1.

The hypothesis that consumption in one period would be a function of income in that period and the
returns on savings of the previous period is given by

(A) Irving Fisher

(B) Franco Modigliani
(C) Duesenberry
(D) Robert Hall

Answer B

2. From the following identify one which is not a property of Indifference curve ?

(A) Indifference curves are downward sloping.

(B) Indifference curves are concave to the origin.
(C) Indifference curves are convex to the origin.
(D) Indifference curves do not intersect each other.

Answer B

3. Which one of the following statements is true ?

(A) Business decisions cannot be taken without a sound knowledge of Macro Economic Theories.
(B) Knowledge of Economic Theory is misleading in making business decisions.
(C) With the help of Economic Theories, it is always possible to predict the future accurately.
(D) Every Economic Theory is based on realistic facts which are common to all societies.

Answer A

4. Arrange the following in the proper order for decision under capital budgeting.

(i) Estimating the cost and benefits of proposals.

(ii) Deciding the investment objective.
(iii) Selecting the best investment proposal.
(iv) Applying the capital budgeting decision technique.

Codes :

(A) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

(B) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(D) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

Answer C

5. Match the following items in List A with the most appropriate options from List B :

List-A

a. A lender buys securities to protect

List-B

1. Interest rate collar

himself from a falling interest rate

b. A borrower buys securities to

2. Interest rate cap

protect himself from rising

interest rate
c. A combination of interest rate

3. Interest rate corridor

cap and floor

d. A combination of two or more

4. Interest rate floor

interest rate caps

Codes :

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 4

(D) 3

Answer B

6. The form of learning in which people acquire new behaviours by systematically observing the rewards
and punishments given to others is known as

(A) Operant conditioning

(B) Positive reinforcement
(C) Modelling
(D) Law of effect

Answer A

7. Diffusion of routine information takes place through

(A) Downward Communication

(B) Upward Communication
(C) Horizontal Communication
(D) External Communication

Answer A

8. An integrated group of activities to bring about a change is known as

(A) Organisation development

(B) Interventions
(C) OCTAPACE
(D) Collaborative culture

Answer A

9. Match the following :

a. Motivation is a function of

1. Expectancy Theory

fairness in social exchanges.

b. People are motivated to behave in ways

2. Alderfers ERG Theory

that produce valued outcomes.

c. Determining specific levels of performance for

3. Equity Theory

workers to attain and then striving to attain them.

d. When people are frustrated by their inability

4. Goal- Setting Theory

to meet needs at the next higher level in the

hierarchy, they regress to the next lower
category of needs and intensify their
desire to gratify these needs.

Codes :

(A) 1

(B) 4

(C) 3

(D) 3

Answer C

10. Match the following :

a. Selfefficacy

1. Determining specific levels of performance

for workers to attain them.

b. Goal setting
influence ones performance.

2. The belief that ones efforts will positively

c. Expectancy

3. People strive to maintain ratio of their own

outcomes to their own inputs that are equal to
that of those with whom they compare

themselves.
d. Equity Theory

4. Ones belief about having the capacity to

perform a task.

Codes :

(A) 1

(B) 4

(C) 3

(D) 2

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Saturday, November 1, 2014

UGC NET Dec 2013 Management paper I solved

SET W

1. Which is the main objective of research ?

(A) To review the literature

(B) To summarize what is already known
(C) To get an academic degree
(D) To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known facts

Answer D

2. Sampling error decreases with the

(A) decrease in sample size

(B) increase in sample size
(C) process of randomization
(D) process of analysis

Answer B

3. The principles of fundamental research are used in

(A) action research

(B) applied research
(C) philosophical research
(D) historical research

Answer B

4. Users who use media for their own ends are identified as

(A) Passive audience

(B) Active audience
(C) Positive audience
(D) Negative audience

Answer B

5. Classroom communication can be described as

(A) Exploration
(B) Institutionalisation
(C) Unsignified narration
(D) Discourse

Answer D

6. Ideological codes shape our collective

(A) Productions
(B) Perceptions
(C) Consumptions
(D) Creations

Answer B

7. In communication, myths have power, but are

(A) uncultural
(B) insignificant
(C) imprecise
(D) unpreferred

Answer C

8. The first multi-lingual news agency of India was

(A) Samachar
(B) API
(C) Hindustan Samachar

(D) Samachar Bharati

Answer C

9. Organisational communication can also be equated with

(A) intra-personal communication

(B) inter-personal communication
(C) group communication
(D) mass communication

Answer C

10. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms are such that one is the denial of
the other, the relationship between them is called

