Compilation of Questions: MICROBIOLOGY

1. What is a microorganism?
(a) Amicroorganism is a small organism that takes in and breaks down food for energy and nutrients, excretes
unused food as waste, and is capable of reproduction.
(b) A microorganism is a small organism that causes diseases only in plants.
(c) A microorganism is a small organism that causes diseases only in animals.
(d) Amicroorganism is a term that refers to a cell.

2. What is a pathogenic microorganism?

(a) Amicroorganism that multiplies
(b) Amicroorganism that grows in a host
(c) Amicroorganism that is small
(d) Adisease-causing microorganism

3. Name the parts of this microorganism using the nomenclature system: Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
(a) A bacterium is a one-cell organism that does not have a distinct nucleus.
(b) Mycobacterium is the presemous and tuberculosis is the specific postsemous.
(c) Mycobacterium is the epithet and tuberculosis is the specific genus.
(d) Mycobacterium is the genus and tuberculosis is the specific epithet.

4. Why is a bacterium called a prokaryotic organism?

(a) A bacterium is a one-cell organism that does not have a distinct nucleus.
(b) A bacterium is a one-cell organism that has a distinct nucleus.
(c) A bacterium is a multicellular organism that does not have a distinct nucleus.
(d) A bacterium is a multicellular organism that has a distinct nucleus.
5. Why is a fungus called a eukaryotic microorganism?
(a) Fungus has cells that have a nucleus, nuclear envelope, cytoplasm, and organelles.
(b) Fungus has cells that have a nucleus and no nuclear envelope.
(c) Fungus has cells that have a nucleus, nuclear envelope, cytoplasm, but no organelles.
(d) Fungus has cells that have no nucleus, no nuclear envelope, no cytoplasm, and no organelles.

6. What is Archaea?
(a) Archaea is a classification for organisms that have two nuclei.
(b) Archaea is a classification for organisms that use phagocytosis.
(c) Archaea is a classification of an organism that identifies prokaryotes that do not have peptidoglycan cell
walls.
(d) Archaea is a classification of an organism that identifies prokaryotes that have peptidoglycan cell walls.

7. What is phagocytosis?
(a) The ability of a cell to reproduce.
(b) The ability of a cell to move throughout a microorganism.
(c) The ability of a cell to engulf and digest solid materials by use of pseudopods, or “false feet.”
(d) The ability of a cell to change shape.

8. What is a compound microscope?

(a) A microscope that has one lenses.
(b) A microscope that has two sets of lenses: an ocular lens and an eyepiece.
(c) A microscope whose lenses are concave.
(d) A microscope whose lenses are convex.

9. What is Germ Theory?

(a) Germ Theory states that a disease-causing microorganism should be present in animals infected by the
disease and not in healthy animals.
(b) Germ Theory states that a disease-causing microorganism should be present in healthy animals and not in
infected animals.
(c) Germ Theory states that a disease-causing microorganism should be destroyed. (d) Germ Theory states that
a disease-causing microorganism cannot be destroyed.

10. What is Edward Jenner’s contribution to microbiology?

Compilation of Questions: MICROBIOLOGY
(a) Edward Jenner discovered the Germ Theory.
(b) Edward Jenner discovered how to create vaccinations to trigger the body’s immune system to develop
antibodies that fight microorganisms.
(c) Edward Jenner discovered the compound microscope.
(d) Edward Jenner discovered the compound nomenclature system.

11. The most specific and exclusive taxon used in the classification of microorganisms is:
(a). Family (b). Order (c). Species (d). Genus

12. The process consisting of a series of methods designed to provide the microbiologist with relevant
and useful clinical information about a microorganism is:
(a). Classification (b). Identification (c). Organization (d). Taxonomy

13. Classification and naming or organisms is useful in diagnostic microbiology for all of the following except:
(a). Provides standardized groupings for identification
(b). Standardized groupings are always Genotypically similar at >98%
(c). Standardized groupings share similar phenotypic traits
(d). Organisms within a standard group may be identified using similar methods

14. Which of the following is not a correct use of the binomial nomenclature system?
a. Staphylococcus Aureus
b. S. aureus
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Staphylococcus aureus

15. Which of the following individuals is considered to be the “Father of Microbiology?”

a. Anton van Leeuwenhoek b. Louis Pasteur c. Robert Koch d. Rudolf Virchow

16. The microbes that usually live on or in a person are collectively referred to as:
a. germs b. indigenous microbiota c. nonpathogens d. opportunistic
pathogens

17. Microbes that live on dead and decaying organic material are known as:
a. indigenous microbiota b. parasites c. pathogens d. saprophytes

18. The study of algae is called:

a. algaeology b. botany c. mycology d. phycology

19. The field of parasitology (see ) involves the study of which of the following types of organisms?
a. arthropods, bacteria, fungi, protozoa, and viruses
b. arthropods, helminths, and certain protozoa
c. bacteria, fungi, and protozoa
d. bacteria, fungi, and viruses

20. Rudolf Virchow is given credit for proposing which of the following theories?
a. abiogenesis b. biogenesis c. germ theory of disease d. spontaneous generation

21. Which of the following microbes are considered obligate intracellular pathogens?
a. chlamydias, rickettsias, Mycobacterium leprae, and Treponema pallidum
b. M. leprae and T. pallidum
c. M. tuberculosis and viruses
d. rickettsias, chlamydias, and viruses

22. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Koch developed a rabies vaccine
b. Microbes are ubiquitous
c. Most microbes are harmful to humans
d. Pasteur conducted experiments that proved the theory of abiogenesis
Compilation of Questions: MICROBIOLOGY

23. Which of the following are even smaller than viruses?

a. chlamydias b. prions and viroids c. rickettsias d. cyanobacteria

24. Which of the following individuals introduced the terms “aerobes” and “anaerobes?”
a. Anton van Leeuwenhoek b. Louis Pasteur c. Robert Koch d. Rudolf Virchow

25. A millimeter is equivalent to how many nanometers?

a. 1,000 b. 10,000 c. 100,000 d. 1,000,000

26. Assume that a pinhead is 1 mm in diameter. How many spherical bacteria (cocci), lined up side by side,
would fit across the pinhead? (Hint: Use information from Table 2-1.)
a. 100 b. 1,000 c. 10,000 d. 100,000

27. What is the length of an average rod-shaped bacterium (bacillus)?

a. 3 µm b. 3 nm c. 0.3 mm d. 0.03 mm

28. What is the total magnification when using the high-power (high-dry) objective of a compound light
microscope equipped with a 3 10 ocular lens?
a. 40 b. 50 c. 100 d. 400

