Banking and Computer PDF
Banking and Computer PDF
Banking and Computer PDF
BANKING NOTES
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1
CHAPTER 1
Bank
A bank is a financial intermediary that accepts deposits and channels those deposits into lending
activities, either directly by loaning or indirectly through capital markets. A bank links together
customers that have capital deficits and customers with capital surpluses.
Types of Bank
1. Para banking- When Bank provide banking services except the general banking facility.
2. Narrow Banking- When banks invest its money in government securities instead investing in
market to avoid risk.
3. Overseas Banking- Banks having branches in other countries besides its origin country.
Example Bank of Baroda has maximum foreign branches by any indian bank
4. Offshore Banking- Bank which accept currency of all countries. Offshore banks are in those
countries which declares them as Heaven Bank Country. Example- Swiss Banks
6. Islamic bank- Those Banks which work according to Islamic Laws. Concept originate in
Egypt. Islamic bank opens at Cochin in kerala in 2010.
7. Kiosk Banking- When we Deposit or withdraw money from booths , it is called Kiosk
banking.
8.Defence Banking- Full banking services made available to all members of the Defence force,
including non-uniformed personnel and other civilians.
9.Retail Banking- Retail banking refers to the division of a bank that deals directly with retail
customers. Also known as consumer banking or personal banking, retail banking is the visible
face of banking to the general public.
10 Banking on Wheel- to provide banking services in remote villages which are devoid of
banking facilities as part its financial inclusion plan.
Classification of Banks
2. Scheduled Banks
A scheduled bank is a bank that is listed under the second schedule of the RBI Act, 1934. In
order to be included under this schedule of the RBI Act.
Scheduled banks are further classified into commercial and cooperative banks.
2. Co-operative Banks
Commercial Banks refer to both scheduled and non -scheduled commercial banks which are
regulated under Banking Regulation Act, 1949
.
(a) Scheduled Commercial Banks are grouped under following categories:
1. State Bank of India and its Associates
2. Nationalised Banks
3. Foreign Banks
4. Regional Rural Banks
5. Other Scheduled Commercial Banks.
(b) Non - Scheduled Commercial Banks
Note: Banks in the groups (1) & (2) above are known as public sector banks whereas, other
scheduled commercial banks mentioned at group (5) above are known as private sector banks.
• Commercial banks are the single most important source of institutional credit in India. A bank
is an institution that accepts deposits of money from the public, withdrawable by cheque and
used for lending.
•Two essential functions which make a financial institution a bank -
I. acceptance of chequable deposits (of money) from the public and II. Lending.
• Three things about deposits are noteworthy:
• They are deposits of money
• Deposits are accepted from public at large
• Deposits are repayable on demand and withdraw -able by cheque
As bank (under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949) is not allowed to carry on any business of its
own (other than that of banking), the word lending is used here broadly to include both direct
lending to borrowers and indirect lending through investment in open - market securities
NATIONALISATION OF BANKS
Functions of Banks
Acceptance of money on deposit from the public.
Collection of cheques, drafts, bills, hundis, and other instruments (inland and foreign) for their
depositors.
Issue of performance and financial guarantees.
Provision of remittance facilities by issue of drafts, mail transfers, and telegraphic transfers.
Provision of facilities of safe custody of deeds and securities and safe deposits vaults.
Purchase and sale of securities for their constituents.
Bank Deposits
Current Accounts are basically meant for businessmen and are never used for the purpose of
investment or savings. These deposits are the most liquid deposits and there are no limits for
number of transactions or the amount of transactions in a day. Most of the current account are
opened in the names of firm / company accounts. Cheque book facility is provided and the
account holder can deposit all types of the cheques and drafts in their name or endorsed in their
favour by third parties. No interest is paid by banks on these accounts. On the other hand,
banks charges certain service charges, on such accounts.
(a) The main objective of Current Account holders in opening these account is to enable them
(mostly businessmen) to conduct their business transactions smoothly.
(b) There are no restrictions on the number of times deposit in cash / cheque can be made or the
amount of such deposits;
(c) Usually banks do not have any interest on such current accounts. However, in recent times
some banks have introduced special current accounts where interest (as per banks' own
guidelines) is paid
(d) The current accounts do not have any fixed maturity as these are on continuous basis
accounts
Saving Accounts- These deposits accounts are one of the most popular deposits for individual
accounts. These accounts not only provide cheque facility but also have lot of flexibility for
deposits and withdrawal of funds from the account. Most of the banks have rules for the
maximum number of withdrawals in a period and the maximum amount of withdrawal, but
hardly any bank enforces these. However, banks have every right to enforce such restrictions if
it is felt that the account is being misused as a current account. Till 24/10/2011, the interest on
Saving Bank Accounts was regulared by RBI and it was fixed at 4.00% on daily balance
basis. However, wef 25th October, 2011, RBI has deregulated Saving Fund account interest
rates and now banks are free to decide the same within certain conditions imposed by
RBI. Under directions of RBI, now banks are also required to open no frill accounts (this term
is used for accounts which do not have any minimum balance requirements). Although Public
Sector Banks still pay only 4% rate of interest, some private banks like Kotak Bank and Yes
Bank pay between 6% and 7% on such deposits. From the FY 2012-13, interest earned upto Rs
10,000 in a financial year on Saving Bank accounts is exempted from tax.
Recurring Deposit Accounts- These are popularly known as RD accounts and are special kind
of Term Deposits and are suitable for people who do not have lump sum amount of savings, but
are ready to save a small amount every month. Normally, such deposits earn interest on the
amount already deposited (through monthly installments) at the same rates as are applicable for
Fixed Deposits / Term Deposits. These are best if you wish to create a fund for your child's
education or marriage of your daughter or buy a car without loans or save for the future.
Recurring Deposit accounts are normally allowed for maturities ranging from 6 months to 120
months. A Pass book is usually issued wherein the person can get the entries for all the
deposits made by him / her and the interest earned. Banks also indicate the maturity value of the
RD assuming that the monthly instalents will be paid regularly on due dates. In case instalment
is delayed, the interest payable in the account will be reduced and some nominal penalty charged
for default in regular payments. Premature withdrawal of accumulated amount permitted is
usually allowed (however, penalty may be imposed for early withdrawals). These accounts can
be opened in single or joint names. Nomination facility is also available.
The RD interest rates paid by banks in India are usually the same as payable on Fixed Deposits,
except when specific rates on FDs are paid for particular number of days e.g. 500 days, 555 days,
1111 days etc i.e. these are not ending in a quarter.
All Banks in India (including SBI, PNB, BoB, BoI, Canara Bank, ICICI Bank, Yes Bank
etc.) offer fixed deposits schemes with a wide range of tenures for periods from 7 days to 10
years. These are also popularly known as FD accounts. However, in some other countries
these are known as "Term Deposits" or even called "Bond". The term "fixed" in Fixed Deposits
(FD) denotes the period of maturity or tenor. Therefore, the depositors are supposed to continue
such Fixed Deposits for the length of time for which the depositor decides to keep the money
with the bank. However, in case of need, the depositor can ask for closing (or breaking) the
fixed deposit prematurely by paying paying a penalty (usually of 1%, but some banks either
charge less or no penalty). (Some banks introduced variable interest fixed deposits. The rate
of interest on such deposits keeps on varying with the prevalent market rates i.e. it will go up if
market interest rates goes and it will come down if the market rates fall. However, such type of
fixed deposits have not been popular till date).
The rate of interest for Fixed Deposits differs from bank to bank (unlike earlier when the same
were regulated by RBI and all banks used to have the same interest rate structure. The present
trends indicate that private sector and foreign banks offer higher rate of interest.
Non Performing Asset means an asset or account of borrower, which has been classified by a
bank or financial institution as sub-standard, doubtful or loss asset in accordance with the
directions or guidelines relating to asset classification issued by RBI
An asset, including a leased asset, becomes non-performing when it ceases to generate income
for the bank.
(i) Interest and/ or instalment of principal remain overdue for a period of more than
90 days in respect of a term loan,
(ii) The account remains ‘out of order’ in respect of an Overdraft/Cash Credit
(OD/CC), if the outstanding balance remains continuously in excess of the
sanctioned limit/drawing power. In cases where the outstanding balance in the
principal operating account is less than the sanctioned limit / drawing power, but
there are no credits continuously for 90 days as on the date of Balance Sheet or
credits are not enough to cover the interest debited during the same period, these
accounts should be treated as 'out of order'.
(iii) The bill remains overdue for a period of more than 90 days in the case of bills
purchased and discounted,
(iv) The instalment of principal or interest thereon remains overdue for two crop
seasons for short duration crops,
(v) The instalment of principal or interest thereon remains overdue for one
Crop season for long duration crops,
(vi) The amount of liquidity facility remains outstanding for more than 90 days, in
respect of a securitisation transaction undertaken in terms of guidelines on
securitisation dated February 1, 2006.
(vii) In respect of derivative transactions, the overdue receivables representing positive
mark-to-market value of a derivative contract, if these remain unpaid for a period
of 90 days from the specified due date for payment.
CHAPTER 2
Establishment
The Reserve Bank of India was established on April 1, 1935 in accordance with the provisions of
the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
The Central Office of the Reserve Bank was initially established in Calcutta but was permanently
moved to Mumbai in 1937. The Central Office is where the Governor sits and where policies are
formulated.
Though originally privately owned, since nationalisation in 1949, the Reserve Bank is fully
owned by the Government of India.
Central Board
The Reserve Bank's affairs are governed by a central board of directors. The board is appointed
by the Government of India in keeping with the Reserve Bank of India Act.
Local Boards
One each for the four regions of the country in Mumbai, Calcutta, Chennai and New Delhi
Membership:
consist of five members each
appointed by the Central Government
for a term of four years
Functions : To advise the Central Board on local matters and to represent territorial and
economic interests of local cooperative and indigenous banks; to perform such other functions as
delegated by Central Board from time to time.
Main Functions
Monetary Authority:
• Prescribes broad parameters of banking operations within which the country's banking
and financial system functions.
• Objective: maintain public confidence in the system, protect depositors' interest and
provide cost-effective banking services to the public.
Issuer of currency:
• Issues and exchanges or destroys currency and coins not fit for circulation.
• Objective: to give the public adequate quantity of supplies of currency notes and coins
and in good quality.
Developmental role
Related Functions
• Banker to the Government: performs merchant banking function for the central and the
state governments; also acts as their banker.
• Banker to banks: maintains banking accounts of all scheduled banks.
Offices
Training Establishments
• Two, namely, College of Agricultural Banking and Reserve Bank of India Staff College
are part of the Reserve Bank
• Others are autonomous, such as, National Institute for Bank Management, Indira Gandhi
Institute for Development Research (IGIDR), Institute for Development and Research in
Banking Technology (IDRBT)
RBI has power to fix SLR in the range of 25% and 40% between 1990 and 1992 SLR was as
high as 38.5%. Narasimham Committee did not favour maintenance of high SLR. The SLR was
lowered down to 25% from 10thOctober 1997.It was further reduced to 24% on November 2008.
At present it is 25%.
Reverse repo rate is the rate that banks get from RBI for parking their short term excess funds
with RBI. Repo and reverse repo operations are used by RBI in its Liquidity Adjustment Facility.
RBI contracts credit by increasing the repo and reverse repo rates and by decreasing them it
expands credit.
1. Ceiling On Credit
The Ceiling on level of credit restricts the lending capacity of a bank to grant advances against
certain controlled securities.
2. Margin Requirements :-
A loan is sanctioned against Collateral Security. Margin means that proportion of the value of
security against which loan is not given. Margin against a particular security is reduced or
increased in order to encourager to discourage the flow of credit to a particular sector. It varies
from 20% to 80%. For agricultural commodities it is as high as 75%. Higher the margin lesser
will be the loan sanctioned.
4. Directives:-
The RBI issues directives to banks regarding advances. Directives are regarding the purpose for
which loans may or may not be given.
5. Direct Action
It is too severe and is therefore rarely followed. It may involve refusal by RBI to rediscount bills
or cancellation of license, if the bank has failed to comply with the directives of RBI.
6. Moral Suasion
Under Moral Suasion, RBI issues periodical letters to bank to exercise control over credit in
general or advances against particular commodities. Periodic discussions are held with
authorities of commercial banks in this respect.
CHAPTER 3
Q.2. Are all bank branches in the country part of the NEFT funds transfer network?
Ans: For being part of the NEFT funds transfer network, a bank branch has to be NEFT-
enabled. The list of bank-wise branches which are participating in NEFT is provided in the
website of Reserve Bank of India
Q.5. Is there any limit on the amount that could be transferred using NEFT?
Ans: No. There is no limit – either minimum or maximum – on the amount of funds that could be
transferred using NEFT. However, maximum amount per transaction is limited to Rs.50,000/- for
cash-based remittances and remittances to Nepal.
Q.7. Whether the system is centre specific or has any geographical restriction?
Ans: No. There is no restriction of centres or of any geographical area within the country. The
NEFT system takes advantage of the core banking system in banks. Accordingly, the settlement
of funds between originating and receiving banks takes places centrally at Mumbai, whereas the
branches participating in NEFT can be located anywhere across the length and breadth of the
country.
character is 0 (zero). IFSC is used by the NEFT system to identify the originating / destination
banks / branches and also to route the messages appropriately to the concerned banks / branches.
Q.10. What are the processing or service charges for NEFT transactions?
Ans: The structure of charges that can be levied on the customer for NEFT is given below:
a) Inward transactions at destination bank branches (for credit to beneficiary accounts)
– Free, no charges to be levied from beneficiaries
b) Outward transactions at originating bank branches – charges applicable for the remitter
- For transactions up to Rs 10,000 : not exceeding Rs 2.50 (+ Service Tax)
- For transactions above Rs 10,000 up to Rs 1 lakh: not exceeding Rs 5 (+ Service Tax)
- For transactions above Rs 1 lakh and up to Rs 2 lakhs: not exceeding Rs 15 (+ Service Tax)
- For transactions above Rs 2 lakhs: not exceeding Rs 25 (+ Service Tax)
c) Charges applicable for transferring funds from India to Nepal using the NEFT system (under
the Indo-Nepal Remittance Facility Scheme) is available on the website of RBI With effect from
1st July 2011, originating banks are required to pay a nominal charge of 25 paise each per
transaction to the clearing house as well as destination bank as service charge. However, these
charges cannot be passed on to the customers by the banks.
Q.11. When can the beneficiary expect to get the credit to his bank account?
Ans: The beneficiary can expect to get credit for the first ten batches on week days (i.e.,
transactions from 8 am to 5 pm) and the first five batches on Saturdays (i.e., transactions from 8
am to 12 noon) on the same day. For transactions settled in the last two batches on week days
(i.e., transactions settled in the 6 and 7 pm batches) and the last batch on Saturdays (i.e.,
transactions handled in the 1 pm batch) beneficiaries can expect to get credit either on the same
day or on the next working day morning (depending on the type of facility enjoyed by the
beneficiary with his bank).
Q.12. Who should be contacted in case of non-credit or delay in credit to the beneficiary
account?
Ans: In case of non-credit or delay in credit to the beneficiary account, the NEFT Customer
Facilitation Centre (CFC) of the respective bank can be contacted (the remitter can contact his
bank’s CFC; the beneficiary may contact the CFC of his bank). Details of NEFT Customer
Facilitation Centres of banks are available on the websites of the respective banks. The details
are also available on the website of Reserve Bank of India
If the issue is not resolved satisfactorily, the NEFT Help Desk (or Customer Facilitation Centre
of Reserve Bank of India) at National Clearing Cell, Reserve Bank of India, Mumbai may be
contacted through e-mail or by addressing correspondence to the General Manager, Reserve
Bank of India, National Clearing Centre, First Floor, Free Press House, Nariman Point, Mumbai
– 400 021.
Q.13. What will happen if credit is not afforded to the account of the beneficiary?
Ans: If it is not possible to afford credit to the account of the beneficiary for whatever reason,
destination banks are required to return the transaction (to the originating branch) within two
hours of completion of the batch in which the transaction was processed.
For example, if a customer submits a fund transfer request at 12.05 p.m. to a NEFT-enabled
branch, the branch in turn forwards the message through its pooling centre to the NEFT Clearing
Centre for processing in the immediately available batch which (say) is the 1.00 pm batch. If the
destination bank is unable to afford the credit to the beneficiary for any reason, it has to return
the transaction to the originating bank, not later than in the 3.00 pm batch. On receiving such a
returned transaction, the originating bank has to credit the amount back to account of the
originating customer. To conclude, for all uncredited transactions, customers can reasonably
expect the funds to be received back by them in around 3 to 4 hours time.
Q.14. Can NEFT be used to transfer funds from / to NRE and NRO accounts?
Ans: Yes. NEFT can be used to transfer funds from or to NRE and NRO accounts in the country.
This, however, is subject to the adherence of the provisions of the Foreign Exchange
Management Act, 2000 (FEMA) and Wire Transfer Guidelines.
Q.16. What are the other transactions that could be initiated using NEFT?
Ans: Besides personal funds transfer, the NEFT system can also be used for a variety of
transaction including payment of credit card dues to the card issuing banks. It is necessary to
quote the IFSC of the beneficiary card issuing bank to initiate the bill payment transactions using
NEFT.
Q.17. Can a transaction be originated to draw (receive) funds from another account?
Ans : No. NEFT is a credit-push system i.e., transactions can be originated only to transfer /
remit funds to a beneficiary.
Q.18. Would the remitter receive an acknowledgement once the funds are transferred to
the account of the beneficiary?
Ans: Yes. In case of successful credit to the beneficiary's account, the bank which had originated
the transaction is expected to send a confirmation to the originating customer (through SMS or e-
mail) advising of the credit as also mentioning the date and time of credit. For the purpose,
remitters need to provide their mobile number / e-mail-id to the branch at the time of originating
the transaction.
• Originating and destination bank branches should be part of the NEFT network
• Beneficiary details such as beneficiary name, account number and account type, name
and IFSC of the beneficiary bank branch should be available with the remitter
• For net banking customers, some banks provide the facility to automatically pop-up the
IFSC once name of the destination bank and branch is highlighted / chosen / indicated /
keyed in.
• The remitter need not send the physical cheque or Demand Draft to the beneficiary.
• The beneficiary need not visit his / her bank for depositing the paper instruments.
• The beneficiary need not be apprehensive of loss / theft of physical instruments or the
likelihood of fraudulent encashment thereof.
• Cost effective.
• Credit confirmation of the remittances sent by SMS or email.
• Remitter can initiate the remittances from his home / place of work using the internet
banking also.
• Near real time transfer of the funds to the beneficiary account in a secure manner.
RTGS
Q2. How RTGS is different from National Electronics Funds Transfer System (NEFT)?
Ans. NEFT is an electronic fund transfer system that operates on a Deferred Net Settlement
(DNS) basis which settles transactions in batches. In DNS, the settlement takes place with all
transactions received till the particular cut-off time. These transactions are netted (payable and
receivables) in NEFT whereas in RTGS the transactions are settled individually. For example,
currently, NEFT operates in hourly batches. [There are twelve settlements from 8 am to 7 pm on
week days and six settlements from 8 am to 1 pm on Saturdays.] Any transaction initiated after a
designated settlement time would have to wait till the next designated settlement time Contrary
to this, in the RTGS transactions are processed continuously throughout the RTGS business
hours.
Q3. Is there any minimum / maximum amount stipulation for RTGS transactions?
Ans. The RTGS system is primarily meant for large value transactions. The minimum amount to
be remitted through RTGS is ` 2 lakh. There is no upper ceiling for RTGS transactions.
Q4. What is the time taken for effecting funds transfer from one account to another under
RTGS?
Ans. Under normal circumstances the beneficiary branches are expected to receive the funds in
real time as soon as funds are transferred by the remitting bank. The beneficiary bank has to
credit the beneficiary's account within 30 minutes of receiving the funds transfer message.
Q5. Would the remitting customer receive an acknowledgement of money credited to the
beneficiary's account?
Ans. The remitting bank receives a message from the Reserve Bank that money has been
credited to the receiving bank. Based on this the remitting bank can advise the remitting
customer through SMS that money has been credited to the receiving bank.
Q6. Would the remitting customer get back the money if it is not credited to the
beneficiary's account? When?
Ans. Yes. Funds, received by a RTGS member for the credit to a beneficiary customer’s account,
will be returned to the originating RTGS member within one hour of the receipt of the payment
at the PI of the recipient bank or before the end of the RTGS Business day, whichever is earlier,
if it is not possible to credit the funds to the beneficiary customer’s account for any reason e.g.
account does not exist, account frozen, etc. Once the money is received back by the remitting
bank, the original debit entry in the customer's account is reversed.
Q8. What about Processing Charges / Service Charges for RTGS transactions?
Ans With a view to rationalize the service charges levied by banks for offering funds transfer
through RTGS system, a broad framework has been mandated as under:
a) Inward transactions – Free, no charge to be levied.
b) Outward transactions – ` 2 lakh to ` 5 lakh - not exceeding ` 30.00 per transaction;
Above ` 5 lakh – not exceeding ` 55.00 per transaction.
Q9. What is the essential information that the remitting customer would have to furnish to
a bank for the remittance to be effected?
Ans. The remitting customer has to furnish the following information to a bank for initiating a
RTGS remittance:
1. Amount to be remitted
2. Remitting customer’s account number which is to be debited
3. Name of the beneficiary bank and branch
4. The IFSC Number of the receiving branch
5. Name of the beneficiary customer
6. Account number of the beneficiary customer
7. Sender to receiver information, if any
Q10. How would one know the IFSC number of the receiving branch?
Ans. The beneficiary customer can obtain the IFSC code from his bank branch. The IFSC code is
also available on the cheque leaf. The list of IFSCs is also available on the RBI website . This
code number and bank branch details can be communicated by the beneficiary to the remitting
customer.
Q12. Is there any way that a remitting customer can track the remittance transaction?
Ans It would depend on the arrangement between the remitting customer and the remitting bank.
Some banks with internet banking facility provide this service. Once the funds are credited to the
account of the beneficiary bank, the remitting customer gets a confirmation from his bank either
by an e-mail or SMS. Customer may also contact RTGS / NEFT Customer Facilitation Centres
of the banks, for tracking a transaction.
Q13. Whom do I can contact, in case of non-credit or delay in credit to the beneficiary
account?
Ans. Contact your bank / branch. If the issue is not resolved satisfactorily, complaint may be
lodged to the Customer Service Department of RBI at -
The Chief General Manager
Reserve Bank of India
Customer Service Department
1st Floor, Amar Building, Fort
Mumbai – 400 001
Or send email
Q14. How can a remitting customer know whether the bank branch of the beneficiary
accepts remittance through RTGS?
Ans. For a funds transfer to go through RTGS, both the sending bank branch and the receiving
bank branch would have to be RTGS enabled. The lists are readily available at all RTGS enabled
branches. Besides, the information is available at RBI website. Considering that more than
110,000 branches at more than 30,000 cities / towns / taluka places are covered under the RTGS
system, getting this information would not be difficult.
