91.

COMMUNICATION VFR

91.01. Definitions

2002/12/22

Page 1 of 24

91.01. Definitions
91.01.01. Meanings and significance of associated terms
1

What does the term "blind transmission" mean?

id 174

a A transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station.

b A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific station or
stations.
c A transmission of messages relating to en-route weather information which may affect the safety of
aircraft operations that is not addressed to a specific station or stations.
d A transmission from one station to another station in circumstances where two-way
communication cannot be established but it is believed that the called station is able to
receive the transmission.

91.01.02. ATC abbreviations

2

Which abbreviation is used for the term "control zone"?

id 177

a CTA.
b CZ.
c CTZ.
d CTR.

What does the abbreviation "AFIS" mean?

id 179

a Aerodrome flashing identification signal.

b Automatic flight information service.
c Aeronautical flight information system.
d Aerodrome flight information service.

What does the abbreviation "FIR" mean?

id 180

a Flight information required.

b Flight information region.
c Flow information received.
d Flight information radar.

What does the abbreviation "HJ" mean?

id 182

a No specific working hours.

b Sunset to sunrise.
c Sunrise to sunset.
d Continuous day and night service.

What does the abbreviation "HX" mean?

id 183

a Continuous day and night service.

b Sunrise to sunset.
c Sunset to sunrise.
d No specific working hours.

91.01. Definitions

2002/12/22

Page 2 of 24

Which abbreviation is used for "Co-ordinated universal time"?

id 186

a UTC.
b CUT.
c GMT.
d COUT.

91.01.03. Q-Code groups commomly used

8

If you are requested to report your height, to which Q-code-setting would you refer ?

id 188

a QBI
b QNH
c QDM
d QFE

Which Q-code is used to report altitude ?

id 189

a QNH
b QFE
c QFF
d QNJ

10

What does QDM mean?

id 190

a True bearing from the station

b Magnetic bearing from the station
c True heading to the station (no wind)
d Magnetic heading to the station (no wind)

11

What is the Q-code for "magnetic heading to the station (no wind)?

id 191

a QDM.
b QDR.
c QNE.
d QTE.

12

What does QTE mean?

id 192

a Magnetic heading to the station.

b Magnetic bearing from the station.
c True heading to the station (no wind).
d True bearing from the station.

13

What is the Q-code for "true bearing from the station"?

id 193

a QFE
b QDR
c QDM
d QTE

91.01. Definitions

2002/12/22

Page 3 of 24

14

What does QDR mean?

id 194

a True heading to the station

b Magnetic heading to the station (no wind)
c True bearing from the station
d Magnetic bearing from the station

15

What is the Q-code for "magnetic bearing from the station"?

id 195

a QTE
b QDR
c QDM
d QFE

16

QFE is the RTF Q-code to indicate:

id 1910

a The atmospheric pressure corrected to the aircraft cockpit height.

b The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest fixed obstacle located on the surface of an
aerodrome.
c The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold).
d The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain the flight level reference datum.

17

QNH is the Q-code to indicate:

id 1911

a The atmospheric pressure measured at the aerodrome reference point (ARP).

b The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold).
c The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on the ground.
d The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest obstacle located on the surface of an aerodrome.

91.01.04. Categories of messages

18

A message concerning aircraft parts and material urgently required is:

id 196

a A flight security message.

b An urgency message.
c A flight safety message.
d A flight regularity message.

19

Flight safety messages are:

id 197

a Operation messages concerning non-routine landings.

b Air traffic control messages.
c Messages concerning the safety of an aircraft, a vessel, any other vehicle or a person.
d Messages relating to direction finding.

20
id 198

A message concerning an aircraft being threatened by grave and imminent danger,

requiring immediate assistance is called:

a Flight safety message.

b Distress message.
c Urgency message.
d Class B message.

91.01. Definitions

2002/12/22

Page 4 of 24

21
id 199

Which of the messages listed below shall not be handled by the aeronautical
mobile service?

a Meteorological messages.
b Radio teletype messages.
c Flight safety messages.
d Urgency messages.

22
id 200

The message to an aeronautical ground station "please call a taxi-cab for us. We
will arrive at 1045" is:

a An unauthorized message.
b A flight regularity message.
c A flight safety messages.
d An urgency message.

