Past Questions of Tuth Medicospace

Collected by www.medicospace.
com
A collection of old questions including MCQs for MS
orthopaedics
2060/12
MS ORTHOPAEDICS/Final year /IOM
Surgical pathology and surgical management V
1. Define reflex sympathetic osteodystrophy and discuss in brief about its diagnosis and
management.
2. What do you understand by failed back syndrome? Mention possible causes.
3. What are criteria of selecting a patient for high tibial osteotomy? Explain the mechanism
to relieve the pain in genu varum deformity.

4. Mention deltopectorial approach to the shoulder joint in detail and describe the surgical
technique of open Bankarts repair.

5. How does the deformities develop in poliomyelitis? What are common ankle and foot
deformities in post polio residual paralysis?

6. How do you grade osteochondral damage? What are the recent advances in the
management of osteochondral damage?

7. What are the indications of chiaris ostetomy? Enumerate pelvic osteotomy performed
in DDH and outline their principles.

8. What are the different sources of nerve graft? Describe in brief about Tinels sign.
9. Principles of treatment of peripheral nerve injuries
10. Principles of tendon transfer.
11. Principles and management of lower limb deformity in pediatric patients
12. Pathophysiology of peripheral nerve compression
13. Layers of sole
2060 12
Principle and orthopaedics and trauma surgery and operative surgery IV
1. Discuss operative modalities in potts spine.

2. How will you plan a tendon transfer in long standing high radial nerve palsy?
3. Outline operative modalities in recurrent dislocation of patella.
4. Discuss the posteromedial soft tissue release in CTEV.
5. Discuss in brief the causes of anterior knee pain syndrome.
6. What are indications of arthrodesis of ankle? Enumerate various surgical procedures.
7. Discuss the principles and management of anterior dislocation of shoulder.
8. Discuss in brief the principles of amputations.
9. Gait cycle
10. Classification of subacute osteomyelitis
11. Local antibiotic therapy in orthopaedics practice.
2060 -12
1. What are the causes of spinal canal stenosis ?

2. What are the patho-anatomical changes around the hip in DDH?
3. Outline the natural history and patho-physiolgy of duchennes muscular dystrophy.What
are the recent advances in medical treatment of this disease?

4. What is the pathology of pseudoarthrosis of tibia? Outline the various surgical
procedures.
5. Discuss etiopathogenesis and deformities that occur in rheumatoid arthritis.
6. What are the etiopathology of osteoporosis? Enumerate its clinical manifestation.
7. What are the indications and sources of nerve graft? What are the factors that affect the
outcome of nerve graft?

8. How do you investigate and manage a patient with suspected osteosarcoma of distal
femur?
9. Limb salvage surgery
10. Prinnciples of ilizarov.
11. Triplane fracture of distal tibia
2060/12
Internal assessment
1. Discuss indications and operative modalities in potts spine.

2. Describe the column concept of acetabular fracture in relation to prognosis of injury and
management plan. When conservative treatment can be adopted?

3. Outline the principles of operative management of recurrent dislocation of shoulder.
4. What are the different radiographic angles in CTEV and their significances?
5. Outline the principles of operative management of DDH.
6. Discuss indications and operative steps in symes amputation. What are the precautions
while taking the flap.

7. Leg length discrepancy
8. Steps of ACL reconstruction and different graft availabilities.
9. Principles of management of bone tumours
2061 5

1. Principles and technique of open biopsy of musculoskeletal tumours.

2. What is essential lesion in anterior dislocation of shoulder joint? What is the principle of
Bankarts surgery? Describe surgical exposure of this surgery?

3. General principle of amputation surgery.
4. Describe Boyd and speed approach in elbow joint.
5. What is triage? How does it help in mass casualties?
6. Classify the pelvic fractures.
7. Outline the pathoanatomy of acute dislocation of metacarpophalangeal joint of index
finger and its management.

8. What is pathoanatomy of rotator cuff impingement syndrome?
9. Principle of management of tibial plateau fracture
10. Local antibiotic treatment in orthopaedic management
11. Management of angular deformities of knee in different age gro
2062 -11
Internal Assessment
1. What are the causes of spinal canal stenosis.

2. Discuss the principle of management of anterior dislocation of shoulder.
3. What is the pathology of psedoarthrosis of tibia? Outline various surgical procedures.
4. What are the indications of ankle arthrodesis? Outline the various surgical procedures
6. What are the indications and sources of nerve graft? What are the factors that affect its
outcome?
7. What are the pathoanatomical changes around the hip in DDH?
8. Outline briefly the surgical management of hallux valgus.
2062 -1

1. What are causes of neurological involvement in Kochs spine? How will you treat it?
2. What is the most commonly observed pathological lesions in recurrent dislocation of the
shoulder? Outline the principles of bankarts operation.

3. Write aetiopathology and classification of congenital pseudoarthrosis of tibia.
4. Describre the Ennekings staging of tumours and its management.
5. Outline the etiopathogenesis and clinical features of entrapment syndrome of ulnar nerve.
6. Outline the aetiopathogenesis in rheumatoid arthritis.
7. Outline the aetiopathology of scaphoid fracture non-union and its management.
8. Outline the aetiopathogenesis of ankylosing spondylitis.How will you manage?
2062 -1
Principle of orthopaedics and trauma surgery and operative surgery IV
Part B
1. What do you understand by failed back syndrome? What are its causes?
2. In high radial nerve lesion what functions are lost? How will you restore these functions?
3. What are the varients of monteggia fracture dislocation. How will you treat a child of 8
years old with ulnar bowing?

4. What are the investigative modalities of multiple myeloma? Interprete.
5. What are the indications of arthrodesis of hip joint? What are its technical
considerations? What are its limitations?

6. What makes difficult the reduction of complete metacarpophalangeal joint dislocation of
index finger? How will you take care of this dislocation? Explain diagrammatically.
7. Discuss in details the steps in posteromedial soft tissue release(PMSTR).
8. What are the causes of anterior knee pain ? Name the surgical options of patellofemoral
problems.
2062/1

Internal assessment
1. Discuss briefly various operative modalities in potts spine.

2. Briefly outline the principles and management of recurrent dislocation of shoulder.
3. How do you evaluate the curve progression in adolescent idiopathic scoliosis?
4. Discuss briefly pathology and classifications of congenital psedoarthrosis of tibia.
5. Outline the general principles of amputation surgery.
6. Discuss briefly classification and treatment of tibial plateau fracture.
7. Outline the clinical and radiological evaluation of DDH.
8. Desribe briefly the neoadjuvent therapy in malignant bone tumour.
9. Describe briefly pathology and natural history of Duchene Muscular Dystrophy.
10. What are different radiographic angles in CTEV and their significance?
2061 -5
Principles of orthopadics and trauma surgery and operative surgery IV
1. Outline treatment of polyarticular Rheumatoid arthritis.

2. How do you proceed to diagnose a case of multiple myeloma?
3. Describe in short the natural history of LCPD.
4. What is claudication? How does a neurological claudication differs from the vascular
claudication?
5. What is potts paraplegia? Describe its pathoanatomy.
7. Why there is clawing in ulnar nerve palsy? How the clawing in low ulnar nerve palsy
differs from high lesions? Explain

8. Classify osteoporosis and discuss its management
9. Smith Paterson approach to hip joint
10. Classification and management of calcaneal fracture
11. Indications and various procedures of ankle arthrodesis
2063/2

1. What are the indications of surgery from posterior approach in tuberculosis of spine?
Why this approach has limited value?

2. What are the investigative modalities of multiple myeloma? Interprate.
3. What is nonunion of fractures? What are the types of nonunion? How will you treat
them?
4. Outline the natural history of disc disease.
5. How will you plan for tendon transfer in long standing high radial nerve palsy?
6. What makes difficult the reduction of the complete metacarpophalangeal joint dislocation
of index finger? How will you take careof this dislocation? Explain digrammatically.
7. Outline the blood supply of scaphoid bone of wrist.How the blood supply patterns are
responsible for the union of scaphoid fractures

8. In fracture neck of femur when the closed reduction fails, what will be your approach for
open reduction? Describe the approach.
2064 -12
1. What are the causes of neurological involvement in Kochs spine? How will you treat it?
2. Discuss the factors considered in planning treatment of calcaneal fractures.
3. Discuss the modalities of surgical treatment of recurrent dislocation of patella.
4. What is diabetic foot ? Describe in brief its management.
5. What makes difficult the reduction of complete of complete metacarpophalangeal joint
dislocation of index finger? How will you take care of this condition? Explain
diagrammatically.
6. Discuss in details the steps involved in posteromedial soft tissue release in CTEV.
7. What are the indications of arthrodesis of hip. Outline the different techniques of fusion
of hip.
8. Write down the causes of bowing of tibia. Outline the management of congenital
pseudoarthrosis of tibia.
2064 -1
1. What are the causes of neurological involvement in potts spine? How will you treat it?
2. Describe the Ennekings staging of tumours and principle of Surgical management.
3. What are the indications and sources of nerve graft? What are the factors that affect the
outcome of nerve graft?

4. Discuss in details the steps involved in posteromedial soft tissue release in CTEV.
5. Discuss the causes of anterior knee pain syndrome.
6. Describe in brief the principles of amputations.
7. What are the criteria for selecting a patient for high tibial osteotomy? Expain the
mechanism to relieve the pain in genu varum deformity.

8. Describe the blood supply of head of femur with a neat and labeled diagram. Discuss the
ilio-femoral approach to the hip.
2064 -12
1. What are the causes of spinal canal stenosis ?

2. What is involutional osteoporosis.Discuss in brief the different technique of measurement
of bone mass.
3. What are the investigative modalities of multiple myeloma? Interprate.
4. Write about the hemangioma of bone including its clinical presestation, roentgenographic
appearance and management.

5. Enumerate different deformities of rheumatoid hand. How they are produced?
6. What are the different risk factors for osteonecrosis? Mention the four radiographic
characteristics important to predict prognosis and to formulate the treatment plan of
osteonecrosis of hip.
7. What are the causes of cavus foot? Describe in brief how does the varus foot develops in
cavus foot.
8. A 55 year old gentleman who had coronary by-pass surgery done 2 years back is
undergoing total hip replacement surgery for secondary osteoarthritis of hip. What would
be the devastating complications and how do you manage that condition?
2064 -1
1. What are the causes of spinal canal stenosis?

2. What are the patho-anatomical changes around the hip in DDH?
3. What are the aetiopathology of osteoporosis? Enemerate its clinical manifestation.
4. What do you understand by sero-negative spondyloarthropathy? List the common
conditions. Describe the clinical features of ankylosing spondylitis.

5. Whar are the factors considered in planning treatment of calcaneal fractures.
6. Describe in brief the aetiopathogenesis of osteoarthritis.
7. Outline the natural history and pathophysiology of duchennes muscular dystrophy. What
are the recent advances in medical treatment of this disease?