29. How many times better is the resolution of the transmission electron microscope than the resolution of the
unaided human eye? a. 1,000 b. 10,000 c. 100,000 d. 1,000,000

30. How many times better is the resolution of the transmission electron microscope than the resolution of the
compound light microscope?
a. 100 b. 1,000 c. 10,000 d. 100,000

31. How many times better is the resolution of the transmission electron microscope than the resolution of the
scanning electron microscope?
a. 100 b. 1,000 c. 10,000 d. 100,000

32. The limiting factor of any compound light microscope (i.e., the thing that limits its resolution to 0.2 µm) is
the:
a. number of condenser lenses it has
b. number of magnifying lenses it has
c. number of ocular lenses it has
d. wavelength of visible light

33. Which of the following individuals is given credit for developing the first compound microscope?
a. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
b. Hans Jansen
c. Louis Pasteur
d. Robert Hooke

34. A compound light microscope differs from a simple microscope in that the compound light microscope
contains more than one:
a. condenser lens b. magnifying lens c. objective lens d. ocular lens

35. Molecules of extrachromosomal DNA are also known as:

a. Golgi bodies b. lysosomes c. plasmids d. plastids

36. A bacterium possessing a tuft of flagella at one end of its cell would be called what kind of bacterium?
a. amphitrichous b. lophotrichous c. monotrichous d. peritrichous

37. One way in which an archaean would differ from a bacterium is that the archaean would possess no: a. DNA
in its chromosome b. peptidoglycan in its cell walls c. ribosomes in its cytoplasm d. RNA in its ribosomes
Compilation of Questions: MICROBIOLOGY
38. Some bacteria stain Gram-positive and others stain Gram-negative as a result of differences in the structure
of their: a. capsule b. cell membrane c. cell wall d. ribosomes

39. Of the following, which one is not found in prokaryotic cells?

a. cell membrane b. chromosome c. mitochondria d. plasmids

40. The Three-Domain System of Classification is based on differences in which of the following molecules?
a. mRNA b. peptidoglycan c. rRNA d. Trna

41. Which of the following is in the correct sequence?

a. Kingdom, Class, Division, Order, Family, Genus
b. Kingdom, Division, Class, Order, Family, Genus
c. Kingdom, Division, Order, Class, Family, Genus
d. Kingdom, Order, Division, Class, Family, Genus

42. Which one of the following is never found in prokaryotic cells?

a. flagella b. capsule c. cilia d. ribosomes

43. The semipermeable structure controlling the transport of materials between the cell and its external
environment is the:
a. cell membrane b. cell wall c. cytoplasm d. nuclear membrane

44. In eukaryotic cells, what are the sites of photosynthesis?

a. mitochondria b. plasmids c. plastids d. ribosomes

45. Which one of the following steps occurs during the multiplication of animal viruses, but not during the
multiplication of bacteriophages?
a. assembly b. biosynthesis c. penetration d. uncoating

46. Which one of the following diseases or groups of diseases is not caused by prions?
a. certain plant diseases
b. chronic wasting disease of deer and elk
c. Creutzfeldt–Jacob disease of humans
d. “mad cow disease”

47. Most prokaryotic cells reproduce by:

a. binary fission b. budding c. gamete production d. spore formation

48. The group of bacteria that lack rigid cell walls and take on irregular shapes is:
a. chlamydias b. mycobacteria c. mycoplasmas d. rickettsias

49. At the end of the Gram staining procedure, Gram-positive bacteria will be:
a. blue to purple b. green c. orange d. pink to red

50. Which one of the following statements about rickettsias is false?

a. Diseases caused by rickettsias are arthropod-borne
b. Rickets is caused by a Rickettsia species
c. Rickettsia species cause typhus and typhuslike diseases
d. Rickettsias have leaky membranes

51. Which one of the following statements about Chlamydia and Chlamydophila spp. is false?
a. They are obligate intracellular pathogens
b. They are considered to be “energy parasites”
c. The diseases they cause are all arthropod-borne
d. They are considered to be Gram-negative bacteria
Compilation of Questions: MICROBIOLOGY
52. Which one of the following statements about cyanobacteria is false?
a. Although cyanobacteria are photosynthetic, they do not produce oxygen as a result of photosynthesis
b. At one time, cyanobacteria were called bluegreen algae
c. Some cyanobacteria are capable of nitrogen fixation
d. Some cyanobacteria are important medically because they produce toxins

53. Which one of the following statements about archaea is false?

a. Archaea are more closely related to eukaryotes than they are to bacteria
b. Both archaea and bacteria are prokaryotic organisms
c. Some archaea live in extremely hot environments
d. The cell walls of archaea contain a thicker layer of peptidoglycan than the cell walls of bacteria

54. An organism that does not require oxygen, grows better in the absence of oxygen, but can survive in
atmospheres containing some molecular oxygen is known as a(n):
a. aerotolerant anaerobe b. capnophile c. facultative anaerobe d. microaerophile

55. Which one of the following are the building blocks of proteins?
a. amino acids b. monosaccharides c. nucleotides d. peptides

56. Glucose, sucrose, and cellulose are examples of:

a. carbohydrates b. disaccharides c. monosaccharides d. polysaccharides

57. Which of the following nitrogenous bases is not found in an RNA molecule?
a. adenine b. guanine c. thymine d. uracil

58. Which of the following are purines?

a. adenine and guanine b. adenine and thymine c. guanine and uracil d. guanine and cytosine

59. Which one of the following is not found at the site of protein synthesis?
a. DNA b. mRNA c. rRNA d. tRNA

60. Which of the following statements about DNA is (are) true?

a. DNA contains thymine but not uracil
b. DNA molecules contain deoxyribose
c. In a double-stranded DNA molecule, adenine on one strand will be connected to thymine on the
complementary strand by two hydrogen bonds
d. All of the above statements are true

61. The amino acids in a polypeptide chain are connected by:

a. covalent bonds b. glycosidic bonds c. peptide bonds d. both a and c

62. Which of the following statements about nucleotides is (are) true?

a. A nucleotide contains a nitrogenous base
b. A nucleotide contains a pentose
c. A nucleotide contains a phosphate group
d. All of the above statements are true

63. A heptose contains how many carbon atoms?

a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7

64. Virtually all enzymes are:

a. carbohydrates b. nucleic acids c. proteins d. substrates
Compilation of Questions: MICROBIOLOGY
65. The periplasmic space is required for:
a. Nutrient collection in both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria
b. Collection and enzymatic degradation of nutrients in gram negative bacteria
c. Nutrient detoxification and enzymatic degradation in all bacteria
d. None of the above

