PMP Mock Examination Wishing You Success !!!

PMP Mock Examination- Set X

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PMP Mock Examination Wishing You Success !!!

Question 1
Which of the following theories are illustrated by the principle: Employees who believe that their
efforts will lead to effective performance and who anticipate important rewards for their
accomplishments become productive stay productive.
A) The X-Y theory.
B) Maslows theory.
C) The expectancy theory.
D)Ouchi's Theory Z
E)Herzbergs theory.
Question 2
Which of the following represents the reason why post-contract evaluations are important?
A) The contract fee is contractor performance related.
B) It establishes a historical base for contractor selection.
C) It acts as a point of reference for making legal procurements.
D) Most contracts make them a necessity.
E) They are legally required in many jurisdictions
Question 3
Project Procurement Management includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Administer procurements.
B) Plan Procurements
C) Stakeholder analysis
D)Close Procurements
Question 4
Which of the following represents the BEST way to organize project activities for scheduling?
A) By the critical path.
B) By the task start date.
C) By the date of commencement of project.
D)By work breakdown structure.
Question 5
The authority to accept or reject a requested change in a large and complex project, should rest
with _____?
A) The sponsor.
B) The president.
C) The change control board.
D) The client.
E) The project manager
Question 6
What are procurement documentation, change requests, and project management plan
updates?
A) Tools of administer procurements.
B) Functions of administer procurements.
C) Outputs of administer procurements.

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D) Results of administer procurements.

E) Inputs of administer procurements.

Question 7
Which of the following statements describes quality control?
A)Monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant quality
standards.
B) Evaluating over ll project performance on a regular basis.
C) Taking action to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of they project.
D) Identifying which quality standards are standards are relevant to the project.
Question 8
During the execution of a pipeline project, the pipeline subcontractor proposes an upgrade
of certain material without a change in the schedule or cost. After the change is approved,
where would this change BEST be documented?
A) Project charter
B) Execution phase
C) Procurement Management plan
D) Work breakdown structure
E) Plan quality assurances
Question 9
During a weekly meeting, the engineering department states that they are bringing new
computer-aided design (CAD) system online. They do not anticipate any problems; however, if
problem occur they will work overtime to stay on schedule. As a project manager operating in a
matrix organization, it is important that you.
A) Assess the cost implication of this activity in the implementation phase.
B) Request that the IT departments commitment be in writing.
C) Assess the risk of this activity and develop a response strategy.
D)Note this information in the minutes of the conference report meeting.
E) Request that the IT department delay implementation of the CRM application system until your
project is completed
Question 10
The project plan has been developed. A project end date has been established. The customer
later requests additional work to be included in the project, but will not renegotiate the end date.
Cost is not a factor. The project team should immediately.
A) Invoke the change control process.
B) Initiate contingency plans.
C) Modify the original project scope to include the additional work.
D) Commit to original project scope and open a new project to handle additional work.
E) Request project team to work overtime to meet end date

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Question 11
An individuals willingness to take a risk can be determined by:
A) Decision tree modeling.
B) Monte Carlo method,
C) Sensitivity analysis.
D) Utility theory.
E) Maslows hierarchy of needs.
Question 12
To determine the staffing requirements of the project, the project manager FIRST needs a(n);
A) Resource breakdown schedule.
B) Responsibility assignment matrix.
C) Work breakdown structure.
D) Organization chart
Question 13
As the project manager, which of the following techniques would you employ to control the project
Schedule?
A) Pareto diagram.
B) Statistical sampling.
C) Performance measurement.
D) Parametric modeling.
E) All of the above.
Question 14
The communications management plan is primarily dependent on the:
A) Length of the project.
B) Physical location of team members.
C) Specific needs of the project.
D) Project deliverables.
E) Distance between project teams.
Question 15
Technical staffs tend to be particularly responsive to:
A) Referent power.
B) Formal power.
C) Functional power.
D) Expert power.
E) Ad hoc power
Question: 16
The determination of conformance with scope requirements is called ____?
A) Plan quality.
B) Perform Quality Control.
C) Project Quality Management.
D) Perform Quality Assurances.

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Question: 17
The person responsible for obtaining funding for a new projects conceptual study is the:
A) Project manager.
B) President.
C) Chief financial officer.
D) Project sponsor.
E) The client.
Question: 18
The adjustment of task schedules in order to deploy human resource more effectively is called
resource:
A) Fast tracking.
B) Loading.
C) Crashing.
D) Leveling.
E) Smoothing.
Question: 19
Which of the following conflict resolution approaches is likely to lead to the MOST lasting
solutions?
A) Negotiating
B) Smoothing
C) Problem-solving
D) Compromising
E) Communicating
Question: 20
A primary function of the change control board is to:
A) Review the impact of change request.
B) Issue change requests.
C) Represent top management interests.
D) Identify new areas of project work.
E) Assign new team members to increase output.
Question 21
A projects scope statement is developed during scope:
A) The initiation phase.
B) The implementation phase.
C) The planning phase.
D) The verification phase.
E) The definition phase
Question 22
To verify that the scope of the project is being met, it is necessary to:
A) Omit problems from the conference report.
B) Ensure that changes to the project character are reflected in the definition.
C) Verify the project schedule is on track.

