This document contains a list of 40 multiple choice questions related to finance and accounting concepts. The questions cover topics such as non-current assets, purchases, asset balances, liability accounts, capital accounts, ledger posting errors, trial balances, balance sheets, inventory, manufacturing costs, and specialized journals.
This document contains a list of 40 multiple choice questions related to finance and accounting concepts. The questions cover topics such as non-current assets, purchases, asset balances, liability accounts, capital accounts, ledger posting errors, trial balances, balance sheets, inventory, manufacturing costs, and specialized journals.
This document contains a list of 40 multiple choice questions related to finance and accounting concepts. The questions cover topics such as non-current assets, purchases, asset balances, liability accounts, capital accounts, ledger posting errors, trial balances, balance sheets, inventory, manufacturing costs, and specialized journals.
This document contains a list of 40 multiple choice questions related to finance and accounting concepts. The questions cover topics such as non-current assets, purchases, asset balances, liability accounts, capital accounts, ledger posting errors, trial balances, balance sheets, inventory, manufacturing costs, and specialized journals.
1. Which of the following is not a Non- Current 12. Depletion method of depreciation is used Assets ? in case of : (A) Building (A) Live stocks (B) Furniture and fixtures (B) Mines, Quarries etc. (C) Plant & machinery (C) Machinery, Building etc. (D) Bank Balance (D) Books 2 Purchase refers to the buying of – 13. As per schedule VI of the companies Act (A) Stationary for office use 1956, the forfeiture share Account will be – (B) Asset for office (A) Deducted from Capital reserve (C) Goods for resale (B) Shown as Revenue Expenditure (D) Investment (C) Added as Capital Reserve 3. Normally an asset has a balance of- (D) Deducted from Called Up Capital (A) Debit (B) Credit 14. Goods destroyed by fire should be credited (C) Balancing figure (D) All of the above to – 4. Which of the following account is not a (A) Capital Loss A/C liability account ? (B) Expense A/C (A) Account Payable (C) Trading A/C (B) Accrued Expenses (D) Sales A/C (C) Notes Payable (D) Preliminary expenses 15. Ledger posting of goods sold for ` 1050 is 5. Capital account is classified under – posted as ` 1500 is – (A) Personal Account (B) Real Account (A) Error of Principle (C) Nominal Account (D) None of these (B) Error of commission 6. The account format that displays debits, (C) Error of omission credits, balances and headings – (D) Compensating error (A) General Journal (B) Ledger account 16. If the Trial Balance agrees, it implies that– (C) General ledger (D) T-account (A) There is no error in the books 7. The accrual basis of accounting records (B) There may be one sided error in the books revenues when they are – (C) There may be two sided error in the books (A) collected (D) There may be both one or two sided error (B) readily available for use in the books. (C) earned 17. Balance sheet reflects – (D) Contracted (A) Gross profit of the business 8. Accounting for Intangible Assets are related (B) Net profit of the business to – (C) Financial position of the business (A) AS-10 (B) AS-12 (D) All of these (C) AS-24 (D) AS-26 18. Goodwill comes under the head in balance 9. Recording of capital contributed by the sheet – owner as liability ensures the adherence (A) Non-current assets of principle of – (B) Fictitious assets (A) Going concern (B) Separate entity (C) Current assets (C) Materiality (D) Accrual (D) Tangible assets 10. The principle providing ‘anticipate no profit 19. ‘Deferred tax’ is a/an – and provide for all possible losses’ suggests (A) Asset (B) Liability under : (C) Asset or liability (D) None of these (A) Convention of Consistency 20. Unpaid or unrecorded expenses are called- (B) Convention of Disclosure (A) Prepaid expenses (C) Convention of Conservatism (B) Accrued expenses (D) Convention of Materiality (C) Additional expenses 11. Which of the following errors are not (D) None of these disclosed by Trial Balance ? 21. A cash purchase from supplier would – (A) Errors of Principle (A) Decrease in liabilities (B) Errors of Omission (B) Decrease in owner’s equity. (C) Errors of Duplication (C) Increase in liabilities (D) All the three (D) Has no effect on total assets. Ph: 09555108888, 09555208888 1 2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009 22. Quick asset includes except - 32. If opening stock is ` 10,000, Net Purchases (A) Cash (B) Marketable securities ` 70,000, Wages ` 2,500 Carriage inward (C) Inventories ` 500 and Closing stock ` 15,000, What is (D) Account receivables. manufacturing cost ? 23. Net income plus operating expenses is (A) ` 65,000 (B) ` 83,000 equal to – (C) ` 68,000 (D) ` 73000 (A) Net sales (B) Cost of goods sold (C) Goodwill (D) Gross profit 33. Statement of financial position generated 24. Deferred revenue is a/an – from incomplete accounting record is (A) liability (B) Asset commonly known as – (C) Either (A) or (B) (D) None of these (A) Statement of affairs 25. An error due to wrong allocation as (B) Cash flow statement expenditure between capital and revenue (C) Statement of financial operations is regarded as – (D) Balance sheet (A) Error of commission 34. The receipts and payments account of a non (B) Error of principle profit organization is a - (C) Error of omission (A) Personal account (D) Compensating error (B) Real account 26. Interest on loan taken for the purchase of (C) Nominal account Non-Current assets is a- (D) Income statement account (A) Revenue Expenditure 35. If a firm has not recorded the bad debts by (B) Capital Expenditure mistake. Which of the following is the effect (C) Deferred Revenue Expenditure (D) Capital Loss of bad debts omission ? 