66. Prokaryotic chromosomes:

a. Are double-stranded RNA molecules
b. Are single-copy, double-stranded DNA molecules
c. Are linear double-stranded DNA molecules
d. Are unable to replicate independently of plasmids

67. Bacterial cells genetically evolve by:

a. Recombination with plasmids, transposons, and other bacterial chromosomes
b. Mutation and recombination
c. Use of the mechanisms of transduction, transformation, and conjugation
d. All of the above

68. Transcription is the:

a. Copying of DNA to RNA
b. Changing of DNA to RNA
c. Production of a complementary DNA
d. Completion of a protein sequence

69. A eukaryotic cell:

a. Is smaller and less complex than a prokaryotic cell
b. Is able to grow only in aerobic conditions
c. Contains membrane-bound organelles
d. Is unable to grow outside of another cell

70. Which chemical or physical property is essential for the conservation of genetic information?
a. complementation between base-pairs
b. double-stranded
c. anti-parallel structure
d. all are equally as important

71. Expression of a biochemical molecule in an organism requires:

a. replication only
b. transcription only
c. transcription and translation of protein
d. all of the above

72. True or False

_____ All bacteria are considered competent.
_____ Conjugation requires cell-to-cell contact.
_____ Oxidative phosphorylation occurs across the cell membrane in bacteria.

73. Matching: Match each term with the correct description.

_____ capsule a. involved in transcriptional regulation

_____ replication b. able to grow in the presence or absence of oxygen
_____ repressor c. maintains selective permeability and cell shape
_____ tRNA d. provides a mechanism to evade the human immune system
_____ facultative anaerobe e. the process of making a new DNA molecule
_____ gram-negative f. involved in protein translation
_____ gram-positive g. contains a thick layer of peptidoglycan
_____ aerobic h. final electron acceptor is oxygen
_____ cell envelope i. has an outer and inner membrane
Compilation of Questions: MICROBIOLOGY

74. ANSWER THE FOLLOWING:

1. What is required for bacteria to grow before they can be identified?
2. After growing colonies of bacteria, what is the next step to identifying the organism?
3. What discovery gave a clue that microscopic organisms are present in almost all areas of our lives?
4. What is meant by bacterial susceptibility or sensitivity testing?
5. What is meant by antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria?

75. A bacteria that is aerobic needs _____________ to survive and replicate:

a. Nitrogen b. Oxygen c. Carbon dioxide d. Water

76. True or False: A substance that produces or causes cancer is carcinogenic.

77. The types of microorganisms listed in this chapter that may be human pathogens include:
a. Protons, neutrons, and electrons
b. Bacteria, viruses, and parasites
c. Bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites
d. None of the above

78. True or False: Most of the types of bacteria present in our environment are pathogenic.

79. True or False: The presence of bacteria anywhere in our bodies is always an infection.

80. A round-shaped bacteria that appears in pairs when viewed under the microscope is known as a:
a. Cocci b. Spirilla c. Bacilli d. Diplococci

81. Which type of infection is best treated by antibiotic use?

a. Viral b. Bacterial c. Viral and bacterial d. None of the above

82. True or False: In a medically aseptic environment, bacteria may still be present on surfaces.

83. How does the “chain of infection” have to be broken to keep a pathogen from causing disease?
a. It must be broken at multiple points to keep the pathogen from causing disease
b. Only vaccinations will break the chain of infection
c. The chain of infection must only be broken at one point to discontinue the spread of infection
d. The pathogen must be killed before the chain will be broken

84. What are the elements addressed in CDC Standard Precautions document?
a. Appropriate use of personal protective equipment
b. Equipment disinfection procedures
c. Respiratory hygiene
d. Sharps use
e. All of the above

85. True or False: Hand washing is designed to remove the normal (resident) flora from our skin.

86. When using an alcohol-based hand rub to disinfect the hands, it is important to:
a. Put on gloves while hands are still damp
b. Rub the solution thoroughly on all parts of the hands and wrists
c. Use only a drop of the solution
d. Always wash the hands first before using

87. The OSHA Hazard Communications Standard addresses:

a. The use of personal protective equipment
b. The formal education required by everyone in the laboratory before they can be hired to perform certain tests
c. What type of fire extinguisher to use for various types of fires
d. The brand of hand sanitizer endorsed by the federal government

88. Which of the following components are required for any Material Safety Data Sheet?
a. Identification of the chemical
b. Color of the chemical
c. Health hazards
d. a and c
e. All of the above

89. True or False: Laboratory employees may protect themselves from occupational back injuries by using appropriate bending
techniques when lifting heavy objects.
Compilation of Questions: MICROBIOLOGY
90. Why was the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard created?
a. To protect employers from lawsuits
b. To create a revenue source for OSHA
c. To educate and protect employees from the hazards of bloodborne pathogens
d. To protect patients from bloodborne pathogens

91. What is an example of parenteral or percutaneous bloodborne pathogen exposure?

a. A respiratory infection contracted when working with a patient with pneumonia
b. Touching a patient’s blood with a bare hand with unbroken skin
c. An accidental needlestick with a needle contaminated with the blood of a patient
d. Splashing urine on the arm while pouring a specimen

92. True or False: The OSHA Blood-borne Pathogens Standard requires the development of an exposure control plan. Part of this plan
requires that all employees who have occupational exposure to blood or other potentially infectious materials are offered an
opportunity to receive a series of hepatitis C vaccinations at no charge.

93. True or False: When using a needle to draw blood, it is okay to lay it down on the table next to the drawing chair right after the
blood draw, and come back later to activate the safety device and dispose of it correctly.

94. Who must transport biohazardous waste?

a. Employees of the laboratory that have been appropriately trained
b. The local municipal garbage disposal company
c. A certified, licensed biohazardous waste disposal company
d. None of the above

95. What do hepatitis A, hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and HIV all have in common?
a. They are all caused by viruses
b. They are all caused by bacteria
c. They all have vaccinations to prevent infection
d. None of them have vaccinations to prevent infection.

96. Are blood tests part of the follow-up procedure for health-care workers who are are percutaneously exposed to blood in the
workplace?