CHAPTER 4
National Income
Product has two types of cost
1. Factor cost
2. Market cost
National income first time calculated by Dadabhai naroji in 1867 and he wrote a book “ Povery
& Unbritish Rule in India”
1931-32 Mr. V.K.R.V Rao calculated national Income second time.(First time by scientific way)
1949 National Income Committee headed by P.C Mahalanobis (Economist)
Note- 2nd five year model based on P.C Mahalanobis .
29th june is celebrated as National Statistical Day
Gross domestic product(GDP)- The total monetary value of all final goods and services
produced ina geographical boundary in a financial year.
Gross Natioanl Product(GNP)- IN GDP, add the income earned by Nationals (people of India)
in Foreign country andsubstract the income earned by foreigners within the country(India).
CHAPTER 5
Inflation
Inflation-Inflation is a persistent increase in the general price level of goods and services in
an economy over a period of time
In India for inflation measurement Base year is 2004-05.
Types of Inflation-
1. Demand Pull Inflation- occurs demand for goods and services exceed the supply.
2. Cost Push Inflation- Price increse duw to increse in price of other products.
3. Wages Inflation- It occur due to increase in wages as a result purchasing power of people
increase.
4. Imported Inflation- The general price level rises in a country because of the rise in prices of
imported commodities.
Categories of Inflation-
1. Creeping Inflation- When there is a general rise in prices at very low rates, which is usually
between 2-4 percent annually.
2. Walking Inflation - This type of strong, or pernicious, inflation is between 3-10% a year. It
is harmful to the economy because it heats up economic growth too fast.
3. Galloping Inflation- When inflation rises to ten percent or greater, it wreaks absolute havoc
on the economy. Money loses value so fast that business and employee income can't keep up
with costs and prices.
4. Hyper Inflation- Hyperinflation is when the prices skyrocket more than 50% -- a month. It is
fortunately very rare.
1. Deflation- Deflation is the opposite of inflation -- it's when prices fall. It is caused by a
reduction in the supply of money or credit .
3. Stagflation- A condition of slow economic growth and relatively high unemployemnt- a time
of stagnation- accompanied by a rise in rises , or inflation.
4. Disinflation- A slowing in the rate of price inflation. Disinflation is used to describe instances
when the inflation rate has reduced marginally over the short term. It is used to describe periods
of slow inflation.
5. Reflation- Reflation is the act of stimulating the economy by incresing the money supply or
by reducing taxes. it is opposite of disinflation.
CHAPTER 6
Categories of Budget-
1. Gender Budget
2. Zero base Budget
3. Outcome Budget
4. Traditional Budget
5. Performance Budget
6. Interim Budget
2. Zero base Budget- When government form budget without considering last years budget
performance that is called zero base budget.
3. Outcome Budget- When budget is result oriented(means particular sector growth related).
4. Traditional Budget- When income estimated and expenditure fixed is called Traditional
budget.
5. Performance Budget- When government form budget with considering last year budget.
Note- First time budget was represented by Robert woolpoul in 1773 in U.K.
Bugat is a french word for Budget.
In India under Constitution Article 112 government present Union Budget. In constitution of
India annual financial statement is mentioned not budget.
India's First Budget was presented by James Wilson in 1860 when lord canning is viceroy of
India.
In 1921 Edward committee recommend to divide budget in two parts-
1. Rail Budget
2. Union Budget
First Independent India's Budget presented by Mr. R. K kshadmugam chatti (it is first interim
budget) in November 1947.
First Republic India's Budget presented byMr. John Mathei.
CHAPTER 7
3. How many Banking Ombudsmen have been appointed and where are they located?
As on date, fifteen Banking Ombudsmen have been appointed with their offices located mostly
in state capitals. The addresses and contact details of the Banking Ombudsman offices have been
provided in the annex.
4. Which are the banks covered under the Banking Ombudsman Scheme, 2006?
All Scheduled Commercial Banks, Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Primary Co-operative
Banks are covered under the Scheme.
No, The Banking Ombudsman does not charge any fee for filing and resolving customers‘
complaints.
CHAPTER 8
MONEY
Money is a thing that is usually accepted as payment for goods and services as well as for the
repayment of debts.
Types of Money
Commodity Money -
Commodity money value is derived from the commodity out of which it is made. The
commodity itself represents money and the money is the commodity. For instance, commodities
that have been used as mediums of exchange include gold, silver, copper, salt, peppercorns, rice,
large stones, etc.
Representative Money -
Representative Money includes token coins, or any other physical tokens like certificates, that
can be reliably exchanged for a fixed amount/quantity of a commodity like gold or silver.
Fiat Money -
Fiat money, also known as fiat currency is the money whose value is not derived from any
intrinsic value or any guarantee that it can be converted into valuable commodity (like gold).
Instead, it
derives value only based on government order (fiat).
only deposits of the public held by the banks are to be included in money supply.
The interbank deposits, which a commercial bank holds in other commercial banks, are not to be
regarded as part of money supply.
M1 and M2 are known as narrow money. M3 and M4 are known as broad money.These
gradations are in decreasing order of liquidity. M1 is most liquid and easiest for transactions
whereas
M4 is least liquid of all. M3 is the most commonly used measure of money supply. It is also
known as aggregate monetary resources.
CHAPTER 9
Money Market
A money market is a market for borrowing and lending of short-term funds. It deals in funds and
financial instruments having a maturity period of one day to one year. It is a mechanism through
which short-term funds are loaned or borrowed and through which a large part of financial
transactions of a particular country or of the world are cleared.
It is not a single market but a collection of markets for several instruments like call money
market, Commercial bill market etc. The Reserve Bank of India is the most important constituent
of Indian money market
In money market the players are :-Government, RBI, DFHI (Discount and finance House of
India) Banks, Mutual Funds, Corporate Investors, Provident Funds, PSUs (Public Sector
Undertakings), NBFCs (Non-Banking Finance Companies) etc.
Organised Money Market is not a single market, it consist of number of markets. The most
important feature of money market instrument is that it is liquid. It is characterised by high
degree of safety of principal. Following are the instruments which are traded in money market
3) Commercial Bills :-
Commercial bills are short term, negotiable and self liquidating money market instruments with
low risk. A bill of exchange is drawn by a seller on the buyer to make payment within a certain
period of time. Generally, the maturity period is of three months. Commercial bill can be resold a
number of times during the usance period of bill.
March 7, 2000 MMMFs have been brought under the purview of SEBI regulations. At present
there are 3 MMMFs in operation.
Loan companies are found in all parts of the country. Their total capital consists of borrowings,
deposits and owned funds. They give loans to retailers, wholesalers, artisans and self employed
persons. They offer a high rate of interest along with other incentives to attract deposits. They
charge high rate of interest varying from 36% to 48% p.a.
4. Finance Brokers
They are found in all major urban markets specially in cloth, grain and commodity markets.
They act as middlemen between lenders and borrowers. They charge commission for their
services.
CHAPTER 10
CAPITAL MARKET :-
Capital market deals with medium term and long term funds. It refers to all facilities and the
institutional arrangements for borrowing and lending term funds (medium term and long term).
The demand for long term funds comes from private business corporations, public corporations
and the government. The supply of funds comes largely from individual and institutional
investors, banks and special industrial financial institutions and Government.
d) Financial Intermediaries :-
Financial Intermediaries include merchant banks, Mutual Fund, Leasing companies etc. they help
in mobilizing savings and supplying funds to capital market.
Primary market
Secondary market
a) Primary Market :-
Primary market is the new issue market of shares, preference shares and debentures of non-
government public limited companies and issue of public sector bonds.
b) Secondary Market
This refers to old or already issued securities. It is composed of industrial security market or
stock exchange market and gilt-edged market.
CHAPTER 11
Headquarters
Banks
Delhi Punjab National bank
Punjab and sind bank
Bharatiya Mahilla Bank
Oriental Bank of Commerce(Gurgaon)
CHAPTER 12
CHAPTER 13
DEMATERIALISATION
Dematerialisation is the process by which a client can get physical certificates converted into
electronic balances. An investor intending to dematerialise its securities needs to have an account
with a DP. The client has to deface and surrender the certificates registered in its name to the DP.
After intimating NSDL electronically, the DP sends the securities to the concerned Issuer/ R&T
agent. NSDL in turn informs the Issuer/ R&T agent electronically, using NSDL Depository
system, about the request for dematerialisation. If the Issuer/ R&T agent finds the certificates in
order, it registers NSDL as the holder of the securities (the investor will be the beneficial owner)
and communicates to NSDL the confirmation of request electronically. On receiving such
confirmation, NSDL credits the securities in the depository account of the Investor with the DP.
Demat Account means an account in the dematerialized form having only digital documents.
CHAPTER 14
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) was established by Government of India through
an executive resolution in the year 1988. SEBI was subsequently upgraded as a fully autonomous
body in 1992 with the passing of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act (SEBI Act) on
30th January 1992. In the year 1995, the SEBI was given additional statutory power by the
Government of India through an amendment to the securities and Exchange Board of India Act
1992.
1. The headquarter of SEBI is located in the business district of Bandra-Kurla complex in
Mumbai.
2. The Chairman of SEBI – Upendra Kumar Sinha (UK Sinha)
3. The Whole Time Member of SEBI- Prashant Saran
4. The firstchairman of SEBI was – Dr. S. A. Dave
5. SEBI deals with – the issuers of securities,the investors and the market intermediaries.
4. NABARD
Headquarters in Mumbai
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is an apex development
bank in India having headquarters based in Mumbai (Maharashtra) and other branches are all
over the country. The Committee to Review Arrangements for Institutional Credit for
Agriculture and Rural Development (CRAFICARD), set up by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
under the Chairmanship of Shri B. Sivaraman, conceived and recommended the establishment of
the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD). It was established on 12
July 1982 by a special act by the parliament and its main focus was to uplift rural India by
increasing the credit flow for elevation of agriculture & rural non farm sector and completed its
25 years on 12 July 2007. It has been accredited with "matters concerning policy, planning and
operations in the field of credit for agriculture and other economic activities in rural areas in
India". RBI sold its stake in NABARD to the Government of India, which now holds 99% stake.
NABARD is active in developing financial inclusion policy and is a member of the Alliance for
Financial Inclusion.
Role
NABARD is the apex institution in the country which looks after the development of the cottage
industry, small industry and village industry, and other rural industries. NABARD also reaches
out to allied economies and supports and promotes integrated development. And to help
NABARD discharge its duty, it has been given certain roles as follows:
1. Serves as an apex financing agency for the institutions providing investment and
production credit for promoting the various developmental activities in rural areas
2. Takes measures towards institution building for improving absorptive capacity of the
credit delivery system, including monitoring, formulation of rehabilitation schemes,
restructuring of credit institutions, training of personnel, etc.
3. Co-ordinates the rural financing activities of all institutions engaged in developmental
work at the field level and maintains liaison with Government of India, State
Governments, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and other national level institutions
concerned with policy formulation
4. Undertakes monitoring and evaluation of projects refinanced by it.
5. NABARD refinances the financial institutions which finances the rural sector.
6. The institutions which help the rural economy, NABARD helps develop.
7. NABARD also keeps a check on its client institutes.
8. It regulates the institution which provides financial help to the rural economy.
9. It provides training facilities to the institutions working the field of rural upliftment.
10. It regulates the cooperative banks and the RRB’s, and manages talent acquisition through
IBPS CWE
ICICI was formed in 1955 at the initiative of the World Bank, the Government of India
and representatives of Indian industry. The principal objective was to create a
development financial institution for providing medium-term and long-term project
financing to Indian businesses. In the 1990s, ICICI transformed its business from a
development financial institution offering only project finance to a diversified financial
services group offering a wide variety of products and services, both directly and through
a number of subsidiaries and affiliates like ICICI Bank. In 1999, ICICI become the first
Indian company and the first bank or financial institution from non-Japan Asia to be
listed on the NYSE.
After consideration of various corporate structuring alternatives in the context of the emerging
competitive scenario in the Indian banking industry, and the move towards universal banking,
themanagements of ICICI and ICICI Bank formed the view that the merger of ICICI with ICICI
Bank would be the optimal strategic alternative for both entities, and would create the optimal
legal structure for the ICICI group's universal banking strategy. The merger would enhance value
for ICICI shareholders through the merged entity's access to low-cost deposits, greater
opportunities for earning fee-based income and the ability to participate in the payments system
and provide transaction-banking services. The merger would enhance value for ICICI Bank
shareholders through a large capital base and scale of operations, seamless access to ICICI's
strong corporate relationships built up over five decades, entry into new business segments,
higher market share in various business se segments, particularly fee-based services, and access
to the vast talent pool of ICICI and its subsidiaries. In October 2001, the Boards of Directors of
ICICI and ICICI Bank approved the merger of ICICI and two of its wholly-owned retail finance
subsidiaries, ICICI Personal Financial Services Limited and ICICI Capital Services Limited,
with ICICI Bank. The merger was approved by shareholders of ICICI and ICICI Bank in January
2002, by the High Court of Gujarat at Ahmedabad in March 2002, and by the High Court of
Judicature at Mumbai and the Reserve Bank of India in April 2002. Consequent to the merger,
the ICICI group's financing and banking operations, both wholesale and retail, have been
integrated in a single entity.
The operation of the SFCs suffers from a very high ratio of overdues/defaults, excessive
concentration of loan finance, weak promotional role, and delays in sanctioning arid disbursing
assistance.
CHAPTER 15
DIRECT TAX
Direct Taxes are those taxes whose burden to the pay the tax directly lays on the tax payer. It is
generally imposed on individual person or property. Direct taxes accounts for more than half of
the total tax revenue of the central Government. It includes income tax, wealth tax, house tax etc.
Taxes on Wealth and Income The central government levies a number of taxes on income and
wealth of which only personal income tax and corporation tax are important.
Personal Income Tax: It is levied on the incomes of individual, Hindu Families, unregistered
firms and other association of people. For taxation purposes, income from all sources is added.
Corporation Tax: Corporation Tax is levied on the income of registered companies and
corporations. The rationale for the corporation tax is that a joint stock company has a separate
entity and thus a separate tax different from personal income tax has to be levied on its income.
Taxes on Wealth & Capital The taxes which have been levied on wealth and capital are mainly
three: estate duty, annual tax on wealth, and gift tax
Estate Duty: It was first introduced in India in 1953. It was levied on total property passing
on the death of the person. The whole property of deceased constituted the estate and was
considered liable to pay the estate duty.
Annual Tax on Wealth: it was first introduced in May 1957 on the recommendation of Kaldor. It is levied
on the excess of net wealth over exemption of individual, Joint Hindu Families and companies.
Gift Tax was first introduced in the year 1958. It was treated as complementary to the estate duty and
annual tax on wealth. The gift tax was leviable on all donations except the one given by charitable,
Government Companies and private companies.
INDIRECT TAX
Indirect Taxes are those taxes, which are collected from intermediary from the individual who
bears the ultimate economic burden of tax. In other words, it is the tax whose liability to pay is
one person and burden to pay is other individual. Indirect Tax includes sales tax, value added
tax, entertainment tax and so on. Some of them are mentioned below:
Custom Duties -While using its constitutional power, the central government levies duties on
both import and exports. Import duties in India are generally levied on advalorem basis which
implies that they are determined as certain percentage of the price of commodity.
Excise Duties An excise duty is in true sense a commodity tax because it is levied on production
and has absolutely no connection with its actual sale. Excise duties on commodities other than
alcoholic liquor and narcotics are levied by the central government
CHAPTER 16
CHAPTER 17
Important Committees
List of Committees Name of Subject
committee
Bhagwati Committee Public Welfare
Bhagwati Committee Unemployment
Bhide Committee Co-ordination between
commercial banks and SFCs
AK Bhuchar Committee Co-ordination between term
lending institutions and
commercial banks.
Bothalingam Committee Wage, Income and Prices
Sukhmoy Chakravarty To review the working of the
Committee monetary system
Raja Chelliah Committee Tax reforms
Cheshi Committee Direct Taxes
SC Chokshi Committee Direct Tax Law
KB Chore Committee To review the system of Cash
Credit
Cook Committee (on behalf of Capital Adequacy of banks
Bank for International
Settlements - Basle Committee)
VT Dehejia Committee To examine the extent to which
the credit needs of industry and
trade which are likely to be
inflated and how such trends
could be checked
GS Dahotre Committee To examine the credit
requirements of Leasing
industry
ML Dantwala Committee RRBs
Dharia Committee Public Distribution System
Dutta Committee Industrial Licensing
Gadgil Committee Lead Bank Scheme (1969)
Shankarlal Gauri Committee Agricultural Marketing
A Ghosh Committee Frauds and malpractices in
banks
CHAPTER 18
RUPAY CARD
RuPay is the Indian domestic card payment network set up by National Payments Corporation of
India (NPCI) at the behest of banks in India. The RuPay project had been conceived by Indian
Banks Association (IBA) and had the approval of Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
RuPay LogoNational Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has a plan to provide a full range of
card payment services including the RuPay ATM, RuPay MicroATM, Debit, Prepaid and Credit
Cards which will be accepted in India and abroad, across various channels like POS, Internet,
IVR and mobile etc.
The initial focus of NPCI would be to approach those banks who have not been issuing any
payment card at all more specifically – Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and urban co-operative
banks.
All Public Sector Undertakings (PSU) banks set to join RuPay system by the end of year 2012.
RuPay-based debit cards can be used by the consumers on the Internet from September, 2012.
The government of India had launched India’s first domestic payment card network, RuPay, to
compete with Visa Inc and Mastercard Inc.
Objectives of RuPay:
The Main Objective of the RuPay payment network project is to reduce the overall transaction
cost and develop products appropriate for financial inclusion.
1. Reduce overall transaction cost for the banks in India by introducing competition to
international card schemes.
2. Develop products appropriate for the country particularly for financial inclusion.
3. Provide card payment service option to many banks who are currently not eligible for card
issuance under the eligibility criteria of international card schemes.
4. Build environment whereby payment information of the country remains within the country
5. Shift Personal Consumption Expenditure (PCE) from cash to electronic payments in a growing
economy with a population of 1.2 billion
CHAPTER 18
Basel Norms
Basel is the city of Switzerland where in 1992 the BIS conference was held (Banks for
International Settlement) & this conference for organized by the European Banks in which they
have prepared some guidelines for the banking industry dividing into parts Basel-I & Basel-II.
Basel I- between1994 to 1004
Basel II- after 2004
The Basel-I guidelines were only intact with the car of the banks in which banks were bound to
maintain their car between 8-12%
BASEL III
Basel III (or the Third Basel Accord) is a global, voluntary regulatory standard on bank capital
adequacy, stress testing and market liquidity risk. It was agreed upon by the members of the
Basel Committee on Banking Supervision in 2010–11, and was scheduled to be introduced from
2013 until 2015; however, changes from 1st April 2013 extended implementation until 31 March
2018. The third installment of the Basel Accords (see Basel I, Basel II) was developed in
response to the deficiencies in financial regulation revealed by the late-2000s financial crisis.
Basel III was supposed to strengthen bank capital requirements by increasing bank liquidity and
decreasing bank leverage.
Capital requirements:
The original Basel III rule from 2010 was supposed to require banks to hold 4.5% of common
equity (up from 2% in Basel II) and 6% of Tier I capital (up from 4% in Basel II) of "risk-
weighted assets" (RWA).[3] Basel III introduced "additional capital buffers", (i) a "mandatory
capital conservation buffer" of 2.5% and (ii) a "discretionary counter-cyclical buffer", which
would allow national regulators to require up to another 2.5% of capital during periods of high
credit growth.
Leverage ratio:
Basel III introduced a minimum "leverage ratio". The leverage ratio was calculated by dividing
Tier 1 capital by the bank's average total consolidated assets; The banks were expected to
maintain a leverage ratio in excess of 3% under Basel III. In July 2013, the US Federal Reserve
Bank announced that the minimum Basel III leverage ratio would be 6% for 8 Systemically
important financial institution (SIFI) banks and 5% for their insured bank holding companies.
Liquidity requirements: Basel III introduced two required liquidity ratios. The "Liquidity
Coverage Ratio" was supposed to require a bank to hold sufficient high-quality liquid assets to
cover its total net cash outflows over 30 days; the Net Stable Funding Ratio was to require the
available amount of stable funding to exceed the required amount of stable funding over a one-
year period of extended stress.
Tier I Capital:
Tier 1 capital is the core measure of a bank's financial strength from a regulator's point of view.
It is Bcomposed of core capital, which consists primarily of common stock and disclosed
reserves (or retained earnings), but may also include non-redeemable non-cumulative preferred
stock. The Basel Committee also observed that banks have used innovative instruments over the
years to generate Tier 1 capital; these are subject to stringent conditions and are limited to a
maximum of 15% of total Tier 1 capital. This part of the Tier 1 capital will be phased out during
the implementation of Basel III.
Tier II Capital:
Tier 2 capital, or supplementary capital, include a number of important and legitimate
constituents of a bank's capital base. These forms of banking capital were largely standardized in
the Basel I accord, issued by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision and left untouched by
the Basel II accord. National regulators of most countries around the world have implemented
these standards in local legislation. In the calculation of regulatory capital, Tier 2 is limited to
100% of Tier 1 capital.
CHAPTER 19
Banking Terminology
MICROCREDIT OR MICROFINANCE
Micro credit is the extension of very small loans to the unemployed to poor Endeavour and to
others living in poverty who are not considered bankable. These individuals lack collateral
steady employment and variable credit history and therefore cannot meet even the most minimal
qualification to gain excess to traditional credit.
Microcredit is a part of microfinance which is the provision of the wider range of the financial
services to the very poor. Microcredit is the financial innovation which originated in Bangladesh
where it has successfully enabled to extremely impoverish people to engage itself employment
project. The founder of this microcredit is Prof. Mohammad Yunus in mid 1970s. He is also the
founder of grami8n bank of Bangladesh with which Mr. Yunus has received the Noble Peace
Price 2006 and to pay respect towards microcredit the united nation organization has declared
year 2005 “The International Year of Microcredit.”
MUTUAL FUND
A Mutual Fund is the professionally manage firm of collective investments that pools money
from many investors in stock market, bonds, short term, money market instruments and in other
securities. In mutual fund is a fund manager who is also called Portfolio manager trades the fund
underlined Securities. The value of the share of mutual fund is called the net asset value which is
calculated daily wage on a total value divided be a number of shares, issued and outstanding
there are two types of Mutual Fund.
• Open Ended Mutual Fund
• Closed Ended Mutual Fund
BULLION MARKET
A market where the trading of precious metals held like: Gold, Silver, Diamond, Platinum and
Crystal.
STOCK MARKET
A stock market is a private or public market for trading of company, stock and derivatives of
company stock at an agreed price. Both of these are securities listed on stock exchange as well as
those only traded privately.
