Q 1: Which of the following is not seen

in unilateral injury to hypoglossal

nerve?

Q 5: Cervical vertebra is differentiated

from the thoracic verterbra by the
presence of:

(A) Hemiatrophy of involved side

(A) Large vertebral body

(B) Deviation of tongue towards the same

side

(B) Upwards facing facets

(C) Triangular for amina

(C) Loss of taste sensation of the affected

side of tongue

(D) Foramen transversarium

(D) Fasciulation of the tongue

Correct Answer: Foramen transversarium

Correct Answer: Loss of taste sensation of

the affected side of tongue

Q 1: In a pregnan tfemale, there is

decreased requirement of the spinal
anaesthetic agent because of all of the
following except:

Q 2: Which of the following muscle is

not involved in damage of craninal part
of accessory nerve:
(A) Cricopharyngeus
(B) Palatopharyngeus
(C) Stylopharyngeus

(A) Exaggerated lumbar lordosis

(B) Decreased volume of sub arachnoid
space
(C) Engorgement of epidural veins

(D) Salpingopharyngeus

(D) Increased sensitivity of the nerves to

anaesthetic agent

Correct Answer: Stylopharyngeus

Correct Answer: Exaggerated lumbar lordosis

Q 3: Which of the following is true?

Q 2: Which of the following is not seen

in scoline apnea?

(A) Hypothalamus is part of brainstem

(B) Occipital lobe is part of cerebral cortex
(C) Medulla is part of limbic system

(A) It is due to succinylcholine

(B) It can be inherited

(D) All of the above

(C) Patients usually do not die of scoline

apne they are properly managed

Correct Answer: Occipital lobe is part of

cerebral cortex

(D) It occurs due to deficiency of

cholinesterase

Q 4: Which of the following is true?

Correct Answer: It occurs due to deficiency of

cholinesterase

(A) Hypothalamus is part of brainstem

(B) Occipital lobe is part of cerebral cortex
(C) Medulla is part of limbic system
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: Occipital lobe is part of
cerebral cortex

Q 3: A 40-year female has to undergo

incisional surgery under general
anesthesia. She complains of awaken
during her past cesarean section. Which
of the following monitoring techniques
can be used to prevent such
awareness?

(A) Color Doppler

(B) Bispectral index monitoring
(C) Transesophageal echocardiography
(D) Pulse plethysmography
Correct Answer: Bispectral index monitoring
Q 4: A patient presented with blunt
trauma to the abdomen to the
emergency department. His pulse rate
is 150/min and his BP is 80/50 mm Hg.
scheduled to undergo an emergency
laparotomy. Which of the following is
the anesthetic of choice?

following is the ideal anaesthetic agent

of choice?
(A) Remifentanil
(B) Morphine
(C) Etomidate
(D) Halothane
Correct Answer: Etomidate
Q 7: The most important constituent in
soda lime for reabsorption of CO2 in a
closed circuit is:
(A) Sodium hydroxide

(A) Thiopentone

(B) Barium hydroxide

(B) Midazolam

(C) Calcium hydroxide

(C) Ketamine

(D) Potassium hydroxide

(D) Propofol

Correct Answer: Calcium hydroxide

Correct Answer: Ketamine

Q 8: Maximum dose of lignocaine with

adrenaline for local blocks in
ophthalmic surgeries is:

Q 5: A patient presented with blunt

trauma to the abdomen to the
emergency department. His pulse rate
is 150/min and his BP is 80/50 mm Hg.
scheduled to undergo an emergency
laparotomy. Which of the following is
the anesthetic of choice?

(A) 3 mg/kg
(B) 5 mg/kg
(C) 7 mg/kg

(A) Thiopentone

(D) 10 mg/kg

(B) Midazolam

Correct Answer: 3 mg/kg

(C) Ketamine

Q 9: A 10-year old child is undergoing

squint surgery. He suddenly developed
increased heart rate, arrhythmia, high
fever, metabolic and respiratory
acidosis on arterial blood gases and
elevation of end tidal CO2. Which of the
following would be the first agent of
choice in the management of this
condition?

(D) Propofol
Correct Answer: Ketamine
Q 6: A 32-year old male with no past
medical history is brought to the
emergency department after being
injured in a bomb blast. On examination
he is suspected to have a splenic injury
and is supposed to undergo an
emergency laparotomy. Which of the

(A) Dantrolene
(B) Paracetamol

(C) Procainamide
(D) Sodium bicarbonate
Correct Answer: Paracetamol
Q 10: A 26-year old primigravida with severe
rheumatic heart disease (mitral stenosis with
mitral regurgitation) is in early labour. The
obstetrician wants to try a normal labour.
Which of the following is the ideal
intervention for labour analgesia?
(A) Parenteral opioids
(B) Neuraxial analgesia

Q 2: In humans, the genetic code is

represented by code of three
nucleotides. If one amino acid is coded
by more than one triplet, then this is
known as:
(A) Degeneracy
(B) Frame-shift mutation
(C) Ambiguity
(D) Mutation
Correct Answer: Degeneracy

(C) Inhalational analgesia

Q 3: Which of the following is true

regarding Fluorescence?

(D) Spinal anaesthesia

(A) Spontaneous illumination in dark

Correct Answer: Neuraxial analgesia

(B) Release of longer wavelength light on

absorbing light of shorter wavelength

Q 11: The laryngoscope shall be held in

which hand by a right handed person
for the purpose of intubation?
(A) Right hand
(B) Left hand

(C) Release of shorter wavelength light on

absorbing light of longer wavelength
(D) Continuous emission of lights of
different wavelength

(D) Neither

Correct Answer: Release of longer

wavelength light on absorbing light of
shorter wavelength

Correct Answer: Either

Q 4: DNA estimation can be done by:

Q 1: Gluconeogenesis in fasting state is

stimulated by:

(A) Spirometer

(A) Pyruvate kinase stimulated by citrate

(C) pH meter

(B) Activation of pyruvate carboxylase by

acetyl Co-A

(D) Sphygmomanometer

(C) Either

(C) Activation of pyruvate kinase by

fructose 1,6-bisphosphate
(D) Stimulation of phosphofructokinase-1 by
fructose 2,6-bisphosphate
Correct Answer: Activation of pyruvate
carboxylase by acetyl Co-A

(B) Spectrophotometer

Correct Answer: Spectrophotomete

Q 5: In porphyrias, which of the
following enzyme defects does not lead
to photosensitivity?
(A) Uroporphyrinogen synthase
(B) Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
(C) Protoporphyrinogen oxidase

(D) Coproporphyrinogen oxidase

(C) Bernoulis principle

Correct Answer: Uroporphyrinogen synthase

(D) Universal Gas Equation

Q 1: Ventricular depolarization starts

from:

Correct Answer: Stewart-Hamilton equation

(A) Posterolateral area of ventricle

(B) Base of left ventricle
(C) Right part of interventricular septum
(D) Left part of interventricular septum
Correct Answer: Left part of interventricular
septum
Q 2: During moderate exercise, blood
flow to brain:
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
(C) Does not change
(D) First increase, then decreases
Correct Answer: Does not change
Q 3: All of the following are true about
action of ADH, except:
(A) Post-operative increase in secreation
(B) Secreted via neurosecreation
(C) Increased secretion when plasma
osmolality is low

Q 5: Which of the following is correct

about adult critical closing volume is?
(A) Volume measured at the end of forceful
expiration
(B) Volume at the end of forceful inspiration
(C) Volume remaining after functional
residual capacity is measured
(D) Close to residual volume
Correct Answer: Close to residual volume
Q 6: CSF pressure is mainly regulated
by:
(A) Rate of CSF formation
(B) Rate of CSF absorption
(C) Cerebral blood flow
(D) Venous pressure
Correct Answer: Rate of CSF absorption
Q 7: In right handed individuals, the left
cerebral hemisphere is more developed
than the right cerebral hemisphere. The
left cerebral hemisphere is mainly
responsible for:

