NATIONAL BOARD

PART I
2004 ADDENDUM
DENTAL ANTOMY / OCCLUSION
PATHOLOGY / MICROBIOLOGY

1. The primary maxillary central incisor differs from the permanent incisor has
Answer: A greater mesiodistal width compared with the cervico incisal length of crown
*2. The third tooth from the midline normally erupts prior to the fourth tooth from the
midline in
Answer: The mandibular arch of permanent dentition
3. Mandibular molars usually have which of the following?
Answer: Wider crowns mesiodistally than faciolingually
4. From the incisal aspect which of the following BEST describes the maxillary canine
crown
Answer: Wider labiolingually when compared
*5. In ideal canine protected occlusion, losing a right maxillary canine would increase the
potential for left molar mediotrusive tooth contact
This tooth loss would also increase the potential for left canine mediotrusive tooth contact.
Answer: The first statement is true, the second statement is false
6. In a normal protrusive tooth contacting movement of the mandible, which mandibular
tooth (teeth) contact (s) the maxillary lateral incisor?
Answer: Lateral incisor and canine
7. A mother ingested tetracycline antibiotics during the second trimester. This medication
can affect the calcification of the crowns of which of the following teeth of the infant?
Answer: All primary teeth
8. Which of the following determinants of occlusal morphology will allow for taller
posterior cusps?
Answer: Greater vertical overlap of anterior teeth.
9. In a posterior crossbite relationship, which aspects of which cusps contact in a working
movement?
Answer: Cusp mandibular, Aspect Inner
10. When comparing the distal view of the mandibular second molar to that if the first, one
sees which of the following anatomic land marks on the first molar that is not seen on
the second molar?
Answer: Distofacial groove
*11. Which premolar exhibits a lingual groove?
Answer: Mandibular second
12. Which of the following anatomic sections effectively divides the temporomandibular
joint into two separately functioning compartments?
Answer: Disc
13. A primate space is usually found in the mandibular primary dentitions between the?
Answer: Canine and first molar

*14. Which of the following statements best describes mandibular second molars?
Answer: The mesial root is longer than the distal root.
15 In an interach tooth to tooth relationship, the lingual cusp of the mandibular first
premolar contacts
Answer: No other tooth
16. Of the approximate 600 swallowing cycles that occur during a twenty four hour period,
most occur.
Answer: Between meals while awake
17. In a normal intercuspal position, the distoincisal aspect of a mandibular central incisor
opposes which section of which maxillary incisor?
Answer: Incisor Central, Section Lingual Fossae
*18. Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of a mandibular lateral
incisor?
Answer: The incisal edge follows the arch curvature in relation to the faciolingual axis.
*19. The permanent maxillary first molar normally begins calcifying at
Answer: Birth
*20. In a normal adult dentition, which of the following are the MOST nearly vertical
Answer: Premolars
21. On closing, which of the following represents the MOST powerful muscle of the
mastication
Answer: Masseter
22. The two fossae on the lingual surface of a maxillary canine meet the proximal surfaces at
the
Answer: Mesial and Distal marginal ridges
*23. Which of the following anatomic features of a maxillary lateral incisor will most likely
complicate root planing?
Answer: Distolingual groove
*24. Which of the following statements BEST describes the distal contact area on the crown
of a maxillary first molar?
Answer: Located in the middle third occlusocervically
?25. Compared to a maxillary second premolar, a maxillary first premolar has
Answer: Two roots, one facial and one lingual
*26. The cusp of Carabelli on a primary maxillary molar is found on the
Answer: Mesiolingual lobe of the second molar
27. On which surface would one expect to see the first evidence of resorption on the root of a
primary incisor?
Answer: Lingual