BULL
Bull is an investor who thinks the market a specific security or an industry will raise. Bulls are
the optimistic investors presently predicting good things of the market and bullish is a habit to
purchase that share which is in profit they are responsible to Rose in stock exchanges.
BEAR
It is an investor who believes that a particular security or market is headed downward. Bears
attempt to profit from a decline in prices. A Bear is generally pessimistic about the state of the
given market.
STAG
A Stag is an investor or speculator who subscribes to a new issue with the intention of selling
them soon after allotment to realize for quick profit.
CAPITAL MARKET
The Capital Market is the market for securities where companies and government can raise long
term fund. The Capital Market includes the stock market and the Bond Market.
CALL MONEY
Cal Money Market is the market in which broker and dealers borrow money to satisfy their credit
needs either to finance their own inventory or to cover their customer margin Accounts.
DEBIT CARD
Debit Card is also known as gift card. It is a type of plastic money which provides an alternative
payment method for cash withdrawals through automated tailor machine and this is a prepaid
ATM card.
CREDIT CARD
A Credit Card allows you to borrow money when you purchases. It doesn’t directly debit from
your bank account at the time of purchase instead you are sent a bill every month for the sum of
total of your purchase. In other words this Post Paid Money Card.
SMART CARD
A Smart Card or chip card or integrated circuit card is defined as a pocket sized card with
embedded integrated circuit which can process information. This is a card with all personal
information of any individual in financial and Money Market.
MASTER CARD
Master Card international is a multinational corporation based in purchase throughout the world.
Its principal business is to process payment between bank of merchants and the bank of purchase
that used its master card I.E. Master Card is a service provider company Master Card
international incorporated has been a publicity traded company since 2006 with the brand name
Master Card. All financial institutions in banks are the member of this Master Card international
for service providing except bank of America. Bank of America has its own service proving
company named as VISA international.
VISA CARD
Visa Card is a type of debit card on Visa network. It has VISA logo and can be accepted to pay
for the things and the money is drawn directly from your account. These are the debit cards,
which are subject to a daily limit, and/or a maximum limit equal to the current/checking account
balance from which it draws funds.
Signature Attestation
RTGS
Real time gross settlement is a fund transfer mechanism where transfer of money takes place
from one bank to another on a real time and on gross basis. This is the fastest possible money
transfer system through the banking channel. The RTGS system is primary for large value
transaction. The minimum amount is Rs. 1 Lakh and there is no upper ceiling for RTGS
transaction while the minimum and maximum stipulation has been fixed for EFT and NEFT.
NEFT
NEFT is nationwide fund transfer system to facilitate transfer of funds from any bank branch to
any other bank. As on Dec 29, 2007 34510 bank branches of 82 banks where the member of
NEFT system. The NEFT is an electronic fund system to transfer funds from any part of country
to any other part of country and work on net settlement.
CBS
Core or centralized banking solution is a heart of banking system. This is a process by which a
bank has interconnect their maximum branches through wide area network and only this system
provide a facility of any branch or any time banking.
FINANCIAL INCLUSION
It is a delivery of banking services at an affordable cost to the vast section of disadvantage or low
income group or this is a facility provided by the banking sector to connect each and every
individual to the financial network and the main component of this financial inclusion is no-full
account and simplification of know your customers.
LIBOR
London Interbank Offered Rate.
MIBOR
Mumbai Interbank Offered Rate.
MIBID
Mumbai Interbank Bid Rate
SARFAESI ACT
Securisation and reconstruction of financial assets and enforcement of securities interest Act.
BOND
Bond is a debt security in which the authorized issuer owes the holders a debt and s oblique to
repaid the principal with interest at the later date and termed maturity.
DEBENTURES
It is a long term debit instrument issued by government and large companies to obtained funds. It
is very similar to bonds except the securisation condition is different.
CAMELS
This is the rating system of RBI for banking recommended by Padmanabhan Committee.
C- Capital Adequacy
Assets Quality or Level of NPA.
M- Management Effectiveness.
E- Earning of Profitability.
L- Liquidity
S- System and Controls.
Rear-real effective exchange rate.
MORTGAGE
A Mortgage is a method of using property as a security for the performance of an obligation,
usually the payment of a debt. The term Mortgage refers to a legal device used for this purpose
and it is also commonly used to refer to a debt secure by the Mortgage.
REVERSE MORTGAGE
These are the powerful tools that help eligible home loaners to obtain tax free cash flow.
Fisheries
Agriculture Allied
Small Scale Industries
Cottage Industries
Handicrafts
Houses for the Poor
The Bankers are bound to lend their 40% of the total lending in priority sector r and 18% of their
total lending for agriculture. The PSL attract very reduced or less interest rate and if farmers are
unable to repay this, loan GOI is bound to waive this loan because of Social Responsibility.
REPO RATE
Repo Rate is the Tool by which RBI in flews liquidity in the financial system. Or it is the rate of
interest at which RBI. Provide short term loans to the scheduled commercial Bank against the
government securities. (Maximum-90 days)
BANK RATE
Bank Rate is the rate of interest at which RBI provide loan to the scheduled Commercial banks
for productive purpose & for long term period (more than 4 year]
CRR
CRR is the ratio of banks total deposits for which they are bound to keep with the RBI. It could
be between minimum 3% to maximum 15% & CRR is the most effective measure to check
inflation if CRR increases bank are bound to keep more money with the RBI & the liquidity in
market decreases & the value of money increases & inflation come down.
SLR
SLR is the ratio of banks total deposits for which banks are required to keep with themselves If
might be in form of cash, gold, government securities and deposits in other banks as current
account.
DEFICIT FINANCING
The concept of deficit financing is propounded by Prof. J. M. Kenes in his book "how to pay for
war 1940" Deficit financing is a practice adopted by all popular government for bridging the gap
between their revenue and expenditure i.e. it is plan excess of expenditure over revenue.
Deliberately budgeting for deficit is deficit financing. Deficit financing is only fulfilled by the
Borrowings and never by printing of new notes.
SEZ
SEZ means Special Economic Zone is the one of the part of government’s policies in India. A
special Economic zone is a geographical region that economic laws which are more liberal than
the usual economic laws in the country. The basic motto behind this is to increase foreign
investment, development of infrastructure, job opportunities and increase the income level of the
people.
A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is a company registered under the Companies Act,
1956 engaged in the business of loans and advances, acquisition of
shares/stocks/bonds/debentures/securities issued by Government or local authority or other
marketable securities of a like nature, leasing, hire-purchase, insurance business, chit business
but does not include any institution whose principal business is that of agriculture activity,
industrial activity, purchase or sale of any goods (other than securities) or providing any services
and sale/purchase/construction of immovable property. A non-banking institution which is a
company and has principal business of receiving deposits under any scheme or arrangement in
one lump sum or in installments by way of contributions or in any other manner, is also a non-
banking financial company (Residuary non-banking company).
Cheque: Cheuqe is a negotiable instrument instructing a bank to pay a specific amount from a
specific account held in the maker/depositor name with that Bank.
Demand Draft: A demand draft is an instrument used for effecting transfer of money. It is a
negotiable instrument.
BSBDA
Under the guidelines issued on August 10, 2012 by RBI: Any individual, including poor or those
from weaker section of the society, can open zero balance account in any bank. BSBDA
guidelines are applicable to "all scheduled commercial banks in India, including foreign banks
having branches in India".
All the accounts opened earlier as 'no-frills' account should be renamed as BSBDA. Banks are
required to convert the existing 'no-frills' accounts’ into 'Basic Savings Bank Deposit Accounts'.
The 'Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account' should be considered as a normal banking service
available to all customers, through branches .
The aim of introducing 'Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account' is very much part of the efforts of
RBI for furthering Financial Inclusion objectives.
SWIFT
• SWIFT Code is a standard format of bank Identifier code. This code is used particularly
in International transfer of money between banks.
• A majority of FOREX related message are sent to correspondent banks abroad through
SWIFT.
2 – country code
2 – location code
DeMat Account
DeMat is nothing but a dematerialized account. If one has to save money or make cheque
payments, then he/she needs to open a bank account. Similarly, one needs to open a DeMat
account if he/she wants to buy or sell stocks. Thus, DeMat account is similar to a bank account
wherein the actual money is being replaced by shares. In order to open a DeMat account, one
needs to approach the Depository Participants [DPs].
In India, a DeMat account is a type of banking account that dematerializes paper-based physical
stock shares. The DeMat account is used to avoid holding of physical shares: the shares are
bought as well as sold through a stock broker. In this case, the advantage is that one does not
need any physical evidence for possessing these shares. All the things are taken care of by the
DPs.
This account is very popular in India. Physically only 500 shares can be traded as per the
provision given by SEBI. From April 2006, it has become mandatory for any person holding a
DeMat account to possess a Permanent Account Number (PAN).
Bitcoin
Bitcoin is a consensus network that enables a new payment system and a completely digital
money. It is the first decentralized peer-to-peer payment network that is powered by its users
with no central authority or middlemen. From a user perspective, Bitcoin is pretty much like cash
for the Internet. Bitcoin can also be seen as the most prominent triple entry bookkeeping system
in existence
Fiscal Policy
Fiscal policy is the use of government spending and revenue collection to influence the
economy. These policies affect tax rates, interest rates and government spending, in an effort to
control the economy. Fiscal policy is an additional method to determine public revenue and
public expenditure.
FII
FII (Foreign Institutional Investor) used to denote an investor, mostly in the form of an
institution. An institution established outside India, which proposes to invest in Indian market, in
other words buying Indian stocks. FII's generally buy in large volumes which has an impact on
the stock markets. Institutional Investors includes pension funds, mutual funds, Insurance
Companies, Banks, etc.
FDI
FDI (Foreign Direct Investment) occurs with the purchase of the “physical assets or a significant
amount of ownership (stock) of a company in another country in order to gain a measure of
management control” (Or) A foreign company having a stake in a Indian Company.
IPO
IPO is Initial Public Offering. This is the first offering of shares to the general public from a
company wishes to list on the stock exchanges.
GDP
The Gross Domestic Product or GDP is a measure of all of the services and goods produced in a
country over a specific period; classically a year.
GNP
Gross National Product is measured as GDP plus income of residents from investments made
abroad minus income earned by foreigners in domestic market.
Revenue deficit
It defines that, where the net amount received (by taxes & other forms) fails to meet the
predicted net amount to be received by the government.
Disinvestment
Fiscal Deficit
It is the difference between the government’s total receipts (excluding borrowings) and total
expenditure.
National Income
National Income is the money value of all goods and services produced in a Country during the
year.
ATMs: (Automated Teller Machine): The ATM debit cards, credit cards and prepaid cards
(that permit cash withdrawal) issued by banks can be used at ATMs for various transactions.
Use of ATMs of Other Banks:
i. 5 free transactions are permitted per month (inclusive of financial and/or non-financial) at
other bank ATMs for Savings Bank Account holders
ii. For transaction beyond this minimum number of transactions, banks charge maximum of Rs
20/ - per transaction.
IFSC (Indian Financial System Code): Indian Financial System Code is an alpha-numeric code
that uniquely identifies a bank-branch participating in the NEFT system.
ii. This is an 11 digit code with the first 4 alpha characters representing the bank, The 5th
character is 0 (zero).and the last 6 characters representing the bank branch.
iii. IFSC is used by the NEFT system to identify the originating / destination banks / branches
and also to route the messages appropriately to the concerned banks / branches.
iii. last six characters (015986) represents the SBI branch Jail Road, Hari Nagar New Delhi.
MICR : stands for Magnetic Ink Character Recognition. MICR Code is a numeric code which
uniquely identifies a bank branch participating in the ECS Credit scheme.
iii. Last 3 digits represent the branch (128) The MICR Code allotted to a bank branch is printed
on the MICR band of cheque leaves issued by bank branches.
Cheque Truncation:
i. Truncation is the process of stopping the flow of the physical cheque issued by a drawer at
some point with the presenting bank en-route to the drawee bank branch.
ii. In its place an electronic image of the cheque is transmitted to the drawee branch by the
clearing house, along with relevant information like data on the MICR band, date of
presentation, presenting bank, etc.
iii. Cheque Truncation speeds up the process of collection of cheques resulting in better service
to customers, reduces the scope for clearing-related frauds or loss of instruments in transit,
lowers the cost of collection of cheques, and removes reconciliation-related and logistics-related
problems, thus benefitting the system as a whole.
Crossing on Cheque: Two parallel lines drawn on the top left corner of the cheque.
Account payee cheque: Account payee cheques can be routed only through accounts.
Post dated cheque: The date on the cheque beyond today’s date then cheque becomes post
dated.
Stale cheque: Cheque is valid for 3 months. If the date on the cheque is before 3 months, then
the cheque becomes stale cheque.
Multi city cheque: A cheque which is payable in any branch of a particular bank
(BASIC SAVING BANK DEPOSIT ACCOUNT): Under the guidelines issued on August 10,
2012 by RBI: Any individual, including poor or those from weaker section of the society, can
open zero balance account in any bank.
BSBDA guidelines are applicable to "all scheduled commercial banks in India, including foreign
banks having branches in India". All the accounts opened earlier as 'no-frills' account should be
renamed as BSBDA. Banks are required to convert the existing 'no-frills' accounts’ into 'Basic
Savings Bank Deposit Accounts'. The 'Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account' should be
considered as a normal banking service available to all customers, through branches . The aim of
introducing 'Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account' is very much part of the efforts of RBI for
furthering Financial Inclusion objectives.
Main Points of the BSBDA: i. An individual is eligible to have only one 'Basic Savings Bank
Deposit Account' in one bank.
ii. Holders of 'Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account' will not be eligible for opening any other
savings account in that bank. If a customer has any other existing savings account in that bank,
he / she will be required to close it within 30 days from the date of opening a 'Basic Savings
Bank Deposit Account'.
Note: While opening the BSBDA customers’ consent in writing be obtained that his existing
non-BSBDA Savings Banks accounts will be closed after 30 days of opening BSBDA and banks
are free to close such accounts after 30 days.
iii. One can have Term/Fixed Deposit, Recurring Deposit etc., accounts in the bank where one
holds 'Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account'.
iv. Banks are advised not to impose restrictions like age and income criteria of the individual for
opening BSBDA.
v. There is no requirement for any initial deposit for opening a BSBDA.
vi. Banks should offer the ATM Debit Cards free of charge and no Annual fee should be levied
on such Cards.
vii. In BSBDA, banks are required to provide free of charge minimum four withdrawals,
through ATMs and other mode including RTGS/NEFT/Clearing/Branch cash
withdrawal/transfer/internet debits/standing instructions/EMI etc
vii. The Uniform rate of interest rates set by individual banks are applicable on the domestic
savings deposit will be determined on the basis of end-of-day balance in the account.
viii. The normal saving bank account can be converted into BSBDA at the request of customer.
(i) "soiled note:" means a note which, has become dirty due to usage and also includes a two
piece note pasted together wherein both the pieces presented belong to the same note, and form
the entire note.
(iii) Imperfect banknote means any banknote, which is wholly or partially, obliterated, shrunk,
washed, altered or indecipherable but does not include a mutilated banknote.
Bhartiya Mahila Bank (BMB) is an Indian financial services banking company based in New
Delhi, India.India's Prime Minister Manmohan Singh inaugurated the system on 19 November
2013 on the occasion of the 94th birth anniversary of former Indian Prime Minister Indira
Gandhi.
Headquarter – New Delhi. Bank will get an initial capital of Rs 1,000 crore.
Online banking-Ans. Nothing but any where banking. A customer can operate his account from
any branch of a particular bank.
Currency chest-
i. To facilitate the distribution of banknotes and rupee coins, the Reserve Bank has authorised
select branches of scheduled banks to establish Currency Chests.
ii. These are actually storehouses where banknotes and rupee coins are stocked on behalf of the
Reserve Bank. As on June 30, 2006, there were 4428 Currency Chests and 4102 Small Coin
Depots.
iii. The currency chest branches are expected to distribute banknotes and rupee coins to other
bank branches in their area of operation.
Internet Banking -The accessing of bank information, accounts and transactions with the help
of a computer through the financial institution's website on the Internet is called online banking.
It is also called Internet banking or e-banking
Ques. : 2 The daily processing of corrections to customer accounts best exemplifies the processing mode of:
1) Batch processing 2) Real-time processing
3) Interactive processing 4) Multi processing
5) All of the above. Ans.) 1
Ques. : 7 The most common binary code in use today is the 8 bit ASCII code. What do the letters ASCII stand for?
1) American Standard Code for International 2) American Standard Code for Information
Interchange Interchange
3) American Standard Code for Intelligence 4) American Scientific Code for Information
interchange Interchange
5) None of the above Ans.) 2
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5) None of the above Ans.) 1
Ques. : 11 Which can read data and convert them to a form that a computer can use?
1) Logic 2) Storage
3) Control 4) Input device
5) Output device Ans.) 4
Ques. : 12 Software instruction intended to satisfy a user's specific processing needs are called
1) System software 2) A microcomputer
3) Documentation 4) Applications software
5) All of the above Ans.) 4
Ques. : 14 Which of the following people probably has the least amount of technical knowledge?
1) Programmer 2) User
3) System analyst 4) Computer operator
5) Computer professional Ans.) 2
Ques. : 16 This is the part of the computer system that one can touch
1) hardware 2) data
3) software 4) input
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 17 Reusable optical storage will typically have the acronym ___.
1) CD 2) RW
3) DVD 4) ROM
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 18 The __________ tells the computer how to use its components.
1) utility 2) network
3) operating system 4) application program
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 19 A(n) __________ is a program that makes the computer easier to use.
1) application 2) utility
3) network 4) operating system
5) None of these Ans.) 2
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Ques. : 23 What data base function allows you to define the data your database is storing?
1) Definition wizard 2) Query Function
3) Design view 4) Data dictionary
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 24 If you wanted to tell the database management system that a specific attribute contained numbers only, what
would you need to set?
1) Data category 2) Data type
3) Data dictionary 4) Data definition
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 26 What key links records from one database table to a record or records in another database table?
1) Primary key 2) Principal key
3) Foreign key 4) Link key
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 27 When you link one database table to another database table, what are you creating?
1) Primary link 2) Connectivity
3) Relationships 4) Referential integrity
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 28 What would you need to establish if you wanted to insure that the key in one database table was the same as
a key in another database table?
1) Top-level grouping 2) Connectivity
3) Referential integrity 4) Field properties
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 29 What database tool would you use to find answers to your questions about data stored in your database?
1) Queries 2) Tables
3) Show 4) Q&A
5) None of these Ans.) 1
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Ques. : 30 When we describe, or define, the categories of information we collect in an Excel worksheet, what type of
table are we creating?
1) Categorization 2) Classification
3) Explanation 4) List definition
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 31 If you wished to limit what you would see on an Excel worksheet, what data function would you use?
1) Sort 2) Filter
3) Conditional format 4) Data analysis
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 32 If you wished to highlight, not hide, some information in a worksheet because it met some criteria, what Excel
tool would you use?
1) Table 2) Format
3) Conditional Format 4) Filter
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 33 What Excel tool allows you to create quickly and automatically summary data from a large data set?
1) Conditional formatting 2) Sorting
3) Pivot tables 4) Field lists
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 34 When creating a custom filer in Excel, which of the following would not be considered a Boolean operator?
1) If 2) And
3) Or 4) Not
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 35 Which of the following is a good habit to get into when creating a worksheet?
2) Using conditional formatting to spot spelling
1) Placing titles for columns in the first row of data
errors
3) Inserting comments in each cell to define that 4) Grouping records according to some
data or type of data classification
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 36 What term is used to describe a collection of information that you can use to build reports or discover facts
about an environment?
1) Database 2) Web site
3) Wiki 4) Relation
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 37 Microsoft's Access and Corel's Paradox are both examples of which type of software?
1) Network database systems 2) Relational database systems
3) Flat-file database systems 4) Hierarchical database systems
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 39 After you develop a model for your database, you should then _____ it before building it.
1) normalize 2) design
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3) plan 4) approve
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 40 Which of the following contains information about the structure of a database?
1) Database management system 2) Data dictionary
3) Data repository 4) Data warehouse
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 42 A language that can be written on one platform and executed on another platform is said to be __________.
1) portable 2) robust
3) third generation 4) dynamic
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 44 A next-generation Web content development language, __________ typically refers to a suite of technologies
that allow developers to store data in a readable format.
1) HTML 2) XSL
3) XML 4) PHP
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 47 The __________ is a special database that holds information about the computer’s user, installed programs
and hardware devices.
1) dynamic link library 2) initialization file
3) compiled help module 4) Windows Registry
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 48 A(n) __________ converts all the source code into machine code, creating an executable file.
1) linker 2) compiler
3) assembler 4) interpreter
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 49 A series of steps that always results in an answer is the definition of __________.
1) heuristic 2) flowchart
3) algorithm 4) pseudo code
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Ques. : 51 A(n) __________ file contains information in an indexed and cross-linked format.
1) executable 2) initialization
3) help 4) library
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 55 Which of the following will not protect you from spam?
1) spam blockers 2) e-mail rules
3) popup blocker 4) filters
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 56 A __________’s main purpose is to prohibit unauthorized access to your computer via the Internet.
1) popup blocker 2) firewall
3) spyware blocker 4) spam assassin
5) restore file Ans.) 2
Ques. : 57 To read the system messages and warnings, access the __________ in Windows.
1) system manager 2) control panel
3) event viewer 4) message screen
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 58 To create a copy of files in the event of system failure, you create a __________.
1) restore file 2) backup
3) firewall 4) redundancy
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 59 If configured correctly, the __________ will prevent interaction with your computer after a specified time
period.
1) firewall 2) filter
3) screen saver 4) popup blocker
5) virus Ans.) 3
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Ques. : 62 In the right setting a thief will steal your information by simply watching what you type.
1) snagging 2) spying
3) social engineering 4) shoulder surfing
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 63 ---------- A hacker contacts you my phone or email and attempts to acquire your password
1) spoofing 2) phishing
3) spamming 4) bugging
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 64 This power protection device includes a battery that provides a few minutes of power.
1) surge suppressor 2) line conditioner
3) generator 4) UPS
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 65 A hacker that changes or forges information in an electronic resource, is engaging in __________.
1) denial of service 2) sniffing
3) terrorism 4) data diddling
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 67 Which of the following identifies a specific web page and its computer on the Web?
1) Web site 2) Web site address
3) URL 4) Domain Name
5) All of above Ans.) 4
Ques. : 70 When internet data leaves your campus, it normally goes to a(n) ______ before moving toward its destination.
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1) Internet backbone 2) Network access point
3) Base station 4) Communication system
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 72 What type of telecommunications hardware allows you to access the web?
1) Browser 2) Modem
3) FTP protocol 4) IRC
5) All of above Ans.) 2
Ques. : 73 E-mail addresses separate the user name from the ISP using the __________ symbol
1) & 2) @
3) % 4) *
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 74 The mail server as defined in the text uses the __________ protocol
1) HTTP 2) FTP
3) POP 4) SMTP
5) All of above Ans.) 3
Ques. : 75 When sending an e-mail, the __________ line describes the contents of the message.