(D) Act on distal convoluted tuble and

increase permeability

(A) Appreciation of music

Correct Answer: Increased secretion when

plasma osmolality is low

(C) Visual stimuli processing

Q 4: Which scienctifc principle is the

basis for thermodilution method used in
measurement of cardiac output by
pulmonary catheter?
(A) Hagen-Poisseuile principle
(B) Stewart-Hamilton equation

(B) Spatial orientation

(D) Written and spoken language

Correct Answer: Written and spoken
language
Q 8: In Lewis Triple Response, redness
when skin is scratched with a pointed
object is seen due to:
(A) Axon reflex causing vasoconstriction

(B) Histamine release due to local injury to

mast cells

(A) It has control centers for all motor

actions and sensory inputs

(C) Free nerve endings injury

(B) Every cell of brain has got specific

function

(D) Endothelial damage leading to increase

in permeability
Next Question Finish Later

(C) It is a closed system and so not

influenced by changes occurring outside

Correct Answer:

(D) Its functions are profoundly affected by

changes in external environment

Histamine release due to local injury to mast

cells

Correct Answer: Its functions are profoundly

affected by changes in external environment

Explanation:
Q 9: If the external causes are removed,
the sleep-wake cycle in humans:

(B) Continue with cycle length of 24 hours

Q 12: A young female patient came for

routine examination. On examination a
mid systolic click was found. There is no
history of RHD. The histopathological
examination is most likely to show:

(C) Continue with cycle length of less than

24 hours

(A) Myxomatous degeneration and prolapse

of the mitral valve

(D) Continue with cycle length of more than

24 hours

(B) Fibrinous deposition on the tip of

papillary muscle

Next Question Finish Later

(C) Rupture of chordae tendinae

Correct Answer:

(D) Aschoff nodule on the mitral valve

Continue with cycle length of more than 24

hours

Correct Answer: Myxomatous degeneration

and prolapse of the mitral valve

Explanation:

Q 13: Which of the following is the

characteristic of irreversible injury on
electron microscopy?

(A) Does not continue

Q 10: Which of the following is seen in

pneumothorax?
(A) Over expanded chest wall
(B) Reduced concentration of surfactant
(C) More negative itrapleural pressure
(D) Increased lung compliance
Correct Answer: Reduced concentration of
surfactant
Q 11: In humans, the brain is
considered to be responsive:

(A) Disruption of ribosomes

(B) Amorphous densities in mitochondria
(C) Swelling of Endoplasmic reticulum
(D) Cell swelling
Correct Answer: Amorphous densities in
mitochondria
Q 14: Which of the following statements
is true?

(A) Chronic myeloid leukemia occurs

beyond 50 years of age

(C) T lymphocytes
(D) Hematopoetic stem cells

(B) Hairy cell leukemia in less than 50 years

has a good prognosis

Correct Answer: RBCs

(C) Acute lymphoid leukemia in less than

one year has a poor prognosis

Q 18: The role of bradykinin in process

of inflammation is:

(D) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia occurs in

h than 50 years of age

(A) Vasoconstriction

Correct Answer: Acute lymphoid leukemia in

less than one year has a poor prognosis

(C) Pain

Q 15: Which of the following regarding

Bombay blood group is false?
(A) Lack of H, A and B antigen on RBCs
(B) Lack of H, A and B substance in saliva
(C) Lack of antigens of several blood group
systems
(D) H, A and B antibody will always be
present in serum
Correct Answer: Lack of antigens of several
blood group systems
Q 16: Hematopoetic stem cell differ
from progenitor stem cell in that they
can:
(A) Form terminally differentiated cells
(B) Have a role in bone marrow
regeneration
(C) Produce growth factors
(D) Have receptors for anchoring proteins
Correct Answer: Have a role in bone marrow
regeneration
Q 17: In an ablated animal, myeloid
series cells are injected. Which of
following is seen after incubation period?
(A) RBCs
(B) Fibroblasts

(B) Bronchodilation

(D) Increased vascular permeability

Correct Answer: Increased vascular
permeability
Q 19: A 23-year-old female presented
with jaundice and pallor for 2 months.
Her peripheral blood smear shows the
presence of spherocytes. The most
relevant investigation to arrive at a
diagnosis is:
(A) Reticulocyte count
(B) Osmotic fragility test
(C) Coombs test
(D) Tests fro PNH
Correct Answer: Coombs test
Q 20: The fixative used in
histopathology:
(A) 10% buffered neutral formalin
(B) Bouins fixative
(C) Glutaraldehyde
(D) Ethyl alcohol
Correct Answer: 10% buffered neutral
formalin
Q 21: A newborn baby presented with
profuse bleeding from the umbilical
stump after birth. Rest of the
examination and PT, APTT are within

normal limits. Most of probable

diagnosis is:
(A) Factor X deficiency
(B) Glanzmann thrombasthenia
(C) von-Willebrand disease
(D) Bernard-Soulier disease
Correct Answer: Factor X deficienc
Q 22: HLA antigens observed on ocular
dendritic cells are:
(A) Class I
(B) Class II

(C) They irreversibly inhibit the proton

pump molecule and hence, acid secretion
requires synthesis of new proton pumps
(D) They are available as enteric coated
capsules, from which drug is gradually
released
Correct Answer: They irreversibly inhibit the
proton pump molecule and hence, acid
secretion requires synthesis of new proton
pumps
Q 25: True about first order kinetics is:
(A) A constant amount is eliminated in unit
time

(C) Class I and II

(B) The half-life increases with an increase

in dose

(D) None

(C) The rate of elimination is constant

Correct Answer: Class I and II

(D) The rate of elimination is proportional to

the plasma concentration

Q 23: Which of the following statements

about anti- epileptics is false?
(A) Phenytoin and carbamazepine act by
prolonging Na+ channel activation
(B) Carbamazepine is also used in
trigeminal neuralgias

Correct Answer: The rate of elimination is

proportional to the plasma concentration
Q 26: Drug-induced colitis is most
frequently associated with:
(A) Neomycin

(C) Diazepam is an anti-epileptic

(B) Vancomycin

(D) Lamotrigine acts by GABA mediated Clchannel opening

(C) Clindamycin

Correct Answer: Phenytoin and

carbamazepine act by prolonging Na+
channel activation
Q 24: Despite their short half-lives (2
hours), Proton pump Inhibitors (PPIs)
cause a prolonged suppression of acid
secretion (up to 48 hours) because:
(A) They are prodrugs and undergo
activation gradually
(B) They exit from the plasma and enter
acid secretory canaliculi and stay there,
blocking the secretion of acid for a long time

(D) Chloramphenicol
Correct Answer: Clindamycin
Q 27: A female treatment for depression
took a massive dose of amitriptyline for
suicide. Which of the following is wrong
regarding management for her?
(A) Gastric lavage was done
(B) Sodium bicarbonate was administered
to treat acidosis
(C) Atropine sulphate was administered as
an antidote

(D) Diazepam was injected to control

seizures.
Correct Answer: Atropine sulphate was
administered as an antidote
Q 28: All of the following can cause SLElike syndrome except:
(A) INH
(B) Penicillin
(C) Hydralazine
(D) Sulphonamide
Correct Answer:
PenicillinExplanation:
Q 29: The drug that is not banned for
players by the International Olympic
Committee (IOC)
(A) Salbutamol
(B) Sodium chromoglycate
(C) Erythropoietin
(D) Spironolactone
Correct Answer: Sodium chromoglycate
Q 30: Which of the following traditional
medicines is effective in the treatment
of heart failure?
(A) Terminalia Arjuna
(B) Neem bark extract
(C) St. Johns wort
(D) Gingkoba biloba
Correct Answer: Terminalia Arjuna
Q 31: Sputum can be disinfected by all
except:
(A) Auto claving
(B) Boiling