27. Dual Aspect concept results in the following (A) Gross profit would overstate accounting equation - (B) Gross profit would understate (A) Revenue = Expenses (C) Net profit would decrease (B) Capital + Profits = Assets + Expenses (D) Net profit would increase (C) Assets = Liabilities + Capital 36. ———— are cheques that are issued by the (D) Owner’s equity = Capital + Drawings business but not yet presented to bank 28. When a business is purchased, any amount (A) Uncredited cheques paid in excess of the total of assets, minus (B) Outstanding cheques the liabilities taken, is called : (C) Uncollected cheques (A) Goodwill (D) Bounced cheques (B) Share Premium 37. Which of the following is Personal Account ? (C) Capital loss (A) Investment (D) Capital employed (B) Share premium 29. A journal entry in which two or more (C) Outstanding expenses account is debited or credited is referred as - (D) Salary (A) Journal entry 38. Closing stock appearing in the trial Balance (B) Multi entry is shown in - (C) Additional entry (A) Trading Account only (D) Compound entry (B) Balance sheet only 30. Postdated cheques are considered as - (C) Both in trading A/C & Balance Sheet (A) Cash Balance (D) None of thes (B) Bank Balance 39. Which among of following account will be (C) Accounts receivable credited if goods are given as charity ? (D) None of these (A) Cash A/C (B) Charity A/C 31. Receipts and payments account is prepared (C) Purchase A/C (D) Sales A/C by – 40. Which of following specialized Journals will (A) Manufacturing concerns record “Goods returned by the business” ? (B) Non-trading concerns (A) Sales Journal (C) Trading concerns (B) Purchase Journal (D) Companies registered under Companies Act 1956. (C) Return Inward (D) Return outward Ph: 09555108888, 09555208888 2 2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009
PART B: ECONOMICS AND GOVERNANCE
41. In India, the Comptroller and Auditor 48. The slope of production possibility curve is General of Accounts presents a detailed (A) Convex to the origin analytical review of Union Government (B) Concave to the origin Accounts to the Finance Ministry every- (C) A straight line (A) Year (D) None of these (B) Six months 49. If as a result of rise in the price of good-X, (C) Three months demand for good-Y increases, then what is (D) Month the name of these goods ? 42. Economics is what Economists do’ is (A) Substitute goods given by (B) Complementary goods (A) Jacob Viner (C) Normal goods (B) Henry Smith (D) Inferior goods (C) Pigou 50. The law of variable” proportions is drawn (D) Paul (A) Samuelson under all of the assumptions mentioned 43. At the Zero level of output, total cost (TC) is below except the assumption that: equal to (A) The technology is changing. (A) Total variable cost (TVC) (B) There must be some inputs whose (B) Zero quantity is kept fixed (C) Total fixed cost (TFC) (C) We consider only physical inputs and (D) None of these not economically profitability in 44. The second glass of lemonade gives lesser monetary terms. satisfaction to a thirsty boy. This is a clear (D) The technology is given and stable. case of 51. Laws of production does not include (A) Law of demand (A) Returns to scale. (B) Law of diminishing returns. (B) Law of diminishing returns to a factor (C) Law of diminishing marginal utility. (C) Law of variable proportions. (D) Law of equi-marginal utility (D) Least cost combination of factors. 45. Who is the highest civil servent of union 52. John Maynard Keynes Published his famous government? book “A Monetary Trap” in the year (A) Attorney General (A) 1929 (B) 1923 (B) Cabinet Secretary (C) 1931 (D) 1927 (C) Home Secretary 53. A movement along the demand curve for (D) Principal Secretary to the PM soft drinks is best described as : 46. The price of hot dogs increases by 22% and (A) An increase in demand the quantity of hot dogs demanded falls by, (B) A decrease in demand 25%. This indicates that demand for hot (C) A change in quantity demanded dogs is : (A) Elastic (D) A change in demand (B) Inelastic 54. Total utility is maximum when : (C) Unitarily elastic (A) Marginal utility is zero. (D) Perfectly elastic (B) Marginal utility is at its highest point. 47. Monopolistic competition differs from (C) Marginal utility is equal to average perfect competition primarily because utility. (A) In monopolistic competition, firms can (D) Average utility is maximum. differentiate their products. 55. An indifference curve slopes down towards (B) In perfect competition, firms can accept right since more of one commodity and less the price. of another result in : (C) In monopolistic competition, entry into (A) Same satisfaction. the industry is blocked. (B) Greater satisfaction. (D) In monopolistic competition, there are (C) Maximum satisfaction. relatively few barriers to entry. (D) Decreasing expenditure.