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D) Define causes and symptoms of identified problems

E) Conduct periodic inspections, reviews, and walk-through
Question 23
Random variance in a process, as measured by the standard deviation can be directly reduced
by:
A) Studying scatter diagrams.
B) Increasing the number of quality inspectors.
C) Improving the overall system of production.
D) Identifying patterns of variance.
E) Prohibiting any overtime work
Question 24
The process to change a contract clause is __________ the project change control system.
A) Integrated within.
B) Unrelated to.
C) The same as.
D) An input to.
E) None of the above
Question 25
When working in an environment that uses learning curves, the most effective plan for creating the perception
that pay is related to performance is to provide the team members with an individual salary plus bonus based
upon:A. Group or team productivity
B. Cost effectiveness
C. Individual productivity
D. Rating system developed by the project manager
E. All of the above
Question 26
Which of the following will you as the project manager need to determine the impact of a
requested scope change by a customer? (Choose all that apply.)
A) Performance reports.
B) A Work breakdown structure
C) A change request
D) A scope management plan
E) A Monte Carlo simulation
Question 27
Of the following estimates, which MOST accurately reflects the actual cost of the project?
A) Top-down
B) Bottom-up
C) Budget
D) Appropriations
Question 28
The cost-effective rule for shortening a project is to crash the:-

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A) Critical tasks
B) Non-critical tasks
C) Tasks with lowest cost
D) Tasks with highest cost
Question 29
A response to a risk event that was not defined in advance of is occurrence is called a:
A) Risk mitigation response.
B) Workaround response.
C) Corrective action response.
D) Contingency response.
E) Incidence response
Question 30
A scope change requested by a client after acceptance of the design has potential impact on
several components of the project.
A) Convince the client to consider the request only upon completion of the original project.
B) Make the change if it is critical, regardless of its cost and impact, and inform the change
control board.
C) Convince the client to postpone the change.
D) Estimate the impact to the cost and schedule and seek the approval before proceeding.
E) Perform a detailed analysis of the impact on the cost and schedule, and call a project team
Meeting
Question 31
The critical path needs to be reduced by 25%. All of the following actions are relevant to
accomplishing this objective EXCEPT:
A) Adding resources.
B) Eliminating float.
C) Crashing time schedule.
D) Paralleling activities.
E) All of the above
Question 32
What type of organizational structure usually experiences the MOST team anxiety at project
Close-out?
A) Weak matrix
B) Projectized
C) Strong matrix
D) Functional
E) Balanced matrix.
Question 33
Bar charts generally illustrate:
A) Progress of status.
B) The critical path.
C) Budget relation ships.
D) Logical relationships

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Question 34
The development of a cohesive project team occurs:
A) Throughout the project.
B) During planning.
C) During initiation.
D) At the kick-off meeting.
E) During conflict resolution.
Question 35
Which of the following techniques is used to control the project schedule?
A) Pareto diagram
B) Performance measurement
C) Parametric modeling
D) Statistical sampling
Question 36
Communication between the project manager and the project team members should take place:
A) Via daily status report.
B) Through approved documented forms.
C) By written and oral communication.
D) Through the formal chain of command.
E) None of the above
Question 37
What happens if the level of conformance directly increases as a consequence of new
processes?
A) Required monitoring cost should be more predictable.
B) Required monitoring cost should stay the same.
C) Required monitoring cost should decrease.
D) Required monitoring cost should increase
Question 38
An individual who is working on the satisfaction of physiological needs has essentially satisfied which needs?
A) Safety
B) None of the options
C) Esteem
D) Self-actualization
Question 39
What should you as the project manager do in the event of reduced funding on your project?
A) Perform detailed financial analysis and renegotiate for adequate funding.
B) Inform the customer that the project will be delayed an adjust resources accordingly.
C) Only do as much work as the new budget permits and document actions taken.
D) Inform the customer of impacts and negotiate a change in scope.
E) Abandon the project until funds are made available

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Question 40
Which of the following scheduling techniques incorporates a form of risk assessment?
A) Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)
B) Program evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)
C) Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)
D) Critical Path Method (CPM)
E) All of the above
Question 41
Which of the following represents an example of developing alternative activity sequences?
A) Rolling wave.
B) Risk aversion.
C) Rework.
D) Contingency planning.
E) All of the above

Question 42
How many ADDITIONAL lines of communication will be created when the number of team
members involved during the project increases from five to ten?
A) 10
B) 35
C) 45
D) 55
E) 50
Question 43
Which of the following is NOT necessary when developing a detailed project cost estimate?
(Choose all that apply.)
A) Management plan
B) Resource requirements
C) Cost plan
D) Project charter
E) All of the above
Answer A,C, D
Question 44
Which of the following statements describes the result of resource leveling?
A) Push out the end date of the project.
B) Increase total costs for the project.
C) Require more resources.
D) Require fewer resources.
E) All of the above
Question 45
Project management is the preferred management approach EXCEPT for:

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A) Product manufacturing environment.

B) Cross functional tasks.
C) Unique operations.
D) Time-constrained deliverables.
Question 46
Which of the following is the distinguishing characteristic between the network diagram and the
Gantt chart?
A) dependencies
B) Few resources
C) Critical dates
D) Key milestones
Question 47
Which of the following is included in estimate activity durations?
A) Information from previous experience
B) Project team knowledge
C) Time studies
D) Commercial duration databases
E) All of the above
Answer A, B, D
Question 48
Which of the following statements BEST describes what project progress reports are?
A) It is used to predict future status and progress.
B) The project sponsor makes the most use of it.
C) It is an important communications element.
D) It is needed on a weekly basis
Question 49
Consider the following situation: The customer was given a monthly report that indicates zero
Schedule variance. One of the teams members are aware of at least one milestone that has
not been achieved. This missed milestone will result in an overall delay in the project.
Which of the following items were not reported on adequately?
A) Communication plan variance
B) Resource management plan
C) Critical path status
D) Risk analysis
E) All of the above
Question 50
There are two major types of reserves used on projects. The _____ is for (usually major) scope changes
that were not considered as part of the original plan, whereas the _____ is to compensate for minor changes
in estimating, escalation factors.
A. Management reserve, unplanned allowance fund.
B. Management reserve, contingency.