(C) Cresol
(D) Chlorhexidine
Correct Answer: Chlorhexidine
Q 32: In a 4-year old boy who has
history of pyogenic infections by
bacteria with polysaccharide-rich
capsules, which of the following
investigations should be done?
(A) IgA deficiency
(B) IgG1 deficiency
(C) IgG2 deficiency
(D) IgA and IgG2 deficiency
Correct Answer: IgA and IgG2 deficiency
Q 33: An abbatoir worker presented
with a pustule on his hand that
progressed to form an ulcer. Smear is
taken from the ulcer and sent to
laboratory for investigation. Which of
the following is the best stain to
determine the causative agent of the
ulcer?
(A) Polychrome methylene blue
(B) Kinyouns acid fast
(C) Periodic acid schiff
(D) Calcoflour white
Correct Answer: Polychrome methylene blue
Q 34: With reference to antibiotic
resistance all of following statements
are true except:
(A) The most common mechanism is
production of neutralizing enzymes by
bacteria
(B) Plasmid mediated resistance is
exclusively transferred vertically

(C) Complete elimination of target is the

mechanism by which enterococci develop
resistance to vancomycin

(D) Allelic exclusion

(D) Alteration of target lesions leads to

development of resistance to antibiotics in
Streptococcus pneumoniae

Q 38: Choking is associated with which

of the following firearm?

Correct Answer: Plasmid mediated resistance

is exclusively transferred vertically

(B) Pistol

Q 35: A person presents with

pneumonia. His sputum was sent for
culture. The bacterium obtained was
gram positive cocci in chains and alpha
haemolytic colonies on sheep agar.
Which of the following will help in
confirming the diagnosis?

Correct Answer: Differential RNA processing

(A) Revolver

(C) Shotgun
(D) Rifle
Correct Answer: Shotgun

(B) Optochin

Q 38: A person died due to bullet injury.

On post-mortem examination, a metallic
bullet was found in his body. This bullet
showed the presence of primary and
secondary markings. These markings
can be used for:

(C) Bacitracin

(A) Identification of weapon

(D) Oxacillin

(B) Knowing the range of firing

Correct Answer: Optochin

(C) Severity of tissue damage

Q 36: A young male patient presented

to OPD with urethral discharge. On
urine examination pus cells were found
but not organisms. Which method
would be the best for culture?

(D) Knowing the time of crime

(A) Novobiocin

(A) McCoy cell line

(B) Thayer Martin medium
(C) PPLO broth
(D) Cooked meat medium
Correct Answer: McCoy cell line

Correct Answer: Identification of weapon

Q 39: A patient committed suicide by
shooting a bullet into his right temple.
On post-mortem examination, the skull
was burst open. There was charring and
cherry red discoloration along the track
of bullet and the weapon was firmly
clasped in the right hand of deceased.
The bullet was fired from what
distance?
(A) Contact shot

Q 37: Synthesis of an immunoglobulin in

membrane bound or secretory form is
determined by:

(B) Close shot at a distance of one feet from

hand

(A) Carbohydrate content

(C) Shot within range of smoking

(B) Class switching

(D) Shot within range of tattooing

(C) Differential RNA processing

Correct Answer: Contact shot

Q 40: A young female presented with

consumption of some substance in the
emergency department. Greenish blue
froth was seen coming out of her
nostrils and oral cavity. The poisoning is
most likely due to which of the
following?

(C) May declare him hostile and put him in

jail

(A) Arsenic poisoning

(C) Mercury poisoning

Q 44: Muscles are observed in a burns

deceased. This indicates that the person is
exposed to intense heat above what
temperature?

(D) Lead poisoning

(A) 30C

Correct Answer: Copper poisoning

(B) 40C

Q 41: There is a case of infanticide.

During the post-mortem examination,
the doctor performs Breslaus second
life test. This test detects changes in
which of the following organ?

(C) 50C

(B) Copper poisoning

(D) May declare him sociopath and send

him to mental asylum
Correct Answer: Can arrest him without
warrant

(D) 60C
Correct Answer: 60

(A) Brain

Q 45: Active partner in lesbianism is

called as:

(B) Heart

(A) Femme

(C) Lung

(B) Bugger

(D) Stomach and intestine

(C) Catamite

Correct Answer: Stomach and intestine

(D) Dyke

Q 42: Last organ to be dissected during

autopsy in death caused by asphyxia is:

Correct Answer: Dyke

(A) Neck
(B) Head
(C) Abdomen
(D) Thorax
Correct Answer: Neck
Q 43: A 32-year old adult male broke
the jaw of another in an alleged fight.
The investigating police officer:
(A) Can arrest him only after procuring
warrant
(B) Can arrest him without warrant

Q 46: A patient died during surgery. The

relatives allege that death was due to
negligence. According to a recent Supreme
Court judgment, doctor can be charged for
Medical Negligence under section 304-A,
only if:
(A) There is corporate negligence
(B) Negligence is from inadvertent error
(C) There is gross negligence
(D) It falls under the doctrine of Res Ipsa
Loquitor
Next Question Finish Later

Correct Answer:
There is gross negligence
Explanation:
Q 47: A patient comes with pinpoint
pupil, salivation, tremors and red tears.
cholinesterase activity was 30% of
Normal. Probable diagnosis is:
(A) Opium

(B) 50 percentile for boys and 3 percentile

for girls
(C) 30 percentile for boys and 5 percentile
for girls
(D) 30 percentile for boys and 5 percentile
for girls
Correct Answer: 50 percentile for boys and 3
percentile for girls

(C) Dhatura

Q 51: According to ICMR guidelines,

what is the daily protein requirement of
a girl age group 13-15 years of age?

(D) Organochlorine pesticide poisoning

(A) 0.8 gms

Correct Answer: Organophosphate poisoning

(B) 0.95 gms

Q 48: In a case of alcohol intoxication,

motor incordination and judgment
errors occur at blood alcohol levels of:

(C) 1.0 gms

(B) Organophosphate poisoning

(A) 30-80 mg/dL

(D) 1.33 gms

Correct Answer: 0.95 gms

(B) 80-200 mg/dL

Q 52: Common to both acute and

chronic malnutrition is:

(C) 200-300 mg/dL

(A) Weight for age

(D) 300 mg/dL

(B) Weight for height

Correct Answer: 80-200 mg/dL

(C) Height for age

Q 49: A young male presented with

abdominal pain for the past 2 years. He
also complains of weakness in his
hands. His hemoblobin level was 8
gm/dL. The most likely diagnosis:

(D) BMI

(A) Lead poisoning

(A) Low cost insurance scheme by general

insurance companies

(B) Lead poisoning

(C) Carcinoma stomach
(D) Adenomatous polyposis coli
Correct Answer: Lead poisoning
Q 50: In WHO Road to Health chart,
upper and lower limit of represents:
(A) 30 percentile for boys and 3 percentile
for girls

Correct Answer: Weight for age

Q 53: Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojna is:

(B) Industry associated insurance scheme

meant for workers
(C) Government health insurance scheme
meant for the poor
(D) Central government insurance scheme
for employees
Correct Answer: Government health
insurance scheme meant for the poor

Q 54: According to Vision 2020, the

recommendations for secondary care
services including cataract surgery is:
(A) 1 service center for 5000 population

Q 57: The re-evaluation of a case of

acute flaccid paralysis for residual
paralysis for the purpose of AFP
surveillance is done after how many
days?