(A) Contradictory
(B) Contrary
(C) Sub-contrary
(D) Sub-alternation

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UGC NET Dec 2013 Management paper III solved

1. Match the items of List I with those of List II and give the correct code from the
following :

List I

List II

a. Sales Maximisation Model

i. John Williamson

b. Managerial Discretion Model

ii. R.M. Cyert and J.G. March

c. Integrative Model

iii. William J. Baumol

d. Behavioural Model

iv. Oliver Williamson

Codes :

a b

c d

(A) ii iii iv i
(B) iii iv i
(C) i

ii

ii iii iv

(D) iv i

ii

iii

Answer B

2. Match the items of the following two lists and give the correct code for the following :

List I

List II

a. Scale of Preferences
b. Inadequate Explanation of Giffen Goods
c. Curves always slope negatively
d. Inseparation of Income and Substitution effects

Codes :

(A) ii

(B) i

iii iv

iii iv
ii

(C) ii iv

iii

(D) iii ii

iv

Answer C

3. Cost-plus pricing is not suitable for

(A) Monopoly Pricing

(B) Product Tailoring

i. Indifference Curves
ii. Ordinal Utility
iii. Demand Curves
iv. Marshallian Utility Analysis

(C) Refusal Pricing

(D) Monopsony Pricing

Answer A

4. Indicate the correct code matching the items of List I with those in List II as follows :

List I

List II

a. Resorting to New Technology

i. Cost reduction through output expansion

b. Excess Capacity of the Plant

ii. Constant cost despite output expansion

c. Employees Training Centres

iii. Internal Economies

d. Reserve Capacity of the Plant

iv. External Economies

Codes :

(A) i

iii

ii

iv

(B) iii i

iv

ii

(C) iv ii

iii

(D) ii iv iii

Answer B

5. In a mixed economy, the central problems are solved through which of following ?

(A) Price mechanism

(B) Regulated market mechanism
(C) Market mechanism and economic planning
(D) Economic planning and control

Answer C

6. Indicate the correct code matching the items in List I with those in List II as follows :

List I

List II

a. Excess of aggregate investment over

i. Stability of National Income

aggregate savings, at full employment level

b. Equality of aggregate income

ii. Recessionary gap

and savings
c. Comparatively greater decrease in

iii. Multiplier effect

income following a decrease in investment

d. Aggregate expenditure being less than
national income at full employment level

Codes :

(A) ii

iv

iii

iv. Inflationary gap

(B) iv

iii

ii

(C) iii ii

iv

(D) i

ii

iv

iii

Answer B

7. The study of gestures and body postures for their impact on communication is known as :

(A) Kinesics
(B) Proximics
(C) Semantics
(D) Informal channels

Answer A

8. Which of the following deals with what, why, when and how tasks to be performed ?

(A) Job Analysis

(B) Job Description
(C) Job Specification
(D) Job Enrichment

Answer B

9. According to Henry Mintberg, managers perform three roles. Indicate the one role which is not
among them.

(A) Decisional
(B) Informational
(C) Interpersonal
(D) Supervisory

Answer D

10. The Ringlemann effect describes

(A) the tendency of groups to make risky decisions

(B) social loafing
(C) social facilitation
(D) the satisfaction of members social needs

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Sunday, October 12, 2014

UGC NET Management June 2013 solved paper 1

SET - X

1. Choose the proper alternative given in the codes to replace the question mark.
Bee Honey, Cow Milk, Teacher ?

(A) Intelligence
(B) Marks
(C) Lessons
(D) Wisdom

Answer D

2. P is the father of R and S is the son of Q and T is the brother of P. If R is the sister of S, how is Q related
to T ?

(A) Wife
(B) Sister-in-law
(C) Brother-in-law
(D) Daughter-in-law

Answer B

3. A definition put forward to resolve a dispute by influencing attitudes or stirring emotions is called

(A) Lexical
(B) Persuasive
(C) Stipulative
(D) Precisions

Answer B

4. Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements ?

Statements :
(i) Venn diagram is a clear method of notation.
(ii) Venn diagram is the most direct method of testing the validity of categorical syllogisms.
(iii) In Venn diagram method the premises and the conclusion of a categorical syllogism is diagrammed.
(iv) In Venn diagram method the three overlapping circles are drawn for testing a categorical syllogism.