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C. Unplanned allowance fund, budgetary reserve.

D. Contingency reserve, management reserve.
E. Unplanned reserve, planned reserve.
Question 51
To determine what causes the majority of quality problems in a process, a very useful tool is the:
A. cause and effect diagrams.
B. Flow chart.
C. Control chart.
D. Pareto chart.
E. Trend chart.
Question 52
Which technique would you be using if you analyze which sequence of activities has the
least amount of flexibility when you need to predict project duration?
A) Critical path
B) Dependency diagramming
C) PERT
D) Gantt chart
E) Monte Carlo method
Question 53
A forward and backward pass indicted total float is equal to 20 days. This indicated that:
A) The critical path must be evaluated to determine actual slack time.
B) The project is estimated to be-20 days ahead of schedule.
C) Two branches converge on a node.
D) Duration compression may be required to meet the original project scope.
E) None of the above
Question 54
Comparing actual to baseline schedules, examining the statement of work, understanding cost
overruns, all occur during a:
A) Project audit.
B) Contract negotiation.
C) Stakeholder meeting.
D) Resource leveling activity.
Question 55
Expectancy theory as applied to project management implies that:
A. Team members will work hardest for those project goals that also bring satisfaction to personal goals
B. The more rewards that the project manager provides, the better the performance of the team
C. The team will work the hardest on those goals that are clearly explained by the project manager
D. Employees will work hardest for those project goals which are accompanied by high levels of authority for the
individual team members
E. None of the above
Question 56
Non-verbal communication includes:
A. Body movement
B. All of the options
C. Facial expressions
D. The way we move our hands
Question 57

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Which of the following describes Fast Tracking?

A) Developing workarounds for previous problems.
B) An increase in project risk.
C) Getting people to work longer with overtime.
D) Meeting schedule objectives by adding resources.
E) Circumventing loopholes.
Question 58
Which of the following are the outputs of the Plan procurements process?
A) Procurement decisions, selected sellers
B) Change requests, source selection criteria, procurement decisions
C) closed procurements, make or buy decisions
D) Change requests, source selection criteria, procurement documentation
Question 59
Cost control includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Informing stakeholders of changes.
B) Recording appropriate changes to the cost baseline.
C) Monitoring cost performance.
D) Preparing cost estimates
Question 60
Which of the following is illustrated by a resource histogram?
A) Expected requirements for critical path activities.
B) Expected resource usage by time period.
C) Resource assignments by work package
D) Resource assignments by activities
Question 61
All of the following are indirect costs EXCEPT:
A) Payroll tax cost.
B) Subcontract costs.
C) Insurance costs.
D) Accounting support costs
Question 62
Which of the following requires an expenditure of the resources when working within an
arrow diagramming method?
A) Histograms
B) Milestone events
C) Path activities
D) Accounting support costs.
E) Pareto diagram
Question 63
The Person primarily responsible for the quality of deliverables is the.
A) The quality control inspector.
B) The quality controller.
C) The design engineer.
D) The project manager.

Question 64

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Which of the following are indicative of duration estimates?

A) How many work periods an activity is expected to last.
B) How many hours a resource will work on an activity.
C) When an activity is likely to finish.
D) When an activity is likely to start.
Question 65
Which of the following should be done by the project manager upon completion of the project?
A) Planning a turnover meeting.
B) Obtaining a sign-off from the customer.
C) Team celebration.
D) Project evaluation.
E) Performance evaluation of team members
Question 66
Which of the following represents the pinnacle of Maslows hierarchy of needs?
A) Survival.
B) Safety.
C) Physiological satisfaction.
D) Self-actualization
Question 67
Which of the following can be used to measure overall project performance?
A) Gantt chart.
B) Work breakdown structure.
C) PERT chart.
D) Earned value chart.
E) A flow chart.
Question 68
The formal invitation to submit a price for specified goods/services is usually referred to as:
A. request for quotation
B. request for proposal
C. tender invitation
D. bid invitation
E. A and B only
Question 69
Which of the following statements BEST describes an Estimate At Completion (EAC)?
A) It is a periodic evaluation of total value of work performed to date.
B) It is a periodic evaluation of total cost of the unfinished work.
C) It is periodic evaluations of total resources projected at project complain.
D) It is a periodic evaluation of total forecasted project cost
Question 70
Which of the following utility functions reflects risk-aversion:
A. uniform
B. decreasing
C. increasing
D. exponential
E. B and D only
Question 71

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On a fixed price/lump sum contract, the change control procedure in place requires written
authorization for all changes. Once of the project team members verbally instructed a
supplier to perform work outside of its contracted scope of work. The change resulted in a
200% budget overrun. The project manger want to address with a project team member
the apparent disregard for following directions. What conflict resolution style should be
used?
A) Compromising
B) Forcing
C) Smoothing
D) Problem-solving
E) Withdrawal

Question 72
Which of the following are the essentials regarding a project close-out? (Choose all that
apply.)
A) Documenting formal acceptance of the product.
B) Documenting the final risk assessment.
C) Documenting the final project scope.
D) Documenting the lessons learned.
E) All of the above
Answer A, C, D
Question 73
When selecting a project manager for a large project in a technical industry, the MOST important
selection criterion is:
A) Communication and integration skills.
B) Specific technical specialization.
C) Financial management experience.
D) Industry and business experience.
E) Expertise and qualifications in relevant industrial field
Question 74
Which of the following is useful in risk identification because it permits a systemic evaluation of
the work?
A) Work breakdown structure.
B) Design specification
C) Project slow chart
D) Project chart
E) Conference chart

