fn3092 Exc15

Examiners commentaries 2015

FN3092 Corporate finance
Important note
This commentary reflects the examination and assessment arrangements
for this course in the academic year 201415. The format and structure
of the examination may change in future years, and any such changes
will be publicised on the virtual learning environment (VLE).
Information about the subject guide and the Essential reading

references
Unless otherwise stated, all cross-references will be to the latest version
of the subject guide (2011). You should always attempt to use the most
recent edition of any Essential reading textbook, even if the commentary
and/or online reading list and/or subject guide refers to an earlier
edition. If different editions of Essential reading are listed, please check
the VLE for reading supplements if none are available, please use the
contents list and index of the new edition to find the relevant section.
General remarks
Learning outcomes
At the end of this course, and having completed the Essential reading and
activities, you should be able to:
explain how to value projects, and use the key capital budgeting
techniques (NPV and IRR)
understand the mathematics of portfolios and how risk affects the
value of the asset in equilibrium under the fundamental asset pricing
paradigms (CAPM and APT)
know how to use recent extensions of the CAPM, such as the Fama
and French three factor model, to calculate expected returns on risky
securities
explain the characteristics of derivative assets (forward, futures and
options), and how to use the main pricing techniques (binomial
methods in derivatives pricing and the BlackScholes analysis)
discuss the theoretical framework of informational efficiency in
financial markets and evaluate the related empirical evidence
understand the trade-off firms face between tax advantages of debt
and various costs of debt
understand and explain the capital structure theory, and how
information asymmetries affect it
understand and explain the relevance, facts and role of the dividend
policy
understand how corporate governance can contribute to firm value
discuss why merger and acquisition activities exist, and calculate the
related gains and losses.
1
What are the examiners looking for?

In general, the examiners are looking for a solid demonstration of
understanding of the above learning outcomes from candidates. Typically,
the examination questions cover a wide range of topics from the syllabus.
They are often set in such a way as to enable students to be tested on their
understanding of the concepts and techniques and their ability to apply
them in scenarios.
Candidates should read widely around each topic covered in the subject
guide. Essential and supplementary readings are important if you wish to
achieve high grades. Typical weaknesses that examiners have identified in
this examination are as follows:
Candidates answers are often too general or narrow. When you are
asked to critically assess a theory or concept, you should provide
a descriptive list of what the theory or concept is about. A critical
assessment for a theory or concept should indicate how logically it is
derived and how well it fits into the real world.
You should not regurgitate materials from the subject guide.
Consequently, you may be giving either descriptive or irrelevant
material in your answer. Rather, you should carefully consider what the
examination question is in fact asking and respond accordingly.
Candidates often spot questions and focus narrowly on a few topics
in the hope that these topics cover enough material to pass the
examination. However, the empirical evidence shows that this tactic
often backfires badly. As corporate financial theories are often interrelated, the examination questions will also cover materials from
different chapters in the subject guide. For example, when evaluating
a real life project, we need to know which discount rate to use and
how to identify the relevant cash flows. The choice of the appropriate
discount rate depends on how the project is funded and how risky it is.
Therefore a question on capital budgeting can easily involve materials
covered in Chapters 1, 2, 3 and 6.
Examination revision strategy

Many candidates are disappointed to find that their examination
performance is poorer than they expected. This may be due to a
number of reasons. The Examiners commentaries suggest ways of
addressing common problems and improving your performance. One
particular failing is question spotting, that is, confining your
examination preparation to a few questions and/or topics which
have come up in past papers for the course. This can have serious
consequences.
We recognise that candidates may not cover all topics in the syllabus in
the same depth, but you need to be aware that examiners are free to
set questions on any aspect of the syllabus. This means that you need
to study enough of the syllabus to enable you to answer the required
number of examination questions.
The syllabus can be found in the Course information sheet in the
section of the VLE dedicated to each course. You should read the
syllabus carefully and ensure that you cover sufficient material in
preparation for the examination. Examiners will vary the topics and
questions from year to year and may well set questions that have not
appeared in past papers. Examination papers may legitimately include
questions on any topic in the syllabus. So, although past papers can be
helpful during your revision, you cannot assume that topics or specific
questions that have come up in past examinations will occur again.
If you rely on a question-spotting strategy, it is likely
you will find yourself in difficulties when you sit the
examination. We strongly advise you not to adopt this
strategy.

FN3092 Corporate finance Zone A
Important note

references
Comments on specific questions

Candidates should answer FOUR of the following EIGHT questions:
ONE from Section A, ONE from Section B and TWO further questions
from either section. All questions carry equal marks.
A list of formulas and useufl logarithm and normal distribution tables is
given at the end of the paper.
A calculator may be used when answering questions on this paper and
it must comply in all respects with the specification given with your
Admission Notice. The make and type of machine must be clearly stated
on the front cover of the answer book.
Section A
Question 1
a. A firm with a total asset beta of 0.3 has a third of its assets as excess cash,
which is not used in the operations of the firm and is invested in risk-free
T-bills. Suppose it pays half of its cash to shareholders and invests the other
half in the market. What is the firms asset beta now? Why does it change?
Discuss.
(10 marks)
b. Explain how and why dividend policy can be used as a signal to investors

(7.5 marks)
c. Explain the tax clientele theory for the existence of dividends
Reading for this question
Subject guide, Chapters 7, 8 and 9 (respectively).
(7.5 marks)
Approaching the question

a. Yes, it changes. It is higher because the company exchanged a risk-free
asset, the cash, for a risky security, the market. The best way to see this
is by calculating the new exposure of the company to market risk using
the information provided to first back-out the exposure of the non-cash
assets to market risk, and then use the new asset structure of the firm
to recalculate the exposure to the market. In detail:
1
2
0 + Non cash = 0.3
3
3
3
Non cash = 0.3 = 0.45
2
Now, 5/6 of the firm is invested in the asset and 1/6 in the market. So
the new asset beta is:
asset =
5
1
0.45 + 1 = 0.54
6
6
b. The simplest way to understand why dividend policy can be used as a

signal to investors is by reversing the argument of debt as signalling in
the Myers and Majluf model of information asymmetries. Just as debt
sends a signal to the market that the company is of good quality, so
does paying out a dividend to investors. Best answers may include an
example and also mention share repurchases.
c. An example can be best used to explain this theory. Consider a
company that currently pays a high dividend and has attracted a
clientele whose investment goal is to obtain stock with a high dividend
payout. If the company decides to decrease its dividend, these investors
will sell their stock, and the companys share price will decline. The
company is then somewhat forced to keep paying dividends.
Question 2
a. Plot the following risky portfolios on a graph
(2 marks)
Expected return (%)
10
11
12.5
15.5
16
18
21
Standard deviation (%)
23
24
21
26
28
32
32
b. Which of these portfolios are not efficient?
(5 marks)
c. Suppose you are prepared to tolerate a standard deviation of 26 percent.

