GEOG 115, Mid term Exam #2 Study Guide

Questions 1-20 Stability and Cloud (Book Chapter: 5)

1. Driving along Shaw by Chestnut Avenue on a warm summer afternoon, what type of smoke
plume you expect to see from the Dog House Grill smokestack?
a. Fanning; b. Fumigation; (c). Conning; (d) Looping; (e) Lofting
2. Under what atmospheric condition is fog most often formed in the San Joaquin Valley?
(a) Neutral stability; (b) conditionally unstable stability; (c) Unstable stability; (d) Stable stability
3. What type of lapse rate can be determined from temperature measurements made from an aircraft
ascending from the surface to a height of 3,000 m?
(a). dry adiabatic lapse rate; (b). environmental lapse rate ; (c). moist adiabatic lapse rate;
(d). inversion lapse rate
4. The San Joaquin Air Pollution Control District (SJAPCD) does not permit burning when it is
determined the stability in the lower atmosphere is ______________
(a) Stable; (b) unstable; (c) neutral; (d) conditionally unstable; (e) none of the above
5. Which atmospheric stability condition is more likely to increase pollution level in Fresno?
a. unstable atmosphere; b. conditionally unstable atmosphere; c. stable atmosphere
d. neutral atmosphere
6. Which stability condition is more likely to enhance dispersion of pollutants in Fresno?
a. unstable atmosphere; b. conditionally unstable atmosphere; c. stable atmosphere
d. neutral atmosphere
7. What lifting mechanism accounts for clouds often seen over the mountain east of Clovis?
(a) Convection; (b) convergence; (c) orographic lifting; (d) frontal lifting
8.

If the temperature at Fresno airport is 100 oF and the environmental lapse rate is 10oF per 1000
feet, what is the temperature at the foothill with elevation of 1000 feet
(a) 78 oF; (b) 70 oF; (c) 84 oF; (d) 90 oF; (e) none of the above

9. One of the reasons for reduced precipitation amount in the San Joaquin Valley is because the
region is located on the ________side of the coastal range
(a) windward; (b) leeward ; (c) northern ; (d). eastern
10. When the environmental lapse rate decreases more rapidly with height than the dry adiabatic
rate, the atmosphere is:
a. absolutely stable.
b. absolutely unstable.
c. convectively unstable.
d. conditionally unstable.
11.

An inversion represents an extremely stable atmosphere because air that rises into the
inversion will eventually become __________ and __________ dense than the surrounding air.
a. warmer, less
b. warmer, more

c. colder, less
d. colder, more
12.

Which set of conditions, working together, will make the atmosphere the most stable?
a. cool the surface and warm the air aloft
b. cool the surface and cool the air aloft
c. warm the surface and cool the air aloft
d. warm the surface and warm the air aloft

Question 14 refer to the diagram above.

13. Temperatures in a rising parcel of air are shown at various altitudes above. The data indicate that a
cloud must have formed at _____.
a. 1 km
b. 2 km
c. 3 km
d. 4 km
14.

Indicate which mechanism below will not lead to cloud formation

a. surface heating and free convection
b. uplift along topography
c. convergence of surface air
d. divergence of surface air

15.

The difference between the "moist" and "dry" adiabatic rates is due to:
a. the fact that saturated air is always unstable.
b. the fact that an unsaturated air parcel expands more rapidly than a saturated air parcel.
c. the fact that moist air weighs less than dry air.
d. the fact that latent heat is released by a rising parcel of saturated air.

16.

Subsidence inversions are best developed with ____ pressure areas because of the ____
air motions associated with them.
a. high; rising
b. high; sinking
c. low; rising
d. low; sinking

17. If the environmental lapse rate is 5o C per 1,000 m and the temperature at the earth's surface is 25o
C, then the air temperature at 2,000 m above the ground is
(b) 20 oC; (b) 25 oC; (c) 15 oC; (d) 30 oC
18. A neutral stability occurs in the atmosphere when
a. environmental lapse rate is greater than dry adiabatic lapse rate
b. dry adiabatic lapse rate is less than environmental lapse rate
c. moist adiabatic lapse rate is less than environmental lapse rate.
d. dry adiabatic lapse rate equal environmental lapse rate.
e. none of the above
19. If an air parcel is lifted, it will first form clouds at the ________ and become buoyant (unstable) at
the _________.
(a) level of free convection; tropopause
(b) lifting condensation level; tropopause
(c) level of free convection; lifting condensation level
(d) lifting condensation level; level of free convection
(e) lifting condensation level; level of explosive growth
20. The dry adiabatic rate is the rate at which:
a. an air parcel rises;
b. temperature changes in a rising or descending parcel of unsaturated air.
c. volume changes when a parcel expands or is compressed.;
d. latent heat energy is released in a rising air parcel.