23

The priority of the instruction "taxi to runway 05" is:

id 201

a Same as "line-up runway 07 and wait".

b Greater than "transmit for QDM".
c Greater than "caution, construction work left of taxiway".
d Less than "cleared to land".

24
id 1345

The message addressed to an Area Control Center "request radar vectors to

circumnavigate adverse weather" is:

a A meteorological message.
b A flight safety message.
c An urgency message.
d A message relating to direction finding.

25
id 1346

Air traffic control messages (clearances, instructions, etc.) belong to the category
of:

a Class B messages.
b Flight safety messages.
c Flight regularity messages.
d Service messages.

26

The clearance : "cleared for immediate take-off runway 03" is:

id 1347

a A flight safety message.

b An urgency message.
c An unauthorized message.
d A flight regularity message.

27

The order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service is:

id 1348

a Distress message, urgency message, direction finding message.

b Direction finding message, distress message, urgency message.
c Distress message, flight safety message, urgency message.
d Meteorological message, direction finding message, flight regularity message.

91.01. Definitions

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28

The order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service is:

id 1349

a Flight regularity message, distress message, meteorological message.

b Meteorological message, direction finding message, flight safety message.
c Flight safety message, meteorological message, flight regularity message.
d Flight safety message, direction finding message, urgency message.

29

The priority of the pilot's message "request QDM" is:

id 1350

a Same as "latest QNH 1018".

b Less than "request climb to flight level..."
c Less than "descend to flight level..."
d Greater than "turn left heading..."

91.01. Definitions

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Page 6 of 24

91.02. General Operating Procedures

91.02.01. Transmission of letters
30

What is the correct way of spelling out HB-JYC in a radio message?

id 202

a Hotel Bravo India Yankee Charlie

b Hotel Bravo Juliett India Kilo
c Hotel Bravo Juliett Yankee Charlie
d Hotel Bravo India Victor Charlie

91.02.02. Transmission of numbers

31
id 203

What is the correct way of transmitting the number 3500 when indicating an
altitude or an height ?

a three five double zero

b three five zero zero
c three five hundred
d three thousand five hundred

32

What is the correct way of transmitting 1001 as a QNH ?

id 204

a QNH one double "O" one

b QNH one zero zero one
c QNH one thousand and one
d QNH one double zero one

33

What is the correct way of transmitting the number 118.1 to indicate a frequency ?

id 205

a one one eight decimal one

b one eighteen one
c one one eight one
d one one eight point one

34

What is the correct way of transmitting the number 13500 ?

id 206

a one three five hundred

b one three thousand five hundred
c one three five zero zero
d thirteen thousand five hundred

35

During the transmission of numbers containing a decimal point :

id 2924

a The term DECIMAL can be omitted if no chance of misunderstanding exists.

b The term DECIMAL can be omitted with friendly ATS units only.
c The term DECIMAL must always be transmitted.
d The term DECIMAL must be spoken only if followed by three digits.

91.02. General Operating Procedures

2002/12/22

Page 7 of 24

91.02.03. Transmission of time

36

When transmitting time, which time system shall be used?

id 207

a Local time (LT), 24-hour clock

b Co-ordinated universal time (UTC)
c Local time (LT) A.M. and P.M.
d No specific system, as only the minutes are normally required

37
id 208

The time is 4:15 P.M. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is
any possibility of confusion about the hour ?

a One six one five

b Four fifteen P.M.
c Sixteen fifteen
d Four fifteen in the afternoon

38
id 209

The time is 9:20 A.M. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is no
possibility of confusion about the hour ?

a Two zero.
b Twenty.
c Two zero this hour.
d Nine twenty A.M.

91.02.04. Transmission technique

39

Which of the following calls is a "general call" ?

id 2689

a YX-DEF Stephenville CONTROL.

b YX-ABC, YX-BCD, YX-CDE Stephenville CONTROL.
c ALL STATIONS Stephenville CONTROL.
d YX-EFG, YX-FGH over.

40

Must a "general call" be acknowledged"?

id 2690

a Yes, but only from the station first called.

b No.
c Yes, from all stations in the sequence they have been adressed.
d Yes, from all stations in a random sequence.