1) to 2) subject
3) contents 4) CC
5) All of above Ans.) 2
Ques. : 78 Discussion groups may have a __________ who monitors the postings and enforces the site’s rules.
1) judge 2) sysop
3) narrator 4) censor
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 80 The Internet was originally a project for this government agency.
1) ARPA 2) NSF
3) NSA 4) FCC
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5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 81 A word in a web page that, when clicked, opens another document.
1) anchor 2) URL
3) Hyperlink 4) reference
5) All of above Ans.) 3
Ques. : 82 A network’s __________ is the central structure that connects other portions of the network.
1) trunk 2) backbone
3) protocol 4) server
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 83 __________ is the protocol that supports linking from one web page to another page.
1) HTML 2) IP
3) HTTP 4) FTP
5) All of above Ans.) 3
Ques. : 85 The browser’s __________ keeps a list of web pages you have visited during the current session.
1) history 2) cache
3) favorites 4) trail
5) All of the above Ans.) 1
Ques. : 87 To match all of the words in your search, the Boolean __________ operator should be used.
1) and 2) or
3) xor 4) both
5) All of above Ans.) 1
Ques. : 88 What type of accountants may recommend controls for an organization's computer systems?
1) Environment accountant 2) Internal accountant
3) Government accountant 4) Public accountant
5) All of above Ans.) 2
Ques. : 90 How do accountants quickly research new government rules and regulations?
1) With an internal database management
2) Through the Web
systems
3) With an external database management
4) Through organizational network systems
systems
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5) All of above Ans.) 2
Ques. : 91 Which computer virus records every movement you make on your computer?
1) Malware Android 2) Key logger
3) DoS 4) Trapper
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 92 What program would you use to gain administrative rights to someone's computer?
1) Bot 2) Executive Android
3) Rootkit 4) Trojan horse
5) none of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 93 A remote control that is used to turn on or off some machine is also called a(n) _____.
1) class 2) interface
3) message 4) instance
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 94 In a student grading system, Student Last Name, Student Address, and Final Course Grade would all be
classified as what?
1) Inheritance 2) Information
3) Encapsulation 4) Polymorphism
5) none of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 95 What part of object-oriented technology defines superclass and subclass relationships?
1) Inheritance 2) Scalability
3) Encapsulation 4) Polymorphism
5) All of above Ans.) 1
Ques. : 97 What programming language model is organized around "objects" rather than "actions"?
1) Java 2) OOB
3) Perl 4) C++
5) All of above Ans.) 2
Ques. : 98 What are the instructions called that tell a system what, how, and when to do something?
1) Object-oriented technology approach 2) Object-oriented database
3) Program 4) Database management
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 99 What common technique attempts to save time and energy by reducing redundant work in object-oriented
programming?
1) Reduce lines of programming 2) Reuse of code
3) Reduce size of systems being developed 4) Merging different systems together
5) All of above Ans.) 2
Ques. : 101 What type of internet technology sends information to you without you requesting that information?
1) F2b2C 2) Infoware
3) Push 4) Wiki
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 103 What type of web technology allows its community members to continuously change the contents on a web
site?
1) Intelligent bots 2) Social networks
3) Wiki 4) Blog
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 104 What type of web technology provides news that can automatically download right to your desktop?
1) Social network 2) RSS feed
3) Podcast 4) Wiki
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 105 What type of web technology creates an online community where people can make statements and others
can read and respond to those statements?
1) I-Journal 2) Podcast
3) ASP 4) Blog
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 106 What type of technology allows you to verbally speak with someone over the Internet?
1) Wiki 2) Social network
3) Ephone 4) VoIP
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 109 What 3-D environment allows you to speak to someone who is far away but, at the same time, see them as
a holographic image?
1) CAVE 2) Virtual space
3) E-space 4) VoIP
5) All of above Ans.) 1
Ques. : 110 What type of technology allows you to use your finger, eye, or voice print to secure your information
resources?
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1) Haptics 2) Caves
3) Biometrics 4) RFID
5) All of above Ans.) 3
Ques. : 111 In reference to your ethical structure, how much do you identify with the person or persons who will receive
the benefit or suffer the harm is called which of the following?
1) Consequences 2) Relatedness
3) Likelihood of effect 4) Society's opinion
5) none of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 112 Which tracking program records every keystroke you make on the computer?
1) ITrack/ULead 2) eFollow
3) Key logger 4) Stalking software
5) none of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 113 What is a common medium used for thieves to steal others' identities?
1) Telephone 2) Pick pocketing
3) Burglary 4) Email
5) none of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 114 What is it called when you are rerouted from your requested internet site to another, undesired site?
1) Phishing 2) Pharming
3) Redirecting 4) Hijacking
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 115 What is the term that refers to an ad hidden inside software that you downloaded from an internet site?
1) Spam 2) Phish
3) Cookie 4) Adware
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 116 What type of monitoring file is commonly used on and accepted from Internet sites?
1) Phishes 2) Smartware
3) Cookies 4) Trojans
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 117 Ideally, your sense of what is ethical should tell you which of the following?
1) What to do 2) Who to do it to
3) When to do it 4) Where to do it
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 118 What type of software secretly collects information about you and your internet habits?
1) Detectware 2) Spam
3) Spyware 4) Pharming
5) All the above Ans.) 3
Ques. : 119 In an educational setting, instructors have access to and use a whole host of copyrighted materials. What
allows these individuals to make use of these materials?
1) Patent laws 2) Fair Use Doctrine
3) Intellectual property laws 4) Higher educational board
5) All the above Ans.) 2
Ques. : 120 What type of information systems environment reuses self-contained blocks of code in its systems?
1) Modular systems 2) Block based coding
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Ques. : 121 What term refers to the structure, and substructures, of an organization's information systems?
1) Subsystems 2) System formations
3) IT Configurations 4) Infrastructure
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 122 When two or more computers are able to share information, what is this called?
1) Shared systems 2) Interoperability
3) Information interchange 4) Data exchange
5) All the above Ans.) 2
Ques. : 123 When there is little or no exchange of information within an organization's information systems, we say that
the systems are _____.
1) independent 2) autonomous
3) self-sufficient 4) decentralized
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 124 When information and processing is spread throughout the organization via a network, we say the systems
are _____.
1) dependent 2) reliant
3) distributed 4) self-supporting
5) All the above Ans.) 3
Ques. : 125 When one computer provides services to another computer, the environment is a(n) _____ infrastructure.
1) Client/server 2) dependent
3) reliant 4) independent
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 126 What type of infrastructure are most enterprise applications employing?
1) Network 2) Distributed
3) Complex 4) Tiered
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 127 When you continuously measure yourself against your peers, you are employing _____.
1) benchmarking 2) balancing
3) stability 4) reliability
5) All the above Ans.) 1
Ques. : 128 In a service-oriented architecture (SoA) philosophy, RAD and XP development methodologies focus on
which of the following?
1) Customers 2) Information needs
3) Software development 4) End users
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 129 What plan describes the details for recovery when a disaster hits an organization?
1) Disaster diagram 2) Disaster and revival plan
3) Recovery plan 4) Business continuity plan
5) All the above Ans.) 4
Ques. : 130 What type of information systems environment reuses self-contained blocks of code in its systems?
1) Modular systems 2) Block based coding
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3) Component programming 4) Service-oriented architecture
5) All the above Ans.) 4
Ques. : 131 What is the structured approach called for developing software and information systems?
1) Software design 2) Prototyping
3) Systems development life cycle 4) Systems methodology
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 132 Who is the person who typically manages the software development project?
1) Software engineer 2) Project manager
3) IT manager 4) Technology director
5) All the above Ans.) 2
Ques. : 133 . In which phase of the software design and development project would you try to understand the proposed
project?
1) Planning phase 2) Initial phase
3) Requirements phase 4) Analysis phase
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 134 In which phase of the software design and development project would you build a blueprint of the proposed
system?
1) Analysis phase 2) Design phase
3) Requirements phase 4) Development phase
Ques. : 135 . In which phase of the software design and development project would you build the proposed system?
1) Design phase 2) Requirements phase
3) Development phase 4) Implementation phase
5) All the above Ans.) 3
Ques. : 138 What term is used when the government employs technology to deal with citizens, businesses, and other
government agencies?
1) G2BC 2) web
3) consumer 4) E-government
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 140 What term refers to the small web page that opens automatically with an ad when you visit some web sites?
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1) Marketing page 2) I-ad
3) Affiliate ad 4) Pop-up ad
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 141 When two companies are linked together by computers and they send business transactions through these
computers, they are probably using _____.
1) Digital wallets 2) Electronic data interchange
3) B2C 4) Smart cards
5) None of these. Ans.) 2
Ques. : 142 What type of technology scrambles the contents of files sent via the Internet?
1) Encryption 2) Secured data interchange
3) Cryptogram 4) Regulated code
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 143 What type of Web technology creates a secure and private connection between two computers?
1) Secure socket layers 2) Encryption
3) Internet-locked connections 4) Sheltered web sites
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 144 What term refers to your ability to connect to the internet and your company from a wireless device?
1) Net services 2) Push technology
3) Pull technology 4) Mobile computing
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 145 What age group was born after the digital revolution?
1) Digital natives 2) Digital immigrants
3) Digital boomers 4) Web kids
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 146 Which of the following systems helps you with making a decision about a non-structured problem?
1) Artificial intelligence 2) Neural network
3) Genetic algorithm 4) Decision support system
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 147 Which of the following systems would be used for geocaching?
1) Neural network 2) Genetic algorithm
3) Intelligent agent 4) Geographical information system
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 150 Which AI system finds and identifies patterns; for instance; in the words you use?
1) Expert system 2) Intelligent system
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3) Neural network 4) Fuzzy logic
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 151 Generally, AI systems analyze imprecise and subjective information. This information is called _____.
1) Blurred data 2) Inclusive information
3) Fuzzy logic 4) Dirty data
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 152 Which AI system will work for you to find information on the internet?
1) Intelligent agent 2) Neural network
3) Genetic algorithm 4) Expert system
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 153 Which AI system will continue to analyze a problem until it finds the best solution?
1) Genetic algorithm 2) Neural network
3) Intelligent agent 4) Expert system
5) All the above Ans.) 1
Ques. : 154 Which Intelligent Agent will monitor systems and report back to you when there is a problem?
1) Shopping bot 2) Buyer agent
3) Information agent 4) Predictive agent
5) All the above Ans.) 4
Ques. : 155 Which Intelligent Agent can play an Internet game on your behalf?
1) Information agent 2) User agent
3) Predictive agent 4) Game agent
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 157 What part of the database stores information about the data?
1) Data dictionary 2) Data depository
3) Data warehouse 4) Administrative data systems
5) All the above Ans.) 1
Ques. : 158 What database key uniquely identifies a record within a table?
1) Primary key 2) Foreign key
3) Secondary key 4) Relational key
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 160 What are the rules called that limit how data is entered into a database?
1) Data restrictions 2) Controls
3) Constraints 4) Database checks
5) None of these Ans.) 3
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Ques. : 161 What do you create when you need to pose a question to the database?
1) Inquiry 2) Rule
3) Question 4) Query
5) none of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 166 What type of system tracks inventory and related business processes across departments and companies?
1) Strategic information systems 2) Data processing systems
3) Inventory management systems 4) Supply chain management systems
5) none of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 167 What type of system tracks and analyzes transactions made by customers?
1) Decision support systems 2) Tactical systems
3) Customer relationship management systems 4) Knowledge base systems
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 168 What type of system tracks and analyzes all of the activities in the sales process?
1) Customer information systems 2) Decision support systems
3) Sales force automation systems 4) Sales process management systems
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 169 What terms is used to identify technology that is used to support many people working together on one
project?
1) E-collaboration 2) I-technology
3) Social networking 4) Knowledge management
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 170 What term is used to identify people coming together from various geographical locations to complete some
task?
1) I-team 2) Virtual team
3) Online work group 4) Distributed team
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 171 What type of Web site allows visitors to create and maintain information posted on its site?
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Ques. : 173 Which type of system includes all technology systems and software across an organization?
1) Which type of system includes all technology 2) Which type of system includes all technology
systems and software across an organization? systems and software across an organization?
3) Which type of system includes all technology
4) Management information systems
systems and software across an organization?
5) Non of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 174 What is the term used to depict aged information systems that are technologically out-of-date?
1) Outdated information systems 2) Obsolete systems
3) Archaic systems 4) Legacy information systems
5) Non of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 175 Which of the following ERP providers specialize in providing financial management, distribution,
manufacturing, project accounting, human resource management, and business analytics to small-to-medium
businesses?
1) SAP 2) Oracle/PeopleSoft
3) SSA Global 4) Microsoft
5) Non of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 176 Which information attribute would last month's electrical bill be classified as?
1) Space 2) Form
3) Location 4) Time
5) Non of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 177 Which of the following terms is used to describe the computer-based tools used by people in an
organization to support their information processing needs?
1) Information Technology 2) User Systems
3) Artifacts 4) Computer Tools
5) Non of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 178 Which term refers to the extent of detail provided in information? For instance, some information may provide
summary information while others may provide a great amount of detail.
1) Information Depth 2) Aggregate Data
3) Information Granularity 4) Data Detail
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 179 Which of the following is included in the organizational perspective of information?
1) Time 2) Flow
3) Process 4) Form
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 180 Which type of technology allows you to send information from one computer to another?
1) Output 2) Telecommunication
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3) Connecting 4) CPU
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 181 Which organizational layer is responsible for developing the goals and strategies as outlined by the top-
most level of management?
1) Tactical management 2) Strategic management
3) Operational management 4) Nonmanagement employees
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 182 Which of the following is collective information about customers, competitors, business partners,
competitive environments, and internal operations?
1) Aggregate Data 2) External Knowledge
3) Business Intelligence (BI) 4) Information Granularity
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 183 What term is used to describe information coming into a computer that is in bad form, or is incorrect, and
will improperly affect the decision-making process?
1) GIGO 2) Tainted data
3) Dirty information 4) Scrubbed data
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 184 Which type of worker knows how and when to apply technology?
1) Computer scientist 2) Technology-literate knowledge worker
3) Technology analyst 4) Computer savvy
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 185 Which type of software coordinates the interaction of technology devices?
1) Application software 2) Utility software
3) RAM 4) Systems software
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 186 When developers start to acquire equipment or software, the __________ stage of the SDLC has been
reached.
1) development 2) design
3) implementation 4) needs analysis
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 187 A __________ implementation will involve employees utilizing one part at a time.
1) parallel 2) direc
3) phased 4) pilot
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 188 Adding new features is typically performed during the __________ phase.
1) implementation 2) needs analysis
3) development 4) maintenance
5) all of the above Ans.) 4
Ques. : 189 The intensity and the level of commitment required in the first __________ phases of RAD are expected to
shorten the entire development process.
1) two 2) three
3) five 4) six
5) one Ans.) 1
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Ques. : 190 The intensity and the level of commitment required in the first __________ phases of RAD are expected to
shorten the entire development process.
1) two 2) three
3) five 4) six
5) one Ans.) 1
Ques. : 191 Senior managers but not end users participate during the __________ sessions for RAD.
1) needs analysis 2) joint requirements planning
3) joint applications design 4) object oriented system analysis
5) none of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 192 Analyzing the current system is performed during the __________ phase.
1) development 2) design
3) implementation 4) needs analysis
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 193 In __________, team members start with the big picture and move to the details.
1) top-down design 2) bottom-up design
3) object oriented system analysis 4) rapid application design
5) all of the above Ans.) 1
Ques. : 194 Many teams use working models called __________ to explore the look and feel of screens with users.
1) demos 2) prototypes
3) objects 4) designs
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 195 In the needs analysis section of the SDLC, the __________ typically defines a need for a new system
1) manager 2) system analyst
3) user 4) technical writer
5) all of the above Ans.) 3
Ques. : 197 A human order taker can be bypassed when using a(n) __________
1) office automation system. 2) management information system.
3) transaction processing system. 4) decision support system.
5) all of the above Ans.) 3
Ques. : 199 The expert system uses a(n) __________ to select the most appropriate response.
1) inference engine 2) decision support system
3) knowledge base 4) data source
5) all of the above Ans.) 1
1) firewall 2) extranet
3) management information system 4) P2PN
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 201 __________ is the capability to continue as if nothing has happened, even after a major component failure.
1) redundancy 2) interoperability
3) fault tolerance 4) backup
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 203 A storage device that is connected directly to a network is an example of __________.
1) network attached storage 2) storage area network
3) direct attached storage 4) RAID
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 204 A tape library will use a robotic component called a(n) __________ to change and store multiple tape
cartridges.
1) RAID 2) backup device
3) redundant system 4) auto loader
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 205 More than one of the same component is an example of a __________ system.
1) scalable 2) redundant
3) RAID 4) back-up
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 210 The __________ cellular phone system will provide universal personal communication.
1) first-generation 2) second-generation
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3) third-generation 4) all of the above
5) none of the above Ans.) 3
Ques. : 212 A process known as ____________ is used by large retailers to study trends.
1) data mining 2) data selection
3) POS 4) data conversion
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 214 __________ is data that has been organized or presented in a meaningful fashion.
1) A process 2) Software
3) Storage 4) Information
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 215 ____________terminals (formerly known as cash registers) are often connected to complex inventory and
sales computer systems.
1) Data 2) Point-of-sale
3) Sales 4) Query
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 216 A(n) ____________ system is a small, wireless handheld computer that scans an item’s tag and pulls up
the current price (and any special offers) as you shop.
1) PSS 2) POS
3) inventory 4) data mining
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 217 The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged files from a criminal’s computer is an example of a law
enforcement specialty called:
1) robotics 2) simulation
3) computer forensics 4) animation
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 218 Which of the following is not one of the four major data processing functions of a computer?
1) gathering data 2) processing data into information
3) analyzing the data or information 4) storing the data or information
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 219 ____________ tags, when placed on an animal, can be used to record and track in a database all of the
animal’s movements
1) POS 2) RFID
3) PPS 4) GPS
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 220 Surgeons can perform delicate operations by manipulating devices through computers instead of manually.
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This technology is known as
1) robotics 2) computer forensics
3) simulation 4) forecasting
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 221 Technology no longer protected by copyright, available to everyone, is considered to be:
1) proprietary 2) open
Ques. : 222 All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks except
1) hackers 2) spam
3) viruses 4) identity theft
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 223 ____________ is the study of molecules and structures whose size ranges from 1 to 100 nanometers.
1) Nanoscience 2) Microelectrodes
3) Computer forensics 4) Artificial intelligence
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 224 ____________ is the science that attempts to produce machines that display the same type of intelligence
that humans do.
1) Nanoscience 2) Nanotechnology
3) Simulation 4) Artificial intelligence
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 225 The name for the way that computers manipulate data into information is called
1) programming 2) processing
3) storing 4) organizing
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 226 An e-mail address typically consists of a user ID followed by the ____ sign and the name of the e-mail
server that manages the user’s electronic post office box.
1) @ 2) #
3) & 4) *
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 227 Software applies ____ also called algorithms, to process data.
1) arithmetic 2) procedures
3) objects 4) rules
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 228 A file extension is separated from the main file name with a(n) ____ but no spaces.
1) question mark 2) exclamation mark
3) underscore 4) period
5) None of these Ans.) 5
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Ques. : 230 A Web ……… consists of one or more Web pages located on a Web server.
1) hub 2) site
3) story 4) template
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 231 A computer ……… is a set of program instructions that can attach itself to a file, reproduce itself, and spread
to other files.
1) worm 2) virus
3) trojan horse 4) phishing scam
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 233 C, BASIC, COBOL, and Java are examples of ______ languages
1) low-level 2) computer
3) system programming 4) high-leve
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 234 A(n) _______ camera is a peripheral device used to capture still images in a digital format that can be easily
transferred into a computer and manipulated using graphics software.
1) digital 2) analog
3) classic 4) film
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 235 _____ makes it possible for shoppers to make purchases using their computers.
1) E-world 2) Ecommerce
3) E-spend 4) E-business
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 236 A computer ……… is a set of program instructions that can attach itself to a file, reproduce itself,
1) worm 2) virus
3) trojan horse 4) phishing scam
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 238 C, BASIC, COBOL, and Java are examples of ______ languages
1) low-level 2) computer
3) system programming 4) high-level
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 239 A(n) _______ camera is a peripheral device used to capture still images in a digital format that can
1) digital 2) analog
3) classic 4) film
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 240 _____ makes it possible for shoppers to make purchases using their computers
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1) E-world 2) Ecommerce
3) E-spend 4) E-business
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 246 The first mechanical computer designed by Charles Babbage was called
1) Abacus 2) Processor
3) Calculator 4) Analytical Engine
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 249 Which is device that interconnect two or more network, enabling data transfer to be made between them
1) Plotter 2) Joystick
3) Gateway 4) Path
5) None of these Ans.) 3
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3) Magnetic disk 4) Magnetic tape
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 251 Which of the following is a part of the Central Processing Unit
1) Printer 2) Keyboard
3) Mouse 4) Arithmetic Logic Unit
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 254 A is a device that not only provides surge protection, but also furnishes your computer with battery backup
power during a power outage
1) surge strip 2) USB
3) UPS 4) battery strip
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 255 When you save to _____ your data will remain intact even when the computer is turned off.
1) RAM 2) motherboard
3) secondary storage device 4) primary storage device
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 258 The unit KIPS is used to measure the speed of ___
1) Processor 2) Disk drive
3) Printer 4) Tape drive
5) None of these Ans.) 1
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5) None of these Ans.) 3
1) Inheritance 2) Scalability
3) Encapsulation 4) Polymorphism
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 262 What term is used to describe the internal representation of an object that is hidden from view outside the
object's definition?
1) Encapsulation 2) Expandable
3) Polymorphism 4) Inheritance
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 263 What are the instructions called that tell a system what, how, and when to do something?
1) Object-oriented technology approach 2) Object-oriented database
3) Program 4) Database management
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 264 What common technique attempts to save time and energy by reducing redundant work in object-oriented
programming?
1) Reduce lines of programming 2) Reuse of code
3) Reduce size of systems being developed 4) Merging different systems together
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 266 Which device can understand difference between data & programs?
1) Input device 2) Output device
3) Memory 4) Microprocessor
5) None of these Ans.) 4
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3) Blaise Pascal 4) Howard Aiken
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 271 In the right setting a thief will steal your information by simply watching what you type
1) snagging 2) spying
3) social engineering 4) shoulder surfing
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 273 A hacker contacts you my phone or email and attempts to acquire your password
1) spoofing 2) phishing
3) spamming 4) bugging
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 274 This power protection device includes a battery that provides a few minutes of power.
1) surge suppressor 2) line conditioner
3) generator 4) UPS
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 275 The phrase __________ describes viruses, worms, Trojan horse attack applets, and attack scripts.