Questions 21-43 : Extreme precipitation (Chapter 6)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

The figure above represents vertical temperature profiles associated with different form of precipitation.
Questions 21-24 refer to the figure
21. The precipitation type represented by A
(a). sleet; (b). rain; (c). snow; (d). freezing rain
22. The precipitation type represented by B
(a). sleet; (b). rain; (c). snow; (d).freezing rain

23. The precipitation type represented by C

(a) sleet; (b) rain; (c). snow; (d). freezing rain
24 The precipitation type represented by D
(a). sleet; (b). rain; (c). snow; (d). freezing rain
25. Which of the following is not classified as a form of precipitation?
a. sleet; b. rain; c. dew; d. snow; e. drizzle
26. Cloud droplets will remain suspended in air as long as
a. their diameters are less than 0.02 mm
b. the updraft speed is larger than the terminal velocity
c. the drag force is greater than the gravitational force
d. all of the above
27. Which statement(s) about supercooled droplet is (are) correct?
a. they are also called sleet
b. they have temperatures below 0C but are still liquid.
c. they have temperatures above 0C but are entirely ice.
d. they never exist naturally in the atmosphere because water freezes at 0C.
e. (a) and (c) are both correct.
28. The growth of a precipitation particle by the collision of an ice crystal (or snowflake) with a
supercooled liquid droplet is called:
a. accretion ; b. spontaneous nucleation; c. condensation; d. deposition
29. In the winter you read in the newspaper that a large section of the Midwest is without power due to
downed power line. Which form of precipitation would most likely produce this situation?
a. snow; b. hail ; c. freezing rain; d. sleet; e. rain
30. Radar gathers information about precipitation in clouds by measuring the:
a. energy emitted by the precipitation particles
b. absorption characteristics of falling precipitation
c. amount of energy reflected back to a transmitter
d. amount of sunlight scattered off the precipitation
e. amount of solar energy passing through the cloud
31. Hailstones that form via the dry growth regime typically have what characteristic?
a. they have smooth surfaces.
b. they are opaque or milky white.
c. they are solid ice with no air bubbles.
d. the surface temperature of the hailstone is above 0C.
32. Hailstones that form via the wet growth regime typically have what characteristic?
a. they are opaque or milky white.
b. they are at least one inch in diameter.
c. they have tiny air bubbles trapped inside the hailstone.
d. the surface temperature of the hailstone is at 0C.
33. What causes the milky white appearance of some hailstones?

a.
b.
c.
d.

air bubbles trapped in the hailstone

above normal atmospheric pressure
pollution trapped in the thunderstorm cloud
snowflakes trapped during hailstone growth

34. Which seasons precipitation is the key to drought in the western United States?
a. winter; b. spring; c. summer; d. autumn
35. What is the term used to describe blizzards caused solely by blowing snow?
a. white blizzards; b. diamond dust; c. white powder; d. snow blizzards ; e. ground blizzards
36. If you become stranded in your car during a blizzard, which of the following is your best
course of action?
a. Call for help if you have a cell phone, light a candle and wait.
b. Run the engine so that the cars heater can keep you warm.
c. Write your final will and testament before your fingers freeze.
d. Get out of your car immediately and walk to the nearest house.
e. Get out of your car, light danger flares at distances of 50 and 100 yards away to signal for
help, and return to your car.
37. Flooding that occurs with little or no warning
a. coastal flooding
b. flash flooding
c. inland flooding
d. none of the above
38. In a typical advancing winter storm, which of the following sequences of precipitation types is most
likely to occur?
a. rain, freezing rain, snow, sleet
b. rain, sleet, freezing rain, snow
c. freezing rain, rain, sleet, snow
d. rain, freezing rain, sleet, snow
39. After a rainstorm, visibility typically:
a. deteriorates.
b. is unaffected.
c. improves.
d. none of the above
40. Large raindrops fall __________ than smaller raindrops, and have a __________ terminal velocity
than small raindrops.
a. faster, lesser ; b. faster, greater; c. slower, lesser; d. slower, greater

41. What is the term used to describe the stage of a drought when the moisture shortage is
sufficiently large that it affects people?
(a) agricultural
(b) hydrological
(c) socioeconomic
(d) meteorological or climatological

42

An unusually long period during which precipitation is below normal for a particular area is
referred to as what type of drought?
(a) agricultural; (b) hydrological; (c) socioeconomic; (d) meteorological or climatological

43.