Question 75
Which of the following outputs is a result of project plan execution?
A) Change requests.
B) Responsibility assignment matrix

C) Work breakdown structure

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D) Project character
Question 76
A deficiency in characteristics that render the quality of the material/service unacceptable is usually referred
to as:
A. defective
B. defect
C. non-conformance
D. poor workmanship
E. lack of fitness for use
Question 77
Which of the following is required for scope change control?
A) Risk mitigation
B) Charter update
C) Verify scope
D) Cost-benefit analysis
Question 78
A line manager possesses information which the project team needs, but withholds the information. The
results in a(n):
A. Blindspot
B. Facade
C. region of influence
D. Communication power base
E. None of the above
Question 79
Statistical cost estimating techniques (based upon history), are called _____ estimates and are a
_____ approach.
A. Definitive, bottom up
B. Parametric, top down
C. Parametric, bottom up.
D. Analogy, top down
E. Analogy, bottom up
Question 80
To determine the impact of a change that has occurred, which of the following should be taken?
A) Re-evaluate the work breakdown structure.
B) Assess the communication policy
C) Review the earned value
D) Performance measurement
Question 81
The responsibility assignment matrix is a project management tool used to:
A) Ensure team members understand their specific roles.
B) Develop the work breakdown structure based on available resources.
C) Establish project members availability to work on the project.

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D) Depict the projects organizational structure

Question 82
Which quality management tool would be used to determine potential causes of a production problem?
A. control chart.
B. scatter diagram.
C. Ishikawa diagram
D. histogram.
E. run chart.
Question 83
The Administer procurement activities are performed at:
A) Customer acceptance
B) Completion of execution
C) Product completion
D) Completion of each of the planning, execution and monitoring project phase.
Question 84
Which of the following options would you take to determine what impact a change had?
A) Re-evaluating the work breakdown structure.
B) Performance measurement.
C) Assessing the communication policy.
D) Reviewing the earned value
Question 85
The most important reason for stakeholder analysis in preparing a communication management
is to:
A) develop the stateholder contact database
B) publish a contact list of all team members for the stakeholders.
C) determine the stakeholders needs.
D) ensure timely distribution of meeting minutes of stakeholders
Question 86
The primary reason for creating communication structure is to:
A) define organizational relationship
B) define communication methods
C) establish frequency of communications
D) Identify all stakeholders
Question 87
An appropriate sequence for risk management activities includes:
A) Planning, Identification, quantification, response development and control.
B) Identification, planning, control and assessment.
C) Factor identification mitigation management and response.
D) Quantification avoidance acceptance and mitigation

Question 88

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Critical project design information is diliverd to the project via electronic mail this couses the
sponsor to complain about receiving inadequate product design documentation the cause of this
problem is poor?
A) reporting structure
B) communication plan
C) change control process.
D) graphic software
Question 89
Affinity diagrams are used to:
A. categorize large amounts of data.
B. determine root cause.
C. show the relationship among variables.
D. determine if a process is in control.
Answer - A
Question 90
The most precise or accurate estimate for determining project costs is the _____ estimate.
A. Definitive.
B. Analogy
C. Budget
D. Modified standards.
E. Rule of thumb.
Answer - A
Question 91
A _____ estimate prepared from layouts, sketches and flowsheets, should be accurate within (-10, +25%).
A. Parametric
B. Definitive.
C. Budget
D. Bottom up.
E. Top down.
Answer - C
Question 92
A primary objective of project initiation is to:
A) create definition mission statement
B) define activities and milestone for the schedule.
C) commit the organization to begin the next phase.
D) develop the scope statement
Question 93
The BEST way to ensure that applicable standards and regulations are met is to:
A) conduct performance SWOT analysis
B) create decision models.
C) develop a quality management plan.
D) develop a risk management plan

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Question 94
Assigning resources in an attempt to find the shortest project schedule consistent with fixed resource limits
is called resource _____.
A. Leveling
B. Partitioning
C. Allocation
D. Quantification
Question 95
A make-or buy analysis is performed as part of :
A) Conduct Procurements
B) Plan Procurements
C) Competitive bidding
D) Administer Procurements
Question 96
The most difficult decision for the executive sponsors to make at the end-of-phase review meeting is:
A. Canceling the project.
B. Authorizing scope changes for the next phase.
C. Authorizing budget increases for the next phase based upon scope changes.
D. Budget allocations for the next phase
Question 97
Which of the following is used to define the activities to be performed by a contractor?
A) pert chart
B) work breakdown structure
C) statement of work
D) responsibility matrix
Question 98
What are the most impotant factors in developing a stakeholders communication plan?
A) team development and technical direction
B) work breakdown structure and project schedule
C) contract management and vendor selection process
D) project sponsors and their needs
Question 99
Poor communication and unresolved conflicts are indicative of:
A) A complex project.
B) A crashed schedule.
C) An ineffective project team
D) Undefined team roles.
Question 100
Pareto analysis cause and effect and flow charts are all tools used in quality:
A) control
B) benchmark