8. What is the pathology of pseudoarthrosis of tibia? Outline the various surgical
procedures.
2064 /1
1. What do you understand by failed back syndrome? What are its causes?
2. Outline the surgical principles of various surgeries done commonly in recurrent
dislocation of shoulder
3. Outline the etiopathology of scaphoid fracture non-union and its management
4. How will you plan for tendon transfer in long standing high radial nerve palsy?
5. Discuss in brief the classification and principles of management of tibial plateau
fracture.
6. Outline the etiopathogenesis of rheumatoid arthritis.
7. Discuss in brief the principles of amputations.
8. Discuss in brief the principles and techniques of open biopsy of musculoskeletal
tumour.
2065-12
Surgical pathology and surgical management -V
1. Outline the natural history of disc disease

2. Discuss the operative modalities in DDH according to age
3. Discuss in detail about proximal row carpectomy
4. What are the different sources of nerve graft? Describe in brief about Tinels sign
5. How do you grade osteochondral damage? What are the recent advances in the
management of osteochondral damage.

6. Discuss in brief the causes of limb length discrepancy.
7. Discuss in brief various modalities of treatment of avascular necrosis of femoral head.
8. Define reflex sympathetic osteodystrophy and discuss in brief about its diagnosis and
management
2065 -12
1. How do you evaluate recurrent dislocation of shoulder ?

2. Briefly describe the treatment options of scaphoid fracture
4. What are the different radiographic angles in congenital talipes equino varus and their
significance
5. Innumerate the causes of pain around the hip. write in brief the treatment of stress
fracture of neck of femur

6. Discuss in brief the operative modalities in Hallux valgus
7. Discuss in brief the management of infected K nail
8. Briefly describe the principles and technique of open biopsy of musculoskeletal tumour
2067/2
1. What are the causes of neurological involvement in kochs spine? How will you
treat it?
2. Outline the aetiopathogenesis of ankylosing spondylitis. How will you manage?
3. Outline the aetiopathology of scaphoid fracture non-union and its management
4. What are the criteria of selecting a patient for high tibial osteotomy? Mention its
complications.
5. Enumerate the different deformities of rheumatoid hand. How are they produced?
6. Discuss the modalities of surgical treatment of recurrent dislocation of patella.
7. Discuss the factors considered in planning treatment of calcaneal fractures
8. Briefly describe the principles and technique of open biopsy of musculoskeletal
tumour.
2067/2
Surgical pathology and surgical management IV
1. Define the spinal canal stenosis. What are the causes and clinical presentation?
2. What is cauda equins syndrome? How do you manage it?
4. What are the different radiographic angles in congenital talipes equino varus and
their significance.
5. Write down the causes of bowing of tibia. Outline the management of congenital
pseudoarthrosis of tibia.
6. How do you proceed to diagnose a case of multiple myeloma?
7. Discuss in details about the proximal row carpectomy.
8. What are the different sources of nerve graft? Describe in brief about Tinels sign.
SPINE
1. What are the indications of surgery from posterior approach in TB spine? Why this approach has limited value?
63
2. Outline the natural history of disc disease? 63 ; 65

3. What are the causes of spinal canal stenosis? 62 ; 60 ; 64
4. What do you understand by fail back syndrome? What are its causes? 62
5. Discuss in brief the various operative modalities in pott's spine. 2005
6. How you will evaluate the curve progression in adolescent idiopathic scoliosis? 2005
7. What do you understand by fail back syndrome? What are its causes? 60 ; 64
8. Discuss in brief the various operative modalities in pott's spine. 60
9. -------------------------- indication of operative modalities. 60
10. What is the cause of neurological involvement in Kochs spine? How will you treat it? 62 ; 64
11. What is potts paraplegia? Describe its pathoanatomy.61
12. Describe the C/F and management of spondylolisthesis. 66
TUMOR
13. What are the investigation modalities of multiple myeloma? Interprete 63 ; 64
14. Principle and technique of open biopsy of musculoskeletal tumor. 61 ; 65
15. What are the investigation modalities of multiple myeloma? Interpreted. 61 ; 62
16. Discuss briefly the neoadjuvant therapy in malignant bone tumor. 2005
17. How do you investigate and manage the patients with suspected osteosarcoma of distal femur? 60
18. Describe the Enneking staging of tumor and its pathology. 62
19. Enneking staging of tumor. Discuss its relevance in present scenario.
20. Write about the haemangioma of bone including its clinical presentation roentgen graphic appearance and
management. 64
21. Principle of management of bone tumor? 60
TRAUMA
22. What is non union of fracture? What are of types? How will you treat? 63
23. What make difficult the reduction to the complete metacarpopharangeal joint dislocation of the index finger?
How will you take care of this dislocation? explain with fig. 63
24. Outline the blood supply of scaphoid of wrist. How the blood supply patterns are responsible for the union of
scaphoid fracture? 63
25. Briefly describe t/t option of scaphoid #. 65
26. Outline the aetio-pathology of scaphoid # nonunion and its management. 62
27. In fracture neck of femur when closed reduction is failed what will be your approach for open reduction?
Describe the approach. 63
28. Describe Boyd and Speed approach in elbow. 61

29. What is Triage? How does it helpful in mass casualty? 61
30. Classify pelvic fracture. 61
31. Outline patho anatomy of Kaplan lesion and its management. 61
32. What are the variant of Monteggia # dislocation? How will you treat children of 8 year old with ulnar bowing?
62
33. What make difficult the reduction to the complete metacarpopharangeal joint dislocation of the index finger?
How will you take care of this dislocation? explain with fig. 62 ; 64
34. Describe briefly classification of tibial plateau #. 2005 ; 64
35. Discuss the column concept of acetabular # in relation to prognosis of injury and management plan. When
conservative t/t can be adopted? 60
36. Discuss the factor considered in planning treatment of calcaneal #. 64 ; 64

37. Principle of illirazov. 60( int)
38. Triplanar # distal tibia. 60( int)
39. Structure arising from medial calcaneal tuberisity. 60( int)
PERIPHERALNERVES AND TENDONS
40. How will you plan for tendon transfer in long standing radial nerve palsy? 63 ; 64
41. What are the indication and source of nerve graft? What are the factors that affect its outcome? 62 ; 60 65
42. In high radial nerve lesion what function are lost? How will you restore those functions? 62
43. What is the different source of nerve graft? Describe in brief about Tinels sign. 60 ; 65
44. Principle of t/t of peripheral nerve injuries. 60
45. Principles of tendon transfer 60
46. Pathophysiology of peripheral nerve compression. 60
47. How will you plan for tendon transfer in long standing radial nerve palsy? 60
48. Outline the aetiopathogenesis and clinical feature of entrapment syndrome of ulnar nerve. 62
49. Why there is clawing in ulnar nerve palsy? How the clawing in low lesion differ from high lesion? 61
50. Describe briefly compressive neuropathies in upper limb. 66
SHOULDER
51. Discuss the principle of management of anterior dislocation of shoulder.62

52. What is the essential lesion in anterior dislocation of shoulder joint? What is the principle of Bankarts surgery?
Describe the surgical exposure. 61 ; 62
53. What is the pathoanatomy of rotary cuff impingement syndrome? 61
54. Briefly outline the principle and management of recurrent dislocation of shoulder. 2005 ; 60
55. Discuss the principle of management of anterior dislocation of shoulder. 60
56. Mention the dectopectorial approach to the shoulder joint in detail and describe the surgical technique of open
Bankart repair. 60
57. Describe the commonly performed surgery in recurrent dislocation of shoulder. 66

58. How do you evaluate recurrent dislocation of shoulder? 65
PAEDIATRICS
59. What is the pathology of pseudo arhtosis of tibia? Outline various surgical procedures. 62 ; 62 ; 64
60. What are the patho anatomical changes around hip in DDH? 62 ; 60 ; 64
61. Discuss in detail the steps involve in postero medial soft tissue release (PMSTR) 62
62. Describe the pathology and classification of pseudo arhtosis of tibia? 2005 ; 60
63. Outline the clinical and radiological evaluation of DDH. 2005
64. Outline the operative management of DDH according to age? 60 ; 65
65. Discuss briefly pathology and natural history of Duchene muscular dystrophy. 2005; 64
66. ---------------------------------------------------------recent advance in medical treatment 60 ; 64
67. What are the different radiological angles in CTEV and their significant? 2005 ; 60 ; 65
68. Discuss in detail the steps involve in postero medial soft tissue release (PMSTR) in CTEV.60 ; 64
69. What is the indication of Chiaris Osteotomy? Enumerate the different pelvic osteotomies performed in DDH
and outline their principle. 60
70. Principles of management of lower limb deformities in pediatric pts. 60
71. Leg length discrepancy. 60 ; 65
72. Natural history of LCPD. 61
73. Describe the surgical procedure in CTEV according to age and deformity. 66
ARTHODESIS
74. What are the indication of ankle arthodesis? Outline various surgical procedures. 62
75. What is the indication of hip joint arthodesis? What is its technical consideration? What are its limitations? 62 ; 64
76. What is the indication of ankle arthodesis? Outline various surgical procedures. 60
KNEE
77. Discuss in brief the causes of anterior knee pain. 61 ; 62

78. What are the causes of anterior knee pain? Name the surgical option of patellofemoral problems. 62
79. What are the criteria of selecting patients for high tibial osteotomy? Explain the mechanism to relief the pain in
genu varum deformity. Describe the complications. 60 ; 65
80. Outline the operative modalities in recurrent dislocation of patella. 60 ; 64

81. What are the causes of anterior knee pain syndrome? 60
82. How do you grade the osteochondral damage? What is the recent advance in management of osteochondral
damage? 60 ; 65
83. ACL reconstruction different graft. 60
FOOT
84. Outline the surgical management of Hallux valgus. 62 ; 65

85. What is diabetic foot? Describe its management. 64
86. What are the causes of caves foot? Describe in brief how does the varus heel develop in cavus foot? 64
AMPUTATIONS
87. General principle of amputation surgery. 61

88. Discuss in brief principle of amputation surgery. 60
89. General principle of amputation surgery. 2005
90. Discuss the indication and operative steps in symes amputation. What are the precaution while taking the flap?
60
MISCELLANEOUS TOPICS
91. Define reflex sympathetic dystrophy and discuss in brief about its diagnosis and management. 60 ; 65
92. How does the deformity develop in poliomyelitis? What are the common ankle and foot deformities in post
polio paralysis?60
93. What is claudication? How does vascular differ from neurological claudication? 61
94. Classify osteoporosis and discuss its management.61 ; 65
95. What are the aetiopathogenesis of osteoporosis? Enumerate the clinical manifestations.
96. What is involutional osteoporosis? Discuss in brief the different technique of measurement of bone mass. 64
97. A55 yrs old gentleman who had coronary bypass surgery done 2 yrs back is undergone THR surgery for
secondary OAof hip. What would be the devastating complication and how do you manage those
complications? 64
98. Discuss in brief the management of infected K- nail.
ARTHRITIS
99. Discuss the etio-pathogenesis and deformities that occur in rheumatoid arthritis. 60 ; 61 ; 62
100. Outline the aetiopathogenesis of ankylosing spondylitis. How will you manage? 62
101. Describe the recent advance in management of RA. 66
102. Enumerate the different deformities rheumatoid hands. How they are produce? 64
103. What do you understand by seronegative spondyloarthopathies? List the common conditions.
Describe the clinical features of ankylosing spondylitis. 64
104. Describe the aetiopathogenesis of osteoarthritis. 64
HIP
105. Discuss the blood supply of femoral head. 66

106. What is the different risk factor of osteonecrosis? Mention the 4 radiographic characters important to
predict prognosis and to formulate treatment plan of osteonecrosis of hip? 64 ; 65
107. Innumerate the cause of pain around hip. Write in brief the t/t of stress fracture of neck of femur.
HAND
108. Discuss in detail about the proximal row carpectomy. 65
OTHERS
109. Far lateral herniations