41

My message will be more effective and understandable if I :

id 2919

a Maintain the speaking volume at a constant level

b Use the words twice method
c Stress the end of message
d Stress every beginning of message

42

What is meant by good microphone technique ?

id 2920

a Keep the microphone far away since it improveds the readability.

b Speak very loudly into the microphone.
c Use a normal conversation tone, speak clearly and distinctly.
d Make large use of hesitation sounds as "er".
91.02. General Operating Procedures

2002/12/22

Page 8 of 24

43

Before transmitting the pilot should...:

id 2921

a Make sure that the aircraft is levelled off.

b Listen out on the frequency to ensure no interference with another station already
transmitting will occur.
c Always write the message and read it during the transmission.
d Make sure that the emergency frequency is tuned in at the same time.

44
id 2922

What is the consequence of a microphone button stuck on transmit (switched

"on") ?

a The frequency can not be used by others.

b None.
c Other stations will have to use the "words twice" technique.
d Readability will improve for all stations.

91.02.05. Standard words and phrases

45

What does the phrase "Go ahead" mean:

id 210

a Taxi on
b Proceed with your message
c Pass me the following information...
d Yes

46

What does the phrase "Roger" mean:

id 211

a A direct answer in the affirmative

b I have received all of your last transmission
c A direct answer in the negative
d Cleared for take-off or cleared to land

47

Which of these statements best describes the meaning of the phrase "Standby" ?

id 212

a Wait and I will call you

b Continue on present heading and listen out
c Select STANDBY on the SSR transponder
d Permission granted for action proposed

48

What does the phrase "Read back" mean:

id 213

a Did you correctly receive this message?

b Let me know that you have received and understood this message
c Repeat all, or the specified part, of this message back to me exactly as received
d Check and confirm with originator

49
id 215

Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "I should like to know..." or "I wish to
obtain..."?

a Confirm
b Report
c Acknowledge
d Request

91.02. General Operating Procedures

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Page 9 of 24

50
id 216

Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "Pass me the following
information...":

a Say again
b Request
c Report
d Check

51
id 217

Which phrase shall be used to confirm that a message has been repeated
correctly:

a That is right
b Correct
c Affirm
d That is affirmative

52
id 218

Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "An error has been made in this
transmission (or message indicated). The correct version is ...":

a QNH 1017, negative QNH 1016

b QNH 1017, correction QNH 1016
c QNH 1017, negative 1016
d QNH 1017, negative I say again 1016

53

Which phrase shall be used if the repetition of an entire message is required:

id 219

a What was your message?

b Repeat your message
c Say again
d Repeat your last transmission

54
id 221

Which phrase shall be used if you want to say:"I understand your message and will
comply with it":

a Will comply with your instruction

b Roger
c Wilco
d OK, will do it

55

Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "Yes":

id 222

a Roger
b Yes
c Affirm
d Affirmative

56

How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he is prepared for take-off:

id 224

a Ready to go
b Ready for take-off
c Ready to line-up
d Ready for departure or ready

91.02. General Operating Procedures

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57
id 226

Which of these phrases is used to inform the control tower that a pilot perform a
missed approach:

a Pulling up
b Overshooting
c Will make another approach
d Going around

58

What does the instruction "Go around" mean ?

id 227

a Overtake the aircraft ahead

b Carry out a missed approach
c Make a 360 turn
d Proceed with your message

59

What does the instruction "Orbit right" mean ?

id 228

a Make 360 turns to the right

b Turn right to avoid other traffic
c Right-hand circuits are in use
d Leave the runway to the right

60

What does the instruction "Vacate left" mean ?

id 229

a Turn left to leave the runway

b Give way to aircraft from the left
c Clear the runway immediately
d Hold position on the left side of the runway

61
id 1038

Which phraseology is to be used to ask the control tower for permission to taxi on
a runway in the direction opposite to thaht in use ?

a "Request bactrack on runway".

b "Clearance to backtrack".
c "To enter back runway".
d "Backtrack clearance".

62

What is meant by the phrase "readability 2"?

id 2691

a Readable but with difficulty.

b Readable.
c Unreadable.
d Readable now and then.