Codes :

(A) (i), (ii) & (iii)

(B) (i), (ii) & (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(D) (i), (iii) & (iv)

Answer B

5. Inductive reasoning presupposes

(A) unity in human nature

(B) integrity in human nature
(C) uniformity in human nature
(D) harmony in human nature

Answer C

Read the table below and based on this table answer questions from 6 to 11 :

Area under Major Horticulture Crops (in lakh hectares)

Year
Fruits
Vegetables
Flowers
Total Horticulture Area

2005-06
53
72
1
187
2006-07
56
75

1
194
2007-08
58
78
2
202
2008-09
61
79
2
207
2009-10
63
79
2
209

6. Which of the following two years have recorded the highest rate of increase in area under the total
horticulture ?

(A) 200506 & 200607

(B) 200607 & 200809
(C) 200708 & 200809

(D) 200607 & 200708

Answer D

7. Shares of the area under flowers, vegetables and fruits in the area under total horticulture are
respectively :

(A) 1, 38 and 30 percent

(B) 30, 38 and 1 percent
(C) 38, 30 and 1 percent
(D) 35, 36 and 2 percent

Answer A

8. Which of the following has recorded the highest rate of increase in area during 2005-06 to
2009-10 ?

(A) Fruits
(B) Vegetables
(C) Flowers
(D) Total horticulture

Answer C

9. Find out the horticultural crop that has recorded an increase of area by around 10 percent from 200506 to 2009-10

(A) Fruits
(B) Vegetables
(C) Flowers
(D) Total horticulture

Answer B

10. What has been the share of area under fruits, vegetables and flowers in the area under total
horticulture in 2007- 08 ?

(A) 53 percent
(B) 68 percent
(C) 79 percent
(D) 100 percent

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Thursday, October 9, 2014

UGC NET Management June 2014 solved paper I

This paper contains 60 questions out of which 50 are to be attempted. If more than 50 questions are
answered then first 50 answers will be examined. Each question contains 2 marks each.

SET - W

1. Break-down in verbal communication is described as

(A) Short circuit

(B) Contradiction
(C) Unevenness
(D) Entropy

Answer D

2. The Telephone Model of Communication was first developed in the area of

(A) Technological theory

(B) Dispersion theory
(C) Minimal effects theory
(D) Information theory

Answer D

3. The Dada Saheb Phalke Award for 2013 has been conferred on

(A) Karan Johar

(B) Amir Khan
(C) Asha Bhonsle
(D) Gulzar

Answer D

4. Photographs are not easy to

(A) Publish
(B) Secure
(C) Decode
(D) Change

Answer C

5. The grains that appear on a television set when operated are also referred to as

(A) sparks
(B) green dots
(C) snow
(D) rain drops

Answer C

6. In circular communication, the encoder becomes a decoder when there is

(A) noise
(B) audience
(C) criticality
(D) feedback

Answer D

7. In a post-office, stamps of three different denominations of Rs. 7, Rs. 8, Rs. 10 are available. The exact
amount for which one cannot buy stamps is

(A) 19
(B) 20
(C) 23
(D) 29

Answer A

8. In certain coding method, the word QUESTION is encoded as DOMESTIC. In this coding, what is the
code word for the word RESPONSE?

(A) OMESUCEM
(B) OMESICSM

(C) OMESICEM
(D) OMESISCM

Answer C

9. If the series 4, 5, 8, 13, 14, 17, 22, .... is continued in the same pattern, which one of the
following is not a term of this series?

(A) 31
(B) 32
(C) 33
(D) 35

Answer C

10. Complete the series BB, FE, II, ML, PP, ........... by choosing one of the following option given:

(A) TS
(B) ST
(C) RS
(D) SR

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Tuesday, October 7, 2014

UGC NET Management June 2014 Paper III solved

1. In case a decrease in price of a commodity results in an increase in its demand on a negatively sloping
demand curve, it is called