110.Rheumatoid hand and foot
111.Tarsal tunnel syndrome
112.Carpal tunnel
113.Tennis elbow
114.Course of nerves and vessels.
115.Gait cycle
116.Classification of sub acute OM
117.Local antibiotic therapy in orthopedics.
118.Pathophysiology of peripheral nerve compression
119.Compressive neuropathy lower limb
120. Layers of sole
121. Old unreduced shoulder and elbow
122. Malunited calcaneal #, distal radius, lateral condyle #, supra condylar #.
123. Management of angular deformity of knee in different age groups.
124. Different approach of hip joints.
125. Calcaneal # classification and t/t.
Multiple Choice Questions

2060
1. Tibial osteotomy
a. Above tibial tuberosity b. Below tibial tuberosity c. Metaphysis
2. Test useful in acute ACL injury
a. Anterior drawer b. Post drawer c Pivot shift test d. Lachman test
3. Pointing index - median nerve injury
4. Segond sign ACL rupture in x-ray - Avulsion fracture of lateral tibial plateau
5. Corona mortis is abnormal anastomosis between obturator artery and inferior epigastric
artery or external iliac artery

6. Aortic aneurysm is associated with
a. Eahler danlos syndrome b. Marfan syndrome
7. In clavicular fracture likely injury
Lower trunk/cord
8. In total hip replacement component fixation is
- Acetabular component; 45 degree anteversion and lateral inclination femoral
component 15 degree anteversion

9. Rib vertebral angle difference (RVAD) in infantile scoliosis
a.5 deg b.10 deg c.20 deg d.30 deg
10. In infantile scoliosis 25 degree of curve needs
a. Observation b. Bracing c. Surgical correction
11. Froments sign Adductor pollicis longus in ulnar nerve
12. Autonomous zone for deep peroneal nerve is first web space
13. Pus escape in children in acute osteomyelitis is
- Volkmans canal? Medullary in older children, subperiosteal in infants
14. K type questions. In acute osteomyelitisa.
80% cases in staph aureus b.50% blood culture positive and 90% blood plus pus culture
positive.
15. Earliest clinical finding in potts paraplegia
a.weakness b. ankle clonus c. paraesthesia d. bladder involvement
16. Commonest spondylolisthesis

- Isthmisc type 50%
17. What is the tension that is given in 1.8 k wire in ilizarov external fixator- 110kg
18. K type: In lateral approach to femur the following vessels are damaged
a .Lateral circumflex artery b. Perforators c. Lateral superior genicular artery
19. Spur sign in acetabular fracture seen in bicolumnar fracture
20. Commonest primary bone tumour - Multiple myeloma
21. Position that should be avoided in patients with A/K amputation
22. K type: TFCC components
23. Hungry bone syndrome Post operative hypocalcaemia seen after parathyroidectomy
24. Osteitis Condensesans ili is sclerosis of
a. ilium away from the SI joint b. Iliun near from the SI joint
c. towards the sacrum
25. Holestein Lewis syndrome Delayed radial nerve palsy seen after reduction of fracture
shaft of humerus.
26. In DISI, scapholunate angle is
a. >70deg b. <30 deg c.15deg d.90 deg
27. Which structure is dangerous in posterior dislocation of hip joint----
sciatic nerve/ superior gluteal vessel
28. Which malleolus is fixed in trimalleolar fracture-
-- Lateral malleolus
29. K type: In pathological fracture ,indications of fracture fixations
a. IM rod is preferred b. Impending fracture c. Pain at fracture site
30. Vacuum sign in x-ray of spine is seen --- Instability of degerenative disc disease
31. Most important aspect of surgery in impingement syndrome--- Deltoid repair
32. Lisfranc injury ---- 2nd metatarsal to medial cunneiform
2061
1. Spur sign in acetabular fracture indicatesBoth column fracture
2. OK sign is lost for which nerve
--- anterior interosseous nerve (branch of median nerve)
3. Honeymoon palsy is---
-a. High radial nerve palsy b. AIN c. Median nerve palsy
4. Ape thumb deformity is due to paralysis of which muscle-----Abductor policis brevis?
5. Benediction finger is due to which nerve palsy------Median nerve palsy.
6. Arthritis mutilans is characteristics of ----
a. AS b. Psoriatic arthritis
c. Gout d.Reiters syndrome
7. In RA which is the commonest extra-articular manifestations
a. Rh nodule ? b. Pulmonary fibrosis c. Lymphadenopathy d.---
8. In ankylosing spondylitis which is the commonest extraarticular manifestations a.
anterior uveitis? b. pulmonary fibrosis c. Lymphadenopathy d----

9. Earliest pathognomic radiological sign in AS
a. Erosion of SI joint b. Squaring of vertebra c. Bamboo spine d.------
10. Rhematoid factor is
- a. IgM ? b. IgA c. IgE d.IgG
11. Inheritance of haemophilic arthritis is
a.AD b. AR c. XR d. XD
12. In Duchennes muscular dystrophy dytrophin protein is located in
a. mitochondria b. nucleus c. cell membrane d. nuclear membrane
13. The definitive clinical test in chronic ACL injury
a. Ant drawer test b. post drawer test c. pivot shift test d. lachman test
14. Before bone mineralization osteoblast secretes
--Osteonectin and mucopolysacharide
15. Bone is predominantly formed by
a. collagen type I b. mucopolysacharides c. collagen type II d. calcium
16. Surgery for congenital trigger thumb is done around
a. 5 yrs b. 3 yrs c. 2 yrs d. around 1 yr
17. Pathognomic feature of transient synovitis is
a. fullness and pain around the hip b.limitations of movement in all extremes
c. fever d. pseudoparalysis
18. Causative organism of osteomyelitis in sickle cell disease
a. pseudomonas b. streptococcus c. salmonella d. staph epidermidis
19. LDH is prognostic indicator of which tumour
a. Ewings sarcoma b. osteosarcoma c. chondrosarcoma d. fibrosarcoma
20. Which bone tumour has least chance of malignant transformation
--Osteid osteoma
21. Which tumour has lymphatic metastasis
a.fibrosarcoma b. chondrosarcoma c. synovial sarcoma d. osteosarcoma
22. Winging of scapula is due to paralysis of ---
--seratus anterior nerve
23. Radiological features of glomus tumour resembles
a. osteoid osteoma b.fibrous dysplasia c.enchondroma
24. In dorsal approach to proximal radius which structure is in danger
--PIN
25. Deforming force in Bennets fracture is APL
26. Characteristic of osteosarcoma is
osteoid formation
27. Terminal growth of limb is common in which bone after amputation
a.humerus b.radius c.tibia d. femur
28. Lunar sign is seen in
a. medial epicondyle fracture b. Lateral epicondyle fracture c. capitellum fracture d.
olecranon fracture
29. Sagging rope sign is seen in a. perthes disease b.DDH c.SCFE
30. Sectoral sign is seen in
a. SCFE b.Coxa vara c. AVN d.DDH
31. Lisfranc ligament connects 2nd metatarsal with medial cunneform
32. Initiator of knee reflex is
a. popliteus b.IT band c. Biceps d. Humerus
33. Quadrilateral space syndrome is
a. Supraspinatus nerve palsy b. Axillary nerve palsy
c. Long thoracic nerve palsy d.Radial nerve palsy
34. Giant cell tumour is characterized in Xray
a.Epiphyseal-metaphyseal location b.Epiphysis c. Metaphysis
35. Which is the most reliable test in spinal surgery
a. SSEP? b. Stagnara Wake up test c. presence of reflex
36. Tendon reflex is
a. Monosynaptic b. Polysynaptic c. central
37. Structure which is not completely released in CTEV Surgery
a. Deep deltoid ligament b. Calcaneofibular ligament
c. Talofibular ligament d. spring ligament
38 Common site of skeletal tuberculosis is
a. hip b. vertebrae c. knee d. hands
38. Laser disectomy is useful in

a. contained disc b. sequestrated
39. Young patient presents with lumbar scoliosis, skewed back and knee flexed with sudden
onset of pain, pain aggravated in knee strengthening, most likely diagnosis
a.spondylolisthesis b. acute disc prolapse

40. Young female with spondylolisthesis which movement you advise not to do
a. extension b. flexion c. Lateral bending
41. Commonest type of spondylolisthesis is
a.Dysplastic b. Isthmic c. Degenerative d. Pathological
42. In fracture shaft of long bone which is most the most important indications for bone
grafting
a. Comminution of >one third cortex b.elderly c. Open fracture
e.More than 3 weeks old?
43. Which of the following induces the bone formation

a. Demineralized bone b.BMP
44. Subluxation of shoulder can be best seen in a. AP view
b. Axillary view c. Skyline view d.West point view
45. Which of the following antitubercular drug has highest hepatotoxicity
a. rifampicin b.INH c. Ethambutol d.Streptomycin
46. What causes closure of epiphysis in female
a.GH b.Oestrogen ? c. Progesterone d. Prolactin
47. Best treatment of avascular necrosis of Talar body following trauma is
a. Tibiotalar fusion with cancellous bone grafting b. Tibiotalar fusion with sliding bone
grafting (Blair fusion) c. Tibiotalar fusion with IM nail

48. Which malleolus is fixed first in trimalleolar fracture
a. Posterior b. Lateral c. Medial d. Any
49. Offending structure in reduction of MCP dislocation is
-Volar fibrocartilagenous plate
50. What is the most important component in cubitus varus deformity in S/C fracture
a. Medial displacement b. Coronal tilt c. Horizontal rotation d. Posterior tilt
51. Which is the most important scan in infection
a. Indium 111 b. Galium c. Technetium d. Monoclonal
52. Vertebra plana is pathognomic feature of
a. Eosinophilic granuloma b.Hemangioma c. ABC d. Scheurmans disease
2061
1. In Watson-Jones approach the following is true
a. Lies between the gluteas medius and TFL
b. TFL is identified with coarse granule
c. Chance of injury to superior gluteal nerve and vessels (chance of inferior gluteal
nerve and vessel)

c. Chance of injury to lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
2. Fluorosis causes a. Direct osteoblastic stimulation b. prevents osteoclastis
resorption of bone c. Forms fluroappatite crystals d.Activate PTH

3. Regarding the salter innominate osteotomy
a.Age is less than 6 years b.Head should be opposite to the acetabulum
c.Joint should be congruous
d.Done when less than 15 degree correction of acetabular index is required
4. Regarding the Von-rosen line
a. Xray taken 45 degree abduction and internal rotation
b. Points to the dome of acetabulam
c. Xray taken 45 degree abduction and external rotation
d. Points to the centre of acetabulum
5. Most vulnerable structure in impingement syndrome is
a. Supraspinatus tendon b. GT c. Biceps tendon d. Subscapularis tendon
6. In surgery for impingement syndrome structures removed are
a. Coracoacromial ligament b. 1-1.5 cm of clavicle
c. Undersurface of acromian d.Rotator transpositor
7. Regarding the chemosensitivity which of the following is responsive

a. Osteisarcoma b. Rhabdomyosarcoma
c. Ewings sarcoma d.Eosinophilic granuloma
8. Regarding the intrinsic plus hand which of the following is true
9. PCL is injured in a. Dash board injury b. Limb in flexion, external rotation and valgus?
C . Posteriorly directed force in tibia