What is the maximum expected return that you can achieve if you cannot
borrow or lend?
(5 marks)
d. What is your optimal strategy if you can borrow or lend at 12% and are
prepared to tolerate a standard deviation of 26%? What is the maximum
expected return that you can achieve with this strategy?
(6 marks)
e. Draw the efficient frontier and locate the market portfolio assuming you can
lend and borrow at 12%
(7 marks)
Subject guide, Chapter 2.
a. The plot should mimic the standard mean-variance frontier. The best
way to approach this question is to plot in a two-dimension plot the
points provided with the standard deviation in the x-axis and returns in
the y-axis.
b. Portfolio F is not efficient because the investor can obtain a higher
return investing in portfolio G and obtain same standard deviation
(same risk) as portfolio F.
c. The maximum expected returns that can be achieved if investor cannot
borrow or lend is 15.5 by investing in portfolio D.
d. The best way to find the optimal strategy is to consider a replicating
portfolio based on any portfolio (say portfolio G) and the risk free rate
as follows:
(32) + (1 ) 0 = 26
=
26
32
26
26
(21) + 1
12 = 19.31
32
32
The strategy is thus to lend 32 of the wealth at 12% and invest
26
32
of
the wealth in portfolio G. The maximum expected return is 19.31.
e. Include in the plot a ray extending from the Y-axis (intersection of 12%
= Risk free rate) and is tangent to the frontier of risky assets drawn in
part a. This is the CML.
Question 3
a. What are event studies and what are they used for? What type of information
efficiency can they test? Explain in detail the hypothesis used in event
studies and how you would design an even time study (hint: consider an
event time study around earnings announcements).
(6.5 marks)
b. What is undiversifiable risk? Give an example.
c. How does CAPM price diversifiable risk?
(2 marks)
(6.5 marks)
d. Describe a result in the empirical literature that argues against the CAPM.
What does the result imply with respect to CAPM and market efficiency more
generally?
(10 marks)
Subject guide, Chapters 2 and 5.
a. Event studies are important for evaluating the semi-strong form of
the efficient market hypothesis, as well as studying the effects of
key corporate announcements. Explain what the semi-strong form
of the efficient market hypothesis means. Next, explain how you
would design an event study to examine the price impact of earnings
announcements The semi-strong form of the EMH states that all public
information is embedded in asset prices. The study should contain an
announcement (e.g. earnings announcements) then an announcement
window (including a period leading up to the announcement and a
period after the announcement), and investigate the abnormal returns
over the announcement window. The test consists of looking at the
pattern of abnormal returns. It should have a large jump around the
announcement date, and small abnormal returns in the period leading
up to the jump and small abnormal returns in the period following the
jump. The public announcement should dictate the price jump.
6
b. Undiversifiable risk, also known as systematic risk, is the volatility in

returns of assets due to changes in the market. Any change in a market
index, say S&P 500, is an undiversifiable risk.
c. Diversifiable risk is not priced. Rational investors can hedge this type
of risk. The best way to see this is by focusing on the pricing equation
of the CAPM in which the only compensation for risk demanded by
investors, above and beyond the risk-free rate, is exposure to market
risk in the form of beta.
d. Empirically, small capitalised firms seem to have a higher expected
return than what the CAPM predicts. Fama and French (1992) argue
that small size portfolios appear to outperform large size portfolios
even after controlling their respective betas. This evidence is often
regarded as an anomaly to the CAPM. However, any testing of the
CAPM depends very much on how efficient the market is and whether
we choose the correct proxies for the market in those tests.
Question 4
a. The Modigliani and Miller proposition states that in the absence of taxes and
other frictions capital structure is irrelevant. Explain.
(5 marks)
b. One potential violation of the Modligiani and Miller assumptions is the
existence of agency conflicts. What are they and why do they arise? ( 5 marks)
c. What is empire building? Give an example on how financial policy can
mitigate empire building
(5 marks)
d. What is risk shifting? Give an example on how financial policy can mitigate
risk shifting.
(5 marks)
e. What is debt overhang? Explain the role of debt restructuring in mitigating
this issue
(5 marks)
a. The main insight from Modigliani and Miller is that under no frictions
financial policy only determines how value is distributed among
stakeholders, value is only created from assets: security issuances are
0 NPV transactions. One way to see this is to recall the proof of the
Modigliani and Miller theorem in Chapter 6 of the subject guide.
b. Agency conflicts arise when stakeholders in a firm have different
incentives (preferences). These conflicts are exacerbated by the
separation of ownership and control in modern corporations. There
are several types of agency conflicts in a firm including those between:
debtholders and shareholders, and between CEOs and shareholders.
c. Empire building refers to the desire of CEOs to invest in negative NPV
acquisitions if they derive private benefits from exerting control over
larger assets, or if their compensation is tied to asset size. Financial
policy can mitigate this agency conflict. In particular, debt can be used
to reduce available cash flow for acquisitions.
d. An equity stake in a levered firm corresponds to a call option on the
cash flow of the firm with strike equal to the face value of debt. This
implies that if given the chance, shareholders will always pick risky
over safe projects, even if detrimental for firm value, as they are not
really affected by the downside but have extraordinary potential
gains from the upside (in detriment of debtholders). This tendency
of shareholders is known as risk-shifting or asset substitution. One
7
potential solution is financial restructuring where the face value of