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C) planning
D) verification
Question 101
You received an invoice form your contractor in fixed price contract with a payment schedule tied
to the completion of milestones. What is the most important thing to review:A) activities in progress
B) number of hours expended
C) work completed
D) schedule compliance
Question 102
The term that best describes the 'right' to manipulate or change others is called?
A. Authority
B. Power
C. Leadership
D. Coerciveness
E. Project charter
Question 103
One of the project implementation phases has reached closure. the project sponsor requests
additional features in the end product. Which project management tool should be used to
evaluate this request?
A) scope performance measurement
B) Plan scope analysis
C) redefined project scope model
D) Control scope
Question 104
Which of the following is most likely to require a change in the project schedule?
A) renegotiation of union contract
B) equipment replacement
C) cost over runs
D) loss of personnel.
Question 105
From the contractors point of view a change management program should:
A) be implemented at the beginning of the project to avoid performing additional services
without compensation
B) Have an onsite representative to monitor changes and ensure full representation and
Protection
C) significantly improve customer satisfaction
D) ensure that the owner promptly compernsates the contractor for changed work
Question 106
Which of the following is associated with a buyer's request for material to meet a particular need:
A. material warranty
B. material guarantees

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C. implied warranty of fitness for a particular purpose

D. None of the above
Question 107
"A Project Manager is at the project kick-off meeting. He confidently states the vision and mission for
the project. This PM is exhibiting the following leadership style:
A) Hierarchical
B) Authoritarian
C) Charismatic
D) Associative
Question 108
You are in charge of developing a new product for a bank. Your quality metrics are based on the 80th
percentile of each of the last three products developed. This is an example of:
A) Statistical sampling
B) Metrics
C) Benchmarking
D) Operational definitions
Question 109
Scoring models, comparative approaches and benefit contribution are all part of:
A) Constrained optimization models for selecting a project
B) Benefit measurement models for selecting a project
C) Quality measurement techniques
D) Distribute information tools
Question 110
During the schedule development process the Project Manager may have to go through several iterations
of the schedule before establishing the schedule baseline. All of the following are tools and techniques that
may be used during this process:
A) Critical Path Method, GERT, Resource Requirements
B) Resource Leveling Heuristics, Mathematical Analysis, Calendars
C) Duration compression, Resource Leveling Heuristics, PERT
D) PERT, PERT, Leads and Lags
Question 111
Which of the following models of conflict resolution allows a cooling off period, but seldom resolves the issue
in the long term?
A) Problem solving
B) Withdrawal
C) Forcing
D) Smoothing

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Question 112
Project scope is:
A) The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions.
B) The features and functions that are to be included in a product or service.
C) A narrative description of work to be performed under contract.
D) a and b
E) all of the above
Question 113
The unique identifiers assigned to each item of a WBS are often known collectively as:
A) The work package codes
B) The project identifiers
C) The code of accounts
D) The element accounts
Question 114
What is the difference between verify scope and perform quality control?
A) There is no difference.
B) Verify Scope is primarily concerned with the correctness of work results while perform quality control is
primarily concerned with the acceptance of work results.
C) Verify scope is concerned with ensuring that changes are beneficial while perform quality control is concerned
that the overall work results are correct.
D)Verify scope is primarily concerned with the acceptance of work results while perform quality control is
primarily concerned with the correctness of work results.
Question 115
Which of the following is NOT an example of a type of schedule report?
A) Gantt chart
B) Milestone chart
C) fishbone diagram
D) network diagram
Question 116
What is the primary purpose of a milestone chart?
A) To show task dependencies.
B) To show resource constraints.
C) To show significant events in the project such as completion of key deliverables.
D) To highlight the critical path.
E) All of the above
Question 117
When should the project manager be assigned?
A) As early in the project as feasible.
B) Preferably before much project planning has been done.

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C) At least prior to the start of project plan execution.

D) All of the above.
Question 118
During what Time Management Process are the specific activities that must be performed to produce the
deliverables in the WBS identified and documented?
A) Sequence Activities
B) Define Activities
C) Develop Schedule
D) Estimate Activity Durations
Question 119
A period of time in work weeks which includes non-working days is called:
A) Elapsed Time
B) Duration
C) Effort
D)Earned Time
Question 120
The amount of time that an activity can be delayed from its early start without delaying the project end
date is called:
A) Negative Float
B) Free Float
C) Total Float
D) Float
E) c and d
Question 121
What are you likely to see as a project progresses in a schedule with must fix dates and little or no slack?
A) Lots of free float
B) Idle resources
C) Negative float
D) Positive float
Question 122
Given the following estimates: Optimistic 3 days, Pessimistic 9 days, and most likely 6 days, what is the PERT
weighted average?
A) 6
B) 4
C) 6.3
D) 6.1
Question 123
What is the standard deviation for the estimates in the above problem?

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A) 0.6
B) 2
C) 1.5
D) 0.5
E) 1
Question 124
In crashing the schedule, you would focus on:
A) Accelerating as many tasks as possible
B) Accelerating just the non-critical tasks
C) Accelerating the performance of tasks on the critical path
D) None of the above
Question 125
To calculate the late start and late finish dates for a set of tasks, you must do:
A) An analysis of the critical path
B) A forwards pass
C) A backwards pass
D) a and c
E) all of the above
Question 126
An activity that consumes no time or resources and shows only that a dependency exists between two
activities is called:
A) A milestone
B) A hammock
C) A dummy activity
D) a and c
E) all of the above
Question 127
What is critical path?
A) The shortest path through the network, which represents the longest amount of time in which a project
can be completed.
B) The path with zero float.
C) The longest path through the network, which represents the shortest amount of time in which a project
can be completed.
D) The path with the most activities with the longest durations.
E) b and c
Question 128
A network diagram that uses nodes to represent activities and arrows to show the activity dependencies and allows
no loops is called:
A) AOA
B) AON