10. In AVN of femoral head a.Cresent sign is present b.Joint space is maintained till late
c. Head is sclerotic d. OA changes seen earlier

11. Structures removed in anterolateral decompression
a. Part of vertebral body b. Lamina c.Pedicle d. Transverse process
e. Medial 6 to 8 cm of rib
12. In Scheurmans kyphosis diagnosis is
a. Kyphosis is >40 degree b.Wedging of >3 vertebrae and >5 degree
c. Irregularities of vertebral end plates
d. Tightness of hamstring and pectoralis muscles e. Schomorl node
13. Arthrogryposis Multiplex Congenita Characterized by ?
a. Sparse anterior horn cells motor nucleus b. Cavus c. Intrauterine deformity
14. CTEV shoes has
a. No heel b. Straight medial border c. Lateral wedge on sole d. Curved medial border
15. Scapholunate dissociation
a. Terry Thomas sign is seen on Xray b. VISI (Lunotriquetral dissociation)
c. Cortical ring sign d. Pivot Shift test is positive (for mid carpal inistability)
e. Watsons Scaphoid clunk test for scapholunate dissociation f. Scaphoid catch up test
16. TKR component fixation--- Femoral mild valgus and tibia normal
17. Criteria for HTO (High tibial osteotomy)
a. Arc of motion >90 degree b. Age >60years c. Intact MCL
d. Intact LCL e.Genu valgum not >15 degree
18. Radiological features of achondroplasia are \
Short pedicle, Rhizomelic bone , Kyphoscoliosis, Spinal canal stenosis
19. Tension to be given in 1.8 K wire in ilizarov fixation --110 kg
20. Stainless steel contains all except
a. Manganese b. Chromium c. Nickel d. Vanadium? (Steel composition is carbon
molybdenum chromium and cobalt. Vandalium is in titanium)

21. Segonds sign in xray of knee indicates
a. ACL injury with avulsion fracture b.PCL avulsion fracture c. MCL injury
2061
1. Angled used in DCP
a. 10 degree b. 20 degree c.30 degree d. 40 degree
2. Commonest level of cervical disc prolapse
a. c4/c5 b. c5/c6 c. c6/c7 d. c3/c4
3. Distal femoral secondary ossific nucleus appears in
a. 24 weeks b. 36 weeks c. at birth d. After birth
4. Bone bruise occurs in ----------- tibial plateau
a. Anterior lateral b. Posterior lateral c. Posteromedial d. Antero medial
5.In congenital anterior dislocation of radial head, ulnar bowing is

a.Anterior with anterior dislocation b. anterior with external limitation
c.Posterior with flexion limitation d. Anterior with flexion limitation
5. Coherence therapy in osteoporosis a. Calcitonin+Phosphate b.Biphosphonate
c. Calcium d. Vitamin D
6. In hypophosphataemic rickets--------------
a. High dose vitaminD>1 Lakh b. Defect in 1,25 hydroxylation
7. Intercalated segment in wrist formed by
a. Proximal row except psiform b. Psiform and hamate
c. Hamate and scaphoid d. Whole carpals
8. Bone morphogenic protein preserved in
a. Fresh bone b. Freezed bone c.Dried bone
9. Denaturation of bone is done by using ?
a. HNO3 ? b. 0.25 HCL c. EDTA
10. Osteochondritis of base of the fifth metatarsal
a. Iselin disease b. Panners disease
c. Kohlers disease d. Kinebocks disease
11. Most diagnostic test for RA is
a. Inhibition test b. Latex test c. RA factor d.
12. In Egawa test, test the power of --------- Dorsal interossei of middle finger
13. Commonest hematological bone infection in adult occurs in
a. Body of vertebrae b. Metaphysis c. Diaphysis
14. Form of spread of infection of infection in 2 to 16 years of patients

a. Subperiosteal b. Medullary c. Metaphysis
15. Lunar sign is found in which fracture
a. Capitellum . Lateral condyle c. Medial condyle c. S/C
16. Nicolls procedure is ---------- Bone grafting and plating
17. TB Sequestrum is -----
a. Sandy b. Red c. Pink
18. Blood supply of ACL by Middle genicualte artery
19. Adolescence tibial injury occurs with --------
a. Avulsion of tibial spine b. Torn ACL c. Torn ACL and MCL
20. Rosenberg view is done by --------- PA view of 45 degree flexion of knee in weight
bearing
21. RVAD in infantile scoliosis is significant when it is > -------20%
22. Bone scan to differentiate tumour and infection ?
a.Tc phosphate b. Gallium c.Indium d. Monoclonal cells
23. Cobb angle in adolescent scoliosis-------<20 degree observation, 20 to 30 degree bracing
if required, >30 degree surgical treatment

24. Commonest type of spondylolisthesis--------- Isthmic
25. If cap is obliquely placed in THR, in which position dislocation occurs------Adduction
flexion
26. Composition of steel-stainless---------
27. Pseudogout affects commonly
a. Knee b. Ankle c. Hip d. Vertebrae
28. Muscle injury occurs in
a. Isometric b. Isotonic c. Excentric d. Concentric
29. Wilsons sign in osteochondritis dissecans occurs
Lateral aspect of medial femoral condyle
30. Articular cartilage contains Type II collagen
31. Shephord crook deformity occurs in --------Fibrous dysplasia
32. Stability of external fixators improved by------
MCQ Final Exam

1. Tumour metastasis to eyelid------------ Chordoma
2. Highest chance of seeding the tumour cells while doing biopsy ----
----a. Chordoma b. Chondrosarcoma(90%) c. Osteosarcoma
d. Ewings sarcoma. Reason---- chondrocytes survive in avascular environment
3. Von Rosen line in DDH passes through --------- Anterior superior iliac spine.
In normal case passes through outer edge of acetabulum
4. Tumour sensitive to chemotherapy
a. Osteosarcoma b. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma c. Chondrosarcoma
d. Ewings sarcoma. Chondrogenic tumour are not sensitive to chemotherapy
5. All the procedures are done for the Trigger finger except ???
a. Excision of FDS b. Release of pulley c. Tenosynovectomy d. Steroid injection.
All are done but they says pulley should be preserved as much as possible
6. Angulation of screw that can be done ---------20 degree in DCP and 40 degree in LCDCP
7. Rotation of pelvis in gait cycle-------- a. 5 degree, b. 8 degree , c. 11 degree
8. Prognostic indicators of osteosarcoma------a. LDH b. ESR c. Alkaline Phosphatage
9. White skin spots along with increases density ------------- Osteopoikilosis
10. Double density sign in Bone scan is seen in --------Osteoid osteoma
11. Most significant to be corrected in a case of distal radial fracture
a. Dorsal angulation b. Radial length c. Volar angulation d. Lateral shift
12. Tendon transfer to restore opposition in high radial nerve palsy???
a. FDS to Opponens pollicis b. FDS to APB c. EIP to APB
13. Most important land mark for posterior approach to knee joint---Posterior cutaneous
nerve of calf(Medial sural cutaneous nerve)

14. Artery which perforates the median septum ---- Medial genicular artery supplying to
ACL
15. Bone scan detects the osteomyelitis ---within the 48 hours
MCQ Final Exam
1. Bone spike formation after amputation in children(Terminal overgrowth)----Humerus

2. Nerve exploration (sciatic) after hip dislocation--------4 weeks
3. Laurens view of knee --------20 degree flexion of knee
4. Quadriceps avoidance gait ----------ACL deficiency. Contralateral level cane use at slow
gait velocity reduces the peak acetabular pressure by as much as 40% which coincides
with gluteus medius activity by 45%

5. Femoral Roll back absent in --------PCL deficient knee and PCL sacrificing
6. Physeal fracture ------ Through the zone of provisional calcification.Most common
injuries on radius and tibia. Physeal bridge resection with interposition of fat graft or
artificial material is reserved for patients with > 2 cm of growth remaining and <50% of
Physeal involvement
7. Treatment for metatarsus adductus for 4 year old child------
8. Thigh foot angle -------- 15 degree
9. Position of subtalar joint at the time of arthrodesis of ankle joint---------
10. Highest progression of cobbs angle in congenital scoliosis--- Unsegmented bar and
hemivertebra
11. Skeletally mature child with scoliosis of 20 degree angle ---------Observation
12. Most common curvature in infantile idiopathic scoliosis--------Left thoracic
13. Drug for heterotopic ossification in spinal injury patient-----Indomethacin
14. Commonest presentation of scheurmans disease-----------Deformity
15. Potential Perthes disease is detected by m
a.MRI b. CT c. Arthrography d. Bone scan
16. Forty year old man with pain R shoulder on elevation or sleeping on that side----------
Supraspinatus tendinitis
17. Most effective test to to detect the rotator cuff tear-------Weak external rotation
18. Corduary appearances in ----------Hemangioma
19. Bone induction phenomenon is lost by---
-a. HNO3. B. 0.6HCL, c. EDTA . Usually lost by strong acid
20. Deformity in OA hip -------Flexion, Adduction, and external rotation deformity
21. Internal rotation of hip in extension is restricted in SCFE
22. Commonest form of JCA-------Pauciarticular type
23. Bone scan to differentiate the infection from tumour-----------Indium 111 labelled WBC
24. Typical wrist instability
a. Scapholunate b. Lunotriquetral c. Midcarpal
25. Flexion type of S/C fracture --------ulnar nerve injury common
26. Radial head/neck fracture -----<60 degree tilt conservative management , > 60 degree
angulation operative procedure

27. A female with wrist injury and numbmess at tip of index finger
a. Lunate dislocation b. Perilunate dislocation c. Trans-scaphoidperilunate dislocation
28. Lateral condyle fracture causes------Lateral instability of elbow joint
29. Spur sign in acetabular fracture seen in both column fracture in acetabulum.
30. Quadrilateral space syndrome ------Axillary nerve palsy
31. Epiphyseal location of tumour----Chondroblastoma
32. Tibialis posterior strength test done by single toe rise
MS ORTHO,
Internal-assessment, MCQ 2063,
1. Drumstick or chicken wire appearance on lateral view of the knee is seen in
a. OA b. RA c. Gout d. TB
2. Best way to disperse the hematoma
a. Ice b. USG c. Shortwave d. Infrared
3. Falling fragment sign --------- ABC
4. Shepherd crook deformity--------Fibrous dysplasia
5. Most common malignancy in pagets disease --------Osteosarcoma
6. Glomus tumour resembles radiologically---------- to enchondroma
7. Adamantinoma , treatment is
a. Observation b. Wide resection c. Curettage and bone grafting
8. BMP-----Stimulates perivascular mesenchymal cells
9. Most commonly affected joint in pseudogout---------- Knee joint
10. Chondrocalcinosis is a feature of------------ pseudogout
11. Chemical synovectomy is done by
a. Oxalic acid b. Phenol c. Chymopapain d.Chymotrypsin
12. First sign to appear in Potts spine-------Clonus
13. Initiation of apposition of thumb by --------APB
14. Lowest friction of coefficient is seen in a. Metal on metal
b. Polyethylene on metal c. Ceramic on ceramic d. Ceramic on metal
15. Which is used to decrease wear
a. UHMPE b. Cross leveled PE ?
16. Which layer of physis is involved in achondroplasia ----------Proliferative Zone
17. Contraindicaitons of HTO ------- RA
18. Pemberton Osteotomy hinge is ----------------Triradiate cartilage
19. Components of opposition
a. Adduction of thumb b. Flexion of MCP joint of thumb
c. Pronation of thumb d. Movement of thumb towards the finger??
e. Radial deviation of proximal phalanx of thumb on metacarpal
20. Preganglionic brachial palsy injury