(A) An increase in demand

(B) An increase in quantity demanded
(C) Law of demand
(D) Any of the above

Answer B

2. Production function is not based on the assumption of the

(A) Substitutability of inputs

(B) Complementarity of inputs

(C) Marketability of products
(D) Specificity of inputs

Answer C

3. Match the items of the following two lists and indicate the correct code :

List I

List II

a. Trade channel discounts

b. Tie-up sales

i. Oligopoly pricing
ii. Locational price differentials

c. Price being nonresponsive to changes in

iii. Differential pricing

demand costs
d. Basing-point pricing

iv. Product-line pricing

Codes :
a

(A) iv

ii

iii

(B) iii

iv

ii

(C) ii

iv

iii

(D) I

iii

ii

iv

Answer B

4. Indicate the correct code matching the items in List I with those in List II as follows :

List I

List II

a. Competitive parity in advertising

i. Variations in advertising

b. Promotional elasticity of product

ii. Advertising scheduling

c. Optimal promotion mix

d. Pulsing advertising

iii. Advertising expenditure

iv. Marginal equivalence of dvertising
media outlay

Codes :

(A) ii

iii

iv

(B) iii

iv

ii

(C) i

iv

ii

iii

(D) iv

ii

iii

Answer B

5. Macroeconomics basically concerns with which of following in an economy?

(A) Industry, Trade and Commerce

(B) Agriculture, Industry & Trade
(C) Employment, Inflation & Growth
(D) Population, Income and Economic Planning

Answer C

6. The competition commission of India has no rule in regulating which of the following?

(A) Restrictive Trade Agreements

(B) Abuse of Market Power
(C) Unfair Trade Practices
(D) Mergers and Acquisitions

Answer C

7. The ability to understand, communicate with, motivate and support other people, both individually
and in groups, defines which of the following management skills?

(A) Hard Skills

(B) Soft Skills
(C) Conceptual Skills
(D) Political Skills

Answer B

8. As __________, managers receive a wide variety of information and serve as the nerve centers of
internal and external information of the organization.

(A) Leaders
(B) Monitors
(C) Distribution handlers
(D) Resource allocators

Answer B

9. Which one is the correct combination?

(A) Theory of Conditioning Bernara

(B) Operant Conditioning Theory B.F. Skinner
(C) Stimulus Response Theory Hoodman
(D) Theory of Associates Marshall

Answer B

10. Match the following:

List I
a. Evaluative statements or judgments

List II
i. Attitudes

concerning objects, people or events

b. The opinion or belief segment of

ii. Cognitive Component

an attitude
c. The emotional or feeling segment

iii. Affective Component

of an attitude
d. An intention to behave in a certain way
towards someone or something

Codes :

iv. Behavioural component

(A) i

ii

iii

iv

(B) iv

iii

ii

(C) iv

ii

iii

(D) i

iii

ii

iv

Answer A

11. As per Rorsach value survey, which of the following is not an instrumental value?

(A) Ambitious
(B) Imagination
(C) Wise
(D) Capable

Answer C

12. When we judge someone on the basis of our perception of the group to which
he or she belongs, we are using the shortcut, called ________

(A) Selective Perceptive

(B) Halo effect
(C) Contrast effect
(D) Stereotyping

Answer D

13. Performance = f (m, a, e). In this expression e stands for

(A) Efficiency
(B) Effectiveness
(C) Environment
(D) Entrepreneurship

Answer C

14. Selecting a representative sample of jobs, preparing job descriptions for

them, comparing them on the basis of the information in the job descriptions
and placing them in order of their perceived importance represents which of
the following job evaluation methods?

(A) Job grading method

(B) Job ranking method
(C) Points rating method
(D) Guide chart method

Answer B

15. Match the following:

List I

List II

a. A pay plan in which most employees are

i. Elitest pay system

part of the same compensation system.

b. A pay plan in which different compensation

ii. Skill based pay

systems are established for employees or

groups at different organizational levels.
c. A pay system in which employees are

iii. Egalitarian pay system

paid on the basis of the jobs they can do.

d. The perceived fairness of the pay structure
within a firm.

Codes :

(A) i

ii

iii

iv

(B) iii

ii

iv

(C) i

iii

ii

iv

(D) iii

ii

iv

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Monday, September 29, 2014

UGC NET June 2014 Management paper II solved

1. In case the price (P), quantity (Q), and changes (D) are represented by respective symbols given in the
brackets, the price elasticity of demand (Ed) is measured by

(A) Ed = DQ/DP
(B) Ed = (DQ/Q)/(DP/P)
(C) Ed = DP/DQ
(D) Ed = (DP/P)/(DQ/Q)

Answer B

2. Law of Diminishing Return applies when the gaps among the successive multiple-level of output
isoquants

(A) decreases
(B) remains constant
(C) increases
(D) remains irregular

Answer C

3. In case the demand elasticity under imperfect competition is unity, the marginal revenue will be

(A) more than utility, but less than infinity.