debt is reduced.
e. Shareholders in a firm may forgo positive NPV projects if they have
a large face value of debt because they will get to appropriate very
little from the NPV. This issue is known as debt-overhang. If debt is
restructured, such that some of the face value is forgiven, shareholders
will be allowed to appropriate more of the positive NPV project and
thus will invest. Restructuring is only feasible as long as debtholders
remain just as well off after it.
Section B
Question 5
Acquirer Co (AC) has earnings per share of $3. It has 1 million shares
outstanding, each of which has a price of $30 per share. AC is thinking of
buying Target Limited (TL), which has earnings per share of $2, 1 million shares
outstanding, and a price per share of $25. AC will pay for TL by issuing new
shares. There are no expected synergies from the transaction.
a. Assume first that AC pays no premium to buy TL. What are the earnings per
share of the merged firm after the transaction?
(5 marks)
b. Explain the economic rationale behind the change in the earnings per share
(EPS) of TL before and after the merger in point (a). Are the shareholders
of AC any better or worse off after the merger? Carefully discuss your
arguments.
(5 marks)
c. What will the price-earnings ratio (PE) be after the merger when AC pays no
premium? How does this compare to the PE ratio of AC before the merger?
Are the shareholders of AC any better or worse off after the merger?
Carefully discuss your results.
(5 marks)
d. Your DCF calculations indicate that TL should be trading at 30 per share,
what would be an appropriate premium that AC should pay for TL? Carefully
discuss your results.
(5 marks)
e. Explain the free rider problem in the context of takeovers as in Grossman and
Hart (1980).
(5 marks)
a. There are no expected synergies from the transaction; hence the new
earnings of the firm are just the combined earnings of the previous
stand-alone companies. Because TL shares are worth 25 and AC shares
are worth $30, AC will have to issue 25/30 (=5/6) shares per share
of TL to be able to buy it. That means that, in the aggregate, AC will
have to issue 5/6*1 million = 833,333 new shares. After the merger,
there will be 1,833,333 shares outstanding and the total earnings
will be 5 million. Thus, the new EPS (earnings per share) will be 5
million/1.833 million = 2.72
b. The economic rationale can be best understood as follows. In point (a),
the change in EPS simply came from combining the two companies.
One is worth $3 per share and the other is worth 2 per share. However,
a reduction in the EPS of the shareholders of AC need not mean that
they did a bad transaction. Although the shareholders of AC end up
with a lower EPS under the transaction, they have paid a fair price,
exchanging their 3 per share before the transaction for either lower,
but safer EPS after the transaction, or lower EPS that are expected to
8
grow more in the future. Either way, focusing on EPS alone cannot tell
us whether the shareholders of AC are better or worse off.
c. If AC pays no premium that means, as stated in the problem that
there are no expected synergies. Hence, if we simply combine the
two companies and there are no synergies as indicated, then the total
value of the company will be 30 + 25 = 55 million. The merged firm
has earnings totalling 5 million, so that the PE ratio is 55/5 = 11. The
PE ratio of AC before the merger was 30/3 = 10 and TLs was 25/2
= 12.5. To determine whether shareholders of AC are any better or
worse, recall, just as in Part b, that simply focusing on metrics such
as the PE ratio does not tell anything about whether shareholders
are worse or better off. The PE ratio of AC went from 10 to 11, but
shareholders are no better or worse off.
d. An appropriate premium can be calculated based on the price at which
other companies are selling. In particular, if other companies are
selling at 30 per share, then a starting point for the premium to pay
would be 30/25 = 20% premium.
e. The free-rider problem in the context of Grossman and Hart can be
best explained as follows. The efficiency gains from a valuable takeover
are a public good: all existing shareholders want the takeover to occur
as it increases value, but for the same reason none of them will want
to tender their shares because they want to appropriate the increase in
value. In other words, shareholders would like to free-ride on others to
sell the shares so they can obtain the value gains. The raider will then
have to bid for the shares the original price plus the expected increase
in value in shares making it extremely difficult for takeovers to occur in
practice unless raiders have a pre-existing toehold of shares or there is
a freeze out rule, etc.
Question 6
Monsters Incorporated (MI) is ready to launch a new product. Depending upon
the success of this product, MI will have a value of either $100 million, $150
million, or $191 million, with each outcome being equally likely. The cash
flows are unrelated to the state of the economy (i.e. risk from the project is
diversifiable). The risk-free rate is currently 5%. MI has 5.6 million shares of
stock outstanding and no debt. Assume that the Modigliani-Miller assumptions
hold.
a. What is MIs share price?
(5 marks)
Suppose now that one of the assumptions of Modigliani and Miller does not
hold: in the event of default, 20% of the value of MIs assets will be lost in
bankruptcy costs. Assume also that MI issues debt of face value $125 million
due next year and uses the proceeds to repurchase shares.
b. What is the cost of debt? Why?
(4 marks)
c. What is the yield to maturity? Is it the same as the cost of debt? Why?

(5 marks)
d. What is the new price per share? Why? What is the new number of shares?

(6 marks)
Suppose now that another of the assumptions of Modigliani and Miller does
not hold: there is a corporate tax rate of 35%.
e. Without doing any calculation, how will the existence of taxes affect the
calculation of the new price per share? Will it be higher, lower, the same as
your answer in d.? Discuss.
(5 marks)
9

a. To calculate the price we first estimate expected value as follows:
=
VU
1 3 (100 ) + 1 3 (150 ) + 1 3 (191) +

= $140 million
1.05
Price per share = $140M / 5.6 million shares = $25.00.

b. The cost of debt is 5% because the risk of cash flows is diversifiable, so
investors demand no extra compensation for risk.
c. The yield to maturity corresponds to the interest rate that equates
expected value of debt (market value) to its face value. We first have to
calculate the expected value of debt as follows:
Value of MIs debt:
1 3 (100 (1 .20 ) ) + 1 3 (125 ) + 1 3 (125 ) +