1) malware 2) spam
3) phish 4) virus
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 276 The __________ is a special database that holds information about the computer’s user, installed
programs and hardware devices.
1) dynamic link library 2) initialization file
3) compiled help module 4) Windows Registry
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 277 A(n) __________ converts all the source code into machine code, creating an executable file
1) linker 2) compiler
3) assembler 4) interpreter
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 279 A series of steps that always results in an answer is the definition of __________.
1) heuristic 2) flowchart
3) algorithm 4) pseudo code
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 280 __________ are built around special program flow constructs called conditional statements.
1) Selection structures 2) Sequence structure
3) Repetition structures 4) Assignment statements
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5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 281 Which of the following systems helps you with making a decision about a non-structured problem?
1) Artificial intelligence 2) Neural network
3) Genetic algorithm 4) Decision support system
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 282 Which of the following systems would be used for geocaching?
1) Neural network 2) Genetic algorithm
3) Intelligent agent 4) Geographical information system
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 285 Which AI system finds and identifies patterns; for instance; in the words you use?
1) Expert system 2) Intelligent system
3) Neural network 4) Fuzzy logic
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 286 Dot matrix and band printers are __________ printers
1) laser 2) impact
3) ink jet 4) thermal
5) None of the Ans.) 2
Ques. : 287 Which of the following measures the speed of dot-matrix printers?
1) ppm 2) dpi
3) cps 4) lpm
5) None of the Ans.) 3
Ques. : 288 In a laser printer, the __________ transfers the image to the paper
1) laser 2) roller
3) toner 4) drum
5) None of the Ans.) 4
Ques. : 289 Home offices often purchase __________ to solve printing and scanning needs
1) all-in-one peripherals 2) photocopiers
3) ink-jet printers 4) scanners
5) None of the Ans.) 1
Ques. : 290 For a home user that has casual printing needs, the __________ specification is the most important
specification of a printer.
1) speed 2) cost of use
3) resolution 4) paper size
5) None of the Ans.) 2
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Ques. : 291 What is the address given to a computer connected to a network called?
1) System Address 2) SYSID
3) Process ID 4) IP Address
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 293 When you purchase a product over a Mobile Phone, the transaction is called ___
1) Web Commerce 2) e-Commerce
3) m-Commerce 4) Mobile Purchases
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 295 The unit KIPS is used to measure the speed of ___
1) Processor 2) Disk drive
3) Printer 4) Tape drive
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 297 Which government organization may possibly provide and enforce regulations in the near future concerning
ergonomics in the workplace?
1) FCC 2) SEC
3) FBI 4) OSHA
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 298 Which of the following will NOT reduce stress when computing?
1) Minibreaks 2) Proper ventilation to eliminate ozone emissions
3) Putting the keyboard on the desktop and raising
4) Indirect lighting to reduce monitor glare
your chair
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 300 What is the name of the program used by the Environmental Protection Agency to denote an appliance
meets environmentally-safe regulations?
1) Energy Star 2) Energetics
3) Efficient Appliance Compliance 4) Power Star
5) None of these Ans.) 1
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Ques. : 301 What is the structured approach called for developing software and information systems?
1) Software design 2) Prototyping
3) Systems development life cycle 4) Systems methodology
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 302 Who is the person who typically manages the software development project?
1) Software engineer 2) Project manager
3) IT manager 4) Technology director
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 303 In which phase of the software design and development project would you try to understand the proposed
project?
1) Planning phase 2) Initial phase
3) Requirements phase 4) Analysis phase
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 304 In which phase of the software design and development project would you build a blueprint of the proposed
system?
1) Analysis phase 2) Design phase
3) Requirements phase 4) Development phase
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 305 In which phase of the software design and development project would you build the proposed system?
1) Design phase 2) Requirements phase
3) Development phase 4) Implementation phase
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 306 Before data can be transmitted, they must be transformed to ________.
1) periodic signals 2) electromagnetic signals
3) aperiodic signals 4) low-frequency sine waves
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 307 A periodic signal completes one cycle in 0.001 s. What is the frequency?
1) 1 Hz 2) 100 Hz
3) 1 KHz 4) 1 MHz
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 308 In a frequency-domain plot, the horizontal axis measures the ________.
1) peak amplitude 2) frequency
3) phase 4) slope
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 310 If the bandwidth of a signal is 5 KHz and the lowest frequency is 52 KHz, what is the highest frequency?
1) 5 KHz 2) 10 KHz
3) 47 KHz 4) 57 KHz
5) None of these Ans.) 4
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Ques. : 311 What type of network is commonly used in a college lab environment?
1) WAN 2) MAN
3) LAN 4) CAN
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 313 What is the term used to describe the amount of space you have to transmit to and from the Internet?
1) Internet speed 2) Network speed
3) Router 4) Bandwidth
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 315 What type of communication media is the most widely used cabling for data transfer today?
1) Cat 5 2) Twisted pair
3) Coaxial 4) Optical fiber
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 317 The protection of data against accidental or intentional destruction, disclosure or modification is called
1) Information security 2) Privacy
3) Code system 4) Transposition cipher
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 321 Which information attribute would last month's electrical bill be classified as?
1) Space 2) Form
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3) Location 4) Time
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 322 Which of the following terms is used to describe the computer-based tools used by people in an
organization to support their information processing needs?
1) Information Technology 2) User Systems
3) Artifacts 4) Computer Tools
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 323 Which term refers to the extent of detail provided in information? For instance, some information may provide
summary information while others may provide a great amount of detail.
1) Information Depth 2) Aggregate Data
3) Information Granularity 4) Data Detail
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 324 Which of the following is included in the organizational perspective of information?
1) Time 2) Flow
3) Process 4) Form
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 325 Which of the following is included in the organizational perspective of information?
1) Time 2) Flow
3) Process 4) Form
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 326 When developers start to acquire equipment or software, the __________ stage of the SDLC has been
reached.
1) development 2) design
3) implementation 4) needs analysis
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 327 A __________ implementation will involve employees utilizing one part at a time.
1) parallel 2) direct
3) phased 4) pilot
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 328 Adding new features is typically performed during the __________ phase.
1) implementation 2) needs analysis
3) development 4) maintenance
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 329 The intensity and the level of commitment required in the first __________ phases of RAD are expected to
shorten the entire development process.
1) two 2) three
3) five 4) six
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 330 Senior managers but not end users participate during the __________ sessions for RAD.
1) needs analysis 2) joint requirements planning
3) joint applications design 4) object oriented system analysis
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 331 . ______ cables are composed of a glass or plastic inner core surrounded by cladding, all encased in an
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outside jacket.
1) Coaxial 2) Fiber-optic
3) Twisted-pair 4) none of the above
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 332 . ______ cables carry data signals in the form of light
1) Coaxial 2) Fiber-optic
3) Twisted-pair 4) all of above
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 333 . In a fiber-optic cable, the signal is propagated along the inner core by _______.
1) reflection 2) refraction
3) modulation 4) fragmentation
5) none of the above Ans.) 1
Ques. : 334 _________ media transport electromagnetic waves without the use of a physical conductor.
1) Guided 2) Unguided
3) Either (a) or (b) 4) all of above
5) None of the above Ans.) 2
Ques. : 336 Analyzing the current system is performed during the __________ phase.
1) development 2) design
3) implementation 4) needs analysis
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 337 In __________, team members start with the big picture and move to the details.
1) top-down design 2) bottom-up design
3) object oriented system analysis 4) rapid application design
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 338 Many teams use working models called __________ to explore the look and feel of screens with users.
1) demos 2) prototypes
3) objects 4) designs
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 339 In the needs analysis section of the SDLC, the __________ typically defines a need for a new system
1) manager 2) system analyst
Ques. : 340 This phase of the SDLC may involve a small group of testers.
1) maintenance 2) needs analysis
3) implementation 4) development
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 341 Companies use which of the following vendors to provide access to software and services rather than
purchasing the applications and maintaining the applications themselves ?
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Ques. : 342 Which one of the following would be considered as a way that a computer virus can enter a computer
system ?
1) Opening an application previously installed on
2) Borrowed copies of software
the computer
3) Viewing a website without causing any
4) Running antivirus programs
additional transactions
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 343 Collecting personal information and effectively posing as another individual is known as the crime of—
1) spooling 2) dentity theft
3) spoofing 4) hacking
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 344 The first step in the transaction processing cycle is___________
1) database operations 2) audit
3) data entry 4) user inquiry
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 345 In the information systems concept, the output function involves__________
1) Capturing and assembling elements that enter 2) Transformation processes that convert input
the system to be processed into output
3) Transferring elements that have been produced 4) Monitoring and evaluating feedback to
by a transformation process to their ultimate determine whether a system is moving toward the
destination achievement of its goal
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 346 Which organizational layer is responsible for developing the goals and strategies as outlined by the top-
most level of management?
1) Tactical management 2) Strategic management
3) Operational management 4) Nonmanagement employees
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 347 Which of the following is collective information about customers, competitors, business partners,
competitive environments, and internal operations?
1) Aggregate Data 2) External Knowledge
3) Business Intelligence (BI) 4) Information Granularity
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 348 What term is used to describe information coming into a computer that is in bad form, or is incorrect, and
will improperly affect the decision-making process?
1) GIGO 2) Tainted data
3) Dirty information 4) Scrubbed data
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 349 Which type of worker knows how and when to apply technology?
1) Computer scientist 2) Technology-literate knowledge worker
3) Technology analyst 4) Computer savvy
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 350 Which type of software coordinates the interaction of technology devices?
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Ques. : 351 In Bluetooth, the _____layer is roughly equivalent to the MAC sublayer in LANs.
1) radio 2) baseband
3) L2CAP 4) none of the above
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 353 A Bluetooth network consists of _____ primary device(s) and up to ____ secondary devices.
1) one; five 2) five; three
3) two; six 4) one; seven
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 354 The RTS and CTS frames in CSMA/CA ____ solve the hidden station problem. The RTS and CTS frames in
CSMA/CA ____ solve the exposed station problem.
1) can; cannot 2) cannot; can
3) can; can 4) cannot; cannot
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 355 In Bluetooth, the _______ layer is roughly equivalent to the physical layer of the Internet model.
1) radio 2) baseband
3) L2CAP 4) all of above
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 356 A system for capturing knowledge from books and experienced individuals, making it available where
needed, is referred to as a(n) _________________.
1) knowledge management system (KMS) 2) executive information system (EIS)
3) expert system (ES) 4) knowledge database (KDB)
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 358 _______________________ occurs when too much information is provided making processing,
absorbing, and validating difficult.
1) Database integration 2) Information overload
3) Nonfunctional information 4) Query integration
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 359 A(n) _____________________ is a system that includes the collection of people, hardware, software, data
records, and activities that process the data and information in an organization.
1) traditional organization structure 2) information functional unit
3) information system 4) data mart
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5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 360 _____________ is a technique in which managers are able to view information in a data warehouse and
focus their attention on a specific data element.
1) Analytical research 2) Drill down
3) MDX querying 4) SQL
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 361 Which of the following ERP providers specialize in providing financial management, distribution,
manufacturing, project accounting, human resource management, and business analytics to small-to-medium
businesses?
1) SAP 2) Oracle/PeopleSoft
3) SSA Global 4) Microsoft
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 362 What is the term used to depict aged information systems that are technologically out-of-date?
1) Outdated information systems 2) Obsolete systems
3) Archaic systems 4) Legacy information systems
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 363 Which type of system includes all technology systems and software across an organization?
1) Knowledge based systems 2) Strategic information systems
3) Enterprise resource planning systems 4) Management information systems
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 365 What type of Web site allows visitors to create and maintain information posted on its site?
1) Open source site 2) Wiki
3) Knowledge construction sites 4) FTP site
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 371 Which error detection method uses one's complement arithmetic?
1) Simple parity check 2) Two-dimensional parity check
3) CRC 4) Checksum
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 372 Which error detection method consists of just one redundant bit per data unit?
1) Simple parity check 2) Two-dimensional parity check
3) CRC 4) Checksum
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 374 The largest portion of the bandwidth for ADSL carries _______.
1) voice communication 2) upstream data
3) downstream data 4) control data
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 375 Another name for the cable TV office is the _______.
1) splitter 2) fiber node
3) combiner 4) head end
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 377 ___________ conversion involves three techniques: line coding, block coding, and scrambling.
1) Analog-to-digital 2) Digital-to-analog
3) Analog-to-analog 4) Digital-to-digital
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 378 In asynchronous transmission, the gap time between bytes is _______.
1) fixed 2) variable
3) a function of the data rate 4) zero
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 379 In _______ transmission, a start bit and a stop bit frame a character byte.
1) asynchronous serial 2) synchronous serial
3) parallel 4) (a) and (b)
5) None of these Ans.) 1
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Ques. : 380 Block coding can help in _______ at the receiver.
1) Synchronization 2) Error detection
3) Attenuation 4) (a) and (b)
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 381 . A ……… is the term used when a search engine returns a Web page that matches the search criteria.
1) blog 2) hit
3) link 4) view
5) success Ans.) 3
Ques. : 382 Which of the following are advantages of CD-ROM as a storage media ?
1) CD-ROM is an inexpensive way to store large 2) CD-ROM disks retrieve data and information
amount of data and information more quickly than magnetic disks do
3) CD-ROMs make less errors than magnetic
4) All of these
media
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 383 The ……… is the term used to describe the window that is currently being used.
1) Web Window 2) display area
3) WordPad Window 4) active window
5) monitor Ans.) 4
Ques. : 384 A microprocessor is the brain of the computer and is also called a(n)—
1) microchip 2) macrochip
3) macroprocessor 4) calculator
5) software Ans.) 1
Ques. : 386 . When you save to ………, your data will remain intact even when the computer is turned off.
1) RAM 2) motherboard
3) secondary storage device 4) primary storage device
5) None of these Ans.) 3
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Ques. : 391 The _________ product defines the number of bits that can fill the link.
1) bandwidth-period 2) frequency-amplitude
3) bandwidth-delay 4) delay-amplitude
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 393 For a ______ channel, we need to use the Shannon capacity to find the maximum bit rate.
1) noisy 2) noiseless
3) bandpass 4) low-pass
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 394 If the available channel is a ____ channel, we cannot send a digital signal directly to the channel.
1) low-pass 2) bandpass
3) low rate 4) high rate
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 395 A(n)_________ signal is a composite analog signal with an infinite bandwidth.
1) digital 2) analog
3) either (a) or (b) 4) neither (a) nor (b)
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 396 The_________ layer is responsible for the delivery of a message from one process to another.
1) physical 2) transport
3) network 4) all of the above
Ques. : 398 Ethernet uses a ______ physical address that is imprinted on the network interface card (NIC).
1) 32-bit 2) 64-bit
3) 6-byte 4) all of the above
5) none of the above Ans.) 3
Ques. : 400 The ____ created a model called the Open Systems Interconnection, which allows diverse systems to
communicate.
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1) OSI 2) ISO
3) IEEE 4) all of the above
5) none of the above Ans.) 2
Ques. : 401 A telephone number, a birth date, and a customer name are all examples of—
1) a record 2) data
3) a file 4) a database
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 403 A ……… computer (also referred to as a laptop), is a small, lightweight personal computer that incorporates
the screen, the keyboard, storage, and processing components into a single portable unit.
1) notebook 2) journal
3) diary 4) briefcase
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 405 Programs such as Internet Explorer that serve as navigable windows into the Web are called
1) Hypertext 2) Networks
3) Internet 4) Web browsers
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 406 When data changes in multiple lists and all lists are not updated, this causes
1) Data redundancy 2) Information overload
3) Duplicate data 4) Data inconsistency
5) None of the above Ans.) 2
Ques. : 407 Data becomes _ when it is presented in a format that people can understand and use.
1) Processed 2) Graphs
3) Information 4) Presentation
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 408 The term _ designates equipment that might be added to a computer system to enhance its functionality.
1) System add-on 2) Disk pack
3) Peripheral device 4) Digital device
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 409 What is the primary difference between viruses and a worm?
2) A worm is usually written by a cracker: Script
1) A worm has the ability to self-propagate From
bunnies do not have the skills to Develop a worm
an infected user’s computer to other Computers
program
3) A virus is very harmful to the computers it 4) Anti-virus software is effective in fighting Viruses
Infects: a worm is not a serious, a problem but not worms
5) None of the above Ans.) 3
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Ques. : 410 You must install this on a network if you want to Share a broadband Internet connection.
1) router 2) Modem
3) Node 4) Cable
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 411 Companies use which of the following vendors to provide access to software and services rather than
purchasing the applications and maintaining the applications themselves ?
1) Open source vendors 2) Alliances
3) Application service providers 4) All of the above
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 412 Which one of the following would be considered as a way that a computer virus can enter a computer
system ?
1) Opening an application previously installed on
2) Borrowed copies of software
the computer
3) Viewing a website without causing any
4) Running antivirus programs
additional transactions
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 413 . Collecting personal information and effectively posing as another individual is known as the crime of—
1) spooling 2) dentity theft
3) spoofing 4) hacking
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 414 The first step in the transaction processing cycle is___________
1) database operations 2) audit
3) data entry 4) user inquiry
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 415 In the information systems concept, the output function involves__________
1) Capturing and assembling elements that enter 2) Transformation processes that convert input
the system to be processed into output
3) Transferring elements that have been produced 4) Monitoring and evaluating feedback to
by a transformation process to their ultimate determine whether a system is moving toward the
destination achievement of its goal
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 416 What SQL command can be used to delete columns from a table ?
1) MODIFY TABLE Table Name DROP COLUMN 2) MODIFY TABLE Table Name DROP Column
Column Name Name Column Name
3) ALTER TABLE Table Name DROP Column
4) 1 and 2
Name
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 420 How many copies of the database schema are typically used in the redesign process ?
1) One 2) Two
3) Three 4) Four
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 421 Which organizational layer is responsible for developing the goals and strategies as outlined by the top-
most level of management?
1) Tactical management 2) Strategic management
3) Operational management 4) Nonmanagement employees
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 422 Which of the following is collective information about customers, competitors, business partners,
competitive environments, and internal operations?
1) Aggregate Data 2) External Knowledge
3) Business Intelligence (BI) 4) Information Granularity
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 423 What term is used to describe information coming into a computer that is in bad form, or is incorrect, and
will improperly affect the decision-making process?
1) GIGO 2) Tainted data
3) Dirty information 4) Scrubbed data
Ques. : 424 Which type of worker knows how and when to apply technology?
1) Computer scientist 2) Technology-literate knowledge worker
3) Technology analyst 4) Computer savvy
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 425 Which type of software coordinates the interaction of technology devices?
1) Application software 2) Utility software
3) RAM 4) Systems software
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 426 Computers manipulate data in many ways, and this manipulation is called—
1) utilizing 2) batching
3) upgrading 4) processing
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 428 A file extension is separated from the main file name with a(n) ……, but no spaces.
1) question mark 2) exclamation mark
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3) underscore 4) period
5) None of these Ans.) 5
Ques. : 430 A Web ……… consists of one or more Web pages located on a Web server.
1) hub 2) site
3) story 4) template
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 432 Storage and memory differ with respect to which of the following characteristics ?
1) Price 2) Reliability
3) Speed 4) All of these
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 434 Which media have the ability to have data/information stored (written) on them by users more than once ?
1) CD-R disks 2) CD-RW disks
3) Zip disks 4) OptiDisks
5) Word processing Ans.) 5
Ques. : 435 Which of the following functions are not performed by servers ?
1) Email processing 2) Database sharing
3) Processing Web sites 4) Storage
5) Both CD-RW disks and Zip disks Ans.) 1
Ques. : 436 To move the cursor to the end of the document press
1) Ctrl + Esc 2) Ctrl + End
3) Ctrl + B 4) Ctrl + c
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 438 The simultaneous processing of two or more Programs by multiple processors is
1) Multiprogramming 2) Multitasking
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3) Time-sharing 4) Multiprocessing
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 441 Which of the following is NOT a type of Broadband internet connection?
1) Cable 2) DSL
3) Dial-up 4) Satellite
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 442 in making a field this property show that it Cannot be left blank
1) Numeric 2) Required
3) Calculated 4) Validated
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 443 There are viruses that are triggered by the Passage of time or on a certain date
1) Boot-sector viruses 2) Macro viruses
3) Time bombs 4) Worms
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 446 If the bit rate for an FSK signal is 1200 bps, the baud rate is ________.
1) 300 2) 400
3) 600 4) 1200
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 448 . In ________, the amplitude of the carrier signal is varied to create signal elements. Both frequency and
phase remain constant.
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1) ASK 2) PSK
3) FSK 4) QAM
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 449 . The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) allows ______kHz for each AM station.
1) 5 2) 10
3) 20 4) 25
5) 30 Ans.) 2
Ques. : 450 . While there is (are) only _____ way(s) to send parallel data, there is (are) three subclass(es) of serial
transmission
1) one; two 2) two; three
3) one; three 4) all of the above
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 451 When you save to this, your data will remain intact even when the computer is turned off
1) RAM 2) Motherboard
3) Secondary storage device 4) Primary storage device
5) None of the above Ans.) 3
Ques. : 452 Ab e-mail account includes a storage area, often called a(n)
1) Attachment 2) Hyperlink
3) Mailbox 4) IP address
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 453 The ____tells the computer how to use its components.
1) Utility 2) Network
3) Application program 4) Operating system
Ques. : 454 A set of computer programs that helps a computer monitor itself and function more efficiently is a/an
1) Windows 2) System Software
3) DBMS 4) Applications Software
5) None of the above Ans.) 2
Ques. : 456 You would use this software to create spreadsheets, type documents, and edit photos
1) Application 2) Utility
3) System 4) Operating
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 457 Which key is used in combination with another key to perform a specific task ?
1) Function 2) Space bar
3) Arrow 4) Control
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 458 Various applications and documents are represented on the Windows desktop by
1) Symbols 2) Labels
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3) Graphs 4) Icons
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 459 The contents of il- are lost when the computer turns off
1) Storage 2) Input
3) Output 4) Memory
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 460 It is the term given to the act of stealing someone identity and ruining their credit rating
1) Find Error 2) Identity
3) Identity theft 4) Virus Indefinites
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 461 The following is responsible for number of logical records in a physical record
1) Blocking factor 2) Block
3) Boolean algebra 4) All of the above
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 463 A group of related items/section of program oding treated as a unit is referred as
1) Block 2) Duplex
3) Street 1 4) All of the above
5) None of these Ans.) 1
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5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 471 System software are of two types operating systems and
1) applications 2) word processing
3) language trans 4) all of the above
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 473 There are two basic types of disks-floppy disk and
1) low disk 2) hard disk
3) soft disk 4) all of the above
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 478 There are viruses that are triggered by the Passage of time or on a certain date
1) Boot-sector viruses 2) Macro viruses
3) Time bombs 4) Worms
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5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 479 in making a field this property show that it Cannot be left blank
1) Numeric 2) Required
3) Calculated 4) Validated
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 480 Which of the following is NOT a type of Broadband internet connection?