28. The superior joint cavity of the temporomandibular joint is bordered by

Answer: the mandibular fossae and superior surface of the disc
*29. Which of the following surfaces contact on the mediotrusive side during a lateral
excursive movement?
Answer: Inner inclines of opposing centric cusps.
30. Which of the following represents the section on the crown of a maxillary canine that is
located immediately to the mesial of the mesiolingual fossae?
Answer: Mesial marginal ridge
31. Which of the following factors MOST affects the height of cusps and depth of fossaee?
Answer: Condylar inclination
32. Which of the following incisors presents a mesial contact area near the junctions of
incisal and middle thirds of the crown, and a distal contact area within the middle third of
the crown?
Answer: Maxillary lateral
*33. The lingual height of contour on a permanent mandibular second molar is located
Answer: In the middle one third
34. Where is the distal contact area of a maxillary canine usually located?
Answer: In the middle one-third
35. Which of the following represents the premolars that exhibits a root trunk in the
majority of specimens?
Answer: Maxillary first
*36. Which of the following represents the division of the trigeminal nerve that is
responsible for pain sensation in temporomandibular disorders?
Answer: Mandibular
*37. Which of the following represents the usual number of pulp horns in a mandibular first
molar at eruption?
Answer: Five
*38. Which of the following embrasures are visible when viewing anterior teeth from the
facial?
Answer: Incisal and cervical
39. In normal occlusion, the lingual cusp of the maxillary second premolar occludes with the
fossae of which mandibular tooth?
Answer: Tooth Second premolar, Fossae Distal
*40. Which of the following teeth is MOST commonly affected in partial anodontia?
Answer: Maxillary third molar

*41. From their respective occlusal views, which of the following features exists on both the
primary mandibular first and second molars?
Answer: Central and Lingual development grooves present
*42. Moving the mandibular from a maximum intercuspal position to a retruded contact
position usually results in
Answer: Increased occlusal vertical dimension
43. Which of the following teeth is usually incisal / occlusal views?
Answer: Mandibular central incisor
*44. Which of the following newly erupted permanent mandibular teeth would have a pulp
chamber that is wider mesiodistally than faciolingually?
Answer: First molars
*45. The inferior head of the lateral Pterygoid muscle is normally active during which of the
following jaw movements?
Answer: Jaw opening and protrusive movements
46. In ideal intercuspal relationship, the mesiofacial cusp of the maxillary first molar
opposes which of the following?
Answer: Mesiofacial groove of the mandibular first molar
*47. Which of the following represents a site of unfused (defective) enamel at the base a
fossaee?
Answer: Pit
*48. On newly erupted teeth, a maxillary canine has a mesial cusp ridge shorter that the
distal cusp ridge.
On a mandibular canine, the mesial cusp ridge is longer that the distal cusp ridge.
Answer: The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
*49. Which of the following teeth is MOST likely to erupt first?
Answer: #27 Distractors: #4, #6, #15, #20
50. Which of the following embrasures surround the contact area between two posterior
teeth?
Answer: occlusal, cervical, facial and lingual
51. The central groove of a maxillary molar crosses the oblique ridge to connect which of
the following pits?
Answer: central and Distal
52. Which of the following features helps to distinguish a maxillary lateral incisor from a
mandibular lateral incisor? The maxillary lateral has
Answer: A more pronounced lingual fossae
*53. A primary maxillary first molar crown from the facial groove. The lingual aspect of the
crown has a distinct groove separating the respective cusps.
Answer: the first statement is true, the second statement is false.

54. Which of the following mandibular molar cups usually opposes a central fossae rather
than marginal ridges?
Answer: The distofacial cusp of the mandibular first molar.
55. The primary anterior teeth of a 6 years old child are starting to drift apart. The parent
should be advised that
Answer: The condition is normal
*56. Which primary molar has a crown resembling a permanent premolar, but the root
form is typical of a permanent molar?
Answer: Maxillary first
*57. The effects of congenital syphilis are occasionally observed in the first molars which of
the following teeth might also exhibit evidence of the disease?
Answer: Mandibular central incisors
*58. Viewed from the incisal aspect, the mandibular central incisor is
Answer: Wider faciolingually than mesiodistally.
59. The cross sectional shape of the pulp cavity at the level of the cervix of the maxillary
first premolar is
Answer: Kidney shaped
*60. When compared to the maxillary central incisor, the maxillary lateral incisor normally
exhibits
Answer: A crown which is generally more convex
*61. In normal occlusion, a mediotrusive interference can occur between which of the
following cusps?
Answer: Maxillary and mandibular supporting
*62. The root structure of a mandibular first molar normally exhibits.
Answer: Some distal angulation
*63. The crowns of primary maxillary central incisors normally exhibit which of the
following?
Answer: A lingual fossae
*64. The crown of which premolar is wider faciolingually than mesiodistally, and has two
cusps that are approximately equal in height?
Answer: Maxillary second
65. Which of the following roots MOST likely has two canals?
Answer: Mesiofacial root of the maxillary first molar
66. Which of the following describes the proximal contact relationship between a maxillary
central incisor and maxillary lateral incisor?
Answer: Lingual embrasure is larger than the facial embrasure.