(B) 1 service center for 50,000 population

(A) 60 days

(C) 1 service center for 5,00,000 population

(B) 90 days

(D) 1 service center for 50,00,000

population

(C) 6 months

Correct Answer: 1 service center for 5,00,000

population

(D) 1 year
Correct Answer: 60 days

Q 55: Leprosy is not targeted for global

eradication because:

Q 58: Bias can be eliminated by all

except:

(A) No effective vaccine

(A) Matching

(B) Highly infectious but low pathogenicity

(B) Blinding

(C) Only humans are reservoir

(C) Randomization

(D) Long incubation period

(D) Multivariate analysis

Correct Answer: Highly infectious but low

pathogenicity

Correct Answer: Multivariate analysis

Q 56: Which of the following is true

regarding role played by social worker?
(A) Health professional responsible for
functional evaluation and activities of the
patient
(B) Health professional responsible for
instituting therapeutic exercises and mobility
training of the patient

Q 59: A study found that an inverse

relation exists between consumption of
vegetables containing beta-carotene
and development of cancer. This finding
could also be because of other factors
like fibers, which are also consumed by
people along with the vegetables and
which also prevents the development of
cancer. This is an example of:
(A) Multifactorial association

(C) Health professional involved in the

patients personal role performance,
interpersonal skills and family functions

(B) Differential misclassification

(D) Health professional establishes and

sustains the people with disability for
employment

(D) Common association

Correct Answer: Health professional involved

in the patients personal role performance,
interpersonal skills and family functions

Q 60: Food with maximum cholesterol

content:

(C) Confounding factor

Correct Answer: Confounding factor

(A) Egg
(B) Coconut Oil

(C) Hydrogenated Fats

(B) Meteorological

(D) Ghee (Hydrogenated)

(C) Geological

Correct Answer: Egg

(D) Climatological

Q 61: Filaria elimination is possible in

South-East Asian region due to all of
the following except:

Correct Answer: Hydrological

(A) Humans are the only reservoir

(B) Parasite does not multiply in the
intermediate host mosquito

Q 65: According to The Workmens

Compensation Act, 1923, which of the
following is considered an occupational
disease?
(A) Typhoid

(C) Larva multiply in human reservoir only

(B) Anthrax

(D) Infectious larva get deposited on skin

but most of them die before penetrating

(C) Tetanus
(D) Dengue

Correct Answer: Humans are the only

reservoir

Correct Answer: Anthrax

Q 62: Which of the following is not true

for incubation period?

Q 66: According to Vision 2020, the

recommended Ophthalmologist:
population ratio in India:

(A) To differentiate between secondary

attacked and co-incident primary cases

(A) 1:5,00,000

(B) To determine the period of isolation of

cases

(B) 1:1,00,000

(C) To determine the period of quarantine

(D) 1:10,000

(D) To prevent disease in contacts

Correct Answer: 1:50,000

Correct Answer: To determine the period of

isolation of cases

(A) Age 20-39 years

Q 67: An investigator obtained an

increased incidence of a disease due to
low fiber diet in a country by obtaining
data from the health authorities and
food industry of the country. This type
of study is known as:

(B) Weight 65 kg

(A) Ecological

(C) Work is mainly sedentary

(B) Cross-sectional

(D) Works for 10 hour

(C) Psephological study

Q 63: True about Indian reference male

is:

(C) 1:50,000

(D) Experimental study

Q 64: Natural disaster causing
maximum deaths:
(A) Hydrological

Correct Answer: Ecological

Q 68: In a certain population, there
were 4050 births in the last one year.

There were 50 still-births. 50 infants

died within 7 days whereas 150 died
within the first 28 days. What is the
neonatal mortality rate?
(A) 50
(B) 62.5
(C) 12.5
(D) 49.4
Correct Answer: 62.
Q 68: A 50-year old male came to
emergency department with complains
of unilateral headache, diplopia and
difficulty in chewing food. On
evaluation, MRI was normal, ESR was
persistently high. The most appropriate
drug for treatment:

Correct Answer: Super infection of hepatitis E

virus with chronic hepatitis B infection
Q 70: A patient with previously normal
haemoglobin suffered a sudden massive
acute hemorrhage. He is most likely to
show all of the following except:
(A) High reticulocyte count
(B) High neutrophil count
(C) High packed cell volume
(D) Low mean corpuscular volume
Correct Answer: High packed cell volume
Q 71: The treatment of a patient with
myocardial infarction is thrombolytic
therapy, if the patient presents within
. hours of chest pain:

(A) Aspirin

(A) 6 hours

(B) Coxibs

(B) 12 hours

(C) Prednisolone

(C) 18 hours

(D) Sodium vaiproate

(D) 24 hours

Correct Answer: Prednisolone

Correct Answer: 24 hours

Q 69: A 20 year old male presented with

jaundice for the past 2 weeks. His liver
function tests revealed serum bilirubin
to be 0.9 mg/dL, SGOT/SGPT to be
1240/1450 lU. He was found to be
positive for HBsAg and IgM anti-HEV
antibodies and negative for IgM anti
HBc. The most likely diagnosis is:

Q 72: Which of the following regarding

small vessel disease (SVD), cerebral
amyloid angiopathy (CAA) and
Alzheimers disease (AD) is not true?

(A) Acute hepatitis with mutant hepatitis B

virus
(B) Super infection of hepatitis E virus with
chronic hepatitis B infection
(C) Acute hepatitis with wild type hepatitis
B virus
(D) Co-infection of hepatitis B and E viruses

(A) SVD is related to CAA

(B) SVD is not correlated to AD
(C) SVD is related to AD
(D) CAA is associated with AD
Correct Answer: SVD is related to AD
Q 73: A 40-year old female presented
with dyspnoea on exertion grade III and
palpitations. ECG showed atrial
fibrillation with fast ventricular rate.
Echocardiography shows severe mitral
stenosis with left atrial appendage clot.
Which of the following is not advised?

(A) Diltiazen to control ventricular rate

Correct Answer: SCA

(B) Start warfarin and follow-up with repeat

echocardiography

Q 77: In metabolic encephalopathy, EEG

will most likely show:

(C) EC followed by percutaneous balloon

mitral valvuloplasty

(A) Alpha activity

(D) Open mitral commissurotomy with clot

removal

(B) Beta activity

(C) Gamma activity

Correct Answer: EC followed by percutaneous

balloon mitral valvuloplasty

(D) Delta activity

Q 74: Most common clinical

presentation of juvenile myoclonic
epilepsy:

Q 78: Two patients presented with

significant atherosclerosis. One had
significant comorbid diabetes and the
other is non-diabetic. The incidence of
which of the following is increased 100
times in the patients having diabetes,
when both are compared?

(A) Generalised tonic clonic seziures in

sleep
(B) Generalised tonic clonic seizures in
awake state
(C) Myoclonus
(D) Absence seizures
Correct Answer: Myoclonus
Q 75: All of the following are correctly
metched except:
(A) Neurofibromatosis - renal artery stenosis
(B) Moyamoya disease - aortic aneurysm
(C) Marfans disease - dural ectasia
(D) Mulibreynanism - constrictive
pericarditis
Correct Answer: Moyamoya disease - aortic
aneurysm

Correct Answer: Delta activit

(A) Myocardial infarction

(B) Ischemic stroke
(C) Lower limb ischemia
(D) Vertebrobasilar insufficiency
Correct Answer: Lower limb ischemia
Q 79: While assessing the risk of
fatality among adults from the
Pneumonia Severity Index, which of the
following factor is most important?
(A) Age
(B) Presence of congestive Heart Failure
(C) Hypothermia
(D) Hyponatremia

Q 76: The most common form of

spinocerebellar ataxia (SCA) in India is:

Correct Answer: Age

(A) SCA1

Q 80: Pseudotumor cerebri is most

commonly seen in:

(B) SCA2
(C) SCA3
(D) SCA4

(A) Obese females in the age group 20-45

years

(B) Obese males in the age group 20-45

years
(C) Thin built females in the age group 5060 years
(D) Thin built males in the age group 50-60
years
Correct Answer: Obese females in the age
group 20-45 years
Q 81: A 25-year-old person with history
of repeated episodes of Rheumatic
fever is hypersensitive to penicillin.
Which of the following drug can be
prescribed to him?