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2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009 56. In the case of a Giffen good, the demand 64. When average product (output) increases, curve will be : marginal product is (A) Horizontal. (A) Equal to average product (B) Downward-sloping to the right. (B) More than average product (C) Vertical. (C) Less than average product (D) Upward-sloping to the right. (D) Zero 57. By consumer surplus economists mean 65. What is meant by real cost? (A) The area inside the budget line. (A) Monetary expenditure (B) The area between the average revenue and marginal revenue curves. (B) Monetary income (C) The different between the maximum (C) Effects and sacrifice undergone in amount a person is willing to pay for a production good and its market price. (D) Income from next best alternative use (D) None of the above. 66. Who was the Chairman of 13 th Finance 58. Which of the following is a property of an Commission? indifference curve? (A) K. C Pant (A) It is convex to the origin. (B) C. Rangrajan (B) The marginal rate of substitution is (C) Dr. Vijay Kelkar constant as you move along an (D) Dr. Y.V.Reddy indifference curve. 67. Identify the correct statement : (C) Marginal utility is constant as you move (A) The average product is at its maximum along an indifference curve. when marginal product is equal to (D) Total utility is greatest where the 45 average product. degree line cuts the indifference curve. (B) The law of increasing returns to scale 59. The effect of increase CRR will be reduced if : (A) Bank rate is reduced. relates to the effect of changes in factor (B) Securities are sold in the open market. proportions. (C) SLR is increased. (C) Economies of scale arise only because (D) People do not borrow from non-banking of indivisibilities of factor proportions. institutions. (D) Internal economies of scale can accrue 60. In order to control credit only to the exporting sector. (A) CRR should be increased and Bank Rate 68. The cost of one thing in terms of the should be decreased. alternative given up is known as: (B) CRR should be reduced and Bank Rate (A) Production cost. should be reduced. (B) Physical cost. (C) CRR should be increased and Bank Rate (C) Real cost. should be increased. (D) Opportunity cost. (D) CRR should be reduced and Bank Rate 69. The Income Theory is also known as should be increased. (A) Macro Economics 61. If, as people’s income increases, the (B) Micro Economics quantity demanded of a good decreases, the good is called (C) Fiscal Economics (A) A substitute (D) Managerial Economics (B) A normal good 70. Which of the following statements is correct ? (C) An inferior good (A) When the average cost is rising, the (D) A complement marginal cost must also be rising. 62. Comforts lies between the (B) When the average cost is rising, the (A) Inferior goods and necessaries marginal cost must be falling. (B) Luxuries and inferior goods (C) When the average cost is rising, the (C) Necessaries and luxuries marginal cost is above the average cost. (D) None of the above (D) When the average cost is falling, the 63. At higher prices people demand more of marginal cost must be rising. certain goods not for their worth but for 71. Who is called the Guardian of Public Purse? their prestige value - This is called (A) President (A) Veblen effect (B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India (B) Giffens paradox (C) Parliament (C) Speculative effect (D) None of the above (D) Council of Members
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2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009 72. In the perfect competition, price of the 80. An example of ‘positive’ economic analysis commodity is ` 25, then what will be the would be : value of Marginal Revenue? (A) An analysis of the relationship between the price of food and the quantity (A) ` 25 (B) ` 5 purchased (C) Zero (D) can’t determined (B) Determining how much income each 73. In the long run, under perfect competition person should be guaranteed which of the following conditions is/are (C) Determining the ‘fair’ price for food correct? (D) Deciding how to distribute the output of (A) TR = TC the economy. (B) Firms operate at minimum of LAC 81. If the price of a substitute Y of good-X (C) There is no barrier for exit or entry of increases, what impact does it have on the the firms equilibrium price and quantity of good-X? (D) All the above (A) Equilibrium price and quantity of good- 74. A sick industrial unit is one X both will increase (A) Where most of the employees are sick. (B) Equilibrium price and quantity of good- (B) Which is unable to perform its normal X both will fall functions and activities of production of (C) Equilibrium price of good-X will increase goods and services at a reasonable profit while its quantity will fall on a sustained basis. (D) Equilibrium price of good-X will fall (C) Which is unable to make profits more while its quantity will increase than 10 per cent of its capital employed 82. Which is the first order condition for the (D) Which borrows money from bank for its profit of a firm to be maximum? fixed assets. (A) MC = MR (B) AC = AR 75. National income differs from net national (C) MR = AR (D) AC = MC product at market price by the amount of. 83. Which of the following is not a condition of (A) Current transfers from the rest of the Pure competition ? world (A) A very large number of firms. (B) Net indirect taxes. (B) Free entry and exit of the firms (C) National debt interest (C) Identical products (D) It does not differ. (D) Perfect Mobility among the factors 76. The market for hand tools (such as 84. Which of the following is not a central hammers and screwdrivers) is dominated problem of an economy ? by Draper, Stanley, and Craftsman. This (A) Problem of Allocation of Resources market is best described as (B) Problem of Distribution (A) Monopolistically competitive (C) Problem of Technique (B) A monopoly (D) Problem of Unemployment (C) An oligopoly 85. Economics according to Lionel Robbins is a (D) Perfectly competitive (A) normative science 77. The Golden Fibre Revolution relates to (B) applied science (A) Wheat (B) Jute (C) positive science (C) Horticulture (D) Jowar (D) experimental science 78. Three steel plants in Bhilai, Rourkela and 86. With the Rise in Income of the Consumer, Durgapur were set up in the demand for the …………….. goods also rises? (A) First plan. (A) Normal Goods (B) Second plan. (B) Giffen Goods (C) Third plan. (C) Superior Goods (D) Fourth plan. (D) Inferior Goods 79. What implication(s) does resource scarcity 87. In case of supply being perfectly inelastic, have for the satisfaction of wants? what will be the effect of increase and (A) Not all wants can be satisfied decrease in demand on price and (B) We will never be faced with the need to equilibrium quantity? make choices. X (A) Price increases or decreases respectively (C) We must develop ways to decrease our (B) No effect on equilibrium quantity individual wants. (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) The discovery of new natural resources (D) None of these is necessary to increase our ability to satisfy wants. Ph: 09555108888, 09555208888 5 2007, OUTRAM LINES, 1ST FLOOR, OPPOSITE MUKHERJEE NAGAR POLICE STATION, DELHI-110009 93. Product method of measuring national 88. Monopolistic competition differs from income is known by which of the following perfect competition primarily because names ? (A) in monopolistic competition, firms can (A) Value added method differentiate their products. (B) Inventory method (B) in perfect competition, firms can accept (C) Industrial origin method the price. (D) All the above (C) in monopolistic competition, entry into 94. When was National Income Committee the industry is blocked. constituted in India? (D) in monopolistic competition, there are (A) 1949 (B) 1950 relatively few barriers to entry. (C) 1948 (D) 1951 89. The branch of economic theory that deals 95. .................. refers to disposal of public with the problem of allocation of resources sector’s units in the equity market. is (A) Globalisation (B) Privatisation (A) Micro-economic theory. (C) Investmwnt (D) Liberalisation (B) Macro-economic theory. 96. SEZ Act came into effect in (C) Econometrics. (A) 2002 (B) 2003 (D) None of the above (C) 2006 (D) 2007 90. Which of the following statement is 97. Who is the official “lender of the last resort” incorrect? in India? (A) The LAC curve is also called the (A) SBI (B) PNB planning curve of a firm (C) RBI (D) OBC (B) Total revenue = price per unit x number 98. In the present context, total money stock of units sold in India refers to (C) Opportunity cost is also called (A) M1 (B) M2 . alternative cost (C) M3 (D) M4 (D) If total revenue is divided by the number 99. Broad money refers to of units sold we get marginal revenue. (A) M1 (B) M2 91. The Kinked demand hypothesis is designed (C) M3 (D) M4 to explain in the context of oligopoly 100. Select the correct alternative (A) Price and output determination (A) price determination is not a subject of (B) Price rigidity microeconomics (C) Price leadership (B) microeconomics is concerned with the (D) Collusion among rivals. aggregates of the economy 92. Which year is known as year of great divide (C) economic problem does not exist in for India’s population? every economy (A) 1911 (B) 1921 (D) there is close relationship between (C) 1931 (D) 1941 scarcity and choice