a. Pain in anaesthetic hand b. Histamine negative test
c. Spinal cord dysfunction d. Paralysis of diaphragm and scapular muscles
21. Ligamentous laxity is seen in
a. Osteogenesis imperfect b. Larson syndrome
c. Marfans syndrome d. Ehlers Danlos syndrome
22. Stress fracture is seen in normal bone, repetitive stress, tension or compression type
23. Incomplete spinal cord lesion -----------Sacral sparing
24. Rigid knee gait ---------Lift pelvis in swing phase
25. Gluteus maximus gait-----Backward lurch
26. Spontaneous correction of deformity ?---
a. Pes planus b. Calcaneovalgus? c. Calcaneovarus
27. Metatarsus primus valgus ----Hallux Valgus
28. Cord fish vertebrae is seen in Osteoporosis
29. Least prognosis curve------ Block vertebrae
30. False negative bone scan is seen in--- multiple myeloma
31. Effect of estrogen in bone ------Prevents resorption of bone
32. Nerve repair in which multiple small graft are joined ---------Cable graft
33. Most important landmark for shoulder arthroscopy
a. Biceps tendon b. Subscapularis c. Articular surface to humeral head
34. Footballers ankle
a. Injury to ankle joint capsule anteriorly b. Fracture talus c. Deltoid ligament tear
35. Winging scapula is caused by ----- Long Thoracic nerve palsy
36. Which part of elbow is most commonly affected by osteochondritis dissecans
-----Capitellum
37. Most sensitive investigation for Subtle cervical disc herniation
a. MRI b. Myelogram c. Post myelo CT
38. AVN of femoral head is seen with all of the following except
a. Perthes disease b. Fracture neck of femur
c. Hip dislocation d. Intertrochanteric fracture
39. Drug of choice in Heterotrophic ossification in spine surgery
a. Etidronate b. Indomethacin c. Ibufrofen
40. Malrotated calcaneum in CTEV
a. Calcaneofibular b. Calcaneocuboid c. Interosseous ligament
41. Ligament initiating the apposition of thumb -----Abductor pollicis brevis
42. During the knee replacement
a. Alone mechanical axis parallel b. Tibia 30 degree varus
c. Femoral component in external rotation
d.Femoral component in 5 to 6 degree of valgus
43. Ligamentum flavum calcification seen in?? -----Diabetes, Hemochromatosis, X linked
Hypophosphataemia
MS ORTHO, Internal assessment, MCQ

Part 1
1. Scalenus anticus muscle
a. Pierced by phrenic nerve
b. Separates the subclavian artery and vein from the brachial plexus
c.Is inserted into the first and second rib
d. Separates subclavian vein from the subclavian artery and brachial plexus
2. Adson test is done for
a. To see the patency of ulnar and radial artery in hand
b. To see the compression of median nerve on carpal tunnel
c. To see the compression of subclavian artery
d. To see the compression of radial artery e. To see the compression of brachial plexus
3. Which of the following nerve is a branch of medial cord of brachial plexus
a. Median nerve b. Radial nerve c. Ulnar nerve d. Axillary nerve e. Thoracodorsal
nerve
4. Waiters tip position is seen in
a. Complete brachial palsy injury b. Erbs palsy
c. Klumpkes palsy d. Intrinsic plus hand e. Intrinsic minus hand
5. Which of the following muscle does not take part in formation of rotators cuff
a. Subscapularis b. Teres minor
c. Teres major d. Infraspinatus e. Supraspinatus
6. Which of the following ligament is most important for anterior stability of shoulder joint
a. Coracohumeral ligament b. Superior glenohumeral ligament

c. Middle glenohumeral ligament
e. Inferior glenohumeral ligament f. Coracoclavicular ligament
7. In fracture of surgical neck of humerus integrity of axillary nerve is tested by
a. Abduction of shoulder b. flexion of shoulder
c. Extension of shoulder d. Sensation on regiment batch area
e. Sensation on anterior part of arm
8. Which is not affected by high radial nerve palsy
a. Extension of wrist
b. Extension of MP joint Extension of IP joint of thumb
c. Extension of PIP joint of fingers e. Supination in extension
9. Tardy ulnar nerve palsy is commonly seen in
a. Fracture medial epicondyle b. Fracture medial condyle
c. Fracture lateral condyle d. Fracture lateral epicondyle
e. Supracondylar fracture
10. Which muscle is earlier affected in VIC
a. FDS b. FDP c. FCR d. FPL e. EDC
11. Which is the most important sign in early diagnosis of compartment syndrome
a. Loss of movement b. Loss of sensation
c. Loss of distal pulsation d. Pain on passive extension
e. Capillary refill < 2 seconds
12. Plantar fasciitis is
a. Caused by a bony spur on plantar surface of os calcis
b. Not associated with infection else where in the body
c. A type of dupuytrens contracture
d. Can be relieved by supplying insole
e. A tropical infection
f. Seen in Ankylosing spondylitis, Reiters syndrome
13. Kanavels sign is
a. Swelling above the flexor retinaculum
b. Flexion of thumb when radial bursa is infected
c. Flexion of fingers in a compound palmar ganglion
d. Tenderness on infected ulnar bursa between transverse palmar crease
e. Oedema of dorsum of hand
14. Trench foot is
a. Sodden infected skin of foot following digging of a trench in wet weather
b. An ischaemic condition of foot following exposure to dump and cold in tight
footwear
c. Gas gangrene of foot
d. Chillbains of toes e. A fungal infection
15. Chauffers fracture is
a. A reverse colles fracture b. Fracture of base of 1st metacarpal
c. Scaphoid waist fracture d. Fracture of radial styloid
e. Cause of mallet finger
Part 2 (there may be more than one right answers)

1. In re-implantation surgery of digits
a. Severed digit should be kept within ice
b. Brachial plexus block is contraindicated
c. Bone fixation come first than arterial anastomosis
d. Dorsal vein anastomosis is performed before volar tendon repair
e. Priority is given to implantation of index finger
2. In Primary repair of flexor tendon of hand No mans land indicates
a. Zone 1 b. Zone 2 c. Zone 1 and zone 2 d. Zone 3 e. Zone 2 and zone 3
3. Concerning supracondylar fracture of humerus in children
a. The injury is caused by a fall on the point of elbow
c. Elbow swells rapidly Ischaemia of forearm and is a possibility
d. After closed reduction child is allowed to go home
e. Cubitus valgus deformity is a common deformity
4. In avascular necrosis of femoral head
a. The head is firstly been infarcted b. The infarct is painful
c. Steroid therapy may be a cause d. Alcoholism is a cause
e. Infarction shows an xray by increased radiolucency
Acute suppurative arthritis
a. Can be caused by penetrating wound
b. Usually is monoarticular
c. Gonococcus usually involves polyarticular
d. May cause dislocation e. Results in fibrous ankylosis
5. Management of confirmed acute pyogenic arthritis of hip in children
a. Aspiration of pus and installation of antibiotics
b. Incision and drainage promptly
c. Closure of capsule is mandatory
d. A drain is kept e. Immobilized in hip spica after drainage
6. There is no risk of malignant transformation in a. Fibrous cortical defect b.
Osteoid osteoma c. Simple bone cyst d. Fibrous dysplasia e. Ivory osteoma

7. Codmans triangle is not seen in
a. Ewings sarcoma b. Osteosarcoma
c. Gaint cell tumour d. Acute osteomyelitis e. Chronic osteomyelitis
8. Perthes disease is
a. Fatal b. Self limiting
c. Common in female d. Bilateal in majority
e. A cause of knee pain
9. Containment of perthes disease is continued for
a. 6 weeks b. 12 weeks c. 6 months d. 9 months e. 12 to 18 months
10. Complication of pelvis fracture includes
a. Hypovolemic shock b. Urethral rupture c. Intestinal obstruction d. foot drop
e. Fat embolism
11. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

a. Takes place in resting zone of cartilage b. Takes place in hypertrophic zone
c. takes place in proliferative zone d. takes place in calcification zone
e. Seen in obese or tall and thin people
12. In internal fixation of fracture neck of femur in adult, consideration is given to
a. Duration of fracture b. Age of patient c. Degree of displacement
d. Viability of head e. condition of acetabulum
13. Which of the following is radiological features of ricket
a. Smaller epiphysis b. Narrowed physis
c. Metaphyseal cupping d. Bowing of the diaphysis
e. epiphyseal ring sign
14. Which of the following condition may manifest as ricket
a. A renal glomerular disease b. Renal tubular disease
c. Familial hypophosphaetemia d. Phenobarbital intake
15. Parathyroid hormone
a. Is a polypeptide b. Decreases phosphate excretion in urine
c. Acts through stimulation of adrenylate cycle d. Is excreted in urine
e. Mobilizes calcium from bone
16. The following organisms are usually sensitive to penicillin
a. Neisseria b. Pseudomonas c. Pneumococcus
d. E. coli d. Clostridium perfinges
17. Regarding the tetanus

a. TIG is useful if given in early stage
b. Respiratory arrest is due to flaccid paralysis of respiratory muscles
c. Oppisthotonus appears first d. Trismus appears first
e. Patients level of consciousness is lost during the convulsion
18. Plaster of paris is
a. Anhydrous CaCo3 b.hydrated CaCo3
c. Anhydrous CaSO4 d.Hydrated CaSo4 e. Anhydrous CaPo4
19. Drawer sign is seen in
a. Anterior cruciate injury b. Posterior cruciate injury
c. Collateral ligament of knee injury d. Meniscus injury e. Shoulder instability
20. In intramedullary Kuntscher nailing of fracture shaft of femur
a. Slot is placed anteromediallly b. Slot is placed anterolaterally
c. Incision is in a line from anterior superior iliac spine to lateral epicondyle of femur
d. It does not prevent the rotation but prevents the axial collapse
e. Eye is placed posteromedially
21. In management of open fracture
a. Immediately sent for radiological evaluation
b.High dose of antibiotics prevents the infection
c. Single most important factor is superfical toileting
d. Single most important factor is antibiotic injection
e. Wound should be closed primarily
22. Intracapsular fracture neck of femur

a. Always occurs in elderly women and men
b. May be impacted in abduction
c. when impacted are recognized by shortened leg which lies in internal rotation
d. Is invariably operated on even if undisplaced
e. If unimpacted unlikely to be followed by nonunion
23. In a colles fracture , distal fragment is
a. Displaced medially b. displaced radially
c. Angulated anteriorly d. Angulated radially e. Pronated
24. Boutonniere deformity of finger is
a. Seen osteoarthritis b. Seen in rheumatoid arthritis
c. PIP joint is hyperextended and DIP joint is flexed
d. Because of rupture of collateral slip of extensor mechanism
e. Because of rupture of central slip of extensor mechanism
Internal assessment 2059 chaitra 2059
1. Regarding the recurrent dislocation of shoulder
a. Younger the age of patient with dislocation, Laser the incidence of reccurence
b. Hill Sach lesion is best seen in AP view of x-ray taken with external rotation of
shoulder
c. West point view is done to show the fracture of glenoid rim
d. In Bristow coracoid along with its all muscle is transferred to glenoid rim
2. Lateral condyle fracture

a. Commonest is the Salter Harris type IV
b. Avascular necrosis is not a complication
c. Undisplaced fracture is immobilized with supination and dorsiflexion of wrist
d. Intermuscular ulnar transposition is best done in tardy ulnar nerve palsy
3. Complications of colles fracture
a.Loss of active flexion of thumb b. Carpal tunnel syndrome
c. Mallet finger d. Boutonneire deformity
4. Brachial plexus injury
a. Not seen in new born b. Upper root lesion causes clawing
c. Lower root lesion causes intrinsic minus hand
d. Triple response is absent in root avulsion
5. Open fracture tibia a. Most important step is antibiotic infusion b. Intramedullary
fixation with rimming to insert larger nail can be done c. Do not lead to compartment
syndrome d. Amputation is indicated when MESS score is more than 7