63

On the readability scale what does "readability 1" mean ?

id 2692

a Readable but with difficulty.

b Readable.
c Perfectly readable.
d Unreadable.

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64

What is meant by the phrase " readibility 4"?

id 2693

a Readable now and then.

b Readable.
c Perfectly readable.
d Readable but with difficulty.

65

What does the word "negative" mean ?

id 2707

a Permission not granted.

b Proposed action granted.
c Disregard last instruction.
d Consider that transmission as not sent.

66

What does the word "wilco" mean ?

id 2713

a I read you five.

b I have received all of your last transmission.
c I understand your message and will comply with it.
d As communication is difficult, I will call you later.

67

Which word or phrase shall be used if you want to say : "Wait and i will call you"?

id 2925

a Roger.
b Go ahead.
c Standby.
d Wilco.

91.02.06. Radiotelephony call signs for aeronautical station

68
id 231

What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station indicating
aerodrome control service:

a APRON
b CONTROL
c AERODROME
d TOWER

69
id 232

What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing flight
information service:

a FLIGHT CENTRE
b FLIGHT INFORMATION CENTRE
c INFORMATION
d CONTROL

70
id 233

What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing surface
movement control of aircraft on the manoeuvring area:

a GROUND
b APPROACH
c TOWER
d CONTROL

91.02. General Operating Procedures

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71
id 235

When may the name of the location or the call sign suffix in the call sign of an
aeronautical station be omitted ?

a In dense traffic during rush hours

b Never
c Only after the aeronautical station has used the abbreviated call sign
d When satisfactory communication has been established and provided it will not be
confusing to do so

91.02.07. Radiotelephony call signs for aircraft

72

Which of the following abbreviated call signs of aircraft XY-ABC is correct:

id 236

a XY-BC
b X-BC
c ABC
d BC

73

Which of the following abbreviated call signs of Cherokee XY-ABC is correct:

id 237

a Cherokee X-BC
b Cherokee XY-BC
c Cherokee BC
d Cherokee X-ABC

74

When is an aircraft station allowed to use its abbreviated call sign ?

id 238

a In dense traffic
b Only after satisfactory communication has been established
c Provided no confusion is likely to result
d After it has been addressed in this manner by the aeronautical ground station

91.02.08. Transfer of communication

75

How should aircraft XY-ABC call Stephenville TOWER on initial call ?

id 239

a TOWER XY-ABC
b Stephenville TOWER X-BC
c Stephenville XY-ABC
d Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC

76
id 240

Aircraft X-BC has been instructed to contact Stephenville TOWER on frequency

118.7. What is the correct response to indicate that it will follow this instruction ?

a Stephenville TOWER X-BC

b Will change to TOWER X-BC
c Changing over X-BC
d 118.7 X-BC

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77
id 241

Aircraft X-BC has been instructed to listen on ATIS frequency 123.25, on which
information are being broadcast. What is the correct response to indicate that it will
follow this instruction ?

a Checking 123.25 X-BC

b Changing to 123.25 X-BC
c Will contact 123.25 X-BC
d Monitoring 123.25 X-BC

78
id 242

What is the correct way to transmit and read back frequency 120.375 MHz (VHF
channel separated by 25 KHz):

a One two zero decimal three seven

b One twenty decimal three seven
c One two zero decimal three seven five
d One two zero three seven

91.02.09. Test procedures

79

On the readability scale what does "Readability 3" mean:

id 1

a Readable but with difficulty

b No problem to understand
c Loud and clear
d Unreadable

80

On the readability scale what does "Readability 5" mean:

id 2

a Perfectly readable
b Unreadable
c Problem to understand
d Readable but with difficulty

81
id 243

Aircraft XY-ABC is making a test transmission with Stephenville TOWER on

frequency 118.7. What is the correct phrasing for this transmission:

a Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC signal check

b Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC preflight check
c Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC radio check 118.7
d Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC frequency check

91.02.10. Read back and acknowledgement requirements

82

Which elements of instructions or information shall always be read back ?