97. Which one of the following agents lacks nucleic acid?

(A) Bacteria (B) Viruses (C) Viroids (D) Prions (E) Protozoa

98 Viruses, bacteria, and protists are uniquely characterized by their respective size. True or false?
(A) True (B) False

99. Which of the following are prokaryotes? (A) Archaebacteria (B) Protozoa (C) Viruses (D) Prions (E) Fungi

100. Quorum sensing in prokaryotes involves

(A) Cell–cell communication
(B) Production of pheromones
(C) An example of multicellular behavior
(D) Regulation of genes involved in diverse physiologic processes
(E) All of the above

101. Which one of the following is not a protist?

(A) Bacteria (B) Algae (C) Protozoa (D) Fungi (E) Slime molds

102. Which one of the following agents simultaneously contains both DNA and RNA?
(A) Bacteria (B) Viruses (C) Viroids (D) Prions (E) Plasmids

103. A 22-year-old man presents with a painless 1-cm ulcer on the shaft of his penis. Inguinal lymphadenopathy is present. The
patient admits trading drugs for sex and has several sexual partners. An RPR test result is positive, and syphilis is suspected; however,
a Gram stain of a swab specimen from the ulcer shows no bacteria. Treponema pallidum, the causative agent of syphilis, cannot be
visualized by light microscopy because
(A) It is transparent.
(B) It cannot be stained by ordinary stains.
(C) It has a diameter of less than 0.2 mm.
(D) The wavelength of white light is too long.
(E) Rapid movement of the organism prevents visualization.

104. Chloramphenicol, an antibiotic that inhibits bacterial protein synthesis, will also affect which of the following eukaryotic
organelles?
(A) Mitochondria (B) Golgi apparatus (C) Microtubules (D) Endoplasmic reticulum (E) Nuclear membrane
Compilation of Questions: MICROBIOLOGY
105. Which of the following structures is not part of the bacterial cell envelope?
(A) Peptidoglycan (B) Lipopolysaccharide C) Capsule (D) Gas vacuole (E) S-layer

106. Which of the following transport mechanisms functions without the requirement for energy?
(A) Binding protein dependent (B) Group translocation (C) Symport (D) Uniport (E) Facilitated diffusion

107. Which of the following components is present in gram-negative bacteria but not in gram-positive bacteria?
(A) Peptidoglycan (B) Lipid A (C) Capsule (D) Flagella (E) Pili

108. Which of the following components is present in gram-positive bacteria but not in gram-negative bacteria?
(A) Peptidoglycan (B) Capsule (C) Flagella (D) Teichoic acid (E) Diaminopimelic acid

109. In the fall of 2001, a series of letters containing spores of Bacillus anthracis were mailed to members of the media and to U.S.
Senate offices. The result was 22 cases of anthrax, with five deaths. The heat resistance of bacterial spores, such as those of Bacillus
anthracis, is partly attributable to their dehydrated state and partly to the presence of large amounts of
(A) Diaminopimelic acid
(B) d-Glutamic acid
(C) Calcium dipicolinate
(D) Sulfhydryl-containing proteins
(E) Lipid A

110. Which of the following terms does NOT describe the bacterial chromosome?
(A) Haploid (B) Diploid (C) Circular (D) Nucleoid (E) Feulgen positive

111. Lysozyme cleaves the β1→4 linkage between

(A) d-Alanine and the pentaglycine bridge
(B) N-Acetylmuramic acid and d-alanine
(C) Lipid A and KDO
(D) N-Acetylmuramic acid and N-acetylglucosamine
(E) d-Alanine and d-alanine

112. Mycoplasma species lack which of the following components?

(A) Ribosomes (B) Plasma membrane (C) Both DNA and RNA (D) Lipids (E) Peptidoglycan

113. Eubacteria that lack cell walls and do not synthesize the precursors of peptidoglycan are called
(A) Gram-negative bacteria (B) Viruses (C) Mycoplasmas (D) Serovar variant (E) Bacilli

114. Archaebacteria can be distinguished from eubacteria by their lack of

(A) DNA (B) RNA (C) Ribosomes (D) Peptidoglycan (E) Nucleus

115. A 16-year-old cystic fibrosis patient is admitted to the hospital. A sputum culture yields Burkholderia cepacia. Subsequently, there
are two other patients with B. cepacia bacteremia, and the organism is cultured from the sputum of four additional patients. During
this nosocomial outbreak of B. cepacia, 50 environmental and seven patient isolates are being subtyped to identify the source of the
outbreak. Which of the following techniques would be most useful in this endeavor?
(A) Culture
(B) Ribotyping
(C) 16S rRNA sequencing
(D) Antimicrobial susceptibility testing
(E) Nucleic acid sequencing

116. An unculturable gram-positive microorganism has been visualized in tissue specimens obtained from patients with a previously
undescribed disease. Which of the following techniques would be most useful in identifying this organism?
(A) Serology
(B) PCR amplification and sequencing of rRNA genes
(C) Multilocus enzyme electrophoresis
(D) SDS-polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis
(E) Pulsed field gel electrophoresis

117. The DNA polymerase from Thermus aquaticus is an important component of DNA amplification methods such as the polymerase
chain reaction. This organism is capable of growing at temperatures above 100°C. Organisms that are capable of growth at these
temperatures are referred to as
(A) Mesophiles (B) Psychrophiles (C) Halophiles (D) Thermophiles (E) Chemolithotrophs

118.0A 23-year-old woman has 10 Escherichia coli inoculated into her bladder while having sex. These E coli have a generation time of
20 minutes. After a lag of 20 minutes, the E coli enter the logarithmic phase of growth. After 3 hours of logarithmic growth, the total
number of cells is
(A) 2560 (B) 5012 (C) 90 (D) 1028 (E) 1,000,000
Compilation of Questions: MICROBIOLOGY
119. A 73-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital for intravenous treatment of an abscess caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
Subsequent to her treatment and discharge from the hospital, it is necessary to disinfect the hospital room. One thousand of the S
aureus cells are exposed to a disinfectant. After 10 minutes, 90% of the cells are killed. How many cells remain viable after 20
minutes?
(A) 500 (B) 100 (C) 10 (D) 1 (E) 0

120. The action of which of the following agents or processes on bacteria can be reversed?
(A) A disinfectant
(B) A bactericidal agent
(C) A bacteriostatic agent
(D) Autoclaving at 121°C for 15 minutes
(E) Dry heat at 160–170°C for 1 hour

121. The growth rate of bacteria during the exponential phase of growth is
(A) Zero (B) Increasing (C) Constant (D) Decreasing (E) Negative

122. The growth rate of bacteria during the maximum stationary phase of growth is
(A) Zero (B) Increasing (C) Constant (D) Decreasing (E) Negative

123. What is a dalton?

(a) The equivalent of a nanometer
(b) The unit of measurement used to measure the structure of an atom
(c) The unit of measurement used to measure atomic number
(d) The unit of measurement used to measure atomic weight

124. What is the name given to a chemical element whose atoms have a different number of neutrons?
(a) Complex element (b) Differential element (c) Isotope (d) Stable element