6. Pelvis fracture
a. Doesnot lead to ARDS unless associated chest injury is present
b. External fixator is applied when patient is hemodynamically stable
c.Separation of symphysis is managedconservatively
d. Vertical displacement is seen in outlet view
7. Bone tumour always remain benign is
a. Fibrous dysplasia b. Osteoblastoma
c. Osteoid Osteoma d. Solitary exostosis
8. Peripheral nerve can resist ischaemia up to
a. 30 min b. 2 hrs c. 6 hrs d. 12 hrs
9. The term orthopaedics was coined by
a. Hugh Owen Thomas b. Thomas Bryant
c. Nicholas Andrey d. Sir Robert Jones
10. Ossification in foetus starts in
a. 1st week of intrauterine life b. 3rd week of IUL
c. 5th week of IUL d. 5th months of IUL
11. The most radiosensitive part of bone is
a. Epiphysis b. Osteoblastic layer c. Growing cartilage cells d. Fibroblast
12. In C5-6 disc prolapsed , nerve injury seen is
a. C4 b. C5 c. C6 d. C7
13. Malunion is commonly seen in
a. Scaphoid fracture b. Fracture neck of femur
c. Trochanteric fracture d. Malleolar fracture
14. Bone tumour metastatising to bone is
a. Giant cell tumour b. Ewings sarcoma c. Chondrosarcoma d. Osteosarcoma
15. Which of the following factors is considered a disadvantage when using a triceps splitting
approach for the management of an intra-articular distal humerus fracture

a. Increased risk of radial nerve injury b. Increased risk of ulnar nerve injury
c.Loss of triceps strength d. Inability to adequately see the fracture
16. Virchows triad of factors that leads to the development of venous thrombosis consists of
which of following events

a. Platelet aggregation , thrombin release, and fibrin deposition
b. Venous stasis, endothelial damage, and hypercoagulability
c. Arterial stasis, fibrinolytic activation, and venous stasis
d. Hyperactive platelets, fibrin formation, and clot propagation
17. Which of the following findings is considered the best indication for exploration of the
radial nerve in a patient who has a radial neve palsy and acute humeral shaft fracture
from blunt trauma ?

a. Complete motor and sensory palsy b. Open humeral fracture
c. Oblique distal third humeral fracture d. 100% fracture displacement
18. A 10 years old boy sustains a Salter-Harris type II fracture of the proximal humeral
epiphysis. Examination reveals that the epiphysis is translated 50% and angulated to 35
degree of varus .Management should consist of

a. Shoulder spica cast in flexion and abduction
b. Closed reduction and percutaneous pin fixation
c. Open reduction and internal fixation with flexible intramedullary nails .
d. Open reduction and plate fixation
19. Which of the following is considered an absolute indication for emergency spinal surgery
in a patient with a thoracolumber fracture

a. Concomitant fractures that involve multiple extremities
b. Absence of bowel and bladder function d. Neurogenic shock
c. Progression of neurologic deficit with documented spinal cord compression
20. 58 year old woman sustained a distal radius fracture 8 weeks ago and now returns for
removal of the cast. Examination reveals that flexion of the proximal interphalangeal
joints is less when the metacarpophalangeal joints are extended rather than flexed .What
is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Joint contracture b. Extrinsic tightness
c. Intrinsic tightness d. Volkmann contracture
MCQ Final Exam

1. A 24 year old male is admitted to hospital with scalp lacerations, and fractured femur
following a motor vehicle accident .On the second day it becomes restless, confused,
tachypnoeic, with an oral temperature of 38 degree celcius .The most likely diagnosis is
a. Delayed union b. Fat emboli syndrome c. Secondary hemorrhage

d. Pneumonia e. Pneumothorax
2. A 12 yrs old boy presents having knocked his knee 3 weeks before and now has a painful
knee.X-ray shows the periosteal lifting with irregular bone growth under the periosteum.
The diagnosis is a. Osteomyelitis b. Osteogenic sarcoma

c. Osteogenesis imperfecta d. Bony metastasis e. Hemophilia
3. An 1 year old boy injuries his leg at football presents three weeks later with a painful
lump on the medial aspect of the lower end of the femur . X-ray shows elevated
periosteum and some new bone formation . the most probable diagnosis is
a Osteochondroma b.Osteosarcoma c. Osteoclastoma
d. Hematoma e.Osteomyelitis
4. The sign causing the most concern in a patient with fat embolism is
a. Confusion b. Dyspnoea c. Fat globules in the urine d. Petechial rash
over the upper chest and shoulders e. Fat in sputum f. None of the above
5. A patient with central dislocation of hip following a motor car accident is noted to be
shocked on admission one hour after accident .Most likely cause is

a. Ruptured bladder b. Fat embolism c. Ruptured urethra
d. Neurogenic shock
6. A leaping carpenter lands on his straight lower limb from a height of 3 meters. He
experiences pain on the back of the limb, and stiffness in the lower paraspinous muscles.
Diagnostic evidence of L5/S1 root compression includes

a. Pain on straight leg raising to 40 degrees b. Diminished ankle jerk
c. Increased pain at SLR to 40 degrees by foot dorsiflexion
d. Numbness over the medial aspect of the foot/ankle and at toe
7. Another version: Leaping carpenter sustains sciatic nerve injury .Confirmatory diagnosis
includes
a.Pain at SLR 40 degrees b. Pain at SLR 40 degree with foot dorsiflexion
c. Decreased ankle jerk d. Loss of sensation to medial calf and foot
8. L5/S1 disc prolapsed
a. Ankle jerk reduced b. Sensation reduced at big toe and little toe
c. Urgent decompression is indicated if .
9. No abduction or adduction of the thumb with hand placed lat
a. Median and ulnar nerves involved b. T1 lesion
c. Medial and lateral cords involved d. A and B e. All of above
10. In neve injury, the following is the true
a. Full functional recovery doesnot follow neurotomesis
b.Full functional recovery does not follow axontomesis
c. Divided nerve in a contaminated wound should have primary suture
d. No electrical activity can be generated by muscle stimulation
e. Re-growth occurs from the node of ranvier proximal to the injury
11. In nerve injury which of the following is true
a. Axonotomesis results in degeneration of the cell body
b. Neurotomesis is unlikely to result in good recovery
c. Neuropraxia requires axon re-growth from the node of ranvier proximal to the injured
area
d. Severed nerve must be sutured together even if wound contaminated
12. Meralgia parasthetica is relieved by nerve block of the
a. Lingual nerve b. Trigeminal nerve
c. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve d. Lumber sympathetic chain e. Femoral nerve
13. The commonest organism cultured from the septic arthritis of knee is
a. Neisseria gonorrhea b. Streptococcus pyogenes c. Staph aureus
d. Staph epidermiditis e. E. coli

14. Fat embolus
a. 30% mortality b. Only with orthopaedic injuries
c. Petechial rash from the thrombocytopenia
d. 5% incidence with pelvic and long bone fractures
e.Decreased incidence with early fixation of fractures
15. A 18 year old boy presented in OPD with left monoarticular knee pain.Possible is/are
a. Gout b. Osteoarthritis c. RA d. Reiters disease e. Gonococcal
arthritis
16. True about the non-ossifying fibroma of the bone
a.Present until 3rd and the 4th decade b. Eccentric
c. Prominent sclerotic margin d. Histologically giant cell with areolar tissue in
metaphyseal lesion
17. Bone forming tumours are
a. Osteosarcoma b. Osteoid osteoma c. Giant cell tumour
d. Osteoblastoma e. Chondrosarcoma
18. True about the carpal tunnel syndrome
a. Paraesthesia of lateral 2 digits b. Atrophy of thenar eminence
c. Atrophy of the hypothenar eminence d. Claw hand
e. Tinels sign is positive
19. Traumatic dislocation of epiphyseal plate of femur occurs
a. Medially b. Laterally c. Posteriorly
d.Rotationally e. Anteriorly
20. Avascular necrosis is seen in
a. Sickle cell anaemia b.Thalassemia
c. Polycythemia d. Hyperparathyroidism
21. Chordoma commonly involves
a. Dorsal spine b. Clivus c. Lumber spine
d. Sacrum e. Cervical spine
22. True regarding the osteomyelitis in a child
a. Diagnosis by X-ray is 8 to 10 days after onset
b. There is diffuse tenderness at the site
c. Antibiotic therapy should be at least for 4 weeks
d. Salmonella is the most common cause
23. Mallet finger is due to the avulsion of extensor tendon of
a. Proximal phalanx b. Middle phalanx c. Distal phalanx
d. Metacarpals e. Any other phalanx
24. Osgood Slatters disease affects the
a. Upper tibia b. Lower tibia c. Distal femur d. Proximal femur
25. Seen in B/L congenital hip dislocation is/are
a. Short stature b. Wandering acetabulum
c. Waddling gait d. Lumbar lordosis
26. Trendelenberg gait is done for
a. Perforators b. Saphenofemoral junction incompetence
c. DVT d. Pulmonary embolism
27. Treatment of the fracture with intra-articular extension
a. Excion of the joint b. Arthrodesis
c. Traction d. Intramedullary nailing e. POP
28. Tophi in gout are seen in
a. Articular cartilage b. Joint capsule c. Synovium d. Muscles e. Skin
29. Pagets disease of bone commonly affects
a. Skull b. Vertebrae c. Pelvis d. Phalanges e. Humerus
30. True about the Ewings sarcoma all of the following except
a. 5% cases reveals t(11-22)
b. Arises from the medullary cavity of the tubular bone
c. Arises from the diaphysis d. N-myc Chromosome
31. Blounts disease is
a. Genu valgum b. Tibia vara c. Flat foot d. Genu recurvatum
32. Shepherd crooks deformity is seen
a. Achondroplasia b. Gauchers disease
c.Hypothyroidism d. Fibrous dysplasia
33. Most common cause of genu valgum
a. Trauma b. Rickets c. Polio d. Scurvy
34. Pointin index is seen in
a. Ulnar nerve palsy b. Median nerve palsy
c. Both ulnar and median nerve palsy
35. Onion peel appearance is seen in
a. Osteosarcoma b. Ewings sarcoma c. Osteoclastoma
d. Osteochondroma
36. Progressive stiffning of joint is seen in
a. Peri-arthritis of shoulder b. Osteochondritis
c. Gout d. Ankylosis
37. Calcification of intervertebral disc is seen in
a. Ankylosing spondylitis b. Alkaptonuria
c. Osteomalacia d. Neurofibroma
38. Spina Ventosa is caused by
a. Tuberculosis b. Leprosy c. Metastasis d. Spine deformity
39. True regarding the mandibular fracture is
a. Some infection is harmless b. Aim is to get the good occlusion
c. Open reduction is better d. Always do wiring
40. Pain along hip, back of thigh and loss of sensation along the lateral border of foot and
decreased ankle jerk, site of lesion is