= $104.76 million
1.05
$125
YTM =
- 1 = .193182 or 19.3%. No, reflects probability of
$104.76
Vdebt
bankruptcy and loss in value.

d. To calculate the new price per share we first recalculate the value of
equity taking into account the bankruptcy instance.
Value of MIs equity:
1
1
1
0 + 3 25 + 3 66
3
=
= 28.89
1.05
Total Value = VL + Vdebt = $28.89 + $104.765 = $133.6508 million
Price per Share = $133.65M / 5.6 million shares = $23.87
Shares repurchased: 125/23.87 = 5.237. New number of shares:
5.6 5.237 = 0.36.
e. The price will be lower because with taxes part of the value is
appropriated by government.
Question 7
Pepso is a well-established company that sells apple juice, the value of the
assets in place is 100 and it has no leverage. The CEO of Pepso is considering
entering into the pear juice business. The net cost to the firm of entering this
business is 20 (i.e., the costs exceed the benefits by 20), and the private benefits
to the CEO of this business equal 1.5. The CEO owns 5% of the company and the
discount rate is 0.
a. Find the NPV of investing in the pear juice business for the firm and the CEO.
Would the CEO invest in the pear juice business if Pepso had enough internal
resources?
(5 marks)
The board of Pepso meets to discuss how to use financial policy to align
management interests. They ask you to provide an alternative capital
structure that can discipline the manager.
b. What is the minimum level of debt that aligns CEO preferences to those
of the board? Assume that in the recapitalization the CEO shares are not
tendered, and that outside investors are nave such that they do not infer any
potential agency conflicts from the financial policy of the firm. (6 marks)
10
c. Assume that Pepsos board decides to follow your advice and recapitalizes
the company. The board decides to issue debt with face value of 80, and use
the proceeds to buy back shares.
d. What is the new equity stake of the CEO in the firm?
(3 marks)
After the recapitalization, Pepsos main competitor, Appleok, decides

to launch an aggressive competitive attack. The Head of Research and
Development at Pepso comes up with a counterattack move that involves
investing in a new and risky technology of apple juice production, which
in case of success can stop the attack, and increase the value of the assets
in place to 150. In case of failure the value of the assets in place decreases
to 80. The probability that the technology is successful is 0.5. Investing in
the technology has a cost of 20. Pepso must raise external equity finance to
invest in the technology. You are hired by Pepsos board to structure the deal.
e. What is the equity stake that an outside investor will require in exchange of
the investment cost of 20?
(6 marks)
f. Explain the concepts of debt overhang and risk shifting
(5 marks)

a. We need to compare the NPV of the business with the outside option
of the firm which is to derive value from the assets in place. For the
CEO it is important to recall that he has private benefits from the pear
investment.
NPV(pear project) = 100 20 = 80 100 = Value Assets in Place
NPV(pear project) for CEO = 5%(100 20) + 1.5 = 5.5 5

= 5%(Value Assets in Place)
Given our calculations above, we conclude that: yes, the CEO will
invest because his benefit of investing is higher than the value of his
stake of the assets in place.
b. The board would like to issue debt with face value of D and use the
proceeds to buy back shares, in order to discipline the manager.
Because investors are nave the recapitalisation does not change the
value of the assets in place, the new equity stake of the CEO, after the
recapitalisation can be calculated as:
5
5% (100) = %(100 D) % =
100 D
The minimum value of debt for the CEO not to invest in the pear
project is defined by the following inequality, where the value to the
CEO from the project (after the recapitalisation) is forced to be lower
than the value of the assets in place 5:
5
100 D
(80 D) + 1.5 5
D 33 .33
c. The equity stake of the CEO corresponds to the number of shares he

started out with divided by the new number of shares, which is smaller
because some of the shares have been repurchased as part of the
recapitalisation.
=
5
10080
= 25%
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d. The outside investors just desire to break even, so we use the breakeven condition to price the debt:
[0.5 0 + 0.5 (100 80)] = 20

=
20
>1
10
The equity stake is prohibitive (i.e. higher than 1), which means that
Pepso cannot invest in the technology. The problem here is one of debt
overhang.
e. The concepts of risk shifting and debt overhang are as follows: An
equity stake in a levered firm corresponds to a call option on the cash
flow of the firm with strike equal to the face value of debt. This implies
that if given the chance, shareholders will always pick risky over safe
projects, even if detrimental for firm value, as they are not really
affected by the downside but have extraordinary potential gains from
the upside (in detriment of debtholders). This tendency of shareholders
is known as risk-shifting or asset substitution. One potential solution
is financial restructuring where the face value of debt is reduced.
Shareholders in a firm may forgo positive NPV projects if they have
Question 8
Carrie International (CI) is considering entering the shoe business in the US. The
manager of CI believes that there exists a very narrow window for entering this
market. Because of the Christmas demand, the time is right to invest is either
today or exactly a year from now. Other than these two opportunities, there is
no alternative opportunity to break into this market.
It will cost CI 35 million to enter the shoe market. Because other shoe
manufactures exist and they are public companies, the manager of CI reckons
that the current value of a comparable shoe company is 36 million. The
manager of CI also reckons that 15% percent of the value of the firm is
attributable to the value of the expected free cash flows in the first year of
operation.
The flow of customers is uncertain, and so is the value of the shoe company. The
volatility of the expected firm value is 25% per year. The risk free rate is 4%.
a. What is the expected value for CI of entering the shoe business this year?