125. What kind of reaction performs synthesis and decomposition?

(a) Endergonic reaction (b) Fusion reaction (c) Fission reaction (d) Exchange reaction

126. What is a nanometer?

(a) 1/1,000,000,000 of a meter (b) 1/100,000 of a meter (c) 1/1,000,000 of a meter (d) 1,000,000,000 meters

127. What magnification is used if you observe a microorganism with a microscope whose object is 100× and whose ocular lens is
10×?
(a) 1000× magnification (b) 100× magnification (c) 10× magnification (d) 10,000× magnification

128. What is the function of an illuminator?

(a) To control the temperature of the specimen
(b) To keep the specimen moist
(c) An illuminator is the light source used to observe a specimen under a microscope
(d) To keep the specimen dry

129. What is the area seen through the ocular eyepiece called?
(a) The stage
(b) The objective
(c) The display
(d) The field of view

130. How do you maintain good resolution of a specimen at magnifications greater than 100×?
(a) Display the specimen on a television monitor.
(b) Use a single ocular eyepiece.
(c) Immerse the specimen in oil.
(d) Avoid moving the specimen.

131. What is a micrograph?

(a) Amicroscopic photograph taken by an electron microscope
(b) Amicroscopic diagram of a specimen
(c) Amicroscopic photograph taken by a light microscope
(d) Agrowth diagram of a specimen

132. What is a smear?

(a) A smear is a preparation process in which a specimen is spread on a slide.
(b) A smear is a preparation process in which a specimen is dyed.
(c) A smear is a process in which a specimen is moved beneath a microscope.
(d) A smear is a process used to identify a specimen.
Compilation of Questions: MICROBIOLOGY
133. What process is used to cause a specimen to adhere to a glass slide?
(a) The heat fixation process (b) Wet mount (c) White glue (d) Clear glue

134. Why is a specimen stained?

(a) A stain is used to label a specimen.
(b) A stain is used to determine the size of a specimen.
(c) A stain adheres to the specimen, causing more light to be reflected by the specimen into the microscope.
(d) A stain is used to determine the density of a specimen.

135. When would you use a wet mount?

(a) A wet mount is used to observe a dead specimen under a microscope.
(b) A wet mount is used to observe a live specimen under a microscope.
(c) A wet mount is used to observe an inorganic specimen under a microscope.
(d) A wet mount is the first step in preparing a specimen.

136. Agram-positive cell wall has

(a) many layers of peptidoglygan, which repels the crystal of violet dye when the cell is stained
(b) many layers of peptidoglygan, which retains the crystal of violet dye when the cell is stained
(c) one layer of peptidoglygan, which retains the crystal of violet dye when the cell is stained
(d) one layer of peptidoglygan, which repels the crystal of violet dye when the cell is stained

137. Acytoplasmic membrane is

(a) a membrane that provides a selective barrier between the nucleus and the cell’s internal structures
(b) the cell wall
(c) a membrane that provides a barrier between the cell’s internal structures
(d) a membrane that provides a selective barrier between the cell wall and the cell’s internal structures

138. Amphipathic means

(a) that the cytoplasmic membrane of a cell is bilayered and contains both polar and nonpolar parts
(b) that the cytoplasmic membrane of a cell is unilayered and contains polar parts
(c) that the cytoplasmic membrane of a cell is unilayered and contains nonpolar parts
(d) that the cytoplasmic membrane of a cell is resistant to all substances residing outside the cell

139. What is the function of the nonpolar part of the cytoplasmic membrane? (a) The cytoplasmic membrane does not have a
nonpolar part. (b) The nonpolar part of the cytoplasmic membrane prevents extracellular fluid from leaving the cell and intracellular
fluid from entering the cell. (c) The nonpolar part of the cytoplasmic membrane is hydrophobic and prevents extracellular fluid from
entering the cell and intracellular fluid from exiting the cell. (d) The nonpolar part of the cytoplasmic membrane is to position
organelles within the cell.

140. The function of the transport protein is

(a) to regulate cell division
(b) to regulate the positioning of organelles within the cell
(c) to regulate movement of molecules through the cytoplasmic membrane
(d) to give a cell its color

141. The function of the channel protein is

(a) to direct movement of a cell through channels in its environment
(b) to channel substances among organelles within the cell
(c) to form pores (called channels) in the cytoplasmic membrane that permit the flow of molecules through the cytoplasmic
membrane
(d) to form pores (called channels) in the nucleus membrane that permit the flow of molecules through the nuclei of the cell

142. Passive transport is

(a) the process of moving substances through the cytoplasmic membrane without expending energy by using a concentration gradient
(b) the process of moving substances through the cytoplasmic membrane without expending energy by using a transport protein
(c) the process of moving substances through the cytoplasmic membrane by expending energy by using a concentration gradient
(d) the process of moving substances through the nucleus membrane without expending energy by using a concentration gradient

143. What is facilitated diffusion?

(a) A passive transport process in which molecules or ions of a substance move from a region of lower concentration to a region of
higher concentration without the assistance of an integral protein
(b) A passive transport process in which molecules or ions of a substance move from a region of lower concentration to a region of
higher concentration with the assistance of an integral protein
(c) An active transport process in which molecules or ions of a substance move from a region of higher concentration to a region of
lower concentration with the assistance of an integral protein
(d) A passive transport process in which molecules or ions of a substance move from a region of higher concentration to a region of
lower concentration with the assistance of an integral protein
Compilation of Questions: MICROBIOLOGY
144. Active transport is
(a) the movement of a substance across the cytoplasmic membrane in the direction of the gradient by using energy provided by the
cell
(b) the formation of pores (called channels) in the cytoplasmic membrane that permit the flow of molecules through the cytoplasmic
membrane
(c) the movement of a substance across the cytoplasmic membrane against the gradient by using energy provided by the cell
(d) is a process in which molecules or ions of a substance move from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower
concentration with the assistance of an integral protein

145. What are the two types of endocytosis?

(a) Facilitated diffusion and passive transport
(b) Phagocytosis and pinocytosis
(c) Hydrolysis and cytosol
(d) Nucleoid and cytosol

146. What is the energy storage molecule?

(a) ATP (b) Adenosine oxidate (c) Phospholipids (d) NAAD

147. What reaction releases energy as large molecules are broken down into small molecules?
(a) Anabolic reaction (b) Catabolic reaction (c) Anabolism (d) Hydrolase reaction

148. What reaction combines small molecules to form large molecules?

(a) Anabolic reaction (b) Catabolic reaction (c) Anabolism (d) Hydrolase reaction