A period of deficient moisture in the soil layers from which crops and other plants
normally draw their water is termed what type of drought?
(a) agricultural
(b) hydrological
(c) socioeconomic
(d) meteorological or climatological

Question 44-63: Atmospheric motion (Chapter 7)

44. Which of these forces does not control the wind?
a. Gravitational force
b. Coriolis force
c. Pressure gradient force
d. Frictional force
e. electrostatic force
45. Which of the following is not true about the Pressure Gradient Force?
a. it is directed from high to low pressure
b. it is responsible for triggering the initial movement of air
c. it is always perpendicular to the isobars
d. it is strongest where isobars are closer together
e. it is zero at the equator
46. Which statement is false?
a. Air initially moves horizontally in response to the pressure gradient force.
b. The frictional force is directed opposite the direction of air motion.
c. The Coriolis force is directed to the right of the air motion in the Northern
Hemisphere.
d. The gravitational force is directed opposite the air motion in the Northern
Hemisphere.
47. Air cannot be in geostrophic balance in the boundary layer because of the _______.
a. Coriolis force
b. frictional force
c. gravitational force
d. vertical pressure gradient force
e. horizontal pressure gradient force
48. The _________ is an apparent force associated with the rotation of the earth.
a. Coriolis force
b. frictional force
c. gravitational force
d. vertical pressure gradient force
e. horizontal pressure gradient force
49. The ___________ causes air to slow down near the surface.

a. Coriolis force
b. frictional force
c. gravitational force
d. vertical pressure gradient force
e. horizontal pressure gradient force
50. Which of the following statements is false
a. The Coriolis force is zero at the equator
b. The Coriolis force deflects air parcels to the right in the northern hemisphere
c. The strength of the Coriolis force decreases with increasing latitude
d. The Coriolis force does not change the speed of moving air parcel
51.

The surface pressures at the bases of warm and cold columns of air are equal. Air pressure in the
warm column of air will ______ with increasing height __________ than in the cold column.
a. decrease, more rapidly
b. decrease, more slowly
c. increase, more rapidly
d. increase, more slowly

52.

Lines connecting points of equal pressure are called:

a. isobars.
b. millibars.
c. contours.
d. isotherms.
e. a coordinate grid.

53.

Pressure changes:
a. more rapidly in the horizontal direction than in the vertical.
b. more rapidly in the vertical direction than in the horizontal.
c. at the same rate in the horizontal and vertical directions.
d. more rapidly in the vertical over land than over the ocean.

54.

Low __________ on a constant height chart corresponds to low __________ on a constant pressure
chart.
a. pressures, pressures
b. pressures, heights
c. heights, pressures
d. heights, heights

55.

Warm air aloft is associated with constant pressure surfaces that are found
at __________ altitude than normal and __________ than normal atmospheric pressure aloft.
a. higher, higher
b. higher, lower
c. lower, higher
d. lower, lower

56.

On an upper-level chart, normally we find warm air associated with __________ pressure, and cold
air associated with __________ pressure.
a. high, high
b. high, low
c. low, low

d. low, high
57.

A surface low pressure center is generally associated with __________ on an upper level isobaric
chart.
a. a trough
b. a ridge
c. zonal flow
d. convergence

58.

On an upper-level chart the wind tends to blow:

a. at right angles to the isobars or contour lines
b. parallel to the isobars or contours
c. at an angle between 10 and 30 to the contours and towards lower pressure
d. at constant speed

59.

The wind around a surface high pressure center in the Northern Hemisphere blows:
a. counterclockwise and outward from the center.
b. counterclockwise and inward toward the center.
c. clockwise and outward from the center.
d. clockwise and inward toward the center.

60

We can generally expect the air to be __________ above areas of surface low pressure and
__________ above areas of surface high pressure.
a. rising, rising
b. rising, sinking
c. sinking, sinking
d. sinking, rising

61.

If an air parcel is completely at rest, which of the following forces can make the parcel begin to
move?
a. friction
b. centripetal
c. pressure gradient
d. gravity
e. Coriolis

62.

Winds blow slightly inward:

a. around surface low pressure centers in the Northern Hemisphere only.
b. around surface low pressure centers in the Southern Hemisphere only.
c. around surface low pressure centers in the Northern and Southern Hemispheres.
d. at the poles in both hemispheres.