*67. Which root of the maxillary first molar has root depressions on both mesial and distal
surface?
Answer: Mesiofacial
*68. A full crown restoration is too long on a maxillary central incisor incisocervically,
Which of the following is most likely a clinical consequence?
Answer: Protrusive interference
69. The arrow on the illustration below represents the path taken by the opposing
contacting cusp. The mandibular movement indicated is

Answer: Right lateral; laterotrusive side

70. Each of the following accurately describes the temporomandibular joint except one.
Which one?
Answer: Vascular articular surfaces
71. A distinguishing characteristics of a maxillary second premolar is the presence of
Answer: A short central groove mesiodistally
*72. The occlusal outline of a mandibular first molar is usually similar to
Answer: A pentagon
*73. Which of the following statement BEST describes the crown of a maxillary first molar
when viewed from the lingual?
Answer: The facial cusp tip is visible.
74. Mandibular movement, at the limits dictated by anatomic sections, is known as which of
the following?
Answer: Envelope of motion
75. Which of the following is the MOST obvious characteristic that distinguishes maxillary
first from maxillary second molars and second from third molars?
Answer: Size of distolingual cusp
76. When the occlusion and the alignment of teeth are normal, facets from attrition can
develop in each of the following EXCEPT
Answer: Facioincisal area of a maxillary lateral incisor
*77. Each of the following conditions are usually found in mutually protected occlusion
EXCEPT
Answer: Even contacts on all porterior teeth on the mediotrusive side when the mandible moves
laterally
Not Scored 78. Which of the following muscles is MOST influential in moving the mandible
from postural position to maximum intercuspation?
Answer: Temporalis

*79. Which of the following mandibular molar proximal crown surfaces normally exhibits
the largest size?
Answer: Mesial of first
*80. Which of the following represents the MOST common distinguishing feature of a
mandibular first premolar?
Answer: Mesiolingual developmental groove
*81. On the mesial surface of #28, the cervical line is the same as the curvature of the
cervical line on.
Answer: Distal of #27
82. Which of the following characteristics distinguishes a mandibular canine from a
maxillary canine?
Answer: Comparatively narrower in the mesiodistal dimension
83. From an occlusal view, posterior contact areas are normally located
Answer: Facial to the tooth center
84. The arrow on the illustration bellow represents the path taken by the opposing
contacting cusp. The movement indicated is

Answer: Left lateral; shown on mediotrusive side

*85. Which of the following teeth represents the one MOST likely to present with three
roots?
Answer: Maxillary first premolar
86. Which premolar frequently has only one pulp horn?
Answer: Mandibular first
*87. When the cusp tips of a mandibular left canine and maxillary left canine are in contact,
the right condyle is positioned
Answer: Down the slope of the articular eminence
*88. On the crown of an incisor, which of the following features separates the labial lobes?
Answer: Facial developmental depressions
89. In protrusive movement, the maxillary left central incisor can potentially come in
contact with which of the following mandibular teeth?
Answer: #23 and #24
*90. Which of the following represents the location of the SMALLEST cusp of the
mandibular first molar?
Answer: Distofacially