149. The energy needed to begin a chemical reaction is called?

(a) Metabolism (b) Activation energy (c) Saturation point (d) Inhibitors

150. What process is used to break down glucose?

a) Anabolic reaction (b) Catabolic reaction (c) Anabolism (d) Hydrolase reaction

151. What pathway is used by some bacteria to catabolize glucose to pyruvic acid?
(a) Pyruvic acid pathway (b) Enter-Doudoroff pathway (c) Pseudomonas pathway (d) Aeruginosa pathway

152. What is acetyl-CoAsplit into in the Krebs cycle?

(a) Hydrogen and oxygen
(b) Oxygen and carbon
(c) Carbon dioxide and hydrogen
(d) Carbon and hydrogen

153. What process partially oxidizes sugar to release energy using an organic molecule as an electron acceptor?
(a) Fermentation (b) Oxidation (c) Oxidation reduction (d) Lactation

154. What is caused when there is a chemical denaturing of enzymes?

(a) Protein creation (b) Lipid creation (c) Very high or low pH (d) Saturation point is reached

155. What blocks active sites from bonding to a substrate?

(a) Carbohydrates (b) Temperature (c) Inhibitors (d) Pyruvic acid

156. What microorganisms can use oxygen when it is present and continue to grow without it?
(a) Obligate aerobes (b) Facultative anaerobes (c) Obligate anaerobes (d) Free radicals

157. What microorganisms require oxygen?

(a) Obligate aerobes (b) Facultative anaerobes (c) Obligate anaerobes (d) Free radicals

158. What microorganisms do not use oxygen and can actually be harmed by it?
(a) Obligate aerobes (b) Facultative anaerobes (c) Obligate anaerobes (d) Free radicals
Compilation of Questions: MICROBIOLOGY
159. What is not a toxic form of oxygen?
(a) Singlet oxygen (b) Facultative oxygen (c) Superoxide free radicals (d) Hydroxyl radical

160. What is a sterile culture medium?

(a) A hydroxyl radical medium
(b) A medium containing no living organisms
(c) A chemically defined medium
(d) A moisture-filled medium

161. What must chemically defined media contain?

(a) Growth factors (b) Complex media (c) Peptone complex (d) Protein hydrolysis

162. What is agar?

(a) A nutrient (b) Vitamins (c) A solidifying agent (d) Broth

163. What is an enrichment culture?

(a) Something that provides growth for all microorganisms
(b) Something that inhibits growth for all microorganisms
(c) An infectious culture
(d) Something that provides growth for a certain microorganism but not for others

164.What is an inoculating loop?

(a) Atool used to streak a microorganism in a pure culture
(b) Atool used to place agar in a pure medium
(c) Atool used to count colonies of microorganisms
(d) Atool used to view colonies of microorganisms

165. How can preserved bacteria cultures can be revived?

(a) Oxygenation
(b) Hydration
(c) Hydration and liquid nutrient medium
(d) Oxygenation and liquid nutrient medium

166. Which of the following microorganisms are not eukaryotic?

a. bacteria b. yeasts c. molds d. protozoa

167. Which microorganisms are used to make microbiological growth media?

a. bacteria b. fungi c. algae d. protozoa

168. In which habitat would you most likely find archaea?

a. acidic hot springs b. swamp mud c. Great Salt Lake d. all of the above

169. Of the following scientists, who first promulgated the theory of abiogenesis?
a. Aristotle b. Pasteur c. Needham d. Spallanzani

170. Which of the following scientists hypothesized that a bacterial colony arises from a single bacterial cell?
a. Antoni van Leeuwenhoek b. Louis Pasteur c. Robert Koch d. Richard Petri

171. Which scientist first hypothesized that medical personnel can infect patients with pathogens?
a. Edward Jenner b. Joseph Lister c. John Snow d. Ignaz Semmelweis

172. Leeuwenhoek described microorganisms as __________________.

a. animalcules b. prokaryotes c. eukaryotes d. protozoa

173. Which of the following favored the theory of spontaneous generation?

a. Spallanzani b. Needham c. Pasteur d. Koch
Compilation of Questions: MICROBIOLOGY
174. A scientist who studies the role of microorganisms in the environment is __________________.
a. a genetic techologist
b. an earth microbiologist
c. an epidemiologist
d. an environmental microbiologist

175. The laboratory of Robert Koch contributed which of the following to the field of microbiology?
a. simple staining technique
b. use of Petri dishes
c. first photomicrograph of bacteria
d. all of the above

176. Match the following

_____ Developed smallpox immunization A. John Snow

_____ First photomicrograph of bacteria B. Paul Ehrlich
_____ Germ theory of disease C. Louis Pasteur
_____ Germs cause disease D. Antoni van Leeuwenhoek
_____ Sought a “magic bullet” to destroy E. Carolus Linnaeus
_____ Early epidemiologist F. John Needham
_____ Father of Microbiology G. Eduard Buchner
_____ Classification system H. Robert Koch
_____ Discoverer of bacteria I. Joseph Lister
_____ Discoverer of protozoa J. Edward Jenner
_____ Founder of antiseptic surgery K. Girolamo Fracastoro
_____ Developed the most widely used bacterial staining technique L. Hans Christian Gram

177. It would be necessary to use a tuberculocidal agent to kill a particular species of:
a. Clostridium b. Mycobacterium c. Staphylococcus d. Streptococcus

178. Pasteurization is an example of what kind of technique?

a. antiseptic technique b. disinfection c. sterilization d. surgical aseptic technique

179. The combination of freezing and drying is known as:

a. desiccation b. lyophilization c. pasteurization d. tyndallization

180. Organisms that live in and around hydrothermal vents at the bottom of the ocean are: a. acidophilic,
psychrophilic, and halophilic b. halophilic, alkaliphilic, and psychrophilic c. halophilic, psychrophilic, and
piezophilic d. halophilic, thermophilic, and piezophilic

181. When placed into a hypertonic solution, a bacterial cell will:

a. take in more water than it releases b. lyse c. shrink d. swell

182. To prevent Clostridium infections in a hospital setting, what kind of disinfectant should be used?
a. fungicidal b. pseudomonicidal c. sporicidal d. tuberculocidal

183. Sterilization can be accomplished by use of:

a. an autoclave b. antiseptics c. medical aseptic techniques d. pasteurization

184. The goal of medical asepsis is to kill __________, whereas the goal of surgical asepsis is to kill __________.
a. all microorganisms . . . pathogens
b. bacteria . . . bacteria and viruses
c. nonpathogens . . . pathogens
d. pathogens . . . all microorganisms

185. Which of the following types of culture media is selective and differential?
a. blood agar b. MacConkey agar c. phenylethyl alcohol agar d. Thayer–Martin agar
Compilation of Questions: MICROBIOLOGY

186. All the following types of culture media are enriched and selective except:
a. blood agar b. colistin–nalidixic acid agar c. phenylethyl alcohol agar d. Thayer–Martin agar

187. Microbiology laboratory-acquired infections from an aerosol: a. largely occur in persons who are new to
the job. b. can occur from an accidental needle puncture wound. c. can cause disease with an organism of
usually low infectivity. d. are associated with improper venting of air in the laboratory setting.