id 3

a Surface wind, visibility, ground temperature, runway-in-use, altimeter settings, heading and speed
instructions
b Runway-in-use, visibility, surface wind, heading instructions, altimeter settings
c Runway-in-use, altimeter settings, SSR codes, level instructions, heading and speed
instructions
d Time check, runway-in-use, altimeter settings, level instructions, SSR codes

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83

Shall an ATC route clearance always be read back:

id 4

a No, if the communication channel is overloaded

b No, if the ATC route clearance is transmitted in a published form (e.g. Standard Instrument
Departure Route/SID)
c Yes, unless authorized otherwise by ATS authority concerned
d No, if the content of the ATC clearance is clear and no confusion is likely to arise

84
id 5

An aircraft is instructed to hold short of the runway-in-use. What is the correct

phraseology to indicate it will follow this instruction ?

a Wilco
b Holding short
c Will stop before
d Roger

85
id 6

Cherokee XY-ABC receives the following instruction: "X-BC climb straight ahead
until 2500 feet before turning right, wind 270 degrees 6 knots, cleared for takeoff".What is the correct read back:

a Straight ahead, 2500 feet right turn, wind west 6 knots, cleared for take-off, X-BC
b Wilco, cleared for take-off, X-BC
c Right turn after 2500, roger, X-BC
d Straight ahead, at 2500 feet right turn, cleared for take-off, X-BC

86

How should a pilot terminate the read-back of an ATC clearance ?

id 7

a With the word "roger"

b With the word "wilco"
c With the ATC ground station call sign
d With his own aircraft call sign

91.02.11. Radar procedural phraseology

87
id 8

An aircraft is flying north-east at 2500 feet.TOWER requests heading and level.

What is the correct response:

a 045 and 2500

b Heading north-east at level 25
c Heading 45 at 2500 feet
d Heading 045 at 2500 feet

88

What does the phrase "Squawk 1234" mean:

id 9

a Give a short count for DF (direction finder)

b Select code 1234 on the SSR transponder
c Make a test transmission on 123.4 MHz
d Standby on frequency 123.4 MHz

89

RADAR informs aircraft X-BC: "X-BC identified". What does this mean:

id 10

a Radar identification has been achieved

b X-BC is not visible on the radar screen
c X-BC should perform an identification turn
d X-BC should operate the IDENT-button
91.02. General Operating Procedures

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90

RADAR instructs aircraft X-BC: "X-BC squawk ident". What does this mean:

id 11

a X-BC shall reselect his assigned mode and code

b Radar identification has been achieved by correlating an observed radar blip with aircraft XY-ABC
c X-BC should perform an identification turn of at least 020 degrees
d X-BC shall operate the IDENT button

91

RADAR instructs aircraft X-BC: "X-BC squawk standby ". What does this mean?

id 22

a X-BC is requested to standby on the frequency

b X-BC is requested to switch to standby position
c X-BC is requested to standby for radar vectors
d X-BC is requested to standby as the radar controller is busy

92

RADAR instructs aircraft X-BC: "X-BC recycle 1015". What does this mean:

id 23

a X-BC has been identified at 10:15 (UTC)

b X-BC is requested to set new code 1015
c X-BC has been identified by SSR code 1015
d X-BC is requested to reselect SSR code 1015

93
id 24

How shall a pilot inform a radar control unit that the aircraft is not equipped with
transponder:

a No SSR
b Negative transponder
c Transponder not available
d Negative squawk

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91.03. Relevant Weather Informations

Terms
91.03.01. Aerodrome weather
94
id 25

When the term "Scattered" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR),
the amount of clouds covering the sky is:

a More than half but less than overcast (5 to 7 octas)

b Half or less than half (3 or 4 octas)
c Sky entirely covered (8 octas)
d No clouds below 5000 feet/GND

95
id 26

When the term "Broken" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the
amount of clouds covering the sky is:

a 5 to 7 octas
b 1 to 4 octas
c 8 octas below 10000 feet
d No clouds below 5000 feet

96
id 27

When the term "Overcast" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR),
the amount of clouds covering the sky is:

a 50% or more
b 100%
c Less than 50%
d No clouds but poor ground visibility

97
id 28

When the term "CAVOK" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR),
the values of visibility and clouds are:

a Visibility more than 5000 m, no clouds below 1500 m/GND

b Visibility 10 km or more, no clouds below 1500 feet/GND
c Visibility more than 8 km, no clouds below 3000 feet/GND
d Visibility 10 km or more, no clouds below 5000 feet/GND