(4 marks)
b. What is the value of the option to wait to enter the shoe market next year?
When should CI enter the shoe business? (Hint: use discrete discounting)

(8 marks)
c. How should the decision of CI change if the expected value of the shoe
company is 40 million instead of 36 million?
(8 marks)
d. Without doing any calculation, explain how would your decision change if
(i) the volatility of the expected firm value is 50%? (ii) if the window for
entering is not 1 year but 2 years? Explain your answer in the context of call
option pricing
(5 marks)
12

a. The value of investing today corresponds to the difference between the
value of a comparable company and the costs: 36 35 = 1.
b. We apply the Black-Scholes formula, First, we adjust the value of the
underlying, which in this case is the cash flow, to reflect the loss of
the sales during the first year. S^{} = PV(Cash)= 36 (1 0.15).
Then we find the present value of the strike, which in this case is the
cost of entering the market PV(K) =((35)/(1.04)) = 33.6538. Then
using the information provided on volatility of cash flows and knowing
that the option last for a year we calculate the constants: d = 0.2555,
d = 0.5055. Plugging the information in the formula we have that
the value of the call option (and the value of waiting) is C = 1.90. This
value is higher than the value of waiting of investing today (i.e. 1.90 >
1). Hence Carrie International should wait.
c. We follow the same procedure as that in point b but now the expected
cash flow is 40 as opposed to 36. First we adjust the value of the
underlying, which in this case is the cash flow, to reflect the loss of the
sales during the first year. S^{} = S PV(Cash) = 40 (1 0.15).
cost of entering the market PV(K) = ((35)/(1.04)) = 33.6538. Then
that the option last for a year we calculate the constants: d = 0.1659,
d = 0.0841. Plugging the information in the formula we have that
the value of the call option (and the value of waiting) is C = 3.54. It
is thus more valuable to enter now (5 > 3.54). There is no value in
waiting.
d. Because as seen in class and as explained in the guidebook the value
of a call option is increasing in volatility and time, the value of waiting
also increases with volatility and time.
13

FN3092 Corporate finance Zone B
Important note

references
Comments on specific questions

Candidates should answer FOUR of the following EIGHT questions:
ONE from Section A, ONE from Section B and TWO further questions
from either section. All questions carry equal marks.
A list of formulas and useufl logarithm and normal distribution tables is
given at the end of the paper.
A calculator may be used when answering questions on this paper and
it must comply in all respects with the specification given with your
Admission Notice. The make and type of machine must be clearly stated
on the front cover of the answer book.
Section A
Question 1
a. Plot the following risky portfolios on a graph
(2 marks)
Expected return (%)
10
12.5
15
16
16
20
18
Standard deviation (%)
23
21
25
29
28
32
32
b. Which of these portfolios are not efficient?
(5 marks)
c. Suppose you are prepared to tolerate a standard deviation of 25 percent.

What is the maximum expected return that you can achieve if you cannot
borrow or lend (so you have to stick to one of the existing portfolios)?

(5 marks)
d. What is your optimal strategy if you can borrow or lend at 12% and are
prepared to tolerate a standard deviation of 25%? What is the maximum
expected return that you can achieve with this strategy?
(6 marks)
14
e. Draw the efficient frontier and locate the market portfolio assuming you can
lend and borrow at 12%
(7 marks)
a. The plot should mimic the standard mean-variance frontier. The best
way to approach this question is to plot in a two-dimensional graph the
points provided with the standard deviation in the x-axis and returns in
the y-axis.
b. Portfolio G is not efficient because the investor can obtain a higher
return investing in portfolio F and obtain same standard deviation
(same risk) as portfolio G.
c. The maximum expected returns that can be achieved if investor cannot
borrow or lend is 15 by investing in portfolio C.
d. The best way to find the optimal strategy is to consider a replicating
portfolio based on any portfolio (say portfolio F) and the risk free rate
as follows:
(32) + (1 ) 0 = 25
25
=
25
32
(20) + 1
32
25
32
12 = 18.25
The strategy is thus to lend
7
32
of the wealth at 12% and invest
25
32
of
the wealth in portfolio F. The maximum expected return is 18.25.
e. Include in the plot a ray extending from the Y-axis (intersection of 12%
= Risk free rate) and is tangent to the frontier of risky assets drawn in
part a. This is the CML.
Question 2
a. The Modigliani and Miller proposition states that in the absence of taxes and
other frictions capital structure is irrelevant. Explain.
(5 marks)
b. One potential violation of the Modigliani and Miller assumptions is the
existence of agency conflicts. What are they and why do they arise? (5 marks)
c. What is empire building? Give an example on how financial policy can
mitigate empire building
(5 marks)
d. What is risk shifting? Give an example on how financial policy can mitigate
risk shifting.
(5 marks)
e. What is debt overhang? Explain the role of debt restructuring in mitigating
this issue
(5 marks)
a. The main insight from Modigliani and Miller is that under no frictions
financial policy only determines how value is distributed among
stakeholders, value is only created from assets: security issuances are
15
0 NPV transactions. One way to see this is to recall the proof of the
Modigliani and Miller theorem in Chapter 6 of the subject guide.
b. Agency conflicts arise when stakeholders in a firm have different
incentives (preferences). These conflicts are exacerbated by the
separation of ownership and control in modern corporations. There
are several types of agency conflicts in a firm including those between:
debtholders and shareholders, and between CEOs and shareholders.
c. Empire building refers to the desire of CEOs to invest in negative NPV
acquisitions if they derive private benefits from exerting control over
larger assets, or if their compensation is tied to asset size. Financial
policy can mitigate this agency conflict. In particular, debt can be used
to reduce available cash flow for acquisitions.
d. An equity stake in a levered firm corresponds to a call option on the
cash flow of the firm with strike equal to the face value of debt. This
implies that if given the chance, shareholders will always pick risky
over safe projects, even if detrimental for firm value, as they are not
really affected by the downside but have extraordinary potential
gains from the upside (in detriment of debtholders). This tendency
of shareholders is known as risk-shifting or asset substitution. One
potential solution is financial restructuring where the face value of debt
is reduced.
e. Shareholders in a firm may forgo positive NPV projects if they have
Question 3
a. What are event studies and what are they used for? What type of information
efficiency can they test? Explain in detail the hypothesis used in event
studies and how you would design an even time study (hint: consider an
event time study around earnings announcements).
(7 marks)
b. What is undiversifiable risk? Give an example.
(2 marks)
c. How does CAPM price diversifiable risk?
(6 marks)
d. Describe a result in the empirical literature that argues against the CAPM.
What does the result imply with respect to CAPM and market efficiency more
generally?
(10 marks)
a. Event studies are important for evaluating the semi-strong form of
the efficient market hypothesis, as well as studying the effects of
key corporate announcements. Explain what the semi-strong form
of the efficient market hypothesis means. Next, explain how you
would design an event study to examine the price impact of earnings
announcements. The semi-strong form of the EMH states that all public
information is embedded in asset prices. The study should contain an
announcement (e.g. earnings announcements) then an announcement
window (including a period leading up to the announcement and a
period after the announcement), and investigate the abnormal returns
16
over the announcement window. The test consists of looking at the