188. Prevention of aerosolization can best be accomplished by: a. disinfecting the work areas with a bleach
solution. b. using puncture-proof sharps discard containers. c. using a biological safety cabinet when working
with specimens or when forming aerosols. d. discarding all specimen-contaminated materials in a biohazard
bag.

189. Media that contain dyes, antibiotics, or other chemical compounds that inhibit certain bacteria while
allowing others to grow are called: a. enrichment media. b. differential media. c. supportive media. d.
selective media.

190. Media that contain factors (e.g., carbohydrates) that give colonies of particular organisms distinctive
characteristics are called: a. enrichment media. b. differential media. c. supportive media. d. selective media.

191. Media that are used to permit the normal rate of growth of most nonfastidious organisms are called: a.
enrichment media. b. differential media. c. supportive media. d. selective media

192. Which of the following is not a selective medium? a. CNA b. Thayer-Martin agar c. Sheep blood agar d.
EMB

193. Which of the following is used to promote the growth of gram-negative organisms while inhibiting the
growth of gram-positive organisms? a. MacConkey agar b. Sheep blood agar c. Thayer-Martin agar d.
Chocolate agar

194. Which of the following is used to promote the growth of Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Neisseria
meningitidis? a. MacConkey agar b. Sheep blood agar c. Thayer-Martin agar d. Phenylethyl alcohol agar

195. Automated microbiology systems have generally been designed to replace: a. manual antibiotic
susceptibility procedures. b. manual procedures that are repetitive and that are performed daily on a large
number of specimens. c. manual procedures that are done infrequently but are labor intensive. d. all manual
procedures done in the microbiology laboratory.
196. The lowest concentration of antimicrobial agent that will visibly inhibit the growth of the organism being
tested is known as the: a. minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC). b. minimum bactericidal concentration
(MBC). c. agar disk diffusion test. d. dilution test.
197. Use of triple sugar iron agar or Kligler’s iron agar can identify all but which one of the following
characteristics of members of the Enterobacteriaceae family (common enteric intestinal pathogens)? a. Ability
to ferment gas from sugars b. Ability to produce hydrogen sulfide gas c. Ability to produce ammonia d. Ability
to ferment lactose

198. Pathogenic Shigella spp. characteristically are: a. non-lactose-fermenters. b. lactose-fermenters. c.

coagulase positive. d. oxidase positive.

199. MacConkey agar is quantitatively inoculated with a urine specimen and incubated appropriately. Results
are 100,000 CFU/mL urine of gram-negative lactose-fermenting organisms. Which of the following would be
statistically the most likely organism to cause this urinary tract infection?
a. Escherichia coli b. Proteus spp. c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Klebsiella spp.

200. What color are gram-negative bacteria after the decolorizing step in the Gram stain method?
a. Purple b. Red c. Purple-red d. Colorless
Compilation of Questions: MICROBIOLOGY
201. Which of the following organisms can be recognized by its spreading growth appearance on sheep blood
agar?
a. Escherichia coli b. Proteus spp. c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Klebsiella spp.

202. Urogenital swabs to be cultured for gonococci should be plated onto culture media:
a. immediately; at the bedside preferably.
b. within 2 hours of collection.
c. within 4 hours of collection.
d. within 24 hours of collection.

203. In culturing a throat swab for group A β-hemolytic streptococci testing, which of the following media is
preferred?
a. Sheep blood agar b. HE agar c. MacConkey agar d. Chocolate agar

204. What is the purpose of making cuts in the sheep blood agar when a throat culture is plated?
a. To count the colonies growing after incubation
b. To observe the appearance of any hemolysis present
c. To determine whether the organism is lactose positive or negative
d. To note the morphologic appearance of the colony growth

205. In some people, untreated pharyngitis infections with group A β-hemolytic streptococci can eventually
result in:
a. chronic pyelonephritis. b. acute pyelonephritis. c. chronic glomerulonephritis. d. scarlet fever.

206. In observing a sheep blood agar plate inoculated with a sputum sample showing the presence of alpha or
green hemolysis after incubation, what test can be done to determine whether the organism is viridans
streptococci, part of the normal respiratory flora, or Streptococcus pneumoniae?
a. Bile solubility test, in which most S. pneumoniae colonies would be dissolved by the reagent used and
inhibited by optochin disk
b. Bile solubility test, in which most viridans streptococci colonies would be dissolved by the reagent used and
inhibited by optochin disk
c. Bacitracin susceptibility test, in which most S. pneumoniae colonies would be inhibited by the bacitracin disk
d. Bacitracin susceptibility test, in which most viridans streptococci colonies would be inhibited by the
bacitracin disk

207. In identifying the presence of most group A β-hemolytic streptococci, versus those that are non–group A,
which of the following tests can be done?
a. Bile solubility test, in which most group A β-hemolytic streptococci colonies would be inhibited by an
optochin disk
b. Bile solubility test, in which most non– group A β-hemolytic streptococci colonies would be inhibited by an
optochin disk
c. PYR test, in which most group A β-hemolytic streptococci colonies would produce a bright red color after
addition of the PYR reagent to the filter paper
d. PYR test, in which most non–group A β-hemolytic streptococci colonies would produce a bright red color
after addition of the PYR reagent to the filter paper

208. Which of the following antimicrobial agents is used to inhibit nonpathogenic fungi from growing in media
that have been designed to promote growth of pathogenic fungi (e.g., Mycosel)?
a. Penicillin b. Streptomycin c. Chloramphenicol d. Cycloheximide

209. A Gram-stained sputum smear shows 40 to 50 squamous epithelial cells per low-power (10×) field, along
with gram-positive cocci, many gram-negative rods, and many grampositive cocci in pairs using the oil-
immersion objective. How should the laboratorian report the result for this smear?
a. Call physician directly to report lifethreatening situation.
b. Report gram-positive cocci, many gramnegative rods, and many gram-positive cocci in pairs, as well as many
squamous epithelial cells.
c. Subculture must be done to confirm; report pending.
d. No report; request another specimen because this one is contaminated with mouth flora (probably saliva,
not sputum), as evidenced by the large number of squamous epithelial cells.
Compilation of Questions: MICROBIOLOGY

210. “Clue cells” are best seen in which of the following specimens?
a. Wet preparation of vaginal discharge
b. Gram stain of vaginal discharge
c. KOH–wet preparation of vaginal discharge
d. KOH–Gram stain of vaginal discharge

211. When antibiotic therapy is needed, specimens for culture and organism identification should be collected:
a. at any time; administration of antibiotics does not affect the tests.
b. while the antibiotics are being administered.
c. before the antibiotics have been administered.
d. after the antibiotics have been administered.