(A) Gastric ulcer with bleeding

(B) Acute myocardial infarction with
cardiogenic shock
(C) Acute cerebrovascular accident
(D) Pulmonary embolism
Correct Answer: Gastric ulcer with bleeding
Q 84: A study of skin biopsy of SLE
patient using FITC labeled human IgG
antiserum shows deposition of irregular
particles at dermoepidermal junction.
This means there is presence of:
(A) Anti-nuclear antibody

(A) Penicillin G

(B) Anti-collagen antibody

(B) Sulfisoxazole

(C) Anti-epithelial antibody

(C) Sulfasalazine

(D) Immune complex deposits

(D) Streptomycin

Correct Answer: Immune complex deposits

Correct Answer: Sulfisoxazol

Q 85: Which of the following is

associated with an intrinsic defect in
the RBC membrane?

Q 82: A person presents with following

parameters PCO,- 30 mm of Hg, PO2105 mm of Hg, pH-7.45 is having
partially compensated:
(A) Metabolic acidosis
(B) Metabolic alkalosis
(C) Respiratory acidosis
(D) Respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer: Respiratory alkalosi
Q 83: a.A 60 yr old male had a sudden
fall in toilet. His BP was 90/50 mm Hg
and pulse was 100/mm. His relatives
reported that his stool was black/dark
in colour Further careful history
revealed that he is a known case of
hypertension and coronary artery
disease and was regularly taking
aspirin, atenolol and sorbitrate. The
most likely diagnosis is:

(A) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

(B) Hereditary spherocytosis
(C) Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
(D) Thermal injury anemia
Correct Answer: Hereditary spherocytosis
Q 86: Fever blisters can occur due to:
(A) HHV-6
(B) Varicella Zoster virus infection
(C) Primary HSV-1 infection
(D) Reactivation of HSV-1
Correct Answer: Reactivation of HSV-1
Q 87: A female of 40 years presenting
with intolerance to cold, constipation
and hoarseness of voice was found to

have cardiomegaly on chest

roentgenogram. Which of the following
investigations is the best to determine
the cause of her cardiomegaly?

(A) Hypophysis cerebri

(A) Coronary angiography

(D) Optic nerve

(B) Left ventricular angioraphy

Correct Answer: Oculomotor nerve

(C) Right ventricular angiography

Q 91: An adult hypertensive male

presented with sudden onset severe
headache and vomiting. On
examination, there is marked neck
rigidity and no focal neurological deficit
was found. The symptoms are most
likely due to:

(D) Echocardiography
Correct Answer: Echocardiography
Q 88: An elederly male presented with
headache, fever and hemiparasis of
right side. On further examination and
investigation adiagnosis of brain
abscess was made.Which of the
following antibacterial/ antibacterials is
effective in this patient:

(B) Trochlear nerve

(C) Oculomotor nerve

(A) Intracerebral parenchymal hemorrhage

(B) Ischemic stroke
(C) Meningitis

(A) Gentamycin

(D) Subarachnoid hemorrhage

(B) Doxycycline

Correct Answer: Subarachnoid hemorrhage

(C) Streptomycin

Q 92: An elderly female presents to the

emergency department and was found
to have a transmural myocardia
linfarction.Based on her ECG,she was
started on throm bolytie therapy with
streptokinase. On further examination,
which of the following findings would
indicate that the thrombolytic therapy
is risky and should be stopped?

(D) A combination of cephalosporin and

metronidazole
Correct Answer: A combination of
cephalosporin and metronidazole
Q 89: A 45-year-old female is diagnosed
as a case of pneumococcal meningitis.
Her blood sample were sent for culture
sensitivity. In the mean time best drug
to start as an empirical treatment is:
(A) Penicillin G

(A) Pericardial friction rub

(B) Mobitz Type II block

(B) Doxycycline

(C) Significant pericardial effusion on

echocardiography

(C) Streptomycin

(D) Lower limb vein thrombosis

(D) Vancomycin + ceftriaxone

Correct Answer: Significant pericardial

effusion on echocardiography

Correct Answer: Vancomycin + ceftriaxone

Q 90: Which of the following is most
likely to be affected in an anuerysm of
posterior cerebral artery (PCA)?

Q 93: A 60-year old female presented

with decreased movements for the last
2 years with rigidity and vertical large

square wave jerks. The most likely

diagnosis is:
(A) Parkinsons disease
(B) Lewy body dementia
(C) Multisystem atrophy
(D) Progressive supranuclear palsy
Correct Answer: Progressive supranuclear
palsy

(D) Clot solubility test

Correct Answer: Dilute russel viper venom
test
Q 97: Most important
pathophysiological cause of GERD is:
(A) Hiatus hernia
(B) Transient LES relaxation
(C) Hypotensive LES

Q 94: All except one are true for

hepatitis B:

(D) Intermittent changes in LES pressure

tone

(A) Vertical transmission is more important

than horizontal

Correct Answer: Transient LES relaxation

(B) Age of onset determines prognosis

(C) Period of communicability lasts several
months
(D) Virus can be found in blood one month
before jaundice
Correct Answer: Vertical transmission is more
important than horizontal
Q 95: A boy is suffering from acute
pyelonephritis. Most specific urinary
finding will be:
(A) WBC casts
(B) Leucocyte esterase test
(C) Nitrite
(D) Bacteria in gram stain
Correct Answer: WBC casts

Q 98: After removal of the parotid

gland, patient is having sweating on
cheeks while eating. In this
complication seen after parotidectomy,
the auriculotemporal nerve which
contains parasympathetic secretomotor
fibres to parotid gland is fused with
which nerve?
(A) Glossopharyngeal nerve
(B) Facial nerve
(C) Great auricular nerve
(D) Buccal nerve
Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve
Q 99: Which of the following is true
about epigastric hernia?
(A) Always above the umbilicus and in
midline

Q 96: A 25-year-old female presented

with history of recurrent abortions. The
most relevant investigation to identify
the cause is:

(B) May be above or below the umbilicus

but always in midline

(A) Bleeding time

(D) Can be seen anywhere on abdomen

(B) Rothrombin time

Correct Answer: Always above the umbilicus

on either side of midline

(C) Dilute russel viper venom test

(C) Always above the umbilicus on either

side of midline

Q 100: Which of the following jaw cyst

is pre-malignant?
(A) Nasopalatine cyst
(B) Radicular cyst
(C) Odontogenic keratocyst
(D) Dentigerous cyst
Correct Answer: Odontogenic keratocys
Q 101: A 40-year old lady presents with
large left parietal convexity
meningioma with perilesional edema.
She is scheduled for surgery the next
day. A senior neurosurgeon asks a
junior resident to write the pre-op notes
fro the lady. Which of the following preop notes written by him is wrong?