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C) ADM
D) GERT
Question 129
Life cycle costing:
A) Includes acquisition, operating, and disposal costs when evaluating various alternatives.
B) Includes only the cost of the development or acquisition of a product or service.
C) Does not take into consideration the effect of project decisions on the cost of using the resulting product.
D)B and C
Question 130
Parametric cost estimating involves:
A) Calculating individual cost estimates for each work package.
B) Using rates and factors based on historical experience to estimate costs.
C) Using the actual cost of a similar project to estimate total project costs.
D) A and B
E) B and C
Question 131
The process of evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the project
will satisfy the relevant quality standards is called:
A) Perform Quality Assurance
B) Perform Quality Control
C) Plan quality
D) Quality Review
Question 132
The process of monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant quality standards
is called:
A) Perform Quality Assurance
B) Perform Quality Control
C) Plan quality
D) Quality Review
Question 133
A histogram ordered by frequency of occurrence that shows how many results were generated by each
identified cause is:
A) Statistical Histogram
B) Juran Histogram
C) Fishbone Diagram
D) Pareto Diagram
Question 134
The practice of ceasing mass inspections and ending awards based on price is credited to:

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A) Edward Deming
B) Philip Crosby
C) Juran
D) Pareto
Question 135
An advertiser who uses a movie or sports star to endorse a product is trying to use power.
A. Referent
B. Legitimate
C. Reward
D. Influential
Question 136
Back charges refers to:
A. transferring charges from sub-contractors to the owner
B. adjusting payments to reflect late invoices consequence
C. Both A & B
D. gaining restitution from the owner for non payment
E. the cost of corrective action taken by the owner and charged to the contractor for non-conformance
Question 137
80% of the problems are found in 20% of the work is a concept of:
A) Edward Deming
B) Philip Crosby
C) Juran
D) Pareto
Question 138
A structured tool, usually industry or activity specific, used to verify that a set of required steps has been
performed is called:
A) Quality Policy
B) Check list
C) Trend analysis
D) Pareto diagram
Question 139
A tool that analyzes the inputs to a process to identify the causes of errors is called:
A) Cause and effect diagram
B) Scatter diagram
C) Ishikawa diagram
D)Pareto diagram
E) a and c

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Question 140
The concept of zero inventory is called:
A) Six sigma
B) Continuous improvement
C) Just in Time
D) Zero defects
Question 140
The project manager's leadership style should be matched to the corresponding developmental level of the
project team and should move through successive steps in the following order:
A) Disciplinary, autocratic, participative
B) Staff planning, team training, performance monitoring
C) Team building, team development, responsibility assignment
D) Directing, coaching, supporting, delegating
Question 141
Forcing, as a means to manage conflict:
A) Exerts one's view at the potential expense of another party.
B) Emphasizes areas of agreement while avoiding points of disagreement.
C) Establishes a lose-lose situation.
D) a and c
Question 142
When should the project expeditor form of organization be used?
A) When the project is extremely important to the organization.
B) When a project's cost and importance are relatively low.
C) When the project manager has a lot of responsibility and accountability.
D) When the organization's primary source of revenue is derived from projects.
Question 143
The belief that management's high levels of trust, confidence and commitment to workers leads to high levels
of motivation and productivity on the part of workers is a part of which motivation theory?
A) Theory Y
B) Theory Z
C) Theory X
D) Contingency Theory
Question 144
Which of the following is part of the expectency theory of motivation?
A) Clear, specific, and challenging goals generally motivate team members.
B) Project managers should ensure that tasks assigned to project participants match their skills and
C) the organizational climate is conducive to helping them meet their needs and acheiving a sense
D) of competence.
E) People tend to be highly productive and motivated if they believe their efforts will lead to successful results and
that success will lead to personal rewards.
F) b and c

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G) All of the above are part of the expectency theory of motivation

Question 145
Which of the following statements concerning compromise as a conflict resolution is false?
A) Neither party wins but both parties get some degree of satisfaction.
B) Important aspects of the project may be hindered in order to acheive personal objectives.
C) Compromise is generally considered a lose-lose situation.
D) A Definitive resolution is seldom acheived.
Question 146
Using the PMBOK definition of contingency reserve, which of the following statements about contingency
reserves is false?
A) A contingency reserve is a separately planned quantity used to allow for future situations which may be planned
for only in part.
B) Contingency reserves may be set aside for known unknowns.
C) Contingency reserves may be set aside for unknown unknowns.
D) Contingency reserves are normally included in the project's cost and schedule baselines.
Question 147
The normal risk of doing business that carries opportunities for both gain and loss is called:
A) favorable risk
B) opportunity risk
C) pure risk
D) business risk
Question 148
A risk response which involves eliminating a threat is called:
A) Mitigation
B) Deflection
C) Avoidance
D)Transfer
E) b and d
Question 149
Company expenses such as auditing costs, supervision, office supplies, building rent and maintenance are elements
of the:
A. Overhead rates
B. Capital budgeting process
C. Contracts and administration costing system
D. Fringe benefits packages
Question 150
Which of the following statements is false?
A) Uncertainty and risk are greatest at the start of the project and lowest at the end.
B) The amount at stake is lowest at the end of the project and greatest at the start.