63. Cyclonic flow means

in either the Northern or Southern Hemisphere.
a. clockwise wind flow
b. counterclockwise flow
c. circulation around a low pressure center
d. circulation around a high pressure center

Questions: 64-84 Wind Systems (Chapter 8)

64.

A westerly wind means that the atmosphere:

a. would act to decrease the rotation of the earth.
b. is moving faster than the earth spins.
c. is moving slower than the earth spins.
d. is moving as fast as the earth rotates.

65.

The intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) is a region where:

a. the polar front meets the subtropical high.
b. northeast trades meet the southeast trades.
c. northeast trades converge with the subtropical high.
d. the Ferrel cell converges with the Hadley cell.
e. polar easterlies converge with the air at the doldrums.

66.

In Honolulu, Hawaii (latitude 21o N), you would most likely experience winds blowing from the:
a. northeast.
b. south.
c. southwest.
d. northwest.

67.

At Barrow, Alaska (latitude 70 oN), you would expect the prevailing wind to be:
a. northerly.
b. easterly.
c. southerly.
d. westerly.

68.

Generally, along the polar front one would not expect to observe:
a. temperatures on one side lower than on the other side.
b. an elongated region of lower pressure.
c. clouds and precipitation.
d. converging surface air.
e. sinking air aloft.

69.

The majority of the United States lies within this wind belt:
a. westerlies
b. easterlies
c. northerlies
d. trades
e. southerlies

70.

In terms of the three-cell general circulation model, the driest regions of the earth should be near:
a. the equator and the polar regions.
b. the equator and 30o latitude.
c. the equator and 60o latitude.
d. 30o latitude and 60o latitude.
e. 30o latitude and the polar regions.

71.

Which below does not describe the polar front jet stream?
a. is strongest in winter
b. moves farther south in winter
c. forms near the boundary called the polar front
d. is normally found at a higher elevation than the subtropical jet

72.

In the Northern Hemisphere, the polar jet stream is strongest when:

a. air north of the polar front is much colder than air south of the polar front.
b. air north of the polar front is much warmer than air south of the polar front.
c. air temperatures on opposite sides of the polar front are about equal.
d. air temperatures on the East Coast of the US are much colder than on the West.
Coast of the US

73.

Surface winds are generally strongest and most gusty:

a. in the afternoon.
b. in the early morning.
c. around midnight.
d. just after sunset.
e. just before sunrise.

74.

The wind's speed generally increases with height above the earth's surface because:
a. only the lowest layer of air rotates with the earth.
b. air temperature normally decreases with height.
c. wind instruments are not accurate at the earth's surface.
d. friction with the earth's surface slows the air near the ground.
e. air parcels expand and become less dense as they rise above the surface.

75.

Which below would not be considered an onshore wind?

a. sea breeze
b. Santa Ana wind
c. lake breeze
d. none of the above

76.

During the summer in humid climates, nighttime clouds tend to form over water during a:
a. land breeze.
b. chinook wind.
c. sea breeze.
d. Santa Ana wind.

77.

In south Florida the prevailing winds are northeasterly. Because of this, the strongest sea breeze is
usually observed on Florida's __________ coast, and the strongest land breeze on Florida's
__________ coast.
a. east, west
b. west, east
c. west, west
d. east, east

78.

Low pressure becomes best developed over the Asian continent in:
a. summer.
b. winter.
c. fall.
d. spring.

80.

Cumulus clouds that appear above isolated mountain peaks are often the result of:
a. katabatic winds.
b. mountain winds.

c. fall winds.
d. Santa Ana winds.
e. valley breezes.
81.

A valley breeze would develop its maximum strength:

a. at sunrise.
b. in early afternoon.
c. about an hour after sunset.
d. about midnight.

82.

On the eastern side of the Rocky Mountains, chinook winds are driest when:
a. clouds form and precipitation falls on the upwind side of the mountains.
b. the air aloft is cold.
c. the sun is shining.
d. the winds are blowing from the east.
e. surface friction is greatest on the downwind side of the mountain.

83.

Which of the following conditions favor the development of dust devils?

a. hot, moist days
b. hot, dry days
c. cold, moist days
d. cold, dry days

84

What is the name given to downslope windstorms along the east slopes of the Rocky Mountains?
a. bora
b. foehn
c. Chinook
d. katabatic
e. Santa Ana