pattern of abnormal returns. It should have a large jump around the
announcement date, and small abnormal returns in the period leading
up to the jump and small abnormal returns in the period following the
jump. The public announcement should dictate the price jump.
b. Undiversifiable risk, also known as systematic risk, is the volatility in
returns of assets due to changes in the market. Any change in a market
index, say S&P 500, is an undiversifiable risk.
c. Diversifiable risk is not priced. Rational investors can hedge this type
of risk. The best way to see this is by focusing on the pricing equation
of the CAPM in which the only compensation for risk demanded by
investors, above and beyond the risk-free rate, is exposure to market
risk in the form of beta.
d. Empirically, small capitalised firms seem to have a higher expected
return than what the CAPM predicts. Fama and French (1992) argue
that small size portfolios appear to outperform large size portfolios
even after controlling their respective betas. This evidence is often
regarded as an anomaly to the CAPM. However, any testing of the
CAPM depends very much on how efficient the market is and whether
we choose the correct proxies for the market in those tests.
Question 4
a. A firm with a total asset beta of 0.25 has a fifth of its assets as excess cash,
which is not used in the operations of the firm and is invested in risk-free
T-bills. Suppose it pays half of its cash to shareholders and invests the other
half in the market. What is the firms asset beta now? Why does it change?
Discuss.
(10 marks)
b. Explain how and why dividend policy can be used as a signal to investors

(8 marks)
c. Explain the tax clientele theory for the existence of dividends. (7 marks)
Subject guide, Chapters 7, 8 and 9 (respectively).
a. Yes, it changes. It is higher because the company exchanged a risk-free
asset, the cash, for a risky security, the market. The best way to see this
is by calculating the new exposure of the company to market risk using
the information provided to first back-out the exposure of the non-cash
assets to market risk, and then use the new asset structure of the firm
to recalculate the exposure to the market. In detail:
4
1
5
0+
Non cash
= 0 .25
Non cash
= 0.25
= 0.3125
Now, 9/10 of the firm is invested in the asset and 1/10 in the market.
So the new asset beta is:
9
asset
10
1
0.3125 +
10
1 = 0 .38125
17
b. The simplest way to understand why dividend policy can be used as a

signal to investors is by reversing the argument of debt as signalling in
the Myers and Majluf model of information asymmetries. Just as debt
sends a signal to the market that the company is of good quality, so
does paying out a dividend to investors. Best answers may include an
example and also mention share repurchases.
c. An example can be best used to explain this theory. Consider a
company that currently pays a high dividend and has attracted clientele
whose investment goal is to obtain stock with a high dividend payout.
If the company decides to decrease its dividend, these investors will sell
their stock, and the companys share price will decline. The company is
then somewhat forced to keep paying dividends.
Section B
Question 5
Monsters Incorporated (MI) is ready to launch a new product. Depending upon
the success of this product, MI will have a value of either $100 million, $150
million, or $191 million, with each outcome being equally likely. The cash
flows are unrelated to the state of the economy (i.e. risk from the project is
diversifiable). The risk-free rate is currently 5%. MI has 10 million shares of stock
outstanding and no debt. Assume that the Modigliani-Miller assumptions hold.
a. What is MIs share price?
(5 marks)
Suppose now that one of the assumptions of Modigliani and Miller does not
hold: in the event of default, 20% of the value of MIs assets will be lost in
bankruptcy costs. Assume also that MI issues debt of face value $130 million
due next year and uses the proceeds to repurchase shares.
b. What is the cost of debt? Why?
(4 marks)
c. What is the yield to maturity? Is it the same as the cost of debt? Why?

(5 marks)
d. What is the new price per share? Why? What is the new number of shares?

(6 marks)
Suppose now that another of the assumptions of Modigliani and Miller does
not hold: there is a corporate tax rate of 35%.
e. Without doing any calculation, how will the existence of taxes affect the
calculation of the new price per share? Will it be higher, lower, the same as
your answer in d.? Discuss.
(5 marks)
a. To calculate the price we first estimate expected value as follows:
=
VU
1 3 (100 ) + 1 3 (150 ) + 1 3 (191) +

= $140 million
1.05
Price per Share = $140M / 10 million shares = $14.00.

b. The cost of debt is 5% because the risk of cash flows is diversifiable, so
investors demand no extra compensation for risk.
c. The yield to maturity corresponds to the interest rate that equates
expected value of debt (market value) to its face value. We first have to
calculate the expected value of debt as follows:
18
Value of MIs debt:

1
1
1
(100(1 0.20)) + (130) + (130)
3
3
3
= 107.9365
debt =
1.05
YTM = 1 = .20442 or 20.44%. No, reflects probability of bankruptcy
and loss in value.
d. To calculate the new price per share we first recalculate the value of
equity taking into account the bankruptcy instance.
Value of MIs equity:
L =
1
1
1
0 + 20 + 61
3
3
3
= 25.71429
1.05
Total Value = VL + Vdebt = $25.71429 + $107.9365 = $133.6508