*91. On crowns of maxillary premolars, the cusp tip is normally offset to the distal on which
cusp of the premolar?
Answer: CUSP Facial, PREMOLAR First
*92. The distolingual cusp of the right mandibular first molar is fractured by excessive
contact with the opposing maxillary molar during right lateral excursion. Which of the
following is the MOST likely location of the interference?
Answer: Lingual surface of a maxillary lingual cusp
*93. Which of the following ridges of a maxillary first molar forms one-half of a transverse
ridge on the occlusal surface?
Answer: Triangular ridge of the mesiolingual cusp
*94. Which of the following represents the common age range for the eruption of maxillary
canines?
Answer: 11-12 years
95. In an ideal intercuspal relationship, the mesiolingual cusps of maxillary molars occlude
with which of the following anatomic sections of mandibular molars?
Answer: Central Fossaee
96. Which mandibular tooth contacts the mesial marginal ridge of the maxillary lateral
incisor in maximum intercuspal position for a patient with ideal occlusion?
Answer: Lateral incisor
*97. During functioning of the mandible, the relationship of the articular disc to the
eminence is PRIMARILY stabilized by which of the following muscles?
Answer: Lateral Pterygoid
*98. Tooth #5 is a succedaneuos tooth that replaces which primary tooth?
Answer: #13
*99. An adult with class I occlusion moves the mandible from maximum intercuspation to
left lateral relation. Which cusp of which mandibular premolar moves from the
occlusal/incisal embrasure through the lingual embrasure between the maxillary right first
premolar and canine?
Answer: Mandibular Premolar Right first, Cusp Facial
100. At age 8, the maxillary first molar has
Answer: No distal contact.

PATHOLOGY / MICROBIOLOGY
1. Treatment of patients with broad spectrum antibiotics is often associated with which of
the following?
Answer: Fungal overgrowth
2. Adult respiratory distress syndrome might be caused by each of the following EXCEPT
Answer: Cigarette smoking
3. Neurofibromatosis type 1 is characterized by which
Answer: Multiple pigmented macules of the skin
4. Most infarcts heal by which of the following mean?
Answer: Organization
5. An important early event in the chemotactic process is cellular adherence to vesicular
epithelium the up regulation of endothelial adhesion molecules (ICAM 1 and VCAM
1) a response to
Answer: Cytokine stimulation
6. The development of which of the following types of hepatitis depends on the host having
been previous infected with hepatitis B virus?
Answer: Hepatitis D
7. Which of the following diseases is characterized by an extremely high level of alkaline
phosphates?
Answer: Osteitis deformans
8. Which of the following MOST accurately describes reverse transcriptions?
Answer: RNA Dependant DNA polymerase
9. Each of the following is a common consequence of a coronary artery thrombotic
occlusion EXCEPT
Answer: Stenosis of mitral valve
10. The acid fast staining procedure is used to demonstrative
Answer: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
11. Which of the following cell types without prior sensitization destroy growing cell
tumors?
Answer: Natural killer cells
12. Each of the following is associated with the measles virus or its infection EXCEPT
Answer: Negri bodies
13. Pheochromocytema, a neoplasm of the adrenal medulla, is directly associated with
which of the following clinical finding?
Answer: Severe hypertension

14. Which of the following general is MOST significant in causing root surface lesions?
Answer: S. Actinomyces
15. Hyaluronidase does each of the following EXCEPT
Answer: Help the bacteria avoid the host immune responsible
16. The plaque microorganisms that are unable to produce catalase are sensitive to which of
the following?
Answer: Hydrogen peroxide
17. An 80 year old man has increased serum alkaline phosphatase level. His maxillary teeth
are spread apart. A recent enlargement of his disfigured cranium was diagnosed as a
malignancy. The most likely diagnosis is
Answer: Osteosarcoma
18. Clostridial myonecrosis is caused by
Answer: Clostridium perfringens.
19. Which of the following MOST likely is the presumptive numerous filamentous forms in
an exudates shaped as Y and V Forms and hard, board life swelling at the angle of
the mandible?
Answer: Actinomycosis
20. In industrial nations, which of the following causes the vast majority of deaths relate to
heart disease?
Answer: Ischemic heart disease
21. Which of the following is characteristic by individual, blister-like lesions affecting
specific dermatomes and usually cause intense, burning pain?
Answer: Herpes zoster
22. The principle lung lesion seen in secondary tuberculosis is USUALLY located
Answer: In the apices of the upper lobe.
23. A single gene mutation is responsible for which of the following conditions?
Answer: Sickle-Cell anemia
24. Evidence suggests that a hairy leukoplakia is DIRECTLY caused by which of the
following viruses?
Answer: Epstein Barr
25. Which of the following BEST describes bacterial transformation?
Answer: Acquisition of an inheritable trait by bacteria mediated DNA
26. Each of the following is a prognostic marker for breast cancer EXCEPT
Answer: Presence of Dystrophic Calcifications
27. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate alternative for treating a patient
allergic to penicillin who has an infection caused by bacteria sensitive to penicillin?
Answer: Erythromycin