a. L4-L5 b. L5-S1 c. L3 d. T12-L1 e. Metacarpal
41. Carpal tunnel syndrome, all are seen except
a. Loss of sensation over midlle finger b. Opponens pollicis atrophy
c. Flexor Pollicis brevis atrophy d.Adductor pollicis atrophy
42. False regarding the TMJ dislocation is
a. Forward displacement of condyle
b. Treatment is downward and backward displacement
c. Causes pain d. None of the above
43. Weakest part of mandible
a. Subcondylar part b. Coronoid Process c. Angle d. Neck of condyle
44. Definitive diagnosis for blow out fracture of orbit
a. CSF rhinorrhoea b. Loss of vision c. Tear drop sign
d. Fracture of sphenoid sinus
45. X-ray appearances of malignancy are all of the following except
a. Sclerotic margins b. Soft tisue mass
c. Periosteal elevation d. Cortical destruction
46. Non-sensitive to pain
a. synovial membrane b. Articular cartilage c. Muscle d. Periosteum
47. In cervical rib following are seen except
a. Cervical rib palpable b. Ischaemic pain of muscles
c. Atrophy of the muscles d. Radial pulse not palpable
48. Von- Rosen splint is used in
a. CDH b. CTEV c. Fracture shaft of femur d. Fracture tibia
49. Vitamin required for collagen synthesis is
a. Vitamin C b. Vitamin A c. Vitamin D d. Vitamin E
50. CTEV is caused by all of the following except
a. neurological disorder b. Idiopathic c. Spina bifida
d. Cubitus varus e. Arthrogryposis multiplex
51. Fracture of talus may give rise to
a. Avascular necrosis of body b. AVN of neck c. AVN of head d.
OA ankle
52. Treatment of fracture long bone is/are reduction and immobilization with
a. Nails b. Fixation plates c. External fixators
d. Tension band wiring e. Intramedullary fixation
53. All are common with the elbow dislocation except
a. Myositis ossificans progressica b. Median nerve palsy
c. Brachial artery injury c. Volkmans contracture
54. Commonest dislocation of shoulder is
a. Subcoracoid b. Subacromial c. supraacromial d. Posterior
55. Caffeys disease is
a. Chronic osteomyelitis in children b. Osteomyelitis in jaw of children
c.Infantile cortical hyperostosis d. Renal osteodystrophy

56. Xray of Atlanto-axial dislocation should be taken in which position
a. Flexion b. Extension c. Neutral d. Open mouth view
57. Underlying pathology of DDH
a. Small femoral head b. Shallow acetabulum c. Short neck of femur
d. Rotation of femur
58. Usual site of tuberculous bursitis is
a Prepatellar b. Subdeltoid c. Subpatellar
d. Trochanteric e.None
59. All are the predisposing factors for the osteogenic sarcoma except
a. Pagets disease of bone b. Radiation c. Viral infection
d. Bone infarction
60. True about the ganglion
a. Common in volar aspect b. Seen adjacent to tendon sheath
c. Communicates with joint cavity and tendon sheath d. It is unilocular
61. Tardy ulnar nerve palsy caused by
a. supracondylar fracture b. Lateral condylar fracture
c. Olecranon fracture d. Intercondylar fracture e. Distal radioulnar dislocation
62. Which of the following regarding the rickets

a. Increased alkaline phosphatase b. Hyperphosphatemia
c. Hypophosphaturia d. Craniotabes
MCQ Final Exam
1. Oestrogen---------- prevents the osteoclastic resorption of bone
2. Most important factor in varus deformity of supracondylar fracture ---------- Coronal tilt
3. Tumour of epiphyseal location --------- Chondroblastoma
4. Types of congenital pseudoarthrosis where spontaneous correction takes place----
Postero-medial
5. Spontaneous correction of deformity ---------Pes Planus
6. Tendon rupture in RA ---------EPL
7. RVAD in infantile scoliosis ---------->20 degree
8. Snow storm------------Synovial chondromatosis
9. Best view in acromioclavicular joint ---------Cephalic tilt view
10. Blood supply of the patella ------------
11. Pemberton acetabuloplasty -------short head, and CE angle of acetabulum <45 degree
12. Normal CE angle ---------
13. Shape of radiocarpal joint --------Ellipsoid
14. Treatment in Metatarsus adductus of >4 years --------
15. Ape thumb deformity ------------APL
16. Metatarsus primus varus -------Hallux valgus
17. Treatment of stage I or II kienbocks disease ------Radial shortening
18. Shoemaker line in B/L supratrochanteric shortening ---------Meet below the umbilicus
19. Involvement in Achondroplasia ------- Zone of proliferation
20. Metastasis to eyelid from----------Chordoma
21. Acute patellar dislocation -----------?
22. Bone scan to differentiate infection from tumour-----Indium
23. Reverse Pivot Shift test-------------Posterolateral corner injury
24. Subtalar joint position in arthrodesis ------ 5 to 10 degree of valgus
25. Vertical striations in Xrays --------- Hemangioma
26. Commonest form of JCA-------Pauciarticular
27. Osteomyelitis---?
28. Stiff knee gait ---------Lifts the pelvis in swing phase
29. Klumke palsy--------Lower trunk of brachial palsy
30. Egawa test To assess the dorsal interossei of middle finger
31. Most common site of tear----------Musculotendinous junction
32. TFCC injury-----Central part does not heal (Avascular)
33. Vertebra plana--------Eosinophilic granuloma
K type questions
1. Anterior smith-paterson approach structures-----
a. Superior gluteal vessels b. Nutrient artery to illium
c. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve d. Ascending branch of lateral circumflex femoral
artery
2. Gonococcal arthritis
a. Joint aspirate negative b. Throat swab positive c. Arthrotomy
3. Post element tumours
a. Osteoid osteoma b. Osteoblastoma c. ABC d. GCT
4. Chemosensetive tumours
a. Ewings sarcoma b. Osteosarcoma c. Malignant giant cell tumour
5. Severs disease treatment is
a. Rest and observation b. Tendon stretching exercises c. Arch support
d. Heel pad
2064/12
MS orthpaedics/Final Year/IOM
Principles of orthopaedics and trauma surgery and operative
surgery-IV
1. A mangled extremity severity score(MESS) of at least following points indicates that
amputation should be strongly considered over salvage

a. 7 b. 8 c. 9 d.10
2. In early infancy the usual radiographic finding in congenital syphilis is
a. Metaphysitis b. Periosteitis c. Epiphysiolysis
d. Localized cortical osteolysis of diaphysis
3. Dislocation of optic lens is generally noted in
a. Osteogenesis imperfect b. Morquios-brailsford syndrome
c. Marfans syndrome d. Hurlers syndrome
4. What is pathognomic radiographic findings of psoriatic arthritis

a. Lack of para-articular osteopenia
b. Destruction of articular surfaces of PIP and DIP joints
c. Pencil in cup deformity of DIP or PIP joints
d. Chondrocalcinosis of PIP and DIP joints
5. CT helps to detect chest-metastasis as small as
a. 1 mm b. 2 mm c. 3 mm d. 4 mm
6. When mechanical force is applied to bone tissue, the charge is displaced. The
phenomenon is called
a. Stress generated potentials b. Pizo-electric effect
c. Transmembrane potentials d. Streaming potentials
7. Which of the following is true for antalgic gait
a. Duration of swing phase is increased
b. Lurch of body towards the affected side
c. Backward lurch d. Duration of stance phase decreased
8. In supracondylar fracture of humerus the coronal tilt of the distal fragment is indicated in
radiography by
a. Loss of tear drop sign b. Fish tail sign c. Fat pad sign
d. Cresent sign
9. A lady in last trimester of pregnancy presents with pain in the hip and adjacent pelvis the
probable cause is
a. Trochanteric bursitis b. Transient osteoporosis of hip
b. Osteitis pubis d. Sacroilitis due to ligamentous laxity
10. The most common organism responsible for causing septic arthritis in neonate is
a. S. aureus b. Gram negative bacilli c. Group B streptococci ?

d. S. pneumonia
11. A male patient aged 45 years presents with weakness, backache, bone pain and with signs
of cord/nerve root compression. On investigation mild anaemia, raised ESR, raised
creatinine and calcium level detected, the diagnosis is

a. Osteoporosis b. Osteomalacia c. Reticulum sarcoma d. Multiple myeloma
12. Flexor digitorium sublimis tendon insert into the middle phalanx after bifurcation into
two slips and passing around the flexor digitorium profundus. At what level does it
bifurcates
a. Midshaft of metacarpal level b. MCP joint c. Mid shaft of proximal phalanx
d. PIP joint
13. The following condition is the feature of abnormal generalized joint laxity, except
a. Ehler Danlos syndrome b. Homocystinuria c. Marfans syndrome
d. Down syndrome
14. Volar intercalated segment instability(VISI) is associated with what wrist ligament injury
a. Scapho-lunate b. Luno-triquetral c. Luno-capitate d. Radio-luno-capitate ligament

15. Commonest curve in idiopathic infantile scoliosis is
a. Left thoracic curve b. Right lumbar curve
c. Left thoracic curve d. Right thoracic curve
16. Soap bubble appearances in radiograph is seen in
a. Osteoclastoma b. Osteosarcoma c. Ewings sarcoma d. Lymphoma
17. Commonest malignancy following the pagets disease
a. Fibrosarcoma b. Osteosarcoma
c. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma d.Chondrosarcoma
18. Melon seed bodies are seen in
a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Psoriatic arthritis c. TB synovitis
d. Heberdens osteoarthritis
19. A motion segment of spine is made up of
a. One vertebra b. One vertebra and two adjacent discs
c. Two adjacent vertebrae and one intervening disc
d. Two adjacent vertebrae and three adjacent discs
20. Muscle inserted to pyriformis fossa of femur is
a. Obturator internis b. Pyriformis c. Obturator externus ? d. Gamelli
21. Blood supply to patella is by
a. Superior lateral genicular artery b. Middle genicular artery
c. Superior medial genicular artery d. Inferior lateral genicular artery
22. Double density sign in bone scan is diagnostic of
a. Avascular necrosis of femoral head b. Osteoid osteoma c. Brodies abscess
d. Eosinophilic granuloma
23. Three phase radionuclide scanning in osteomyelitis shows increased uptake in
a. The flow phase b. The equilibrium phase c. The delayed phase
d. All three phases
24. What is the most common cause of back pain in teen athletic
a. Spondylosis b.Herniated disc c. Ankylosing spondylitis d. Discitis
25. The hand grips on axillary crutches are placed in such a position that will maintain elbow
at certain position ideal for the proper use of crutches. What would be the position of
elbow
a. 10 deg flexion b. 20 deg flexion c. 30 deg flexion d. 40 deg flexion
26. Local application of the following drug is used for eradication of pseudomonas infection
a. Acriflavin solution b. Eusol paraffin c. Acetic acid d. Tincture iodine