(B) equal to unity.
(C) less than unity, but more than zero.
(D) equal to zero.

Answer D

4. Rise in general price level alongwith declining output in the economy is called

(A) Inflation
(B) Deflation
(C) Stagflation
(D) Demand-pull inflation

Answer C

5. National income equilibrium is not at the level where

(A) aggregate investment equals aggregate savings

(B) aggregate expenditure equals aggregate income
(C) inflationary and deflationary gaps are absent
(D) aggregate consumption is constant

Answer D

6. Which of the following is a correct match ?

(A) McClelland ERG Theory

(B) Skinner Reinforcement Theory
(C) Vroom Equity Theory
(D) Locke Expectancy Theory

Answer B

7. The study of gestures and body postures for their impact on communication is known as

(A) Kinesics
(B) Proxemics
(C) Semantics
(D) None of the above
Answer A

8. According to Organisational Culture Inventory (OCI), an organisation in which members are

encouraged to work together in ways that meet higher order human needs is classified as having a
_________ culture.

(A) constructive
(B) motivational

(C) passive
(D) high achievement

Answer A

9. A matrix structure of organisation

(A) reinforces unity of command

(B) is inexpensive
(C) is easy to explain to the employees
(D) gives to some employees more than one boss

Answer D

10. Organisational development (OD) is a planned change plus

(A) Evaluation
(B) Intervention
(C) Ability for self-renewal
(D) Reinforcement

Answer C

11. Match the following :

List I (Concept)

List II (Term)

a. An ongoing and formalised effort

i. Direction phase

that focuses on developing enriched and more

capable workers

b. A career development activity in which

ii. Career development

managers make decisions regarding

the advancement potential of subordinates

c. A career development activity that focuses

iii. Promotability forecast

on preparing people to fill executive positions

d. Determining the type of career that employees

want and the steps they must take to realise
their career goals

Codes :
a b
(A) i

ii

iii iv

(B) ii iii

iv i

(C) ii iii

iv

(D) i

ii

iv

iii

Answer B

iv. Succession planning

12. A formal explanation of the knowledge, skills, abilities, traits and other characteristics necessary for
effective job performance is known as

(A) Job Description

(B) Job Analysis
(C) Job Specification
(D) Job Enrichment

Answer C

13. _________ aims to reduce reliance on arbitrary methods of pay determination by introducing an
element of objectivity in the way jobs are compared.

(A) Performance appraisal

(B) Job evaluation
(C) Job enrichment
(D) Attrition

Answer B

14. Match the following :

List I

a. The process of examining how work creates or

adds value to the ongoing processes in a business

List II

i. Job Enrichment

b. A fundamental rethinking and radical redesign

ii. Job Design

of business processes to achieve dramatic

improvements in cost, quality, service and speed

c. The process of organising work into the tasks

iii. Work flow analysis

required to perform a specific task

d. The process of putting specialised tasks back

together so that one person is responsible for

iv. Business process reengineering

(BPR)

producing a whole product or an entire service

Codes :

ii

iii

iv

(B) ii

iv

iii

(C) iii

iv

ii

(D) iii

iv

ii

(A)

Answer D

15. The process of reorganising a companys employees to improve their efficiency is termed as

(A) Right sizing

(B) Down sizing

(C) Retrenchment
(D) Lay-offs

Answer A

16. The value of a bond with a given maturity period is

(A) Present value of maturity value of the bond

(B) Present value of annual interest plus present value of maturity value
(C) Total amount of interest plus the maturity value received
(D) Maturity value received

Answer B

17. The capital budgeting appraisal criterion that is most appropriate in the situation of capital rationing
will be

(A) Payback period

(B) Internal Rate of Return
(C) Net present value
(D) Profitability index

Answer D

18. For computation of cost of equity, arrange the following measures in the ascending order of
accuracy :

I. Capital Asset Pricing Model

II. Dividend-Price Ratio
III. Earning-Price Ratio
IV. Dividend-Price Plus Growth Ratio

Codes :