28. Which of the following is the MOST significant predisposing factor in the development
of cervical cancer?
Answer: Infection with human papillomavirus
29. Each of the following specimens of streptococcus usually appears in human dental
plaque EXCEPT
Answer: S. Pyogenes
30. Which of the following is a summer illness that produces vesicular lesions of the uvula,
anterior pillars, and postpharynx?
Answer: Herpangina
31. Each of the following patients are prone to develop pulmonary thromboemboli
EXCEPT
Answer: Cirrhotic patients with portal hypertension
32. Spontaneous gingival bleeding seen in acute leukemia is MOST likely a result of
Answer: Thrombocytopenia
33. A primary infection with coccidioides usually affects the
Answer: Lungs
34. The vertical growth phase MOST reliably determines the prognosis of which of the
following neoplasm?
Answer: Melanoma

35. To determine bacteriologic purity of metropolitan water supplies, sanitary engineers

routinely check water for presence of which bacteria?
Answer: Escherichia Coli

36. Which of the following cell types contain a lipid associated with core polysaccharide?
Answer: Gram Bacteria
37. Each of the following requires penetration of a gas phase to produce sterilization
EXCEPT
Answer: Dry heat oven
38. Each of the following can cause muscular dystrophy EXCEPT
Answer: Overstimulation with hormones
39. Two antibody molecules bund to the same virus, but they recognize different antigenic
determinants, these two antibodies must
Answer: Be products of different plasma cells
40. Meningitis due to staphylococcus aureus results from primary infection in which of the
following
Answer: Skin or bone
41. Which of the following vessels represents the MOST common location of a saccular
(berry) aneurysm?

Answer: Middle cerebral artery

42. Neoplastic transformation induced by retroviruses involves which of the following
mechanisms?
Answer: Viral oncogene transaction of cellular DNA
43. The majority of breast lumps for which women seek evaluation turn out to be
Answer: Fibrocystic changes
44. Which of the following is MOST likely to precede an impending atherosclerotic cerebral
infarction?
Answer: Transient ischemic attacks
45. Which of the following neoplasms arises only in the kidney?
Answer: Wilms Tumor
46.Which of the following viral diseases has the longest incubation period?
Answer: Hepatitis B
47. Each of the following denotes a malignant neoplasm EXCEPT
Answer: Adenoma
48. Human herpes virus 8 has been associated with
Answer: Kaposis sarcoma
49. Which of the following represents a major advantage of artificial passive immunity over
other types of immunity?
Answer: Protection is immediate
50. Each of the following is a complication of a duodenal peptic ulcer EXCEPT
Answer: Carcinoma
51. An 18 year old male patient sustains a compound fracture of the femur. Twenty four
hours later the fragments are manipulated in order to better align before splinting. The
patient dies suddenly, the most likely reason is?
Answer: Fat embolism
52. Dwarfism, characterized by a relatively normal sized head and thorax bus short
extremities, is MOST characteristic of which?
Answer: Achondroplasia
53. The rapid emergence of new strains of human immunodeficiency virus is primarily the
result of
Answer: Frequent errors introduced by viral reverse transcriptase
54. Which of the following BEST describes blastomyces dermatitidis?
Answer: Its a soul saprophyte
55. Each of the following is an example of innate immunity EXCEPT
Answer: Secretory IgA in milk
56. Which of the following is oncogenic DNA virus?