(B) Esophagectomy
(C) Dilatation
(D) Proton pump inhibitors
Correct Answer: Hellers cardiomyotomy
Q 104: Cancer management in which of
the following malignancies has
dramatically increase the survival:
(A) Glioblastoma multiforme
(B) Esophageal carcinoma
(C) ALL in children
(D) Cholangiocarcinoma
Correct Answer: ALL in children

(B) Wash head with shampoo

Q 105: Diagnosis of Barretts esophagus

is made by demonstration of columnar
mucosa, which on histopathology
shows:

(C) Antibiotic sensitivity

(A) Squamous metaplasia

(D) Stop steroids

(B) Intestinal metaplasia

Correct Answer: Stop steroids

(C) Squamous dysplasia

Q 102: A toddler has few drops of blood

coming out of rectum. Probable
diagnosis is:

(D) Intestinal dysplasia

(A) Juvenile rectal polyp

(C) Rectal ulcer

Q 106: In a patient with carcinoma

breast stage T4b, as per TNM
classification, is defined by all of the
following except:

(D) Piles

(A) Nipple retraction

Correct Answer: Juvenile rectal polyp

(B) Skin ulcer over the swelling

Q 103: A young female presents with

dysphagia for the past 2 years. She also
complains of intermittent chest pain.
Barium swallow shows dilation of the
esophagus with narrowing of distal
esophagus. The treatment of choice is:

(C) Dermal edema

(A) Anti-epileptic treatment

(B) Adenomatous Polyposis Coli

(A) Hellers cardiomyotomy

Correct Answer: Intestinal metaplasia

(D) Satellite nodules

Correct Answer: Nipple retraction
Q 107: A person underwent laparotomy for
Crohns disease with melena. A 15 cm
segment of ileum was found to be diseased.
Segmental resection with healthy margins

and end-to-end anastomosis was done. On

7th post-operative day, the patient
developed anastomotic leak. He continued to
have 150-200 ml fistula output for the next 7
days. There was no collection of fluid in the
abdomen and now patient is stable. The ideal
management is:

Q 110: The most common early postoperative complication of ileostomy is:

(A) Continue conservative management and

expect the fistula to heal

(D) Prolapse

(B) Laparotomy and revision of the fistula, if

margins are healthy
(C) Laparotomy with dismantling of fistula
and exteriorization
(D) Laparotomy and ass
Correct Answer:Continue conservative
management and expect the fistula to heal
Q 108: A 40-year old male presents with
history of vomiting of blood 2 hours
ago. The volume of vomitus was
estimated to be 500 ml. His BP was
90/58 mm Hg and pulse was 110/min.
On abdominal examination, the spleen
was palpable 5 cm below the costal
margin. The most likely cause of the
bleeding is:
(A) Portal hypertension

(A) Obstruction
(B) Necrosis
(C) Diarrhea

Correct Answer: Necrosi

Q 111: A female patient presented with
left iliac fossa pain for the past 6
months. On investigation, a 3 cm left
renal pelvic stone was found with no
hydroureteronephrosis, normal
functioning kidneys on both sides and
no distal obstruction. The ideal
management would be:
(A) Percutaneous nephrolithotomy (PCNL)
(B) Extra-corporeal shock wave lithotripsy
(ESWL)
(C) Laparoscopic nephrolithotomy
(D) Medical dissolution therapy with oral
potassium citrate
Correct Answer: Percutaneous
nephrolithotomy (PCNL)

(C) Duodenal ulcer

Q 112: Which of the following is used to

treat hormone- responsive breast
cancer?

(D) Drug-induced mucosal erosion

(A) Cyptroterone acetate

Correct Answer: Portal hypertension

(B) Clomiphene citrate

Q 109: External hemorrhoids below the

dentate line are:

(C) Diethylstibestrol

(B) Gastric ulcer

(A) Painful
(B) Ligation is done as management

(D) Tamoxifen
Correct Answer: Tamoxifen

(D) May turn malignant

Q 113: After doing a graft repair of a

thoraco-abdominal aneurysm, the
patient was not able to move both of
his lower limbs. Most probable cause is:

Correct Answer: Painful

(A) Damage to thoracic splanchnic nerve

(C) Skin tag is not seen in these cases

(B) Damage to lumbar spinal nerves

Correct Answer: Nuclear palisading

(C) Ischemia of lower limbs

Q 117: Post transplant lymphoma is

most commonly associated with:

(D) Insufficiency of arteria magna

radicularis
Correct Answer: Insufficiency of arteria
magna radiculari
Q 114: In deceleration accident, which
of the following fixed part of aorta is
not ruptured?
(A) At the level of aortic valve
(B) Behind the esophagus
(C) Where it pierces the crura of diaphragm
(D) At ligamentum arteriosum
Correct Answer: Behind the esophagus
Q 115: A 40 year old male patient
presented with mild abdominal pain,
mild constipation with a feeling of
incomplete evacuation and mucus in
stools for the past 4 years. On
examination, tenderness is present in
left iliac fossa. The most likely
diagnosis is:
(A) Ulcerative colitis
(B) Diverticular disease of the colon
(C) Irritable bowel syndrome
(D) Carcinoma colon
Correct Answer: Diverticular disease of the
colon

(A) Epstein-Barr virus

(B) Cytomegala virus
(C) Herpes simplex
(D) HHV-6
Correct Answer: Epstein-Barr virus
Q 118: Which of the following most
significantly increases the risk of
hepatocellular carcinoma?
(A) Hepatitis B virus
(B) Hepatitis A virus
(C) Cytomegala virus
(D) Epstein-Barr virus
Correct Answer: Hepatitis A virus
Q 119: Second primary malignancy of
head and neck is commonly associated
with which of the following?
(A) Oral cavity
(B) Hypopharynx
(C) Larynx
(D) Paranasal sinuses
Correct Answer: Oral cavity

Q 116: Most characteristic feature of

basal cell carcinoma is:

Q 120: Which of the following is the

most prominent feature of
immunoproliferative small intestinal
disease (IPSID)?

(A) Keratin pearls

(A) Malabsorption

(B) Foam cells

(B) Obstruction

(C) Nuclear palisading

(C) Bleeding

(D) Psammoma bodies

(D) Abdominal pain

Correct Answer: Malabsorption

Q 121: A 26-year old primigravida at 32
weeks of gestation experienced
faintness and nausea in lying down and
recovers after turning on her side or
getting up. These symptoms can be
attributed to which of the following?
(A) Reduced placental flow
(B) Increased intragastric pressure
(C) Increased intracranial pressure
(D) Inferior vena caval compression
Correct Answer: Inferior vena caval
compression
Q 122: Test used to differentiate
between maternal and fetal blood in a
given sample:
(A) Kleihauer-Betke test
(B) Osmotic fragility test
(C) Apt test
(D) Bubbling test
Correct Answer: Apt test
Q 123: A 55-year old woman was found
to have Ca cervix, FIGO stage 2-3,
locally advanced. What would be the
management?

not involved. Peritoneal seedings are

positive. The stage is:
(A) IIIa
(B) IIIb
(C) IIIC1
(D) IIIC2
Correct Answer: IIIb
Q 125: A 20-year old average weight
female complains of oligomenorrhea
along with facial hair. Preliminary
investigations reveal raised free
testosterone levels. USG Pelvis: ovary
shows normal morphology. Which of the
following could be likely etiology?
(A) Idiopathic hirsutism
(B) PCOD
(C) Adrenal hyperplasia
(D) Testosterone secreting tumor
Correct Answer: PCOD
Q 126: After a full term normal delivery
patient went into shock. Most probable
cause is:
(A) Inversion of uterus
(B) Post-partum hemorrhage

(A) Surgery plus chemotherapy

(C) Amniotic fluid embolism

(B) Radiotherapy plus chemotherapy

(D) Eclampsia

(C) Chemotherapy

Correct Answer: Inversion of uterus

(D) Radiotherapy plus HPV vaccine

Q 127: The highest volume overload in a

parturient due to maximum cardiac
output is seen:

Correct Answer: Radiotherapy plus

chemotherapy
Q 124: A patient with carcinoma
endometrium has >50% myometrial
invasion and vaginal metastasis. Pelvic
and retroperitoneal lymph nodesa are

(A) During second trimester

(B) At term
(C) After a heavy meal
(D) Immediately after delivery

Correct Answer: Immediately after delivery

(D) Proteus syndrome

Q 128: All of the following are side

effects of growth hormone
(supplements) therapy except:

Correct Answer: Sturge-Weber syndrome

(A) Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

(B) Gynaecomastia
(C) Hypoglycemia
(D) Pseudotumour cerebri
Correct Answer: Hypoglycemiaashbod
Q 129: A neonate is suspected to be
suffering from necrotizing enterocolitis
(NEC). On further examination and
investigation, he is diagnosed to be
Bells stage I NEC. The management of
choice would be:
(A) Laparotomy and proceed
(B) Insertion of bilateral pelvic drains
(C) Conservative management with IV fluids
and antibiotics
(D) Initial conservative management and
laparotomy after 24 hours
Correct Answer: Conservative management
with IV fluids and antibiotics
Q 130: A 10-yr old male child was
presented to the paediatrician for
evaluation of a seizure disorder. On
examination a vascular plaque was
found along the ophthalmic and
maxillary divisions of the trigeminal
nerve. The mother informed the
paediatrician that the lesion was
present since birth and there was no
changes in morphology. the most likely
possibility is:
(A) Sturge-Weber syndrome
(B) Infantile hemangioma
(C) Congenital hemangioma

Q 131: What is the pathology of edema

in nephrotic syndrome?
(A) Reduced plasma protein
(B) Sodium and water retention
(C) Increased venous pressure
(D) Hyperlipidemia
Correct Answer: Sodium and water retention
Q 132: Which of the following findings
in a newborn suggests RDS?
(A) Onset after 6 hours of birth
(B) Antenatal cortocosteroid therpay in
mother
(C) Air bronchogram on chest X-ray
(D) Term gestation
Correct Answer: Air bronchogram on chest Xray
Q 133: On exposure to cold, a neonate
shows all of the following mechanisms
except:
(A) Shivering
(B) Crying and flexion of body like fetus
position
(C) Cutaneous vasoconstriction
(D) Increased production of noradrenaline
for breakdown of brown fat in adipose tissue
Correct Answer: Shivering
Q 134: A newborn child presents with
inverted foot and the dorsum of the
foot cannot touch the anterior tibia. The
most probable diagnosis is:
(A) Congenital vertical talus
(B) Arthrogryposis Multiplex

(C) CTEV

Q 135: A patient met with Road Traffic

Accident with injury to the left knee.
Dial test was positive. What could be
the cause?

Q 138: A 60-year old female had fallen

in the bathroom and she is not able to
stand on her feet. On examination, her
right leg was in external rotation and
was not able to move her leg. There
was tenderness in Scarpas triangle.
There is no history of fever. X-ray shows
no fracture line. What is the nest step
of management?

(A) Medial collateral ligament injury

(A) MRI

(B) Posterolateral corner injury

(B) Strict bed rest for 10 days and repeat Xray

(D) Cerebral palsy

Correct Answer: CTEV

(C) Lateral meniscus tear

(D) Medial meniscal injury
Correct Answer: Posterolateral corner injury
Q 136: After lifting something heavy
from the ground, a patient complains of
back pain, which is radiating to lateral
leg and great toe of lower limb. The
most probable diagnosis:
(A) L3-L4 disc prolapse
(B) L4-L5 disc prolapse
(C) L5-S1 disc prolapse
(D) L5 fracture
Correct Answer: L4-L5 disc prolapse
Q 137: An 8-year old boy presents with
swelling in mid-thigh region. On
examination, femoral thickening was
found with Codmans triangle. On
aspiration, greyish white liquid was
aspirated that showed atypical round
cells with MIC-2 positivity. The most
likely diagnosis is:
(A) Osteosarcoma

(C) Joint Aspiration

(D) Start proper anlgesia and start
mobilization to prevent stiffness
Correct Answer: MRI
Q 139: Gallows traction is used for
fracture:
(A) Shaft femur
(B) Neck femur
(C) Shaft tibia
(D) Tibial tuberosity
Correct Answer: Shaft femur
Q 140: A 40-year old male after binge
drinking slept on a chair. On the next
day, he presented with weakness of the
right arm and was not able to move his
hand. Examination showed ulnar nerve
palsy. What would be the management?
(A) Instant exploration
(B) Give a knuckle bender splint

(B) Ewings sarcoma

(C) Electromyography after 2 days and

decide after results

(C) Tubercular osteomyelitis

(D) Neurolysis

(D) Pyogenic osteomyelitis

Correct Answer: Give a knuckle bender splint

Correct Answer: Ewings sarcoma

Q 141: A person is able to abduct his arm,

internally rotate it, place the back of hand on
the lumbosacral joint, but is not able to lift it
from back. What is the etiology?
(A) Subscapularis tendon tear
(B) Teres major tendon tear
(C) Long head of biceps tendon tear
(D) Acromioclavicular joint dislocation
Correct Answer: Subscapularis tendon tear
Q 142: Corneal dystrophies are
degenerations that are usually:
(A) Primary and unilateral
(B) Primary and bilateral

Q 145: Gyrate atrophy is a retinal

degenerative disease involving
deficiency of ornithine
transcarbamoylase enzyme. Such
patients are benefited by:
(A) Ornithine free diet
(B) Arginine free diet
(C) Pyridoxine and folic acid
(D) Vitamin B1, B6 and B12
Correct Answer: Arginine free diet
Q 146: In patients with anterior uveitis,
decrease in vision due to posterior
segment involvement can occur
because of:

(C) Primary, bilateral with systemic

involvement

(A) Vitreous floaters

(D) Primary, unilateral without systemic

involvement

(C) Exudative retinal detachment

Correct Answer: Primary and bilateral

Q 143: Weakness of both Adduction and
abduction is seen in:
(A) Duanes retraction syndrome type 1
(B) Duanes retraction syndrome type 2
(C) Duanes retraction syndrome type 3
(D) Double elevator palsy
Correct Answer: Duanes retraction syndrome
type 3

(B) Inflammatory disc edema

(D) Cystoid macular edema

Correct Answer: Cystoid macular edema
Q 147: A 20-year old male presents with
history of tennis ball injury to the right
eye. On examination, a red spot is seen
at the macula. The most likely diagnosis
is:
(A) Macular hole
(B) Berlins edema
(C) Macular tear

Q 144: The total area of retina seen in

direct ophthalmoscopy is:

(D) Macular bleed

(A) 1DD

Q 148: A 23-year old male presents with

progressive proptosis of his right eye.
The proptosis increases on bending
forward and is compressible. No thrill or
bruit was present. Orbital ultrasound
revealed an echogenic mass with foci of

(B) 2DD
(C) 3DD
(D) 4DD
Correct Answer: 2DD

Correct Answer: Berlins edema

echo shadows. The most likely

diagnosis is:
(A) Orbital AV fistula
(B) Orbital encephalocoecle
(C) Orbital varix
(D) Neurofibromatosis
Correct Answer: Orbital varix
Q 149: A 40-year old male with diabetes
presents with vitreous hemorrhage.
What is the cause?
(A) Posterior retinal detachment
(B) Neovascularization at disc

(C) Intra-ocular lymphoma

(D) Ocular sarcoidosis
Correct Answer: Ocular sarcoidosis
Q 152: Acquired nasolacrimal duct
obstruction is a side effect of therapy of
which of the following medication?
(A) Timolol
(B) Brimonidine
(C) Dorzolamide
(D) Pilocarpine
Correct Answer: Timolol