1) Cable 2) DSL
3) Dial-up 4) Satellite
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 481 IEEE has defined the specifications for a wireless LAN, called _______, which covers the physical and data
link layers.
1) IEEE 802.3 2) IEEE 802.5
3) IEEE 802.11 4) IEEE 802.2
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 482 In IEEE 802.11, a ___ is made of stationary or mobile wireless stations and an optional central base station,
known as the access point (AP).
1) ESS 2) BSS
3) CSS 4) all of the above
5) none of the above Ans.) 2
Ques. : 484 In IEEE 802.11, communication between two stations in two different BSSs usually occurs via two
________.
1) BSSs 2) ESSs
3) APs 4) all of the above
5) none of the above Ans.) 3
Ques. : 485 In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________ mobility is either stationary (not moving) or moving only inside a
BSS.
1) no-transition 2) BSS-transition
3) ESS-transition 4) all of the above
5) none of the above Ans.) 1
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3) underscore 4) space
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 492 The instructions that tell a computer how to carry out the processing tasks are referred to as computer
1) Programs 2) Processors
3) Input devices 4) Memory modules
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 493 The ________________ is the amount of data that a storage device can move from the storage medium to
the computer per second.
1) Data migration rate 2) Data digitizing rate
3) Data transfer rate 4) Data access rate
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 496 What type of network is commonly used in a college lab environment?
1) WAN 2) MAN
3) LAN 4) CAN
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 497 What is the term used to describe the amount of space you have to transmit to and from the Internet?
1) Internet speed 2) Network speed
3) Router 4) Bandwidth
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 499 What type of communication media is the most widely used cabling for data transfer today?
1) Cat 5 2) Twisted pair
3) Coaxial 4) Optical fiber
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 500 What type of network device allows you to share your connection to the Internet with other computers in your
home?
1) Ethernet card 2) NIC
3) Router 4) Cat 5
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 502 What is the term used for the word processing programs that show you directly on the PC screen the
appearance of your final document as you might expect on the paper?
1) Search & Replace 2) Pagination
3) Soft Copy 4) WYSIWYG
5) None of these Ans.) 4
1) Status 2) Standard
3) Formatting 4) a and b
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 506 Analyzing the current system is performed during the __________ phase.
1) development 2) design
3) implementation 4) needs analysis
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 507 In __________, team members start with the big picture and move to the details.
1) top-down design 2) bottom-up design
3) object oriented system analysis 4) rapid application design
5) None of these Ans.) 1
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5) none of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 509 The pattern of printed lines on most products are called __________.
1) prices 2) barcodes
3) scanners 4) OCR
5) none of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 510 To convert paper into an editable document, a scanner would employ __________ technology.
1) UPC 2) scanning
3) conversion 4) OCR
5) none of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 511 To place your image into a live video conference, a __________ is usually used.
1) webcam 2) digital camera
3) video camera 4) scanner
5) none of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 512 Speech recognition programs must eliminate __________ before they can successfully recognize the
spoken sounds.
1) jargon 2) dialects
3) accents 4) background noise
5) none of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 514 ______ finds the value of the signal amplitude for each sample; ____ finds the change from the previous
sample.
1) DM; PCM 2) PCM; DM
3) DM; CM 4) all of the above
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 516 What is the name of the series of Laptop computers manufactured by IBM called?
1) LapPad 2) ThinkPad
3) Aptiva 4) Notepad
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 517 What is the name of the 64-bit Microprocessor developed by AMD?
1) Opteron 2) RISC-9000
3) iMac 4) Athlon
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 518 Which computer peripheral manufacturer quotes “Empowering your PC”?
1) Canon 2) Epson
3) Mercury 4) Samsung
5) None of these Ans.) 3
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Ques. : 522 The processing of an application takes place between a client and a ____ processor.
1) Front end 2) Back end
3) Middle end 4) Both A and B
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 523 The____ is not formal enough to be implemented directly in a programming language.
Ques. : 524 Which of the following device can store large amounts of data?
1) Floppy Disk 2) Hard Disk
3) CDROM 4) Zip Disk
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 525 Which of the following is not a valid capacity of a floppy disk?
1) 360KB 2) 720KB
3) 1.24 MB 4) 1.44 MB
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 526 Which of the following device is used only in LAN (Local Area Network)?
1) Gateway 2) Modem
3) NIC 4) Router
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 528 ………… cable carries signals in the form of fluctuating light in a glass.
1) Coaxial 2) Twisted pair
3) Two wire open line 4) Fiber optics
5) None of these Ans.) 4
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Ques. : 529 _______ is used for scanning the pictures and putting them in digitized form in the computer.
1) CD-ROM 2) Plotter
3) Bar-coder 4) Scanner
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 531 Bit stuffing means adding an extra 0 to the data section of the frame when there is a sequence of bits with
the same pattern as the ________.
1) header 2) trailer
3) flag 4) All the above
5) none of the above Ans.) 3
Ques. : 532 . _______ control refers to a set of procedures used to restrict the amount of data that the sender can send
before waiting for acknowledgment.
1) Flow 2) Error
3) Transmission 4) All the above
5) none of the above Ans.) 1
Ques. : 533 The Simplest Protocol and the Stop-and-Wait Protocol are for ______ channels.
1) noisy 2) noiseless
3) error free 4) either (a) or (b)
5) neither (a) nor (b) Ans.) 2
Ques. : 534 . In Go-Back-N ARQ, if frames 4, 5, and 6 are received successfully, the receiver may send an ACK _______
to the sender.
1) 5 2) 6
3) 7 4) 8
5) none of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 535 In a Go-Back-N ARQ, if the window size is 63, what is the range of sequence numbers?
1) 0 to 63 2) 0 to 64
3) 1 to 63 4) 1 to 64
5) none of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 538 Dijkestra banking algorithm in an operating system, solves the problem of
1) deadlock avoidance 2) deadlock recovery
3) mutual exclusion 4) context switching
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Ques. : 541 When the angle of incidence is _______ the critical angle, the light beam bends along the interface
1) more than 2) less than
3) equal to 4) all of above
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 542 Signals with a frequency below 2 MHz use _______ propagation
1) ground 2) sky
3) line-of-sight 4) all of above
Ques. : 543 Signals with a frequency between 2 MHz and 30 MHz use ______ propagation
1) ground 2) sky
3) line-of-sight 4) all of above
5) none of the above Ans.) 2
Ques. : 546 The ________ layer is responsible for the process-to-process delivery of the entire message.
1) transport 2) network
3) data link 4) physical
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 547 The ______ layer establishes, maintains, and synchronizes the interactions between communicating
devices.
1) transport 2) network
3) session 4) physical
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 548 The _______ layer ensures interoperability between communicating devices through transformation of data
into a mutually agreed upon format.
1) transport 2) network
3) data link 4) presentation
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5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 549 The _________ layer enables the users to access the network.
1) transport 2) application
3) data link 4) physical
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 550 TCP/IP is a ______ hierarchical protocol suite developed ____ the OSI model.
1) seven-layer; before 2) five-layer; before
3) six-layer; before 4) five-layer; after
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 553 Start and stop bits are used in serial communications for
1) Error detection 2) Error correction
3) Synchronization 4) Slowing down the communication
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 556 While there is (are) only _____ way(s) to send parallel data, there is (are) three subclass(es) of serial
transmission.
1) one; two 2) two; three
3) one; three 4) all of the above
5) none of the above Ans.) 3
Ques. : 557 . In ______ transmission, we send 1 start bit (0) at the beginning and 1 or more stop bits (1s) at the end of
each byte.
1) synchronous 2) asynchronous
3) isochronous 4) all of the above
5) none of the above Ans.) 2
Ques. : 558 In _____, the level of the voltage determines the value of the bit.
1) NRZ-I 2) NRZ-L
3) TNL-L 4) both (a) and (b)
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5) neither (a) nor (b) Ans.) 2
Ques. : 559 In _______encoding, we use three levels: positive, zero, and negative.
1) unipolar 2) bipolar
3) polar 4) all of the above
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 560 _______ encoding has a transition at the beginning of each 0 bit.
1) RZ 2) Manchester
3) Differential Manchester 4) all of the above
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 561 ________ is the process of converting digital data to a digital signal.
1) Block coding 2) Line coding
3) Scrambling 4) all of the above
5) None of the above Ans.) 2
Ques. : 562 ________ provides synchronization without increasing the number of bits.
1) Scrambling 2) Line coding
3) Block coding 4) all of the above
5) None of the above Ans.) 1
Ques. : 563 ASK, PSK, FSK, and QAM are examples of ________ conversion.
1) digital-to-digital 2) digital-to-analog
3) analog-to-analog 4) analog-to-digital
5) none of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 564 The Federal Communications Commission (FCC) allows ______kHz for each AM station.
1) 5 2) 10
3) 20 4) 25
5) none of the above Ans.) 2
Ques. : 567 In the right setting a thief will steal your information by simply watching what you type.
1) snagging 2) spying
3) social engineering 4) shoulder surfing
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 569 A hacker contacts you my phone or email and attempts to acquire your password
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1) spoofing 2) phishing
3) spamming 4) bugging
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 570 The phrase __________ describes viruses, worms, Trojan horse attack applets, and attack scripts.
1) malware 2) spam
3) phish 4) virus
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 572 In which circuit switching, delivery of data is delayed because data must be stored and retrieved from RAM ?
1) Space division 2) Time division
3) Virtual 4) Packet
5) none of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 574 Leaves of which of the following trees are at the same level ?
1) Binary tree 2) B-tree
3) A VL-tree 4) Expression tree
5) none of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 576 Which of the following file transfer protocols use TCP and establishes two virtual circuits between the local
and remote server ?
1) FTP 2) TFTP
3) TELNET 4) NFS
5) none of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 577 Networks that use different technologies can be connected by using
1) Packets 2) Switches
3) Bridges 4) Routers
5) none of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 578 What deletes the entire file except the file structure ?
1) ERASE 2) DELETE
3) ZAP 4) PACK
5) none of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 579 Which of the following is the process by which a user’s access to physical data in the application is limited,
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based on his privileges ?
1) Authorization 2) Authentication
3) Access Control 4) All of these
5) none of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 580 If the executing program size is greater than the existing RAM of a computer, it is still possible to execute the
program if the OS supports:
1) Multitasking 2) virtual memory
3) paging system 4) all of the above
5) none of the above Ans.) 2
Ques. : 587 The unix command used to find out the number of characters in a file is
1) nc 2) wc
3) chcnt 4) lc
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 588 A program is located in the smallest available hole in the memory is ______________
1) best-fit 2) first-bit
3) worst-fit 4) buddy
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 590 In the process management Round-robin method is essentially the pre-emptive version of
_______________.
1) FILO 2) FIFO
3) SSF 4) Longest time first
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 591 The TCP/IP _______ layer is equivalent to the combined session, presentation, and application layers of the
OSI model.
1) application 2) network
3) data link 4) physical
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 592 What type of communication media is the most widely used cabling for data transfer today?
1) Cat 5 2) Twisted pair
3) Coaxial 4) Optical fiber
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 594 What is the term used to describe the amount of space you have to transmit to and from the Internet?
1) Internet speed 2) Network speed
3) Router 4) Bandwidth
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 596 Which of the following concepts means determining at runtime what method to invoke?
1) Data hiding 2) Dynamic Typing
3) Dynamic loading 4) Dynamic binding
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 597 Which of the following term is used for a function defined inside a class?
1) Member Variable 2) Member function
3) Classic function 4) Class function
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 598 Which of the following concepts of OOPS means exposing only necessary information to client?
1) Encapsulation 2) Abstraction
3) Data binding 4) Data hiding
5) all of the above Ans.) 4
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Ques. : 599 Which of the following is an abstract data type?
1) int 2) double
3) string 4) Class
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 600 Which of the following concepts means adding new components to a program as it runs?
1) Data hiding 2) Dynamic typing
3) Dynamic loading 4) Dynamic binding
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 602 Which of the following cannot be used with the keyword virtual?
1) class 2) member functions
3) constructor 4) destructor
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 603 Which one of the following options is correct about the statement given below? The compiler checks the type
of reference in the object and not the type of object.
1) Inheritance 2) Polymorphism
3) Abstraction 4) Encapsulation
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 604 Which of the following concepts is used to implement late binding?
1) Virtual function 2) Operator function
3) Const function 4) Static function
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 606 What term is used to identify people coming together from various geographical locations to complete some
task?
1) I-team 2) Virtual team
3) Online work group 4) Distributed team
5) none of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 607 What type of Web site allows visitors to create and maintain information posted on its site?
1) Open source site 2) Wiki
3) Knowledge construction sites 4) FTP site
5) none of these Ans.) 2
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Ques. : 609 Which type of system includes all technology systems and software across an organization?
1) Knowledge based systems 2) Strategic information systems
3) Enterprise resource planning systems 4) Management information systems
5) none of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 610 What is the term used to depict aged information systems that are technologically out-of-date?
1) Outdated information systems 2) Obsolete systems
3) Archaic systems 4) Legacy information systems
5) none of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 612 What happens if the base and derived class contains definition of a function with same prototype?
2) Only base class function will get called
1) Compiler reports an error on compilation
irrespective of object
4) Base class object will call base class function
3) Only derived class function will get called
and derived class object will call derived class
irrespective of object.
function.
5) none of the above Ans.) 4
Ques. : 613 In which of the following a virtual call is resolved at the time of compilation?
1) From inside the destructor. 2) From inside the constructor
3) From inside the main(). 4) Both A and B.
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 614 Which inheritance type is used in the class given below? class A : public X, public Y {}
1) Multilevel inheritance 2) Multiple inheritance
3) Hybrid inheritance 4) Hierarchical Inheritance
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 615 Which of the following is an invalid visibility label while inheriting a class?
1) public 2) private
3) protected 4) friend
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 616 Start and stop bits are used in serial communications for
1) Error detection 2) Error correction
3) Synchronization 4) Slowing down the communication
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 617 For a data entry project for office staff who have never used computers before (user interface and user-
friendliness are extremely important), one will use
1) Spiral model 2) Component based model
3) Prototyping 4) Waterfall model
5) None of these Ans.) 3
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5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 621 A thread is a light weight process. In the above statement, weight refers to
1) time 2) number of resources
3) speed 4) all of the above
5) none of the above Ans.) 2
Ques. : 622 Everything below the system call interface and above the physical hardware is known as
1) Kernel 2) Bus
3) Shell 4) Stub
5) none of the above Ans.) 1
Ques. : 623 When a programming Language has the capacity to produce new datatype, it is called as
1) Overloaded Language 2) Extensible Language
3) Encapsulated Language 4) Abstraction Language
5) none of the above Ans.) 2
Ques. : 624 Which of the following operating system is better for implementing client-server network
1) Windows 95 2) Windows 98
3) Windows 2000 4) All of these
5) none of the above Ans.) 3
Ques. : 627 The carrier that handles intra-LATA services is called a(n) _____ .
1) POP 2) IXC
3) LEC 4) All the above
5) none of the above Ans.) 3
Ques. : 628 The carrier that handles inter-LATA services is called a(n) _______.
1) POP 2) IXC
3) LEC 4) all of the above
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Ques. : 629 In ______signaling, the same circuit is used for both signaling and data.
1) in-band 2) out-of-band
3) mixed 4) All the above
5) none of the above Ans.) 1
Ques. : 630 . In ________signaling, a portion of the bandwidth is used for signaling and another portion for data.
1) in-band 2) out-of-band
3) mixed 4) All the above
5) none of the above Ans.) 2
Ques. : 631 In _____ coding, we divide our message into blocks, each of k bits, called ___.
1) block; blockwords 2) linear; datawords
3) block; datawords 4) All the above
5) none of the above Ans.) 3
Ques. : 632 We add r redundant bits to each block to make the length n = k + r. The resulting n-bit blocks are called
_________.
1) datawords 2) blockwords
3) codewords 4) All the above
5) none of the above Ans.) 3
Ques. : 633 The ________ between two words is the number of differences between corresponding bits.
1) Hamming code 2) Hamming distance
3) Hamming rule 4) All the above
5) none of the above Ans.) 2
Ques. : 634 To guarantee the detection of up to 5 errors in all cases, the minimum Hamming distance in a block code
must be _______.
1) 5 2) 6
3) 11 4) All the above
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 635 To guarantee correction of up to 5 errors in all cases, the minimum Hamming distance in a block code must
be ________.
1) 5 2) 6
3) 11 4) All the above
5) none of the above Ans.) 3
Ques. : 636 . ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which the signal loses strength due to the different
propagation speeds of each frequency that makes up the signal.
1) Attenuation 2) Distortion
3) Noise 4) Decibel
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 637 ________ is a type of transmission impairment in which an outside source such as crosstalk corrupts a
signal.
1) Attenuation 2) Distortion
3) Noise 4) Decibel
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 638 When propagation speed is multiplied by propagation time, we get the ________.
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1) throughput 2) wavelength of the signal
3) distortion factor 4) distance a signal or bit has traveled
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 639 Given two sine waves A and B, if the frequency of A is twice that of B, then the period of B is ________ that of
A.
1) one-half 2) twice
3) the same as 4) indeterminate from
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 641 A ________ switch is a multistage switch with microswitches at each stage that route the packets based on
the output port represented as a binary string.
1) crossbar 2) TSI
3) banyan 4) all of the above
5) none of the above Ans.) 3
Ques. : 642 In a banyan switch, for 8 inputs and 8 outputs, we have _____ stages.
1) 8 2) 4
3) 3 4) 2
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 643 A ________ switch combines space-division and time-division technologies to take advantage of the best of
both.
1) TST 2) SSS
3) TTT 4) all of the above
5) none of the above Ans.) 1
Ques. : 644 The most popular technology in time-division switching is called the _________.
1) STI 2) ITS
3) TSI 4) all of the above
5) none of the above Ans.) 3
Ques. : 645 Based on the Clos criteria, if N = 200, then n must be equal to or greater than ____.
1) 10 2) 20
3) 30 4) 40
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 646 The largest portion of the bandwidth for ADSL carries _______.
1) voice communication 2) upstream data
3) downstream data 4) control data
5) none of these Ans.) 3
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1) 4B/5B 2) 2B1Q
3) 1B2Q 4) 6B/8T
5) none of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 649 Another name for the cable TV office is the _______.
1) splitter 2) fiber node
3) combiner 4) head end
5) none of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 651 What term is used to describe two or more computers that are linked to each other?
1) Star connection 2) Computer system
3) Computer network 4) Net
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 653 Which of the following is not described as a typical network classification?
1) Local area network 2) Wide area network
3) Metropolitan area network 4) County area network
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 654 What type of network device allows you to share your connection to the Internet with other computers in your
home?
1) Ethernet card 2) NIC
3) Router 4) Cat 5
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 657 Which of the following can be printed in support of a PowerPoint presentation?
1) Audience handouts 2) Notes
3) An outline 4) All the above
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 658 Which toolbars are typically displayed in the Normal view?
1) The Standard toolbar 2) The Formatting toolbar
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Ques. : 659 Ctrl+Home and Ctrl+End are keyboard shortcuts that move to the beginning or end of the presentation in the:
1) Outline view 2) Slide Sorter view
3) insert view 4) Neither (a) nor (b)
5) None of these Ans.) 5
Ques. : 660 Which menu contains the commands to save the current presentation, or to open a previously saved
presentation?
1) The Tools menu 2) The File menu
3) The View menu 4) The Edit menu
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 661 A ______________ is a group of two or more computer systems linked together to exchange data and
share resources such as printers
1) wireless network adapter 2) Network
3) Node 4) Port
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 662 An expansion board that provides the electronic components to make a connection between a computer and
a network is called a ______________.
1) collective network 2) logical address
3) network interface card (NIC) 4) wide area network
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 663 A USB communication device that supports data encryption for secure wireless communication for
1) campus area network (CAN) 2) wide area network (WAN)
3) wireless LAN 4) metropolitan area network (MAN)
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 664 A typical university or corporate LAN that includes one or more servers and clients is called a
__________________.
1) peer-to-peer network 2) wireless LAN
3) security hierarchy 4) client/server network
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 665 __________________defines how one Internet-connected computer can contact another to exchange
control and confirmation messages
1) WAN switching rules 2) Internet rules
3) Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) 4) Internet Protocol (IP)
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 666 ____________________ such as AT&T, NCI, Sprint, BBN, and UUNET maintain the Internet backbone.
1) Telephone companies 2) Communications companies
3) Network service providers 4) Cyberspace companies
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 667 The ___________________ layer manages the assembling of a message or file into smaller packets that
are transmitted over the Internet.
1) Internet backbone 2) Internet interoperability
3) Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) 4) Internet Protocol (IP)
5) None of these Ans.) 3
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Ques. : 668 Documents of the Web that are transported over the Internet are called ____________________.
1) Web pages 2) HTML pages
3) Web sites 4) Hypertext links
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 670 A(n) _______________________ is a numerical identification and logical address that is assigned to
devices participating in a computer network
1) top-level domain (TLD) name 2) path
3) domain name 4) Internet Protocol address (IP address)
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 671 Wired home networks typically use Cat-5 or Cat-6 Ethernet cables or a home's ____________________ to
connect network devices.
1) water pipes 2) electrical wiring
3) telephone system 4) smartphones
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 672 Optimized for dial-up connections over noisy telephone lines, the oldest packet-switching protocol for WAN
usage, called _______________, is still widely used.
1) Cat-5 2) X.25
3) Cat-6 4) Ethernet
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 673 ___________________ is the method used in public switched telephone systems where there is a direct
connection between communicating devices.
1) Transaction acquisition 2) Internet protocol
3) Circuit switching 4) Packet switching
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 674 _________________ broadcast radio waves that can be picked up by anyone using the correct
configuration.
1) Campus area networks (CAN) 2) Broadband networks
3) Wireless networks 4) Wide area networks (WAN)
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 675 A(n) _______________________ is a microchip that contains the circuitry to convert an analog signal into a
digital signal.
1) communications channel 2) analog-to-digital converter (ADC)
3) Codec 4) digital-to-analog converter (DAC)
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 676 ______________________ is a technique that is used to send more than one call over a single line.
1) Multiplexing 2) Infrared transmission
3) Streaming 4) Digital transmission
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 677 The leading provider of ________________ is the local cable TV company.
1) broadband 2) digital telephone access
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Ques. : 678 ADSL, SDSL, HDSL, and VDSL are examples of different types of _______________________.
1) digital subscriber lines 2) digital modems
3) cable-based broadband 4) subscriber loop carriers
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 679 ______________________ is the process that transforms data such as voice, text, graphics, audio, and
video into digital form.
1) Wireless data transmission 2) Digitization
3) Convergence 4) Analog transfer
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 680 ____________________ refers to an individual's ability to restrict or eliminate the collection, use, and sale
of confidential personal information.