(A) I --> III --> II --> IV

(B) IV --> I --> III --> II
(C) III --> II --> IV --> I
(D) II --> IV --> I --> III

Answer C

19. Match the items given in the two lists :

List I

a. Debt securities without any explicit

List II

i. Floating Rate Bonds

interest rate

b. Company issuing such bonds

experiences less financial distress

ii. Zero-coupon bonds

c. Coupon rate quoted as mark-up on the

iii. Income Bonds

given rate

Codes :

(A) i

ii

iii

(B) i

iii

ii

(C) ii

iii

(D) iii

ii

Answer C

20. Which one of the following types of working capital is financial through a portion of long-term funds
?

(A) Gross working capital

(B) Net working capital
(C) Floating working capital
(D) Regular working capital

Answer B

21. In the model of consumer adoption of new products developed by Everitt M. Rogers, the first
category of people to adopt a new product is called

(A) Early adopters

(B) Initial adopters
(C) First users
(D) Innovators

Answer D

22. Pepsico used ________ to enter the Indian market in the early 1980s.

(A) Mega marketing

(B) Meta marketing
(C) Micro marketing
(D) Multistage marketing

Answer A

23. Pricing decisions are most complex at which stage of the product life cycle ?

(A) Decline stage

(B) Growth
(C) Introduction
(D) Maturity

Answer D

24. Branding seeks

(A) to differentiate the product

(B) to charge differential price
(C) to sell the product in different countries
(D) to give attractive name to a product

Answer A

25. The most widely used method of collecting the primary data is

(A) Experimental Research

(B) Observation Research
(C) Statistical Research
(D) Survey Research

Answer D

26. If the EOQ for an item of inventory in a firm is 1000 units, the estimated demand for the term next
year gets doubled, what shall be the revised EOQ next year, all other relevant costs remaining
unchanged ?

(A) 1000
(B) 1414
(C) 2000

(D) None of the above

Answer B

27. From the following two statements, choose the correct answer :

Statement I : A person can have one utility curve for one situation and a quite
different one for the next situation.
Statement II : Business executive with a linear utility curve can effectively use the
expected monetary value as their decision criterion.

Codes :

(A) Statement I is true, but II is false.

(B) Statement I is false, but II is true.
(C) Both the Statements I and II are true.
(D) Both the statements I and II are false.

Answer C

28. Which of the following is not included in the Five-p model of transformation organisation used in the
Production and Operations Management ?

(A) People
(B) Plant
(C) Production

(D) Programmes

Answer C

29. Demand forecasting through Survey of Buyers Intentions is not suited for which type of products ?

(A) Convenience goods

(B) Industrial products
(C) New products
(D) Consumer durables

Answer A

30. The names of certain reputed authors and their works are listed in the following lists. Match the
names and their works in the correct order :

List I

List II

a. Elwood S. Buffa and Rakesh K. Sarin

i. A Behavioural Theory of the Firm

b. Richard M. Cyert and James E March

ii. Introduction to operations research

c. Martin K. Starr and D.W. Miller

iii. Production and Operations Management

d. J.M. Juran

iv. Quality Control Handbook

e. Hillier and Leiberman

v. Inventory Control : Theory and Practice

Codes :

(A)

ii

iii

iv

(B)

ii

iii

iv

(C)

iii

iv

ii

(D)

iii

iv

ii

Answer D

31. What is the probability of a value, chosen from a population, is less than its median ?

(A) 1.0
(B) 0.75
(C) 0.50
(D) 0.25

Answer C

32. If in a given Binomial distribution with n fixed and P < 0.5, then

(A) The Poisson distribution will provide a good approximation

(B) The Binomial distribution will be skewed to the left

(C) The Binomial distribution will be skewed to the right

(D) The Binomial distribution will be symmetric

Answer C

33. What separates the physical aspects of data storage from the logical aspects of data
representation?

(A) Schema
(B) Relationships
(C) Constraints
(D) Data

Answer A

34. The components of E-business model are

i. Web Server
ii. Web Master
iii. Internet
iv. Web Administrator

Codes :

(A) i, ii, iii & iv

(B) i, ii & iii

(C) i & iii only
(D) iii only

Answer C

35. The simple probability of the occurrence of an event is called the

(A) Bayesian probability

(B) Conditional probability
(C) Joint probability
(D) Marginal probability

Answer D

36. Indicate the statement which is not correct :

i. Credit risk is loss on account of default of repayment of loan.

ii. Liquidity risk is the risk on account of the mismatches of cash inflow and outflow in a firm.
iii. Basic risk is the risk in a firm owing to the differences in the index to which financial assets and
liabilities are tied up.
iv. Forward rate agreement is a contract where a borrower / lender locks the interest rate and protects
itself from the loss on account of change in the future interest rate.