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C) Expected monetary value can be expressed as the product of the risk event probability and the
D) Risk event value.
E) Opportunities are positive outcomes of risk.
Question 151
A contingency plan is executed when:
A) A risk is identified.
B) An identified risk occurs.
C) When a workaround is needed.
D)All of the above
E) b and c
Question 152
Management reserves are used to handle which type of risk?
A) Unknown unknowns
B) Known unknowns
C) business risks
D) pure risks
Question 153
Which of the following techniques accounts for path convergence and generally estimates project durations
more accurately?
A) CPM
B) PERT
C) Schedule simulation
D) Path convergence method
Question 154
Most schedule simulations are based on some form of which of the following?
A) Delphi
B) PERT
C) CPM
D) Monte Carlo Analysis
Question 155
When should a risk be avoided?
A) When the risk event has a low probability of occurrence and low impact.
B) When the risk event is unacceptable -- generally one with a very high probability of occurrence and high impact.
C) When it can be transferred by purchasing insurance.
D) A risk event can never be avoided.
Question 156
If a project has an 80% chance of having the scope defined by a certain date and a 70% chance of obtaining
approval for the scope by a certain date, what is the probability of both events occurring?

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A) 75%
B) 65%
C) 50%
D) 56%
E) 66%
Question 157
The independence of two events in which the occurrence of one is not related to the occurrence of the other
is called:
A) event phenomenon
B) independent probability
C) statistical independence
D) statistical probability
Question 158
The one document that should always be used to help identify risk is the:
A) Plan risk management
B) WBS
C) Scope Statement
D) Project Charter
E) Contigency Plan
Question 159
Risks are accepted when:A) You develop a contingency plan to execute should the risk event occur.
B) You accept the consequences of the risk.
C) You transfer the risk to another party.
D) You reduce the probability of the risk event occurring
E) a and b
Question 160
A unilateral contract under which the seller is paid a preset amount per unit of service is called:
A) A cost reimbursable contract
B) A lump sum contract
C) A unit price contract
D) A fixed price contract
E) b or d
Question 161
Which of the following is a method for quantifying qualitative data in order to minimize the effect of personal
prejudice on source selection?
A) Weighting system
B) Screening system
C) Selecting system

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D) none of the above

E) all of the above
Question 162
Under what circumstances is it better for a contractor to subcontract?
A) The subcontractor possesses special technical and engineering skills that the contractor does not have.
B) The work to be subcontracted represents almost all of the overall work effort.
C) The subcontractor can perform the work at a lower cost than the contractor.
D) all the above
E) a and c
Question 163
Which of the following are characteristics of a purchase order?
A) A bilateral contract used for low dollar items
B) A unilateral contract used when routine, standard cost items are required.
C) A bilateral contract used for high dollar, standard items
D) a and c
Question 164
In which stage of the negotiation meeting are points of concession identified?
A) probing
B) closure
C) agreement
D) scratch bargaining
Question 165
Which type of warranty is enacted if a service or product does not meet the level of quality specified in the
contract?
A) Implied warranty of merchantability
B) Implied warranty of specified quality
C) Express warranty
D) none of the above
Question 166
It is argumentative whether project managers actually control costs. Which of the following is the most common
element over which the project manager may have some degree of control?
A. Direct labor dollars
B. All of the options
C. Overhead rates.
D. Procurement costs.
E. None of the above
F. Direct labor hours.

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Question 167
The quality team for the project consists of several groups. Which of the following project participants plays
the most important role in the quality function?
A) Customer
B) Project Manager
C) Project Team
D) Vendors and suppliers
Question 168
In order to anticipate your management's approval of the amount of risk you plan to take on with your chosen
project approach, you would use
A) Probability analysis
B) The Delphi method
C) The Monte Carlo method
D) The utility theory
Question 169
A scope management plan describes:
A) An assessment of the stability of the stakeholder environment
B) A highly detailed approach to managing the work breakdown structure scope
C) How the project scope will be managed and how scope changes will be integrated into the project
D) The stakeholder's expectation on how changes will be identified and by what priority they will be
addressed
Question 170
The logical relationship that communicates a delay between the start/finish of one activity and the start/finish
of another activity is referred to as:
A. Slack
B. Free float.
C. Restricted float.
D. Lag
Question 171
You are the controller on your project. Your project manager has requested that you provide him with a
forecast of project costs for the next 12 months. He needs this information to determine if the budget should
be increased or decreased on this major construction project. In addition to the usual information sources,
which of the following should you also consider?
A) Cost estimates from similar projects
B) The WBS
C) Long-range weather forecasts
D) Existing change requests
Question 172
Over the life cycle of the project, the quality of information:

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A) Is dependent on the source and the disciplines used to ensure the information is kept up-to-date.
B) Should remain constant if good communication plan is applied throughout the project.
C) Increases from concept, to development, to implementation, to termination.
D) Increases from concept to development to implementation, and then decreases during and after
termination.
Question 173
Monte Carlo simulation:
A. Was originally developed by Dr. Carlo
B. Is a European technique for assessing project risks
C. A, B and C only
D. is a technique to stimulate create risk event resolution
E. assumes the future risk events will occur at random according to predetermined probability distributions
Question 174
A program is:
A) A number of subprojects divided into manageable components enabling a project team to ensure the completion
of a desired outcome.
B) A group of projects managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available from managing them
individually.
C) A project plan developed by key management for a desired outcome.
D) A regular, ongoing operation, which involves many projects.
Question 175
Which of the following is not an external-unpredictable risk?
A) changes in government regulations
B) natural hazards
C) unexpected environmental side effects
D) inflation
Question 176
The delphi Method is best suited for:
A) Decision-making
B) Control costs
C) Overhead rate estimating
D) Team discussions
Question 177
The sum of the products and services to be provided as a project is called:
A) scope
B) deliverables
C) project charter
D) data items

