b) Material handling equipment (c) Material handling operations (d)Building and land 28. The production of a whole section stopped due to break down of one machine. Such a situation could arise in (a) Process layout (b) Product layout (c) Group layout (d)Fixed position layout

29. Two bin system is concerned with (a) Forcasting sales (d) ordering procedure 30. Material handling is higher in case of (a) Process layout (b) Product layout (c) Group layout (d)Fixed position layout (b) Storage system (c) Economic expenditure

31. Given that: Annual usuage = 50 Units, Procurement Cost = Rs. 15 per order, cost per piece = Rs. 100 per item and expenditure on obsolescene, taxes, insurance, deterioration etc. = 10 %, the economic lot size would be approximately (a) 9 (b) 15 (c) 12 (d) 18

32. The salary payments made to which of the following category of work force is charged as indirect labour cost? (a) Turner (b) Painter (c) Store keeper (d) Fitter

33. A machine is purchased at a cost of Rs. 11000. The assumed useful life is 9 years and salvage value is Rs. 2000. Based on sum of year digits, the depreciation for 5 th year would be rupees (a) 1500 (b) 1200 (c) 800 (d) 600

34. In Hasley premium plan, the worker gets an incentive on the time saved by him. The premium given is usually (a) 10% (b) 33% (c)50 % (d) 75 %

35. Gnatt charts are associated with (a) Material handling (b) Inventory Control (c) Sale forcast (d) Production Schedule

36. SIMO charts are associated with (a) Method Study statistical Data (b)Motion Study (c) Process Analysis (d) Collection of

37. The actual observed time for a job is 0.5 minute and the performance rating is 125 %. The normal time for job would be (a) 0.4 minute (b) 0.5 minute (c) 0.625 minute (d) 0.75 minute

38. If orders are placed once a month to meet an annual demand of 6000 units, then the average inventory would be (a) 200 (b) 250 (c) 1000 (d) 500

39. Fixed investments for manufacturing a product in a particular year is Rs. 80,000/-. The estimated sales for this period is Rs. 2,00,000/-. The variable cost per unit for this product is Rs. 4/-. If each unit is sold at Rs. 20/-, then the break even point would be (a) 4000 (b) 5000 (c) 10000 (d) 20000

40. Cold working process can be applied on items having diameters upto (a) 10 mm (b) 50 mm (c) 25 mm (d) 80 mm

41. A sheet of metal is being cut along its length in a straight line. This operation is called (a) Parting (b) Lancing (c) Cripming (d) Slitting

42. In blanking operation, the angle of shear is provide on (a) Die only (b) punch only (c)both on die and punch (d) depends on work piece material

43. In piercing and blanking operation, the clearance between punch and die solely depends on (a) Diameter of hole required (b) thickness of sheet metal (d)capacity and type of press 44. The forging of steel specimen is normally done at a temperature of (a) 400OC (b) 800OC (c) 1100OC (d) 1500OC (c) No. of pieces to be made

45. Dies for wire drawing are made of (a) Cast Iron (b) carbides (c) Mild Steel (d) Wrought Iron

46. For further machining operations, Cold worked articles are required to be (a)Normalised (b)Tempered (c) Carburised (d) Annealed

47. Which is not the application of forging (a) Steel balls of ball bearings (b) Rail sections (c) Chisels (d) Brake Pedals

48. The extrusion chamber, die and the ram are generally lubricated by (a)Grease (b)Solid Lubricant (c) Vegetable Oil (d) Kerosene oil

49. The binder in case of synthetic sand of (a)Water only (b) Clay (c) Mollases (d) bentonite and water

50. Chaplets in foundry practice are used to

(a) Provide efficient venting

(b) Support the cores

(c) Ensure directional solidification

(d)Reinforce the sand in the top part of moulding box 51. The pouring temperature of grey cast iron is about (a) 1100OC (b) 1000OC (c) 1800OC (d) 1400OC (b) Compressive strength of 20 kgf/mm2 (d) Brinell hardness of 20

52. Grade 20 castings have (a) Tensile strength of 20 kgf/mm2 (c)Yield strength of 20 kgf/mm2 53. Shrink rule is used for providing (a) Contraction Allowance (d)Distortion Allowance 54. Carburettors are manufactured by (a) Finest Sand Casting (b) Die Casting (c) Slush Casting 55. In investment casting the mould is usually made of (a) Aluminium (b) Finest Sand (c) Wax (d) Thermosetting Resin (d) Shell Moulding (b) Machining Allowance (c) Draft Allowance