million.
Price per Share = $133.65M / 10 million shares = $13.365.
Shares repurchased: 130/13.365=9.73. New number of shares:
10 9.73 = 0.27.
e. The price will be lower because with taxes part of the value is
appropriated by government.
Question 6
Acquirer Co (AC) has earnings per share of $4. It has 1 million shares
outstanding, each of which has a price of $40 per share. AC is thinking of
buying Target Limited (TL), which has earnings per share of $2, 1 million shares
outstanding, and a price per share of $25. AC will pay for TL by issuing new
shares. There are no expected synergies from the transaction.
a. Assume first that AC pays no premium to buy TL. What are the earnings per
share of the merged firm after the transaction?
(5 marks)
b. Explain the economic rationale behind the change in the earnings per share
(EPS) of TL before and after the merger in point (a). Are the shareholders
of AC any better or worse off after the merger? Carefully discuss your
arguments.
(5 marks)
c. What will the price-earnings ratio (PE) be after the merger when AC pays no
premium? How does this compare to the PE ratio of AC before the merger?
Are the shareholders of AC any better or worse off after the merger?
Carefully discuss your results.
(5 marks)
d. Your DCF calculations indicate that TL should be trading at 28 per share,
what would be an appropriate premium that AC should pay for TL? Carefully
discuss your results.
(5 marks)
e. Explain the free rider problem in the context of takeovers as in Grossman and
Hart (1980).
(5 marks)
a. There are no expected synergies from the transaction; hence the new
earnings of the firm are just the combined earnings of the previous
stand-alone companies. Because TL shares are worth 25 and AC shares
are worth 40, AC will have to issue 25/40 (= 5/8) shares per share of
19
TL to be able to buy it. That means that, in the aggregate, AC will have
to issue 5/8*1 million = 625,000 new shares. After the merger, there
will be 1,625,000 shares outstanding and the total earnings will be
5 million. Thus, the new EPS (earnings per share) will be 6 million /
1625 million = 3.69.
b. The economic rationale can be best understood as follows. In point (a)
the change in EPS simply came from combining the two companies.
One is worth 4 per share and the other is worth 2 per share. However,
a reduction in the EPS of the shareholders of AC need not mean that
they did a bad transaction. Although the shareholders of AC end up
with a lower EPS under the transaction, they have paid a fair price,
exchanging their 4 per share before the transaction for either lower, but
safer EPS after the transaction, or lower EPS that are expected to grow
more in the future. Either way, focusing on EPS alone cannot tell us
whether the shareholders of AC are better or worse off.
c. If AC pays no premium that means, as stated in the problem that
there are no expected synergies. Hence, if we simply combine the two
companies and there are no synergies as indicated, then the total value
of the company will be 40 + 25 = 65 million. The merged firm has
earnings totalling 6 million, so that the PE ratio is 65/6 = 10.83. The
PE ratio of AC before the merger was 40/4 = 10 and TLs was 25/2
= 12.5. To determine whether shareholders of AC are any better or
worse, recall, just as in Part b, that simply focusing on metrics such
as the PE ratio does not tell anything about whether shareholders are
worse or better off. The PE ratio of AC went from 10 to 10.83, but
shareholders are no better or worse off.
d. An appropriate premium can be calculated based on the price at which
other companies are selling. In particular, if other companies are selling
at 28 per share, then a starting point for the premium to pay would be
28/25 = 12% premium.
e. The free-rider problem in the context of Grossman and Hart can be best
explained as follows. The efficiency gains from a valuable takeover are
a public good: all existing shareholders want the takeover to occur as
it increases value, but for the same reason none of them will want to
tender their shares because they want to appropriate the increase in
value. In other words, shareholders would like to free-ride on others to
sell the shares so they can obtain the value gains. The raider will then
have to bid for the shares the original price plus the expected increase
in value in shares making it extremely difficult for takeovers to occur in
practice unless raiders have a pre-existing toehold of shares or there is
a freeze out rule etc.
Question 7
Carrie International (CI) is considering entering the shoe business in the US. The
manager of CI believes that there exists a very narrow window for entering this
market. Because of the Christmas demand, the time is right to invest is either
today or exactly a year from now. Other than these two opportunities, there is
no alternative opportunity to break into this market.
It will cost CI 35 million to enter the shoe market. Because other shoe
manufactures exist and they are public companies, the manager of CI reckons
that the current value of a comparable shoe company is 40 million. The
manager of CI also reckons that 15% percent of the value of the firm is
attributable to the value of the expected free cash flows in the first year of
operation.
20
The flow of customers is uncertain, and so is the value of the shoe company. The
volatility of the expected firm value is 25% per year. The risk free rate is 4%.
a. What is the expected value for CI of entering the shoe business this year?

(4 marks)
b. What is the value of the option to wait to enter the shoe market next year?
When should CI enter the shoe business?
(8 marks)
c. How should the decision of CI change if the expected value of the shoe
company is 36 million instead of 40 million?
(8 marks)
d. Without doing any calculation, explain how would your decision change if the
volatility of the expected firm value is 50%? If the window for entering is not
1 year but 2 years? Explain your answer in the context of call option pricing

(5 marks)
a. The value of investing today corresponds to the difference between the
value of a comparable company and the costs: 40 35 = 5.
b. We apply the Black-Scholes formula, First we adjust the value of the
sales during the first year. S^{*} = S PV(Cash) = 40 (1 0.15).
that the option last for a year we calculate the constants: d1 = 0.1659,
d2 = 0.0841. Plugging the information in the formula we have that
the value of the call option (and the value of waiting) is C = 3.54. The
value of the option is lower than that of investing today (i.e., 3.54 < 5).
Hence Carrie International should not wait.
c. We follow the same procedure as that in point b but now the expected
cash flow is 40 as opposed to 36. First we adjust the value of the
sales during the first year. S^{*} = SPV(Cash) = 36 (1 0.15).
that the option last for a year we calculate the constants: d1=0.2555,
d2= 0.5055. Plugging the information in the formula we have that
the value of the call option (and the value of waiting) is C = 1.90. It is
thus more valuable to enter now (1.90). There is no value in waiting.
The value of investing today is now 36 35 = 1 which is lower than
the value of waiting. Hence they should wait.
d. Because as seen in class and as explained in the guidebook the value
of a call option is increasing in volatility and time, the value of waiting
also increases with volatility and time.
21
Question 8
Pepso is a well-established company that sells apple juice, the value of the
assets in place is 100 and it has no leverage. The CEO of Pepso is considering
entering into the pear juice business. The net cost to the firm of entering this
business is 10 (i.e., the costs exceed the benefits by 10), and the private benefits
to the CEO of this business equal 1.5. The CEO owns 5% of the company and the
discount rate is 0.
a. Find the NPV of investing in the pear juice business for the firm and the CEO.
Would the CEO invest in the pear juice business if Pepso had enough internal
resources?
(5 marks)
The board of Pepso meets to discuss how to use financial policy to align
management interests. They ask you to provide an alternative capital
structure that can discipline the manager.
b. What is the minimum level of debt that aligns CEO preferences to those
of the board? Assume that in the recapitalisation the CEO shares are not
tendered, and that outside investors are nave such that they do not infer any
potential agency conflicts from the financial policy of the firm. (6 marks)
Assume that Pepsos board decides to follow your advice and recapitalizes
the company. The board decides to issue debt with face value of 70, and use
the proceeds to buy back shares.
c. What is the new equity stake of the CEO in the firm?
(3 marks)
After the share repurchase, Pepsos main competitor, Appleok, decides