(C) Central retinal vein occlusion

Q 153: Initial screening test for the

auditory function in neonates:

(D) Trauma to central retinal artery

(A) Auditory Brainstem Response (ABR)

Correct Answer: Neovascularization at disc

(B) Otoacoustic Emissions (OAE)

Q 150: A 32-year old male presents with

unilateral diminished vision in the right
eye. On examination, there is mild iritis,
vitretis and a focal necrotic lesion is
seen at the macula. The most likely
diagnosis is:

(C) Free Field Audiometry

(A) Multiple Evanescent White Dot

syndrome
(B) Ocular toxoplasmosis
(C) Multifocal chorioditis
(D) Ocular sarcoidosis
Correct Answer: Ocular toxoplasmosis
Q 151: A female presented with
breathlessness, arthralgia and blurring
of vision with granulomatous anterior
uveitis. What is the most probable
etiology?
(A) Tubercular uveitis
(B) HLA-B27 related uveitis

(D) Visual reinforcement audiometry

Correct Answer: Otoacoustic Emissions (OAE)
Q 154: Vestibular Evoked Myogenic
Potential (VEMP) has been used in
assessment of:
(A) Cochlear nerve unction
(B) Superior vestibular nerve function
(C) Inferior vestibular nerve function
(D) Inflammatory myopathy
Correct Answer: Inferior vestibular nerve
function
Q 155: Which of the following is true
regarding Electrocochleography?
(A) It measures middle ear latency
(B) Outer hair cells are mainly responsible
for cochlear microphonics and summation
potential

(C) Summation potential is a compound of

synchronous auditory nerve potentials
(D) Total action potentials represents the
endocochlear receptor potential to an
external auditory stimulus
Correct Answer: Outer hair cells are mainly
responsible for cochlear microphonics and
summation potential
Q 156: A 6 year old child presented with
history of recurrent upper respiratory
tract infections, mouth breathing, nasal
obstruction hearing impairment, with
high arched palate. The management
will be:

(C) Urticaria
(D) Atopic dermatitis
Correct Answer: Insect bite hypersensitivity
Q 158: A 27-year old sexually active
wife of a long distance truck driver
presented with copious vaginal
discharge of 2 days duration. According
to the syndromal management of
vaginal discharge, which of the
following woulb be given to her?
(A) Azithromycin + Metronidazole +
Fluconazole
(B) Azithromycin

(A) Tonsillectomy

(C) Metronidazole + Fluconazole

(B) Adenoidectomy with grommet insertion

(D) Fluconazole

(C) Myringotomy with grommet insertion

Correct Answer: Metronidazole + Fluconazole

(D) Myringotomy
Correct Answer: Adenoidectomy with
grommet insertion

Q 159: A lady develops pigmentation on

the bridge of nose and cheeks on
exposure to sunlight. The most likely
diagnosis is:

Q 157: An infant has papulovesicular

lesions on palms, soles, face and trunk.
The diagnosis would be:

(A) Chloasma

(A) Scabies

(C) Photodermatitis

(B) Atopic dermatitis

(D) Rosacea

(C) Urticaria

Correct Answer: Chloasma

(D) Seborrhoic dermatitis

Q 160: Which of the following is a

characteristic feature of borderline
leprosy?

Correct Answer: Scabies

Q 157: A young boy had itchy,
excoriated papules on the forehead and
the exposed parts of the arms and legs
for three years. The disease was most
severe in the rainy season improved
completely in winter. The most likely
diagnosis is:
(A) Insect bite hypersensitivity
(B) Scabies

(B) Systemic lupus erythematosus

(A) Extensive glove and stocking anesthesia

(B) Inverted saucer shaped lesions
(C) Erythema nodosum leprosum
(D) Facial lesions
Correct Answer: Inverted saucer shaped
lesions

Q 161: Multiple hypoaesthetic,

hypopigmented macules on right lateral
forearm with numerous acid fast bacilli
is indicative of:

Q 164: Which of the following is

associated with sun exposure?

(A) Tuberculoid leprosy

(B) Seborrhoeic keratosis

(B) Lepromatous leprosy

(C) Sebaceous cell carcinoma

(C) Indeterminate leprosy

(D) Syringoma

(D) Borderline leprosy

Correct Answer: Actinic keratosis

Correct Answer: Borderline leprosy

Q 165: Bracket calcification on skull Xray is seen in:

Q 162: A 60-year old male presented

with discoloration, thickening and
tunneling of 2 fingernails and one toenail. Which of the following will clinch
the diagnosis at the earliest?

(A) Actinic keratosis

(A) Tuberous sclerosis

(B) Sturge-Weber Syndrome
(C) Corpus callosum lipoma

(A) Woods lamp examination

(D) Meningioma

(B) KOH mount

Correct Answer: Corpus callosum lipoma

(C) Slit smear (split skin smear)

Q 166: A 8-year old child was injected

contrast in hand for CECT chest.
Immediately he developed swelling in
the arm which gradually increased.
After 4 hours, there was numbness and
pain, and he was not allowing the
doctor to flex the hand. Pulse is
present. What should be done?

(D) Gram stain

Correct Answer: KOH mount
Q 163: A 24-years old male had
multiple, smallhypopigmented macules
on the upper chest and back for last
three months. The macules were
circular, arranged around follicles and
many had coalesced to form large
sheets. The surface of the macules
showed fine scaling. He had similar
lesions one year ago which subsided
with treatment. The most appropriate
investigation to confirm the diagnosis:
(A) KOH preparation

(A) High dose prednisolone

(B) Arterial thrombectomy
(C) Immediate fasciotomy
(D) Angiography
Correct Answer: Arterial thrombectomy

(B) Slit skin smear

Q 167: Stereotactic radiotherapy is

used in:

(C) Tzanck test

(A) Miliary tuberculosis

(D) Skin biopsy

(B) Stage I lung carcinoma

Correct Answer: KOH preparation

(C) Lymphangitis Carcinomatosa

(D) Carcinoma base of tongue with positive
lymph nodes

Correct Answer: Miliary tuberculosis

Q 168: Which of the following is a nonIodine containing contrast?

disorders that occur following a

stressful incident is:
(A) Episodic occurrence of symptoms

(A) Gadolinium

(B) Severe anxiety and autonomic arousal

(B) Visipaque

(C) Re-experiencing and avoidance of

trauma

(C) lopamidol
(D) Diatrozoate

(D) Nightmares about the event

Correct Answer: Diatrozoate

Correct Answer: Re-experiencing and

avoidance of trauma

Q 169: Maximum radiation exposure

occurs in:

Q 173: Which of the following is not a

disorder of form of thought?

(A) Bone scan

(A) Derailment

(B) X-ray

(B) Tangentiality

(C) MRI

(C) Thought block

(D) CT scan

(D) Loosening of association

Correct Answer: MRI

Correct Answer: Derailment

Q 170: Most reliable test for spinal

tuberculosis:
(A) Raised ESR

Q 174: Which of the following

antipsychotics is available in a depot
injection?

(B) PPD skin test

(A) Fluphenazine

(C) CT guided biopsy

(B) Ziprasidone

(D) MRI

(C) Trifluperazine

Correct Answer: PPD skin test

(D) Aripiprazone

Q 171: Amifostine is a:

Q 175: Following diagram indicates

what type of inheritance?

(A) Radiosensitizer
(B) Radioprotector
(C) Radiomodifier
(D) Radiomimetic
Correct Answer: Radiomodifier
Q 172: The diagnostic feature that
differentiates PTSD from other

(A) Mitochondrial
(B) Autosomal recessive
(C) Autosomal dominant
(D) X-linked recessive
Correct Answer: Mitochondrial