98
id 29

How is the visibility in an aviation routine weather report (METAR) expressed in

plain language:

a In nautical miles only

b Up to 1500 m in metres, above in kilometres
c In feet and nautical miles
d Up to 5000 m in metres, above in kilometres

99

What is the correct way of expressing visibility ?

id 30

a Visibility 1.2 kilometres

b Visibility 1200 feet
c Visibility 1.2 nautical miles
d Visibility 1200 metres

91.03. Relevant Weather Informations Terms

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91.03.02. Weather broadcast

91.03.02.01. Weather broadcast
100

What is normally used for ATIS broadcasts ?

id 36

a DME voice channel

b Voice channel of an ILS
c NDB frequencies
d Discrete VHF frequency or/and VOR

101
id 37

How can aviation routine weather reports (METAR) of specific airports be obtained
by aircraft in flight:

a SIGMET
b ATIS
c AFIS
d VOLMET

102

Which information can aircraft in flight obtain by VOLMET:

id 38

a Runway reports
b SPECI and TAF
c SIGMET
d Aviation routine weather reports (METAR) of specific airports

91.03. Relevant Weather Informations Terms

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Page 18 of 24

91.04. Communication Failure

103
id 12

What action is required by the pilot of an aircraft station if he/she is unable to

establish radio contact with an aeronautical station ?

a Squawk mode A code 7500

b Divert to the alternate airport
c Try to establish communication with other aircraft or aeronautical stations
d Land at the nearest aerodrome appropriate to the route of flight

104
id 13

A message preceded by the phrase "Transmitting blind due receiver failure" shall
be transmitted:

a On the regional guard frequency

b On the frequency presently in use
c On the international emergency frequency
d On all available aeronautical stations

105
id 14

If all attemps to establish radio contact with a ground station fail, the pilot of an
airplane shall transmit messages preceded by the phrase:

a "How do you read?"

b "Read you one, read you one"
c "Transmitting blind"
d PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN

106
id 15

In the event that a pilot is required to make a blind transmission, this should be
made:

a Only once on the designated frequency

b Twice on the designated frequency
c On the emergency frequency only
d During VFR flights only

107
id 16

When transmitting a message preceded by the phrase "Transmitting blind due to

receiver failure" during an en-route flight, the aircraft station shall also:

a Land at the nearest airfield/airport

b Join base leg when approaching the airfield for landing
c Advise the time of its next intended transmission
d Return to the airport of departure

108

Under which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft station squawk 7600 ?

id 17

a In case of radio communication failure

b When entering bad weather areas
c When approaching a prohibited area
d When flying over desert areas

109
id 18

When shall the pilot of an aircraft experiencing communications failure keep a

watch for instructions passed by visual signals ?

a When entering a FIR during an IFR flight

b When flying VFR above clouds
c When the aircraft is entering the traffic pattern of an uncontrolled airport
d When the aircraft is forming part of the aerodrome traffic at a controlled aerodrome
91.04. Communication Failure

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110

What is the transponder code for radio communication failure:

id 39

a 6700
b 7600
c 7500
d 7700

111

An aircraft is squawking 7600. This indicates:

id 40

a It is diverting to the alternate aerodrome

b It is unable to establish communication due to radio equipment failure
c It is requesting immediate level change
d It is about to make a forced landing

112
id 41

An aircraft station fails to establish radio contact with an aeronautical station on the
designated frequency.What action is required by the pilot:

a Return to the airport of departure

b Continue the flight to the destination airport without any communication
c Attempt to establish contact with the station on an alternative frequency
d Land at the nearest airport without an ATC unit

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91.05. Distress and Urgency Procedures

91.05.01. Distress
113

Distress is defined as:

id 19

a A condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an ILS
approach
b A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or of a person on board, but which does not require
immediate assistance
c A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and requiring
immediate assistance
d A condition concerning the safety of a person on board or within sight and requiring immediate
assistance