212. If the antibiotic does not inhibit the growth of an organism, the organism is said to be which of the
following?
a. Susceptible b. Sensitive c. Resistant d. Intermediate

213. The best method for finding pinworm organisms in children is:
a. ova and parasite (O&P) examination.
b. rectal swab.
c. cellophane tape collection.
d. blood.

214. What are the requirements for collection of an appropriate specimen for the detection of chlamydia?
a. Examine the collected specimen while it is still fresh, when the organisms are still motile.
b. First use a large swab to remove secretions present, then use a second swab to collect the specimen.
c. Use the cellophane tape collection procedure on the skin area around the anal opening.
d. Culture at the bedside is preferred, using chocolate agar and sheep blood agar.

215. What are the requirements for collection of an appropriate specimen for the optimal detection of
Trichomonas vaginalis?
a. Examine the collected specimen while it is still fresh, when the organisms are still motile.
b. First use a large swab to remove secretions present, then use a second swab to collect the specimen.
c. Cleanse the site carefully before any collection is done.
d. Culture at the bedside is preferred, using chocolate agar and sheep blood agar.

216. Collection of fecal samples for identification of intestinal parasites should be done:
a. after radiologic studies using barium sulfate have been completed.
b. before radiologic studies using barium sulfate have been done.
c. in the morning, before the patient has bathed, defecated, or urinated.
d. before the onset of an acute phase of the intestinal disease.

217. Which of the following is least likely to be taken into consideration when deciding which antibiotic to
prescribe for a patient?
a. patient’s age
b. patient’s underlying medical conditions
c. patient’s weight
d. other medications that the patient is taking

218. Which of the following is least likely to lead to drug resistance in bacteria?
a. a chromosomal mutation that alters cell membrane permeability
b. a chromosomal mutation that alters the shape of a particular drug-binding site
c. receiving a gene that codes for an enzyme that destroys a particular antibiotic
d. receiving a gene that codes for the production of a capsule
Compilation of Questions: MICROBIOLOGY
219. Which of the following is not a common mechanism by which antimicrobial agents kill or inhibit the growth
of bacteria?
a. damage to cell membranes
b. destruction of capsules
c. inhibition of cell wall synthesis
d. inhibition of protein synthesis

220. Multidrug therapy is always used when a patient is diagnosed as having:

a. an infection caused by MRSA
b. diphtheria
c. strep throat
d. tuberculosis

221. Which of the following terms or names has nothing to do with the use of two drugs simultaneously?
a. antagonism b. Salvarsan c. Septra d. synergism

222. Which of the following is not a common mechanism by which antifungal agents work?
a. by binding with cell membrane sterols
b. by blocking nucleic acid synthesis
c. by dissolving hyphae
d. by interfering with sterol synthesis

223. Which of the following scientists discovered penicillin?

a. Alexander Fleming b. Paul Ehrlich c. Selman Waksman d. Sir Howard Walter Florey

224. Which of the following scientists is considered to be the “Father of Chemotherapy”?

a. Alexander Fleming b. Paul Ehrlich c. Selman Waksman d. Sir Howard Walter Florey

225. All the following antimicrobial agents work by inhibiting cell wall synthesis except:
a. cephalosporins b. chloramphenicol c. penicillin d. vancomycin

226. All the following antimicrobial agents work by inhibiting protein synthesis except:
a. chloramphenicol b. erythromycin c. imipenem d. tetracycline

227. A symbiont could be a(n):

a. commensal b. opportunist c. parasite d. all of the above

228. The greatest number and variety of indigenous microbiota of the human body live in or on the:
a. colon b. genitourinary tract c. mouth d. skin

229. Escherichia coli living in the human colon can be considered to be a(n):
a. endosymbiont b. opportunist c. symbiont in a mutualistic relationship d. all of the above

230. Which of the following sites of the human body does not have indigenous microbiota?
a. bloodstream b. colon c. distal urethra d. vagina

231. Which of the following would be present in highest numbers in the indigenous microbiota of the human
mouth?
a. α-hemolytic streptococci
b. β-hemolytic streptococci
c. Candida albicans
d. Staphylococcus aureus

232. Which of the following would be present in highest numbers in the indigenous microbiota of the skin?
a. C. albicans b. coagulase-negative staphylococci c. Enterococcus spp. d. E. coli

233. The indigenous microbiota of the external ear canal is most like the indigenous microbiota of the:
a. colon b. mouth c. skin d. distal urethra
Compilation of Questions: MICROBIOLOGY
234. Which of the following are least likely to play a role in the nitrogen cycle?
a. indigenous microbiota
b. nitrifying and denitrifying bacteria
c. nitrogen-fixing bacteria
d. bacteria living in the root nodules of legumes

235. Microorganisms are used in which of the following industries?

a. antibiotic
b. chemical
c. food, beer, and wine
d. all of the above

236. The term that best describes a symbiotic relationship in which two different microorganisms occupy the
same ecologic niche, but have absolutely no effect on each other is:
a. commensalism b. mutualism c. neutralism d. parasitism

237. Which of the following arthropods is the vector of Lyme disease? a. flea b. mite c. mosquito d. tick

238. The most common zoonotic disease in the United States is: a. Lyme disease b. plague c. rabies d. Rocky
Mountain spotted fever

239. Which one of the following organisms is not one of the four most likely potential BW or bioterrorism
agents? a. B. anthracis b. Ebola virus c. V. major d. Y. pestis

240. All of the following are major steps in the treatment of a community’s drinking water except: a. boiling b.
filtration c. flocculation d. sedimentation

241. The largest waterborne epidemic ever to occur in the United States occurred in which of the following
cities? a. Chicago b. Los Angeles c. Milwaukee d. New York City

242. Typhoid fever is caused by a species of: a. Campylobacter b. Escherichia c. Salmonella d. Shigella

243. Which of the following associations is incorrect?

a. ehrlichiosis—tick b. malaria—mosquito c. plague—flea d. Spotted fever rickettsiosis—mite
Compilation of Questions: MICROBIOLOGY
Compilation of Questions: MICROBIOLOGY