1) Privacy 2) Bill of Rights for Social Network Users
3) Identity theft 4) Ethics
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 681 The leading provider of ________________ is the local cable TV company.
1) broadband 2) digital telephone access
3) coaxial cable 4) digital subscriber lines
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 682 A ________________________ is a small, waist-high curbside installation that connects as many as 96
subscriber telephones.
1) subscriber loop carrier (SLC) 2) multiplexing unit
3) virtual private network 4) network access point
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 683 The __________________ is a digital device capable of handling thousands of calls and is located in the
local telephone company's central office.
1) public switched telephone network (PSTN) 2) microwave relay station
3) internal private branch exchange 4) local exchange switch
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 684 ADSL, SDSL, HDSL, and VDSL are examples of different types of _______________________.
1) digital subscriber lines 2) digital modems
3) cable-based broadband 4) subscriber loop carriers
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 685 _____________________ refers to an individual's ability to restrict or eliminate the collection, use, and sale
of confidential personal information.
1) Privacy 2) Bill of Rights for Social Network Users
3) Identity theft 4) Ethics
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 686 In a survey, employers ranked __________________ third, right below communication skills and analytical
ability.
1) people skills 2) Internet skills
3) computer literacy 4) hard skills
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5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 687 A(n) ______________________ is a computer program that scans resumes and is set to locate keywords.
1) information system 2) Web interview
3) Web conference 4) application tracking system (ATS)
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 688 Computer-related __________________ are typically presented by the developer of a new hardware or
software product or by a company specializing in training IT professionals in a new technology.
1) systems engineering 2) training seminars
3) online systems 4) trade shows
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 689 Not only are computer literacy skills important in most jobs today and near the top of the list of employment
requirements, but they are also essential in the _______________________.
1) job search 2) Web interview
3) information systems division 4) Web conference
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 690 ____________________ is a very broad discipline with applications in almost every other discipline
imaginable.
1) Technology science 2) Computer science
3) Information science 4) Electrical engineering
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 692 _____________ is a technique in which managers are able to view information in a data warehouse and
focus their attention on a specific data element.
1) Analytical research 2) Drill down
3) MDX querying 4) SQL
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 693 A(n) _____________________ is a system that includes the collection of people, hardware, software, data
records, and activities that process the data and information in an organization.
1) traditional organization structure 2) information functional unit
3) information system 4) data mart
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 695 _______________________ occurs when too much information is provided making processing,
absorbing, and validating difficult.
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Ques. : 696 A(n) _________________ is a collection of related data that is organized in a manner that makes it easy to
access, manage, update, group, and summarize.
1) knowledge base 2) data warehouse
3) information system 4) database
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 697 A ___________________ is a descriptive label that helps identify the type of content to be entered into a
field.
1) data file 2) field name
3) data type 4) query
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 699 _____________________ means that the data is separate from the applications and that changes in data
do not require changes in the structure of forms, reports, or programs access the databases.
1) Data independence 2) Data consistency
3) Validation 4) Data integrity
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 700 ___________________ means that the data stored in a database shouldn't be accessible to people who
might misuse it.
1) Data independence 2) Data security
3) Data redundancy 4) Data maintenance
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 701 A(n) ______________________ is a set of programs designed to manage the resources or a computer,
including starting the computer, managing programs, managing memory, and coordinating tasks between input and
output devices
1) application suite 2) Interface
3) operating system (OS) 4) input/output system
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 702 The ____________ is the central part of the OS that consists of instructions that control the actions the OS
uses most frequently.
1) profile 2) bios
3) kernel 4) booting
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 703 _________________ memory is storage that is very fast but released when the power goes off.
1) Registry 2) Volatile
3) Kernal 4) Booting
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 704 A database, called the _________________, stores configuration information about installed peripherals
and software.
1) BIOS 2) profile
3) registry 4) boot sector
5) None of these Ans.) 3
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Ques. : 705 A(n) ___________________ consists of a username, password, and storage space called a user folder or
user directory.
1) account 2) swap file
3) buffer 4) authentication
5) None of these Ans.) 1
Ques. : 707 Features within the application window include the ______________, the document, the title bar, and the
three window control buttons.
1) browser 2) minimize button
3) shared office interface 4) application workspace
5) None of these Ans.) 4
Ques. : 708 _________________ appear on the scroll bar and can be clicked to scroll the document line by line.
1) Contextual tabs 2) Windows borders
3) Scroll arrows 4) Restore down buttons
5) None of these Ans.) 3
Ques. : 709 Common command sequences are instructions that open an application, _________________, close a
document, and close an application.
1) group icons 2) save a document
3) automatically wrap text 4) access the toolbar
5) None of these Ans.) 2
Ques. : 710 Word, Excel, Access, and PowerPoint are the programs in _________________.
1) Internet browser 2) common interface
3) Open Office 4) Microsoft Office 2010
5) None of these Ans.) 4
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BANK KING
CONCISE MARKETING
STUDY MATERIAL
We work for humanity not for money because
your happiness is our happiness
www.bankking.in
2015
Written By,
Rahul Rituraj
(Junior Associate in Indian Institute Of Banking)
Edited By,
Vivek Singh
(PAT- Cognizant Technology Solution)
(
H T T P S : / / W W W . F A C E B O O K . C0 O M / G R O U P S / B A N K K I N G . I N
Download Bankking App http://xercesblue.in/download/androidApp.php?id=6
Introduction
Marketing is an ancient art. Marketing is said to be the eyes and ears of a business
organization, because it keeps the business in close contact with its economic, political,
social and technological environments. In the age of fast changes, marketing is a spring
board of all activities
Generally speaking, A marketing deals with identifying and meeting human and social
needs through an exchange process. It involves an exchange intended to satisfy human
wants. In economic sense, marketing is the creation of utilities such as form utility, place
utility, time utility and possession utility. In our daily life, we use a number of products.
Production creates form utility, transportation creates place utility, storage creates time
utility and sales create possession utility.
Marketing means the business activities that are directing the movement of goods and
services from producer to the ultimate consumers or users. It is the process of transferring
the goods from the point of production o the point of consumption.
Marketing is a system, which comprises different activities such as product planning,
product pricing, product placing and promotion. It is concerned with all activities
involved in the flow of goods and services from producer to consumer.
Marketing is the process of providing the right quality products in the right quantity at the
right place and time.
Scope of Marketing
Study of consumer wants and needs
Study of Buyer Behavior
Product planning and development: Product planning and development starts with the
generation of product idea and ends with the development and commercialization of the
product
Pricing Policies: Pricing means determination of selling price for a product or service.
Pricing decisions are influenced by certain internal and external factors. There are three
pricing policies namely, cost oriented, demand oriented and competition oriented
policies.
Distribution: Goods are to be distributed at the minimum possible cost, to the largest
number of consumers.
Promotion: Promotion includes advertising, sales promotion and personal selling.
Consumer Satisfaction: In the modern world consumer is the king. In other words,
consumer satisfaction is one of the major goals of marketing.
Marketing Control: Marketing also covers marketing control through marketing audit and
annual reports.
"Modern Marketing is a way of life in which all resources of an organization are mobilized to
create, stimulate and satisfy the customer at a profit.
Objectives of Marketing
MARKET
Market means a convenient meeting place where sellers and buyers gather together for exchange
of goods. It is a centre about which or an area in which the forces leading to exchange of title of
a particular product operates.
Classification of Markets
Markets have been classified, on the basis of different approaches, in various ways as under.
Family Market: When exchanges are confined within a family or close members of the
family, such a market is called family market.
Local Market: When buyers and sellers belong to a local area (say a town or village)
participate in the market, it is called local market. Eg. Market for perishable goods like
fish, vegetables, fruits etc.
National Market: For certain types of commodities, a country may be regarded as a
market, through the fast development of industrialization. It is called national market. In
the present decade almost all the products have national market. Eg. Market for textile
goods.
International/World Market: World or International market comes up when buyers and
sellers of goods evolve on world level ie, involvement of buyers and sellers beyond and
boundaries of a nation. Eg. Tea and Pepper market in Cochin, London Stock Exchange
etc.
Commodity Market: It is the market where produced goods or consumption goods are
bought and sold. Commodity markets are of three types:
Produce Exchange Market: It is an organized market for the buying and selling of
commodities. Such markets deal in one commodity only. eg. wheat exchange market ,
cotton exchange market, etc. This type of market is found only in developed industrial
centers.
Manufactures goods Market: These markets deal with manufactured goods. Eg:
Leather goods, machinery etc. The leather goods, machinery etc. The leather goods
market of Kanpur, Exchange of Mumbai is examples.
Bullion Market: This type of market deal with the purchase or sale of gold, silver etc.
Bullion markets of Mumbai, Kolkata, Kanpur etc. are examples.
Capital Market: These are the markets which provide financial assistance to those who are in
need of finance. Capital markets are the markets which borrow and lend money. They are of
three types:
Money Market: Money market deals with short term funds. These markets help or guide
the public to invest their surplus funds in industrial concerns. London is the world's
biggest money market.
Foreign Exchange Market: It is an international market. This type of market helps
exporters and importers, in converting their currencies into foreign currencies and vice
versa.
The Stock Exchange Markets: Stock exchanges are the organized markets for the
purchasing and selling of second-hand listed securities. It is also known as security
market. Stock exchanges of Kolkatta, Chennai etc. are examples.
Perfect Market: A market is said to be perfect market if it satisfies the following conditions.
Large number of buyers and sellers.
prices should be uniform throughout the market.
buyers and sellers have a perfect knowledge of markets.
goods can be moved from one place to another without restrictions. It is to be noted that
such type of marketsare rarely found.
Spot Market: In such a market goods are exchanged and physical delivery of goods take
place immediately.
Future Market: In such a market contracts are made but physical delivery of goods take
place only on a future date. The dealing and settlement take place on different dates.
Regulated Markets: These are markets which are organized, controlled and regulated by
statutory measures. Examples, stock exchanges.
Unregulated Markets: These are free markets. There is no control with regard to price,
quality, commission etc. Demand and supply determine the price of goods. Example,
indigenous markets.
Very short period market: Market which deals in perishable goods like fruits,
vegetables, fish etc. are called 'very short period market'. There is no change in the supply
of goods and price is determined on the basis of demand.
Short period market: When sufficient time is not available for adjusting supply of
goods with the demand, it is known as short period market.
Whole sale Market: In wholesale markets goods are supplied in bulk quantities to
dealers.
Retail Market: In retail markets goods are sold in small quantities directly to the users or
consumers.
Primary Market: The producers of farm products sell their produces through this type
of market to consumers or wholesalers. Such markets can be formed in villages and
mostly the products arrive from villages.
Secondary Market: In this market commodities arrive from other markets and the
dealings are commonly between wholesalers and retailers or between wholesalers.
Terminal Market: The ultimate consumer gets the goods from such markets. Here the
final disposal of goods takes place. It is the market for manufactured goods.
Marketing Mix
Marketing Mix is the policy adopted by the manufacturers to become successful in the
field of marketing.
Marketing Mix refers to "the combination of all marketing resources and marketing
efforts of an enterprise through which predetermined objectives may be achieved and
maximum satisfaction may be provided to consumers".
Thus marketing mix is the combination of four elements (4Ps) viz-product mix, place
(distribution) mix, price mix and promotion mix. These elements are taken as the
instruments for market planning. So marketing manager should have thorough knowledge
about the four elements of marketing mix.
Product Mix:
The product itself is the first element in marketing. Product must satisfy the consumer needs. The
management must first decide the products to be produced based on the needs of the consumers.
The product mix combines the physical product, product services, brand and packages. Product
mix covers all ingredients that constitute the right product. The ingredients may be of the shape,
design, style, brand, package, quantity etc. On the basis of marketing information marketers can
take decisions of product addition, modification, deletions etc.
Price Mix
The second element to effect the volume of sales is the price. Price is the exchange value of a
commodity expressed in terms of money. Price is the key element in the marketing mix as it
relates directly to the generation of total sales. It is the amount of sales that determines the profit,
which is the measure of success of a business unit. Price mix is the combination of the decision
variables like pricing objectives, pricing policies, terms of credit, discount and allowances etc.
Physical distribution is the delivery of products at the right time and at the right place. The
distribution mix is the combination of decision relating to marketing channels, storage facility,
inventory control, location, transportation, warehousing etc.
Promotion Mix
The factors influencing marketing mix are classified into two. They are internal factors and
external factors.
Internal Factors: There are certain factors which can be controlled by the marketing
management. They are called internal factors. Some of them are given below:
Product Planning: A wise product policy is essential to meet the market demand. The
plan includes introduction of products and modification of products to suit the demand
and elimination of unprofitable lines.
Price: It deals with price competitions. A reasonable profit is aimed at by the offerer, and
the price of the product is fixed to suit the market.
Branding: It must create a particular image in the minds of the consumers. Decision of
the trade mark is important in developing the products.
Personal Selling: Personal selling is good to increase the sale and at the same time to
know the consumer's needs and desires.
Sales Promotion: The marketing manager makes out programmes to increase the sales
through exhibitions, displays, advertising etc. The aim is to inform and persuade the
customers to buy the company's product.
Physical Distribution: It includes the channels and distribution, transportation,
warehousing, inventory control etc. Distribution is the delivery of products at the right
time and at the right place.
Market Research: Market research is a system by which one can analyse the market
conditions. It helps a marketer in formulating the policies by which the product reaches in
an efficient way in the hands of the consumers.
External Factors: External factors are also known as uncontrollable factors. These are the
factors that are beyond the control of the marketing management. These include the following.
Marketing Process
Marketing is a process by means of which goods and services are exchanged. Marketing process
involves three major activities:
Equalization implies the reconciliation between demand and supply through storage and
transportation in the required quantity and quality at the required time and place. It is the
process by which demand is adjusted to supply. It is aimed at regular supply of goods
which are produced in a particular season, but consumed throughout the year. The
purpose of this function is to create equilibrium.
Dispersion means the distribution of goods from the central location. Some of the
products are distributed to manufactures or processors and the remaining are dispersed to
final consumers through wholesalers, retailer's agents, middlemen etc.
Marketing Functions
"Marketing functions refer to all those operations and activities that are essential for
facilitating the movement of goods and services from the place of production to the place
of consumption."
Clark and Clark classified marketing functions into three heads as
1. Exchange functions, 2. Physical supply functions and 3. Facilitating functions.
Storage and Warehouse
Storage:
Storage is an exercise of human foresight by means of which commodities are protected from
deterioration and surplus supplies are carried over for future consumption. Storage is one of the
physical supply functions of marketing. Preserving of goods for future use is common. Storage
involves the preservation of goods between the time of production and the time of use or
consumption.
Need/objectives of storage: Storage of goods becomes necessary on account of the following
reasons.
To enable uniform consumption of goods
To enable seasonal consumption of goods
To protect the goods
To adjust supply with demand
To take price advantage.
To protect against delay and uncertainty in transportation.
Warehousing
The functions of storage is performed through warehouses. Warehouses are the places where the
goods are stored. Warehousing refers to a specialized process of storing of surplus goods for the
use of consumption in future.
(b) Additional functions like grading standardization mixing packing etc. can be
performed.
5. (a) It gives facility for stocking raw materials and finished goods
Logistic Management
The concept of logistics as an integrative activity in business concept has developed
within the last twenty years. Logistics is the process of strategically managing the
movement and storage of materials, parts and finished inventory from supplier through
the firm to consumers. It begins from sources of supply and ends at the point of
consumption.
It covers two aspects - physical supply and physical distribution. Physical supply or
material management is the movement of raw materials to the plant. Physical distribution
is the flow of finished products from the plant to the customers.
Logistics management task is concerned with the integration and co-ordination of
marketing activities in a way that end markets are served in the most efficient way. The
purpose of logistic management is to reduce the transportation cost by adding
warehousing information system.
Standardizations
Standardization and grading provides the ethical basis for marketing transactions. The
development of standards of weights and measures is a proof of an ethical advance of
human race.
Standardization is the process of formulating and applying rules for an orderly approach
to a specific activity
Standardization involves:
a) the determination of basic limits or grades
b) the establishment of model processes and methods of producing, handling and selling
goods and services.
Grading
Grading is the process of sorting individual specimens of a given product to the standard
grades or classes to which they belong. To grade means to divide the products into
different groups according to their common characteristics in terms of type, size, colour,
weight, shape etc. Established standards are called grades. Grading is a part of
standardization. Grading starts where standardization ends
Grading enables to compare the values of different qualities of a product in the market
and the difference in price of the same grade in different markets. So grade has become a
part of the price structure of the commodity.
Marketing Risk
Risk is a universal function and is present in one form or the other in all marketing transactions.
Risk in marketing may be defined as "uncertainty with regard to cost, loss or damage".
Unexpected loss from fire, flood, storm etc. (called natural causes of risk.) The loss may
also be due to burglary, strike, war etc.
Risk of deterioration quality due to the perishable nature of products or due to improper
packing and storage.
Improper handling of products
Risk due to political causes
Risk due to managerial causes of poor planning, mismanagement, lack of supervision etc.
Loss due to competition.
Loss due to demand and supply and fluctuations in prices.
Risks due to accidents while goods are in transit.
Risk due to variations in purchasing power of consumers.
Government interference by imposing taxation, duties etc. and by changes in export -
import policy, licensing policy etc.
Risk of obsolescence due to technological developments and innovations.
Risk due to changes in market conditions (Economic Risk)
Marketing risks are greatly due to price fluctuations by market conditions. Economic risk may be
grouped as:
Time risk: Goods are produced in anticipation of demand. They are expected to be sold
at a good price to earn profit. Sometimes the anticipated price is not realized. The
wholesalers and retailers face such risks due to the adverse changes in the demand from
the consumers when they cannot sell the products stocked and have to bear loss. This will
lead to heavy loss to the producers. Thus time factor assumes prime importance on the
market risk. C hinge in price is seen with the passage of time. This is due to improved
products offered by competitors or new inventions as a result of scientific research or
changes in customer preference.
Place risk: The price of a product may be different in different markets at the same time.
The demand and supply pattern differ from one market to another. This is because of
price which is based on demand and supply of the product. When the price in the sellers
market is lower than that of the buyers market, the retailer has to bear loss. Such losses
are due to the lack of information about market demand. The advancement in
communication minimizes such risks. The existence of such risks leads to price
differences.
Competition risk: Mass production and selling is followed by keen competition among
the marketers. The absence of competitive attitude will cause closure of the firm. In order
to improve the quality and durability of goods or to lower the prices or to adopt the best
method of selling, a competitor may change the method of production. All these cause the
price reduction or divert the demand in the market. So every marketer must be conscious
in the actions of competitors.
Hedging
Hedging is a form of protection against an economic risk. Usually their risk of price changes
which effected by Offsetting against one another of two transactions involving risk of opposite
character. The object of hedging is not to earn profit but to insure against loss.
Marketing Finance
Financing, as a marketing function involves the use of capital to meet the financial
requirements of the agencies engaged in various marketing activities. Marketing finance
refers to "the service of providing money and credit needed to meet the costs of getting
merchandise into the hands of the final consumer."
Finance is the life blood of any industrial or commercial undertaking. In a modern money
making economy, finance may be defined as the provision of money at the time it is
wanted.
A firm having sound financial background can enjoy the benefits of cash purchases.
A marketing firm can face the price fluctuations and changing market conditions, if it is
properly financed.
Product Planning
The product is the most tangible and important single component of the marketing program. A
product is both "what a seller has to sell and "what a buyer has to buy". The product policies
from the corner stone of a marketing mix.
Features of a product
Classification of Products
On the basis of tangibility, products are classified as tangible products, and intangible products
(services).
Tangible Products: Tangible products are those which can be touched, seen or smelt.
Tangible products are further classified as durable goods and non durable goods or fast
moving consumer goods (FMCG).
Durable goods are tangible goods that serve many uses. Refrigerators, furniture, TVs,
clothing etc.are durable goods. They normally require personal selling.
Non durable goods are also tangible goods which normally serve one or few uses.
Examples are soap, salt, tooth paste etc. These goods are used fast and purchased
frequently.
Intangible products are benefits or satisfactions or considerations that are offered for
sale and are satisfying human wants. Examples are haircuts, repairs, medical treatment
etc. Services are intangible, inseparable, variable and perishable.
On the basis of the purpose for which goods are purchased, they are classified into two –
Consumer goods: Consumer goods are the goods purchased for final consumption. These are
marketed to households and ultimate individual consumers. Eg: shoes, tooth paste, shirts, watch
etc. Consumer goods are further classified into three on the basis of consumer's buying behavior
and attitudes.
They are:
Convenience goods: These are the goods bought frequently and immediately by the
customers with minimum shopping efforts. Examples are groceries, newspapers, soaps,
cigarettes etc. The purchase of them cannot be postponed or they are not purchased much
in advance of consumption time. Convenience goods are further classified into three as
follows –
Staple goods: These are the goods purchase by consumers on regular basis.
Impulse goods: These goods are purchased by the consumers without any
planning or searching efforts.
Emergency goods: These goods are purchased by the consumer for meeting
urgent needs.
Shopping goods: These are the goods purchased after a comparative analysis of quality,
price, brand, warranty etc., of competitive products. These are purchased after some
shopping efforts. Examples are television, furniture, Shoes, music system, scooter etc.
Specialist goods: These are unique in nature and hold special importance to the
consumer. The buyer usually has knowledge about the product and desires them because
of strong identification or interest. These are Purchased with special efforts. Jewellery,
cars, etc. are examples.
Unsought goods: These are the goods that the consumers do not know about or do not
normally think of buying. The best example of unsought goods are life insurance policies,
investment schemes of Investment Companies.
Industrial goods: Industrial goods are those goods purchased by individuals and
organizations for further processing or for use in conducting business. A particular
product may be an industrial product or a consumer product based on the purpose for
which it is purchased. These are the goods not purchased for final use. The demand for
industrial products depends on the demand for consumer goods. Industrial goods include
raw materials, equipments, fabricating goods etc.
Product Planning
Product planning is the starting point of entire marketing program in a firm. It involves all
activities which enable producers and middlemen to determine what should constitute a
company's line of products. Product planning decides the nature and other related aspects of the
articles produced and sold.
Product Development
Product development is the technical activity of product research, engineering and design
through the collective participation of production, marketing research and engineering
departments.
Product testing:
Once a product is developed, next step is to put it into few selected markets. It means to put the
new product in few selected markets with a view to identify whether the product performs up to
the promise of the product concept.
This will enable the management to pick out the likes and dislikes of the consumers towards the
product. It also gives an opportunity to the buyers to compare the product with its rival products.
Branding
Branding is an important aspect of product planning. It is the practice of identifying a product or
line of products by a special name or symbol or design or a combination of them to identify the
products of a particular producer
Product Packaging
Packing is the process of covering, wrapping or creating goods into a package. Packing is done
for the purpose of delivering the articles to the consumer or for transportation.
Packaging
Packaging as an industry has two sectors-those who make packaging materials and those who
convert these materials into packages.