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Question 178
Maslow ranked Human needs from the highest to lowest
A) self actualization; self promotion; social; security and physiological needs
B) self esteem; self actualization; social; security and physiological
C) self actualization; self esteem; social; security and physiological
D) self fullfilment; self esteem; social; security and physiological
Question 179
Your project is in the final test stage, the user acceptance test. It meets all the prouduct specs and is under
planned costs. In term of schedule, this project is ahead. Your customer meet you and requested that he will
not accept the product unless you make several changes. What you should do is:
A) get the list of the changes and estimate all of them. If the total cost is still within the baseline, you just do it
B) estimate the costs and send this to your customer requesting contract modification
C) ask the customer to file a Change request
D) sit with the customer to review the product specs and tell him/her that you have completed the project.
Question 180
Which of the following statements concerning contract type is correct?
A) A fixed price contract contains the most risk for the buyer.
B) Cost reimbursable contracts offer sellers the highest profit potential.
C) Lump sum contracts offer sellers the greatest profit potential.
D) Unit price contracts are illegal in many jurisdictions.
Question 181
Herzberg identified factors, which, if present, will lead to increased motivation. A typical factor would be:
A) Good supervision
B) Job security
C) Regular promotions
D) Good salary
E) A dental plan
Question 182
Your customer ask for a small change in the project, which was not budgetted in the project. It is a small
effort as compared to the total project and you need the goodwill for a multimillion dollar on the pipeline.
You will:A) refuse to do the work
B) agree to do the work at no charge
C) do the work and bill him later
D) assess the cost and schedule impact and tell them you will decide later
Question 183
You are responsible for ensuring that your seller's performance meets contractual requirements. To effectively
administer procurements, you shouldA) Hold a bidders conference
B) Establish the appropriate contract type

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C) Implement the contract change control system

D) Develop a statement of work
Question 184
The purpose of the review of deliverables and project performance at the conclusion of a project phase is toA) Determine how many resources are required to complete the project
B) according to the project baseline
C) Adjust the schedule and cost baselines based on past performance
D) Obtain customer acceptance of project deliverables
E) Determine whether the project should continue to the next phase
Question 185
A contractor is working on a fixed price contract that calls for a single, lump sum payment upon satisfactory
completion of the contract. About halfway through the contract, the contractor project manager informs their
contract administrator that financial problems are making it difficult for them to pay their employees and
subcontractors. The contractor asks for a partial payment for work accomplished. Which of the following
actions by the buyer is most likely to cause problems for the project?
A) Starting partial payments for work accomplished.
B) Making no payments because it would violate the conditions of the contract.
C) Paying for work accomplished to date.
D) Negotiating a change to the payment conditions in the contract.
Question 186
Examples of team building activities include:
A) Establishing ground rules for dealing with conflict.
B) Regular progress reviews.
C) Periodic social events for team members.
D) All of the above
Question 187
Characteristics of a code of accounts are
A) It uniquely identified each element of the work breakdown structure
B) It includes work packages
C) It is a numbering system
D) All of the above
Question 188
___________ is/are an uncertain event that or condition that, if it occurs, has appositive or
negative effect on a project.
A) Assumption analysis
B) Delphi technique
C) Risk
D) Triggers

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Question 189
Establishing minimum requirements of performance for evaluation criteria is also know as a
A) Weighting system
B) Screening system
C) Estimating system
D) Change control criteria
Question 190
Which of the following processes allow an unsuccessful bidder to seek remedy for contract award to another bidder.
A. bid review
B. bid protest
C. award Protest
D. award review
E. any of the above processes can be used
Question 191
The SPI, which is used to estimate project completion date, is calculated by?
A) EV/PV
B) EV/AC
C) ACWS/PV
D) PV/EV

Question 192
Effective communication is critical for project success. Scope changes, constraints, assumptions, integration and
interface requirements, overlapping roles and responsibilities, and many other factors all pose communications
challenges. Communication barriers lead to A) Reduced productivity
B) Increased hostility
C) Low morale
D) Increased conflict
Question 193
In what way does free float (FF) differ from total float (TF)?
A) Free float is commonly referred to as "slack time," whereas total float is commonly referred to as "float time."
B) Free float only affects the early start of any immediately following activities.
C) There is no difference; the two terms are functionally equivalent.
D) An activity's free float is calculated by subtracting its total float from the critical path's total
float.
Question 194
Contracts may be called A) An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase request, memorandum of understanding
B) An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase order, understanding of purchasing request

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C) An agreement, a request, a purchase order, memorandum of understanding

D) An agreement, a subcontract, a purchase order, memorandum of understanding

Question 195
Before reporting a perceived violation of an established rule or policy the project manager
should:
A) Determine the risks associated with the violation
B) Ignore the violation until it actually affects the project results
C) Convene a committee to review the violation and determine the appropriate response
D) Ensure there is a reasonably clear and factual basis for reporting the violation

Question 196
The project charter should be issued by:A) The project manager
B) Client requesting services
C) Manager external to project
D) Manager internal to the project
Question 197
Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a PMP
A) Project Management Policy of Ethics
B) Project Management Professional Standards
C) Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct
D) Project Management Code of Professional Ethics & Standards
Question 198
All of the following are true of Pareto diagrams except:A) Pareto like Scatter diagrams use two variables
B) Pareto diagrams are histograms
C) Pareto diagrams rank order
D) It is sometimes referred to as the 80/20 rule
Question 199
The most common communication problem during negotiations is that:A) One side may try to confuse the other side
B) One side may be too busy thinking about what to say next to hear what is being said
C) Each side may misinterpret what the other side has said
D) Each side may give upon the other side

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Question 200
In which of the following types of contracts is it most important for the contractor to maintain control of cost,
schedule and scope changes.
A. firm fixed price
B. cost plus incentive fee
C. cost plus fixed fee
D. unit price
E. B and D only