56. For a given state of stress, x = -40 MPa, y = 40 MPa, xy = -40 MPa; then the magnitude of maximum shear stress will be (a) 10 MPa (b) 30 MPa (c) 50 MPa (d) 100 MPa 57. Youngs modulus of elasticity and Poissons ratio of a material are 1.25 10 5 MPa and 0.34 respectively. Then the modulus of rigidity of the material is (a) 0.4025 105 MPa (b) 0.4664 105 MPa (c)0.6250 105 MPa (d) 0.9469 105 MPa

58. The length of wire is increased by 1 mm on applying a certain load. In a wire of same material but twice the length and half the radius, the same load will produce an elongation of (a) 0.5 mm (b) 2 mm (c) 4 mm (d) 8 mm

59. Consider a bar of length 300 mm and tapering uniformly from diameter 20 mm to 30 mm and subjected to axial load 200 N. The extension of rod (in mm) will be (a) 400 / E (b) E / 400 (c) 400 E (d) E/4

60. A solid copper bar of 20 mm diameter is completely enclosed in a hollow steel tube of 20 mm internal diameter and 30 mm external diameter so as to make a composite system. The assembly is subjected to a certain load and the steel tube experiences a stress of 300 Pa. If

Esteel = 2 Ecopper , then the stress developed in copper bar will be

61. For an element under the effect of biaxial state of stresses 50 MPa and 60 MPa, the normal stress on a 45O plane is equal to (a) 110 MPa (b) 5 MPa (c) 55 Mpa (d) 10 MPa

62. Shear stresses on mutually perpendicular planes are (a) Zero (b) Always maximum (c) Unequal mostly (d) Equal

63. A cantilever beam of span 6 m carries a point load of 100 kN at its free end and another point load W at the mid of its length. If the maximum bending moment is stated to be 900 kNm, the load W will have the value (a) 100 kN (b) 50 kN (c) 150 kN (d) 200 kN

64. In a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly disturbuted load of 40 kN/m over whole span length of 2 m, the maximum bending moment is equal to (a) 20 kNm (b) 200 kNm (c) 10 kNm (d) 100 kNm

65. In a cantilever of length of 2 m carrying a load whose intensity varies uniformly from zero at the free end to 30 kN/m at fixed end, the maximum bending is (a) 10 kNm (b) 40 kNm (c) 20 kNm (d) 60 kNm

66. The position of point of contraflexure for an overhang beam (a) lies within the supports only (b) lies in overhang portions only (c) may lie

within the supports or lies in overhanging portion

(d) depends upon nature of load

67. Two beams of solid circular (16 cm) and rectangular section (width 10 cm and depth 20 cm) are of the same weight, same length, same material and subjected to same bending moment. The ratio of flexural stresses developed will be (a) 1.67 (b) 1.2 (c) 0.83 (d) 0.6

68. For any given power and permissible shear stress, the rotational speed of shaft (N) and its diameter (D) are correlated by the expression (a) ND3 = Constant (b) ND2 = Constant (c) ND = Constant (d) ND0.5 = Constant

69. A simply supported beam of span L carries a point load W at mid span. The downward deflection under load will be (a) W L3 / 3 EI (b) W L3 / 8 EI (c) W L3 / 48 EI (d) 5W L3 / 384 EI

70. At a notch on a component, the nominal stress is 20 MPa and maximum stress is 30 MPa. The stress concentration factor is (a) 2 (b) 0.667 (c) 2.25 (d) 1.5

71. Like Creep is related to rupture strength, fatigue is related to

(a) Time

(b) Modulus of elasticity

(c) Endurance limit

(d) Toughness

72. When a mild steel is subjected to tensile loading, its fracture will conform to (a) Granular Shape (b) Cup and cone shape (c) Fibrous type (d) Star Shape

73. A simple spring mass vibrating system has a natural frequency of N. If the spring stiffness is halved and mass is doubled, then the natural frequency will become (a) 4N (b) N/4 (c) 2 N (d) N/2

74. Residual stresses are present in (a) Cold rolled shaft (b) Hot rolled shaft (c) Cast shafts (d) Forged shafts

75. The selection of factor of safety in design does not depend on (a) Service conditions (b) nature of load (c) size of component (d) Material of component

SOLUTION 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 B C D A A C B D A D A C B D D B D C B A 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 A B C D A D C B D A C B C B D A C D B C 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 D A B C B D A C D B D A A B C C B D A B 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 C D A A C B D A B D C B D A C