27. A caudal block epidural analgesia provides analgesia for procedures below the level of
a. Diaphragm b. Umbilicus c. Hip d. Knee

28. The rib-vertebral angle difference (RVAD) measurement is predicted in
a. Juvenile idiopathic scoliosis b. Infantile idiopathic scoliosis c.
Adolescent idiopathic scoliosis d. Congenital scoliosis

29. Drumstick or chicken leg appearance in lateral view of the knee indicates the radiological
diagnosis of
a. Rheumatoid arthritis of knee b. Osteoarthritis of knee
c. Gouty arthritis of knee d. TB arthritis of the knee
30. Which of the following benign condition is associated with dark appearance on T2
weighted images
a. Lipoma b. Leiomyoma c. Lymphangioma d. Pigmented villonodular synovitis
31. Which tumour notoriously seeds soft tissue after biopsy or inadequate resection
a. Chordoma b. Ewings sarcoma c. Osteosarcoma d. Chondrosarcoma

32. To detect the potential form of perthes disease following investigation is done
a. Arthrography b. MRI c. CT scan d. Bone scan
33. The commonest type of tarsal coalition is

a. Talo-calcaneal b. Calcaneo-navicular d. Calcaneo-cuboid
34. Which of the following is the EMG feature of myelography
a. Increased amplitude b. Fibrillation potential c. Polyphasic
d. Decreased duration of response
35. Classification of menisci is seen in
a. Hyperthyroidism b. Psedogout c. Renal osteodystrophy c. Acromegaly
36. An injury of neuropathy of which nerve causes winging deformity of scapula
a. Dorsal scapular b. Thoracodorsal c. Suprascapular d. Long thoracic nerve
MCQS- K types
A if only 1,2 and 3 are correct
B if only 1 qnd 2 are correct
C if only 2 and 4 are correct
D if only 4 is correct
E If all are correct
37. Skip bone metastasis is seen with
1. Giant cell tumour 2. Ewings sarcoma 3. Chondrosarcoma 4. Osteosarcoma ----C
38. Pre-requisite for high tibial valgus osteotomy in medial tibiofemoral osteoarthritis with
varus deformity is/are

1. Competent medial collateral ligament 2. Patients older than 60 yrs
3. Adequate motion ( Flexion greater than 90 degree and flexion contracture less than 15
deg) 4.Competent lateral collateral ligament--------B
39. Which of the following condition is/are associated with Klippel Feil syndrome
1. Deafness 2. Synkinesis 3. Sprengel deformities 4. DDH-----A
40. Articular cartilage changes in OA includes
1. Decreased water content 2. Loss of proteoglycans 3. Cartilage
becomes more stiff 4. Damage to chondrocytes and release of enzymes--------C

MCQ
1. Cervical disc diagnosis ----MRI
2. Overgrowth after amputation is common in ------Humerus
3. Arthrodesis of knee ----- 0-15 deg flexion,0-10 deg external rotation, 5-8 deg valgus
4. Intramedullary tumour enhancing???
5. Safe screw placement in THR----Postero-superior region
6. Vertical striations --------Hemangioma
7. Lateral elbow instability
8. Sciatic nerve exploration in hip dislocation ------4 weeks
9. Pigmented villonodular synovitis
10. CTEV ligaments
11. Multiple Epiphyseal dysplasia
12. Frankels grading
13. Treatment of choice for supraspinatus tendon tear
14. Sequestrated disc Common sites of disc- L4/L5> L5/S1 > L3/L4 > L2/L3 > L1/L2
15. Hip dislocation post-THR ---Within 3 months
16. PIVD--- leg symptoms
17. Drug of choice in heterotopic ossification----- Etidronate, Indomethacin?
18. Bladder-----Automatic bladder when the lesion at S2 or above, Autonomous bladder
when the lesion below S2

19. THR -Least wear ----Ceramics on ceramics
20. Lateral release not helful in ---------ligamentous laxity
21. Merchant view------40 degree, Laurence view-----20 degree
22. Stiff knee gait --------Pelvis raised during swing phase
23. Melon seeds(Rice bodies)-----TB synovitis
24. Pediatric fracture neck of femur---AVN
25. Essex Leprosti fracture------ Fracture radial head dislocation of inferior radi-oulnar joint
26. TFCC-----Components
27. Codfish vertebrae--------Osteoporosis
28. Grip stability -----Adduction of wrist
29. Scheurmans disease
30. MRI in scoliosis --------To R/O Tethered cord syndrome
31. Secondary curve
32. Irreparable cord injury in TB------- Infarction of cord
33. Most progressive curve in scoliosis
34. Somatosensary evoked potential
MCQs
1. Egawa test
2. Bennediction attitude of finger Median nerve injury
3. Lachman test
4. Blinking owl appearances Pedicle destruction in secondary metastasis in vertebra
5. Reissers sign
6. Types of sequestra--------TB osteomelitis; Sandy/feathery, Acinomycosis; Black, Pin
tract infection; Ring, Chronic osteomyelitis in children; diaphysis

7. Brown tumour
8. Tendon transfer
9. Gluteus medius gait
10. Calcification in knee joint---Pseudogout
11. Mineralization in bone marrow---Osteonectin
12. Ehlers Danlos syndrome
13. Glomus tumour ---Resembles with Enchondroma
14. Chondroblastoma--------Epiphyseal
15. Calcitonin---------Pagets disease
16. Potential Perthes--- MRI
17. Judets view
18. Cavus foot----- DF lateral view
19. DDH osteotomy
20. Potts spine --- Clonus
21. Coracoacromial ligament--- Main obstachles that causes impingement(After
impingement surgery repair of deltoid is very important aspect)

22. Morphology of acromianThree types
23. Tarsal coalition----Common is calcaneonavicular
24. Infantile scoliosis---- Spontaneous correction 90%
25. >20 degree, Brace in scoliosis
26. Fragile blood vessels, generalized ligamentous laxity ----- Ehlers Danlos syndrome
(vascular fragility) Marfan, Larson, Osteogenesis imperfecta (Generalized ligamentous
laxity)
27. Infection spreads in infants by metaphyseal and epiphyseal anastomosis, while in adults
hematogenous infection common in vertebrae

28. Shovellers fracture -------Stress fracture of spinous process of vertebrae
29. Shoemakers line
30. Epiphyseal tumours
31. Cervical nerve compression in C5/C6 disc prolapsed-----C5 nerve root??
32. Juvenile scoliosis ---If curve > 20 degree, Milwalke brace
33. Vertebra plana-----Eosinophilic granuloma
34. Spondylolisthesis ------Commonest type: Isthmic
35. Differentiate malignancy from infection------Indium bone scan
36. Early feature of TB -------Clonus
37. CTEV correction after treatment is check with -------Check Xray AP and Lateral ( Lateral
view help in confirmation of correction of deformity by various treatment modalities)

38. Brachial plexus injury is diagnosed ------------MRI
39. In hyperthyroidism -------Fibrous tissue replaces the trabecular bone
40. Small head big acetabulum in DDH, T/T option is -----Pemberton Osteotomy
41. Transient osteoporosis of hip common in pregnancy
42. Tendon transfer at age of --------5 years
43. Skin laxity/ Scoliosis / Bleeding---E/D syndrome
44. Congenital dislocation in hip--------Usually occurs posterior so extension is limited
45. Spontaneously corrected deformity---------Calcaneovalgus
46. Approach which places directly at neck of femur--------Modified harding
47. Hypophosphatemic ricket-----------X-linked dominant
48. Which structure prevents reduction in CTEV----Calcaneofibular ligament
49. Clenched fist AP is taken for ------- DISI/Fracture scaphoid
50. Femoral roll back absent in------PCL deficient or PCL sacrificing TKR
51. Physeal fracture occurs in ----------Provisional calcification
52. T/T of metatarsus adductus in 4 yrs old child ----- Multiple metatarsal osteotomy
53. Position of subtalar joint at the time of arthrodesis-------- 5- 10 deg valgus
54. Commonest presentation of scheurmans disease ------Deformity
55. Quadrilateral space syndrome-----Axillary nerve plus posterior circumflex humeral
artery
56. Tibialis posterior -----Strength test
57. Fallen fragment sign----- Simple bone cyst
58. Abnormal nerve anastomosis between median and ulnar nerve; Abovemiddle of
forearm: Martin Grube anastomosis, Below---At wrist RC anastomosis

59. Gold standard test in pulmonary embolism------Pulmonary angiography and that for DVT
is Venography
60. Acute patellar dislocation----Barrels sign
61. Radiocapitate joint-------- Ellipsoid

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A collection of old questions including MCQs for MS

MS ORTHOPAEDICS/Final year /IOM

Surgical pathology and surgical management V

to relieve the pain in genu varum deformity.

technique of open Bankarts repair.

deformities in post polio residual paralysis?

management of osteochondral damage?

in DDH and outline their principles.

MS ORTHOPAEDICS/Final year /IOM

Principle and orthopaedics and trauma surgery and operative surgery IV

1. Discuss operative modalities in potts spine.

MS ORTHOPAEDICS/Final year /IOM

Surgical pathology and surgical management V

1. What are the causes of spinal canal stenosis ?

are the recent advances in medical treatment of this disease?

outcome of nerve graft?

MS ORTHOPAEDICS/Final year /IOM

1. Discuss indications and operative modalities in potts spine.

management plan. When conservative treatment can be adopted?

while taking the flap.

MS ORTHOPAEDICS/Final year /IOM

1. Principles and technique of open biopsy of musculoskeletal tumours.

Bankarts surgery? Describe surgical exposure of this surgery?

finger and its management.

MS ORTHOPAEDICS/Final year /IOM

1. What are the causes of spinal canal stenosis.

MS ORTHOPAEDICS/Final year /IOM

shoulder? Outline the principles of bankarts operation.

MS ORTHOPAEDICS/Final year /IOM

Principle of orthopaedics and trauma surgery and operative surgery IV

years old with ulnar bowing?

considerations? What are its limitations?

MS ORTHOPAEDICS/Final year /IOM

1. Discuss briefly various operative modalities in potts spine.

MS ORTHOPAEDICS/Final year /IOM

Principles of orthopadics and trauma surgery and operative surgery IV

1. Outline treatment of polyarticular Rheumatoid arthritis.

differs from high lesions? Explain

MS ORTHOPAEDICS/Final year /IOM

Why this approach has limited value?

responsible for the union of scaphoid fractures

open reduction? Describe the approach.

MS ORTHOPAEDICS/Final year /IOM

Surgical pathology and surgical management V

MS ORTHOPAEDICS/Final year /IOM

Principle of orthopaedics and trauma surgery and operative surgery IV

outcome of nerve graft?

mechanism to relieve the pain in genu varum deformity.

ilio-femoral approach to the hip.

MS ORTHOPAEDICS/Final year /IOM

Principle of orthopaedics and trauma surgery and operative surgery IV

1. What are the causes of spinal canal stenosis ?

appearance and management.

characteristics important to predict prognosis and to formulate the treatment plan of

be the devastating complications and how do you manage that condition?

MS ORTHOPAEDICS/Final year /IOM

Surgical pathology and surgical management V

1. What are the causes of spinal canal stenosis?