AIDAS Formula
In packaging decisions also AIDAS formula is applicable. 'A' stands for attention, "I" for
interest,' D' for desire, 'A' for action and 'S' for satisfaction. It is generally used to measure the
effectiveness of demand creating activities like advertising. As packaging is indirectly helpful in
promotion this formula is applicable here also. Even after a package is designed, it is put to test
to know the response of customers.
Labeling
Labeling is another product feature which requires managerial attention. Packaging, labeling and
branding go together and constitute an integral part of product planning. Label informs the
consumer about the product. A label describes the nature, contents ownership, destination,
methods of uses, price, quality etc. of the product.
Pricing
Pricing is a crucial decision in marketing. Pricing means determination of selling price for a
product or service. Price means exchange value of commodity expressed in terms of money. The
relationship between price and sales volume is inverse. As the price decreases, volume of sales
increases and vice versa. So a sound pricing policy should be adopted to have maximum sales
revenue.
Importance of Pricing
It helps to attain the objectives: Marketing objectives are attained through proper pricing
policies. Pricing decision is important for its direct and indirect impact on profit.
It is an economic regulator: The market price of a product influences wages, interest and
profits. The price is a matter of vital importance to the buyer and the seller. When the
prices are agreed upon, transaction between buyer and seller takes place. Prices are
important economic regulators.
It denotes the quality of products: A firm must fix the right price for its products. It shall
not be too high or too low. Consumers compare the prices of different products. Price
often denotes quality in the mind of the consumer. A high price is considered as an
indication of high quality. In case the quality is not up to the mark what the consumer
expects, he feels that price is high. Thus pricing is a critical decision.
It influences demand: The market demand of a product or service depends on the price of
the product. Price will affect the firm's competitive position and its share of the market. It
affects the volume of production and the amount of profit. Prices are important for
consumer because all their buying decisions are influenced by prices. Price reflects the
purchasing power of money. It also determines the standard of living of the people.
Pricing Objectives
Before determining the selling price of a product, the management should determine the pricing
objectives. The pricing objectives of a company must logically relate to the overall objectives of
the company. The major pricing objectives are discussed below.
Internal Factors: Internal factors of pricing are sometimes called built in factors. These are
generally within the control of the organization. These factors include organizational factors,
marketing mix, cost, pricing objectives and product differentiation.
Organizational factors: Overall pricing strategy is dealt with by top executives and the
actual mechanics of pricing are dealt with at lower levels in the organization. Top levels
consider market segments but lower levels consider individual product strategies.
Marketing Mix: Marketing mix like product, physical distribution, promotion etc.
influence the pricing decisions. A shift in any one of the elements in the marketing mix
has an immediate impact on pricing.
Product differentiation: The product features also influence price. In order to
attract customers different characteristics like quality, size, colour, attractive package,
alternative uses etc. are added to the product. Generally customers pay more for a product
with new style or fashion.
Cost: Cost and price of a product are closely related. The most decisive factor of pricing
is cost of production. Traditionally, selling price is fixed by adding certain amount or
percentage of profit along with cost of production.
Pricing Objectives: A firm may have various objectives and pricing contributes its share
in achieving such goals. The goals may be of profit maximization, maintaining market
share, facing competition, survival, price leadership etc. Pricing policies are drafted after
considering pricing objectives of the firm.
External Factors : External factors are beyond the perfect control of an organization. External
factors or uncontrollable include buyers, demand, competition, suppliers, economic conditions
and government.
Buyers: In consumer oriented marketing the demand for a product influences its price.
Every product has some utility to the buyer. It gives the buyer some service, satisfaction,
pleasure, the total of which isits value to a particular consumer. If the consumer doesn't
consider the worth of the product not equal to its price, he will refuse to buy. With the
multiplicity of choices available to the consumer the prime consideration inpricing is the
consumer or buyer.
Demand: The market demand for a product has a big impact on pricing. The relationship
between price and demand is inverse. When price is high, the demand is decreased and
vice versa. So a high price is fixed when demand is high and a low price is fixed when
demand is low.
Competition: No marketer is free to fix a price of his own without considering
competition unless he has a monopoly. A firm can fix the price equal to or lower than that
of competitors provided the quality of product, in no case, is lower than that of the
competitors.
Suppliers: Suppliers of raw materials and other goods can have an important influence
on the price of a product. If the price of cotton goes up, the increase in price is passed on
by suppliers to manufacturer and manufacturers, in turn, pass it on to consumers.
Economic Conditions: The stage of the trade cycle is a major factor in determining
product price. During depression, the prices are reduced to maintain the level of turnover.
But during boom, the prices are increased to cover the increasing cost of production and
distribution. The changes in demand and supply aspects will also affect pricing decisions.
Government: Government interference like control of prices, levy of progressive
taxation import export policy etc. should also be considered while formulating pricing
policies.
Process of Pricing
Decision for pricing are taken in the light of marketing opportunities competition and many other
variables influencing pricing. Price decisions must consider all factors affecting both demand
and supply. The following are the steps involved in the process of pricing.
Pricing of new product is an art. New product pricing is important as it affects the quantity of
the product to be sold and determines the amount of revenue of a firm.
There are two strategies for pricing new products. They are:
Skimming Pricing (Skim the Cream Pricing): When a new product is introduced for the first
time, a very high price is fixed and gradually when competitors enter the market price began to
decrease. It is observed that launching a new product with high price is an efficient device for
breaking up the market into segments that differ in price elasticity of demand. This method is an
experimental approach for setting the right price. This method starts with a high price and moves
the price downward by steps until the right price is reached. Skimming pricing is recommended
because.
Penetration Pricing: This method is opposite to skimming pricing. New products may be
offered at a low price at the initial stages of initial stages of introduction and gradually when
substitutes are available in the market price may be raised.
This method is called penetration pricing. This method is most common and is desirable under
the following situation.
Discounts: Discounts are deductions allowed by the seller from the base price of a product. The
various types of discounts are the following.
Trade Discounts: These discounts are allowed in the form of deductions from the list
price. Trade discount is given by manufacturer to wholesalers and retailers as a
consideration for the remaining marketing function to be performed by them. It is also
known as frictional discounts.
Quantity Discounts: These are deductions allowed from the list price by the seller in
order to encourage a customer to buy larger amounts. Quantity discount may attract both
small and large buyers for ordering large quantities.
Cash Discount: It is the concession or deduction given to the consumer by the seller for
remitting the bill within the specified period of time. It is a deduction from the invoice
bill at the time of making the payment.
Seasonal Discount: This refers to the discount offered during a particular season. It is
usually done during 'offseason' or 'off peak'
Promotion
Promotion is the fourth and final element in the marketing mix. The others being product mix,
price mix and place mix. Promotion includes all marketing activities designed to stimulate
demand.
"Promotion is the co-ordination of all seller initiated efforts to set up channels of information
and persuasion to facilitate the sale of goods service or the acceptance of an idea". It involves to
the activities to push forward or to advance an idea, in such a way as to gain its approval and
acceptance.
Promotion mix refers to the type, combination and proportion of various promotional
elements used to promote sales. The promotion mix or promotional blend or marketing
communications mix consists of four major tools Advertising, Sales promotion, Publicity
and Personal Selling.
Promotional activity ultimately comes under the direction of the marketing manager. The
marketing manager has the responsibility of co-coordinating and inters relating all the
methods to achieve the marketing objectives.
There are two types of promotional blends - push blend and pull blend.
Push Blend
A Push Promotional blend emphasizes on personal selling. The producer pushes the
product to the intermediaries, who organize promotional activities to reach the consumers
and sell the product. Naturally firms adopting this strategy develop a strong sales force
both at the distributors and the dealers level.
This method would tend to push the product through the channel of distribution. The
producer aggressively pushthe products to wholesalers, wholesalers aggressively promote
the product to retailers and the retailers aggressively push the product to the consumers.
Pull Blend
A pull promotional blend is one in which mass impersonal sales efforts are given the
greatest emphasis. The purpose of the pull blend is to pre-sell the goods to the final
consumers sot that they may demand for the product at the retail level of distribution. If
the strategy is effective the consumers will demand the product to the retailers, the
retailers In turn will demand to their wholesalers and the wholesalers will demand the
producer for the product.
Nature of the product. Promotion mix will vary according to the nature of the product.
Consumer goods require mass advertisement. But industrial goods require personal
selling, advertising, displays etc. Complex and technical products like computer need
personal selling. Non-technical products require advertising as promotional device. In
case where there is no brand diffentiation personal selling should be the method of
promotion. Where there is brand differentiation advertising should be emphasized.
Nature of the market: For industrial market, advertising plays an informative role, but
for consumer market it plays as informative as well as persuasive role. The promotion
strategy varies with the target groups depending on age, sex, education, income, religion
etc.
Stages in the product life cycle: The marketing objectives and strategies are different at
each stage of the product in its life cycle. During the introductory stage intensive
advertising and personal selling are required for effecting product awareness. During
growth stage advertising should be extended to maximize the market share. During
maturity stage persuasive advertising and sales promotion techniques are beneficial. But
at the declining stage advertisement and sales promotion are reduced to the minimum.
Market Penetration: A product having good market penetration is well-known to the
buyers. In that situation, middlemen are motivated to spend more an advertising.
Market Size: It there is limited number of buyers, direct selling is enough. But if the
market size is large the promotional tool is mainly advertising.
Characteristics of buyers: Experienced buyers of industrial product need personal
selling. The experience of buyers, the time available for purchase, influence of friends,
retailers etc. are the factors affecting promotion mix.
Distribution strategy: If the products are directly sold by the manufacturer personal
selling is the tool of promotion. Advertising is only a supporting tool. Personal selling
and advertising is required for market penetration. If the product passes through a longer
channel more importance should be given to advertising and less importance to personal
selling.
Pricing strategy: Pricing influences promotion strategy. If the brand is priced higher
than the competitors price, personal selling is used. If the price is comparatively low only
little promotion is needed. If the middlemen are allowed higher profit margin, sales
promotion at dealer level is important.
Cost of promotion. The cost of the media of advertising and sales promotion tools
should also be considered while deciding the promotional mix.
Availability of funds: If the funds are adequate the firm can spend more for advertising
and sales promotion. But small firms with limited resources can depend on personal
selling.
Advertising
Advertising is a part of marketing. The purpose of advertising is to stimulate sales, inform
market, impress the trade mark and create interest for future sales. It is a form of mass
communication. It is through the media of advertising the consumers are made aware about the
peculiarities of different types of products. Advertising is sometimes called 'Consumer
Education' because it makes aware the consumers about the uses, methods of uses, ingredients
etc. Advertising means mass paid communication, the ultimate purpose of which is to impart
information, develop attitudes and induce action beneficial to the advertiser.
Features of Advertising
The purpose of advertising is to sell something - a product, a service or an idea. The real
objective of advertising is effective communication between producers and consumers.
Functions of Advertising
Increasing the number of customers: It stimulates demand and widens the market. The
benefits and features of the products are made known to the public. This will increase the
number of buyers for the product.
Increasing the number of customers by brand loyalty: Development of brand loyalty
among the customers is significant.
Offsetting the competing brands: The consumers are tempted to buy several rival
products through the promotional measures offered by the competitors. Advertising
facilitates the creation, direction and extension of demand for the particular products or
services.
Increasing usage of the products: When a product is introduced in the market, it is
meant for a specific use. Advertising explains the new uses of the product found out
through researches. Thus consumers are made known about the new uses of a product.
Reminding the consumers
Educating the Public
Shaping of goodwill
Sales Promotion
The committee of American Marketing Association defines sales promotion as "those marketing
activities other than personal selling, advertising and publicity that stimulate customer
purchasing and dealer effectiveness such as display shows, exhibitions, demonstrations and
various non -recurrent selling efforts not in the ordinary routine"
The main purpose of sales promotion is to accelerate sales through special selling efforts. Sellers
use incentive type promotions to attract new customers, to reward loyal customers and to
increase repurchase rates of occasional users. At the salesmen level, the objective of sales
promotion is to achieve more sales. At the retailer's level, the purpose is to sell a particular
product of a manufacturer. At the consumers level, the main aim is to enable them to buy more
of a product more frequently and to introduce new uses for the product. A good sales
promotional program will remove the consumers dissatisfaction with respect to retail selling.
Salesmanship
Salesmanship is an attempt to induce people to buy goods and services by removing their doubts
and suspicions, at a profit.
Importance of Salesmanship
In olden days, a salesman shows the goods, takes an order and receives the payment. He never
attempts to guide or persuade the consumers. But modern salesmanship is creative in approach.
He creates needs and converts them into wants. Customer satisfaction is the main aim of the
salesmen. Salesmen is the connecting link between the sellers and buyers at every step.
Duties of Salesmen
A good salesman should have some personal qualities, mental qualities, social qualities and
moral qualities.
Physical qualities: These include good appearance, sold health and physique, a
good posture (good style of holding body) and pleasing and attractive voice.
Mental qualities: A good sales man must have the mentality to face any situation and to
take quick action, creative mind and imagination self confidence and optimism.
Social qualities: These include good manners, politeness, co-operation friendliness,
helpfulness, tactfulness and courtesy. Friendly and co-operative attitude is essential for
the success of a salesman.
Character and Moral qualities : In addition to the above, a good salesman must have
knowledge about the product, company, customers and competitors, market, techniques
and self.
Sales Forecasting
Sales forecasting is the prediction of the future volume of sales. Sales forecast means “an
estimate of sales in physical units or value for a specified future period under a proposed
marketing plan or program and under an assumed set of economic and other forces.” Sales
forecasting is a major tool in the hands of management for the purpose of planning and
budgeting.
Short-term objectives
Long-term objectives
Sales forecasting is the primary responsibility of the top sales executive. However, the active
participation of all the personnel in the organization is required for the effective forecasting of
sales.
Balances Supply and Demand: It enables the company to meet the growing needs by
balancing demand and supply.
Tool for measuring efficiency of sales department: It is a useful tool for measuring the
efficiency of sales department and for measuring the marketing productivity.
Aid to proper pricing: Reliable sales forecasting is a first class aid to proper pricing.
Allocation of Sales territory: It helps in the allocation and reallocation of sales territory
and setting up of quotas.
Inventory Control: It avoids both overstocking and under stocking and there by
enhances good inventory control.
Tool of financial analysis: It facilitates planning for cash requirements and guide for
financial analysis.
Guides in plant layout: It acts as a friend, philosopher and guide in plant layout,
warehousing and transportation.
Avoids temporary pressures: Sales forecasting helps the company to avoid sudden and
temporary pressures in demand.
Indicator of efficiency: It is a useful tool in measuring the efficiency of sales department
as it compares its sales forecast with sales performance.
Allocation of advertisement expenditure: Sales forecast is also used as a criterion in
allocating advertising expenditure.
Sales Management
Sales management is a part of marketing management. It covers the management of selling,
advertising, sales promotion, transporting, warehousing, financing, and risk bearing.
To enable the top executives to devote more time to planning policy matters.
To divide and fix authority among the subordinates.
To avoid repetitive duties
To locate responsibility
To establish sales routine
To stimulate the selling efforts
To make effective management of sales force
Sales planning
Planning is the initial task of every management. Sales planning is concerned with the outlining
of future course of action. Sales planning is concerned with the establishment of selling
objectives, policies, programmes, procedures, principles, rules, strategies and budgets.
Sales Policy
A policy is a line or course of action followed over a considerable period of years. It is the
reservoir of plans. Sales policy regulates and guides sales processes and programmes. A sound
sales policy should cover all aspects of marketing.
Sales Manager
Sales manager or sales executive or sales director or marketing manager is the head of sales
organization. He is the key personnel in the organization. He is able to assess the results of
various areas and product groups as compared with the targets set. Sales Manager is responsible
for sales promotion.
Sales Planning: He has to formulate adequate plans. ie., sales plans, sales policies, sales
program and sales budgets every year. He must also plan for advertising.
Merchandising: Merchandising is one of the activities in market planning concerned
particularly with providing right goods at the right time at the right place and at the right
price. He is also responsible for grading and standardization and branding.
Execution of Sales plans and programs: The Sales Manager must ensure the execution
of the plans and programs.
Marketing Research: He has to organize and manage marketing research projects. The
research staff should submit market information and statistical data. On the basis of these
information sales manager has to take sound decisions.
Control: The Sales Manager has to control and regulate the selling activities in such way
so as to attain the sales objectives. The sales objectives are set in terms of sales quotas for
each branch. Actual results are compared with the targets and variance if any, is
analyzed. On the basis of variance analysis corrective action is taken.
Physical Distribution: Another responsibility of a sales manager is related to physical
distribution, covering order processing, packaging, transportation, warehousing etc.
Sales promotion and advertising: It is an important duty of sales manager to create
demand for products. He can seek the help of advertising and sales promotion staff for
the same.
Preparing Sales budget: The sales manager has to prepare the sales budget. The first
budget to be prepared is the sales budget. Sales budget is based on sales forecasting,
which is the major responsibility of the sales manager.
Management of Sales force: Sales manager is the chief of the sales organization. He is
responsible for the recruitment, selection, training, supervision, motivation and control of
the sales force. He must guide, control and encourage the staff. For this he must possess
skill, ability and foresight.
Advising top management: The sales manager is responsible to advice the top
management about the operation of sales department. He can close the non-profitable
branch offices and open new branches after a detailed study.
Sales Office: As the chief executive of the sales office the sales manager has to assign
duties to sales personnel, hold meetings, conferences, contests etc. He has to develop
the structure of the sales organization, fix authority, responsibility, relationship and
keep all authorities within his span of control.
Distribution Management
Types of Channels
Marketing channel is the pathway composed of intermediaries or middlemen who perform the
functions needed to ensure smooth flow of goods and services from the manufacturer to the
consumers. The following are the important types of channels.
Distribution channel for consumer goods: Five channels are widely used in the marketing of
consumer products: They are –
Producer — > Consumer : It is the shortest and simplest channel of distribution. The
producer may sell directly by mail or from house to house.
Producer —> Retailer —> Consumer: Many larger retailers buy directly from
manufacturers and sell them to consumers.
Producer —> Wholesaler —> Retailer —> Consumer: It is a traditional channel for
consumer goods. Small retailers and small manufacturers find this channel as the feasible
one.
Producer —> Agent —> Retailer —> Consumer: Instead of using wholesalers, many
producers prefer to use agents to reach the retail market.
Producer —> Agent—> Wholesaler—> Retailer —> Consumer: To reach small retailers,
large scale producers use wholesalers through agents.
Producer —> Industrial user: This direct channel accounts for a large volume of sales of
industrial products than any other distribution channel. Manufacturers of large
machineries or equipments usually follow direct selling.
Producer —> Industrial Distributor —> User: Producers of operating supplies frequently
use industrial distributors to reach their markets or users.
Producer —> Agent —> User: Firms without their own marketing departments find this
channel advisable. For introducing a new product or to enter a new market this channel is
preferred .
Producer—> Agent —> Industrial Distributor —> User: This channel is used when it is
not feasible to sell through agents directly to the user. The unit sale may be too small for
direct selling.
It refers to a channel arrangement in which two or more companies at one level join together to
follow a new marketing opportunity. By working together, companies can combine their capital,
production capabilities and marketing resources to accomplish the function more effectively. On
working along with others, the company might join hands with competitors or non competitors.
An established firm of good reputation operating in each area may be appointed as a sole agent
or distributor exclusively for that locality. The sole agent is generally appointed when the
manufacturer doesn’t have his own organization or machinery to market the goods or when the
demand for the goods is highly competitive or fluctuating.
These sole agents generally have their own marketing organization. They appoint wholesalers
and retailers. Sometimes they sell the product under their own private brands.
Marketing Intermediaries
Marketing intermediaries are the persons or organizations that assist in the flow of goods and
service from producer to the consumers. The following are the common types of marketing
intermediaries.
Departmental stores
A departmental store is a highly developed form of retail trade. A wide variety of goods are
sold in departmental store under one roof and one management. For each line of goods like
stationery, books, furniture, clothing etc. there are separate departments. It is a combination
of many small retail shops that form part of a single unit. It is said that a departmental store
sells ‘Pin to Piano’. These are organized on joint stock company basis. Departmental stores
provide services and amenities like free home delivery of goods, rest rooms, restaurants,
telephone services etc.
Multiple shops are designed as an outlet for mass distribution. Multiple shops are also called
chain stores. It is a system of branch shops dealing in similar line of goods. These shops are
operated under centralized management. The branch shops are spread throughout the country
under the same name. The head office supplies the requirements of branches. The branch
shops sell the goods at the price fixed by the head office. There is uniformity in
advertisement, window display and other operations of the branches. Maveli stores, Bata
shoe etc. operate under chain store system.
A super bazar or super market is a large scale retail organization on the pattern of a
departmental store selling wide variety of consumer goods, under one roof. While a
departmental store deals in all types of goods, a super bazaar basically deals in food stuffs,
groceries, vegetables, meat, dairy products and other items of daily use. They are generally
organized by consumer co-operative stores as co-operative stores are run on a small scale.
Franchise
Hyper market is the best example for diversification in retail trade. It combines the principles
of super market, department store, specialty shop and service shop in one giant size store. It
has a very broad and deep assortment of goods. ie., one stock shopping - to buy everything
form A to X. In addition to numerous food products, a hyper market tries to fulfil many other
consumer needs like housewares, hardware items, garden products, electronic goods etc.
Hyper markets even provide household services like laundry, shoe repair, beauty parlours
etc. Middle and upper classes constitute its target market.
Direct marketing
It is the method of selling goods directly to the customers using advertisement. Here products
are advertised through one or more medias and orders are received by telephone, internet or
mail. Direct marketing include direct mail, catalogue mailing, tele-marketing, internet
marketing etc.
Internet Marketing
It is the marketing of goods through computerized net works. The details of the products are
given on the website and consumer can electronically view the products and know their
price. The consumer can make his shopping list and place the order by E-mail, telephone or
fax. The goods are delivered by the retailers within a stipulated time and payment is made
through credit card. Exporters and importers can do this business very easily. Commonly
books, magazines, journals etc. are marketed under this system.
Marketing Information system include all facts, estimates, opinions and other information
used in marketing of goods. Marketing Information system means a set of procedures and
methods for the regular and planned presentation of information for the use of marketing
decision.
A product is a bundle of benefits that satisfies the needs of the organization or the consumers and
for which they are willing to exchange money or other value. The bundle of benefits include
color, size, taste, product guarantee, service warranty, package design and size. A product may
be defined as anything that can be offered to a market for attention, acquisition, use or
consumption. Product may be two types viz. consumer products and industrial products.
Services
Services industries are quite varied. The government sector offers services through its courts,
employment services, hospitals, banks, military services, police and fire departments, postal
services and schools. The private non-profit sector also offers services through hospitals,
schools and other charitable institutions. Service isan intangible consideration or benefit that is
providing satisfaction to human wants and that not necessarily tiedto the sale of a product or
another service.
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