to launch an aggressive competitive attack. The Head of research and
development at Pepso comes up with a counterattack move that involves
investing in a new and risky technology of apple juice production, which
in case of success can stop the attack, and increase the value of the assets
in place to 150. In case of failure the value of the assets in place decreases
to 80. The probability that the technology is successful is 0.5. Investing in
the technology has a cost of 20. Pepso must raise external equity finance to
invest in the technology. You are hired by Pepsos board to structure the deal.
d. What is the equity stake that an outside investor will require in exchange of
the investment cost of 20?
(6 marks)
e. Explain the concepts of debt overhang and risk shifting
(5 marks)

a. We need to compare the NPV of the business with the outside option
of the firm which is to derive value from the assets in place. For the
CEO it is important to recall that he has private benefits from the pear
investment.
NPV(pear project)= 100 10 = 90 100 = Value Assets in Place
NPV(pear project) for CEO = 5%(100 10) + 1.5 = 6 5 = 5%
(Value Assets in Place)
Given our calculations above, we conclude that: yes, the CEO will
invest because his benefit of investing is higher than the value of his
stake of the assets in place.
b. The board would like to issue debt with face value of D and use the
proceeds to buy back shares, in order to discipline the manager.
Because investors are nave the recapitalisation does not change the
value of the assets in place. The new equity stake of the CEO, after the
recapitalisation can be calculated as:
22
5%(100) = %(100 D) % =
5
100 D
The minimum value of debt for the CEO not to invest in the pear
project is defined by the following inequality, where the value to the
CEO of the project (after the recapitalisation) is forced to be lower than
the value of the assets in place
NPV (pear project) for CEO with recapitalization 5
5
(90 D) + 1.5 5
100 D
D 66 .67
c. The equity stake of the CEO corresponds to the number of shares he
started out with divided by the new number of shares, which is smaller
because some of the shares have been repurchased as part of the
recapitalisation.
=
5
= 16.67%
10070
d. The outside investors just desires to break even, so we use the break
even condition to price the debt:
[0.5 0 + 0.5 (100 70)] = 20
=
20
15
> 1
The equity stake is prohibitive (i.e. higher than 1), which means that
Pepso cannot invest in the technology. The problem here is one of debt
overhang.
e. The concepts of risk shifting and debt overhang are as follows: An
equity stake in a levered firm corresponds to a call option on the cash
flow of the firm with strike equal to the face value of debt. This implies
that if given the chance, shareholders will always pick risky over safe
projects, even if detrimental for firm value, as they are not really
affected by the downside but have extraordinary potential gains from
the upside (in detriment of debtholders). This tendency of shareholders
is known as risk-shifting or asset substitution. One potential solution
is financial restructuring where the face value of debt is reduced.
Shareholders in a firm may forgo positive NPV projects if they have
23

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Examiners commentaries 2015

Examiners commentaries 2015

Information about the subject guide and the Essential reading

FN3092 Corporate finance

What are the examiners looking for?

Examiners commentaries 2015

Examination revision strategy

FN3092 Corporate finance

Examiners commentaries 2015

Information about the subject guide and the Essential reading

Comments on specific questions

Examiners commentaries 2015

Approaching the question

b. The simplest way to understand why dividend policy can be used as a

Expected return (%)

Standard deviation (%)

b. Which of these portfolios are not efficient?

c. Suppose you are prepared to tolerate a standard deviation of 26 percent.

FN3092 Corporate finance

The strategy is thus to lend 32 of the wealth at 12% and invest

the wealth in portfolio G. The maximum expected return is 19.31.

Examiners commentaries 2015

b. Undiversifiable risk, also known as systematic risk, is the volatility in

FN3092 Corporate finance

potential solution is financial restructuring where the face value of

Examiners commentaries 2015

FN3092 Corporate finance

Reading for this question

1 3 (100 ) + 1 3 (150 ) + 1 3 (191) +

Price per share = $140M / 5.6 million shares = $25.00.

1 3 (100 (1 .20 ) ) + 1 3 (125 ) + 1 3 (125 ) +

bankruptcy and loss in value.

Examiners commentaries 2015

After the recapitalization, Pepsos main competitor, Appleok, decides

Reading for this question

c. The equity stake of the CEO corresponds to the number of shares he

FN3092 Corporate finance

 [0.5 0 + 0.5 (100 80)] = 20

Examiners commentaries 2015

Reading for this question

FN3092 Corporate finance

Examiners commentaries 2015

Information about the subject guide and the Essential reading

Comments on specific questions

Expected return (%)

Standard deviation (%)

b. Which of these portfolios are not efficient?

c. Suppose you are prepared to tolerate a standard deviation of 25 percent.

Examiners commentaries 2015

The strategy is thus to lend

of the wealth at 12% and invest

the wealth in portfolio F. The maximum expected return is 18.25.

FN3092 Corporate finance

c. How does CAPM price diversifiable risk?

Examiners commentaries 2015

over the announcement window. The test consists of looking at the

FN3092 Corporate finance

b. The simplest way to understand why dividend policy can be used as a

[0.5 0 + 0.5 (100 80)] = 20