Answer: Papillomavirus
57. MOST lung cancers originate in which of the following sites?
Answer: Bronchial epithelium
58. B-cell immunodeficiency can be treated with injections of
Answer: Natural killer cells
59. Which of the following is a component of endospores responsible for dehydration and
resistance to heat?
Answer: Calcium dipicolinate
60. Which of the following is the normal habitat of Neisseria meningitides in humans?
Answer: Nasopharynx
61. Each of the following is an autoimmune disease EXCEPT
Answer: Erythroblastosis Fetalis
62. Coagulation necrosis is characteristically seen in which condition?
Answer: Myocardial Infarction
63. Which of the following represent the MOST consistent clinical sign of renal cell
carcinoma?
Answer: Hematuria
64. The lesions of serum sickness result from complexes formed by antigen, complement,
and
Answer: IgC
65. In which cancer does a serum marker serve as a screening test for early detection of
asymptomatic cases?
Answer: Prostate
66. If necrotic Cells and cellular debris are NOT promptly phagocytized, then they tend to
undergo
Answer: Dystrophic calcification
67. Which of the following statements regarding Th1 and Th2 cells is correct?
Answer: Th1 and Th2 cells are distinguished by the cytokines they secrete
68. Which of the following microorganisms is transmitted by ticks?
Answer: Borrelia Burgdorferi
69. Which of the following suggests that immune surveillance can be important in
protection from malignancy?
Answer: Persons with AIDS have an increased risk of developing cancer.
70. Which of the following organisms is transmitted through an insect vector?
Answer: Rickettsia
71. Features of delayed hypersensitivity skin reactions include each of the following except
Answer: Mediated by IgE antibiotics

72. Which of the following are more abundant in chronic inflammation than in acute
inflammation?
Answer: Plasma cells
73. In which of the following mycotic infections are the organs characteristically found
within reticuloendothelial cells?
Answer: Histoplasmosis
74. Carcinoma of which of the following organs offers a BEST five year survival rate?
Answer: Colon
75. Which of the following represents one advantage of autoclave sterilization?
Answer: Pulling of unprotected cutting edges
76. Hypertrophy of the lingual ventricular wall is a result of which of the following
condition?
Answer: Chronic hypertensive heart disease
77. Pulmonary edema and filling of the pleural cavity by a transudate is MOST suggestive
of which of the following underlying diseases?
Answer: Left sided heart failure
78. Death associated with cholera infection can best be prevented by
Answer: Fluid replacement
79. Which of the following BEST describes the peptidoglycan in bacterial cell walls?
Answer: It contains N acetyl D Glucosamine and N acetyl D Muramic Acid
80. Which of the following represents excessive collagen formation that elevates the surface
and results in a tumorous scar?
Answer: Keloid
81. A one week old infant has secretory IgA specific for influenza virus. Which of the
following is the most likely site at which the IgA producing B cells originally came into
contact with antigen?
Answer: Mothers intestine
82. In healthy individuals, complement proteins (c1-c9) are
Answer: Present as normal serum proteins
83. In systemic lupus erythematosus, which of the following reactions produces MOST of
the visceral damage?
Answer: Immune complex mediated hypersensitive
84. The Lancefield classification for streptococci employs characterization of the bacteria on
the basis of which of the following?
Answer: Group carbohydrates in the cell wall

85. Blood clotting might be prolonged in a person who has which of the following
conditions?
Answer: Cirrhosis
86. During which of the following stages of viral replication would a virus be susceptible to
the secretory IgA?
Answer: Attachment
87. Myxedema is an endocrine disturbance resulting from
Answer: Hypothyroidism in adults
88. Oxygen Dependent killing of bacteria by neutrophils involves each of the following
EXCEPT
Answer: Collagenase
89. The pathogenesis of hepatocellular destruction seen in hepatitis B MOST probably
results from
Answer: A cell mediated response against viral infected cells.