114

An aircraft in distress shall send the following signal by radiotelephony:

id 21

a PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN

b DETRESFA, DETRESFA, DETRESFA
c MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY
d URGENCY, URGENCY, URGENCY

115

The frequency used for the first transmission of a "MAYDAY" call shall be:

id 245

a The distress frequency 121.5 MHz

b The frequency currently in use
c Any other international emergency frequency
d Any frequency at pilot's discretion

116
id 246

The distress message shall contain as many as possible of the following

elements/details:

a Aircraft call sign, nature of distress, pilot's intention, present position, level and heading
b Aircraft call sign, route of flight, destination airport
c Aircraft call sign, aerodrome of departure, position and level
d Aircraft call sign, present position, assistance required

117

Which of the following frequencies is an international emergency frequency:

id 247

a 122.500 MHz
b 121.500 MHz
c 6500 KHz
d 121.050 MHz

118

The frequency 121.500 MHz is designated as:

id 248

a An international emergency frequency

b A frequency for air-to-air communication
c A regional UHF frequency
d An airline operation frequency

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119

An aircraft in state of emergency shall squawk:

id 249

a 7600
b 6700
c 7700
d 7500

120

An aircraft squawking 7700 indicates to the ground station that:

id 250

a The aircraft's transceiver is unserviceable

b The aircraft is being hijacked
c The aircraft is in distress
d There is a sick passenger on board

121

Under which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft squawk 7700 ?

id 251

a When passing the transition level

b When following a SID
c When flying within controlled airspace
d In distress

91.05.02. Urgency
122

Urgency is defined as:

id 252

a A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate
assistance
b A condition concerning the safety of a person on board or within sight and requiring immediate
assistance
c A condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an ILS
approach
d A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft other vehicles or of a person on board, but
which does not require immediate assistance

123

An urgency message shall be preceded by the radiotelephony urgency signal:

id 254

a ALERFA, spoken three times

b URGENCY,spoken three times
c MAYDAY, spoken three times
d PAN PAN, spoken three times

124

Which frequency shall be used for the first transmission of an urgency call:

id 255

a The international emergency frequency

b The air-ground frequency in use at the time
c The regional guard frequency
d Any frequency at pilot's discretion

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91.06. General principles of VHF

propagation
125
id 257

Which is the frequency band containing frequencies of the Aeronautical Mobile

Service?

a 108.000 - 117.975 MHz

b 118.000 - 136.975 MHZ
c 1810 - 2850 KHz
d 11650 - 13200 KHz

126
id 258

To which frequency bands do the frequencies 118.000 - 136.975 MHz of the

Aeronautical Mobile Service belong ?

a Medium frequency
b Very low frequency
c Low frequency
d Very high frequency

127
id 259

Which is the frequency separation between consecutive frequencies in the VHF

band:

a 75 KHz
b 50 KHz
c 25 KHz
d 250 KHz

128

What are the propagation characteristics of VHF:

id 260

a The waves travel along the surface of the earth and penetrate into valleys in a way that topographical
obstacles have no influence
b The waves are reflected at the ionosphere at the height of about 100 km and reach the earth surface
in the form of sky-waves
c Practically straight-line similar to light waves
d Similar to short waves with practically no atmospheric disturbance

129

Which phenomena will normally influence the reception of VHF transmission ?

id 261

a Level of aircraft and terrain elevations

b The ionosphere
c Electrical discharges as they happen frequently in thunderstorms
d Day- and night effect

130
id 262

Under which of the following circumstances may you expect a solid reception of
theTOWER frequency 118.2 MHz:

a Aircraft at low level but far away from the ground station
b Aircraft at high level in the vicinity of the ground station
c Aircraft at low level, far away from the ground station, in the radio shadow zone of a hill
d Aircraft at low level, in the vicinity of the ground station, in the radio shadow zone of a hill

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131
id 263

Which is the maximum distance at which you might expect solid VHF contact over
flat terrain at flight level 50:

a About 8 NM
b About 85 NM
c About 15 NM
d About 150 NM

132
id 304

Which is the maximum distance at which you might expect solid VHF contact over
flat terrain at flight level 100:

a About 120 NM
b About 300 NM
c About 30 NM
d About 12 NM

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