Codes :

(A) i and ii
(B) ii and iii
(C) iii and iv
(D) None of the above

Answer D

37. Which of the following facts are not correct in the context of Indias relations with
the WTO ?

i. India has been the founder member of the GATT.

ii. India has agreed to abide by the arrangement on the intellectual property rights.
iii. Under the trade-related investment measures, India has already notified its stand.
iv. India has agreed to allow entry to foreign service providers.
v. The Indian government has amended the Civil Procedure Code for the benefit of foreign service
providers.

Codes :

(A) i and ii
(B) ii and iii
(C) iv only
(D) v only

Answer D

38. Intra-firm transfer of technology is found when

(A) the price of technology development is very low.

(B) it is difficult to protect the technology through patents.
(C) the price of technology is very high.
(D) the technology is developed in association with an allied firm

Answer B

39. Match the theories of Foreign Direct Investment with their contributors :

List I
(Theory)

a. Industrial Organization Theory

List II
(Contributor)

i. Kemp & McDougall

b. Location Specific Theory

ii. Hood and Young

c. Product Cycle Theory

iii. Stephen Hymer

d. Two-Country Model

iv. Raymond Vernon

Codes :

(A) i

ii

iii

iv

(B) iv

iii

ii

(C) iii

ii

iv

(D) i

ii

iv

iii

Answer C

40. Assertion (A) :

The laws regarding patents and trademark are ineffective in many countries.

Reasoning (R) : There are cases when a government does not abide by the rulings of the
International Court of Justice.

(A) (A) and (R) both are correct, and (R) is the right explanation of (A).
(B) (A) and (R) both are correct, but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
(D) (R) is correct, but (A) is not correct.

Answer A

41. A study conducted by the Entrepreneurship Development Institute of India, Ahmedabad,

revealed that the possession of competencies is necessary for superior performance of the
entrepreneurs. The study was conducted under the guidance of

(A) James T. McCrory

(B) David C. McClelland

(C) James J. Berna

(D) P.L. Tandon

Answer B

42. ________ is considered as a creative capital which performs economic functions different from other
investment vehicles, which primarily serve as the expansion capital.

(A) Equity Capital

(B) Fixed Capital
(C) Venture Capital
(D) Share Capital

Answer C

43. Which is the apex body in India for formulating the policy in respect of entrepreneurship
development ?

(A) Reserve Bank of India

(B) Small Industrial Development Bank of India
(C) National Entrepreneurship Board
(D) Industrial Development Bank of India

Answer C

44. _________ means identifying and imitating the best in the world at specific tasks.

(A) Quality circle

(B) Bench marking
(C) Strategy
(D) Outsourcing

Answer B

45. Which of the following factors can be regarded as a symptom of industrial sickness ?

(A) Lowering the employees morale

(B) Delay and default in the payment of dues
(C) Continuous decrease in the price of its shares
(D) All of the above

Answer D

46. Assertion (A) : Ethical relativism means that there are universal standards
of human behaviour.
Reasoning (R) : Ethical behaviour is primarily personal behaviour conforming
to standards of morality.

(A) (A) is correct, and (R) is the right explanation of (A).

(B) (A) is incorrect, and (R) is a correct statement in isolation.
(C) (A) and (R) both are incorrect.

(D) (A) is correct, but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).

Answer B

47. Clause 49 of SEBI Regulations was amended on

(A) 15 August, 2000

(B) 26 August, 2003
(C) 26 January, 2007
(D) 14 February, 2008

Answer B

48. Fundamental legal obligations in taking corporate business decisions are formulated on the basis of

(A) Judicial Principles

(B) Moral Principles
(C) Ethical Principles
(D) Legislative Principles

Answer C

49. Corporate governance mechanism should ensure that corporate executive make strategic decisions
that serve the entire group of

(A) Environmentalists

(B) Government officials

(C) Suppliers
(D) Shareholders

Answer D

50. Morality of an employee in a business organisation depends upon

(A) Individual disposition

(B) Understanding of business activities
(C) Understanding of individual in a group
(D) Family setup of individual employee

Answer A