OPTION 1 : ENERGY RESOURCES AND ENVIRONMENTAL PHYSICS

1.(a) State two advantages of nuclear fusion over nuclear fission as sources of energy. (2 marks)
(b) Biomass, solar energy, and hydroelectricity are some energy from which functional energy
could be obtained.
(i) What is meant by functional energy?
(ii) Choose any two of the above sources and briefly explain how functional energy could be
obtained from them in Cameroon. (5 marks)
pAv3
(c) The power derived from a windmill is given by the equation, p =
2
Where p is the average air density, A is the area of the blades and x is average wind speed.
One such aero-generator has a blade diameter of 6.0 m. Given that the efficiency of the
system is 25% at a wind speed of 13.5 ms-1
(i) Calculate the power output of the aero-generator. Assume the average density of the air to
be 1.2 kg 3-3 (3 marks)
(ii) Why is the efficiency of the system less than 100% (2 marks)
(d)(i) Name a substance which is responsible for the depletion of the ozone layer. (1 mark)
(ii) State and explain the impact of the depletion of the ozone layer on the environment (2 marks)

ANSWER
a. – The waste products of nuclear fission are not toxic and radioactive as those of nuclear fission
– Much more energy is obtained per kilogram of fuel
– Raw materials of nuclear fission are really available
b.(i) Energy in a form which can be used directly
(ii) The gravitational potential energy of water in the reservoir is converted into kinetic energy
as it falls in the penstock. This kinetic energy is converted into rotational kinetic energy of the
turbines and electrical energy is generated. eg. There is a hydroelectricity plant in Edea in
Cameroon from which hydroelectricity is produced.
Direct solar energy is converted by solar panels into electricity in Cameroon. The is used to
power street lights, change batteries, etc.
Firewood, charcoal sawdust is burnt in many parts of Cameroon to produce heat used for
cooking.

c.(i) Power output P = A= d = 60 m

Hence P= v3

1
 ) )
Power output from the generator =

= 10.4 kW
– The wind velocity is not constant
– Energy is wasted to overcome friction
d.(i) – Hydrogen from fire extinguishers
– Chlorofluorocarbons from refrigerators and air conditioners
(ii) The depletion of ozone layer leads to an increase in ultra violet radiation reaching the
surface of the earth. This has the following effects on the environment
– health problems like cataracts and skin cancer
– damage of aquatic life
– reduced growth in plant

2.(a)(i) What do you understand by finite and renewable energy resource? (2 marks)
(ii) Given that the mean distance of the earth from the sun is 1.5 x 10 m and the power
output of the sun is 4 x 1026 W, calculate a value for the solar constant
State the assumption that you have made in your calculation. (4marks)
(b) Describe the processes by which electrical energy could be obtained from the following
source for energy.

- Geothermal energy
- Wind energy (5 marks)
(c)(i) Describe the consequences on humanity of the destruction of the ionosphere layer.
(ii) Explain ways by which the ionosphere can be protected from destruction? (4 marks)

ANSWER
a. (i) A finite energy resource is an energy resource which can be exhausted. A renewable
energy resource is an energy resource which cannot be exhausted.
(ii) Solar constant Sc = P/4rrD2
Sc = 4 x 1026W / 4rr (1.5 x1011m)2 = 1.29 x 103 Wm-2
The atmosphere does not absorb the radiation.
b. Electrical energy from Geothermal energy.

Internal Energy of hot rocks Internal Energy of water Kinetic Energy of Steam

Kinetic energy of rotating

Electrical Energy turbine
2
 Electrical energy from wind energy

Kinetic energy of Kinetic energy of Kinetic energy of

wind blades turbine and rotor

Electrical Energy

c. (i) Harmful ultra-violet radiation will be allowed to reach the earth which have harmful
effects on man like
- Aging of the skin
- Skin cancer
Eye damage
- Destruction of the human immune system
(ii)- Avoid the use of Chlorofluorocarbons
- Plant more trees

3.(a)(i) Distinguish between renewable and non renewable energy sources giving an example
of each. (4 marks)
(ii) A solar panel delivers power of 2.0 kW when the rays of the sun fall normally on it. If the
solar constant is 1.2 x 103 Wm-2 and its efficiency is only 40%, calculate the area of the solar
panel. (3 marks)
(b)(i) Explain why Cameroon cannot rely completely on the solar energy for its energy needs.
(4 marks)
(ii) Draw an energy flow diagram for an energy scheme in which wood is burnt to produce
electrical energy. (4 marks)

ANSWER
a.(i) A renewable energy source is an energy source which cannot be exhausted e.g. solar
energy , wind energy, tidal energy etc.
A nonrenewable energy resource is one which can be exhausted e.g. coal, petroleum etc.
(ii) Solar constant Sc = P/4 d2. P = power delivered. But solar panel in question has an
efficiency of 40%,

3
 Hence = 40

P= = 5.0 x 103 W.

Area A= = 4.2 m2

b.(i) – Darkness and bad weather can cause constant interruption of power supply.
– The direct conversion of solar energy into electrical energy by means of solar furnaces
is very expensive.
Most of the sunshine comes in the dry season when it is least needed.

Heat from Internal energy of Kinetic energy of

Kinetic energy of
burning wood water rotating turbines
steam

Kinetic energy of
Electrical energy spinning rotor

4. (a) Differentiate between primary and secondary energy resources.

(b)(i) What is energy crisis? (2 marks)
(ii) What can be done to remedy this crisis? (2 marks)
(c) An open boat in water bas a weight of 4.00 x 103 N. It bobs up and down through 0.50 m
once every 4.0 seconds.
Calculate the loss of p.e. per unit time every time it drops from a crest to a trough. (3 marks)
(d)( i) What is climate change? (2 marks)
ii) State two factors that affect climate change. (2 marks)
iii) State and describe one simple method of weather forecast. (2 marks)

4
ANSWER
a. Primary energy resources are energy resources which are used in the form in which they
occur in nature
eg. Solar energy
Secondary energy resources are energy resources obtained by processing primary energy
resources eg. electrical energy.
b.(i) The energy crises refers to the constant increase in the cost of finite energy resources and
their eventual extinction due to the rate at which they are being used

c. Change in gravitational potential energy e = = 5.0 x 102 W

hence loss in p.e per unit time = 5.0 x 102 W

d.(i) Climate change is the change in the regional and global climate patterns such as
temperature, wind patterns, etc.
(ii) – The position of the earth with respect to the sum
– Natural disasters
(iii) – Persistence method
– The trend technique
– Climatology

NW REGIONAL MOCK 2015

5.a)(i) Distinguish between an energy source and an energy resource.
(ii) Draw 2 examples of renewable energy sources and 2 advantages of using them. (5 marks)
b)(i) Draw a block diagram of a hydroelectric power plant, highlighting the energy inter-
conversions taking place at each stage. (3 marks)
(ii) A windmill has 45.0 m long blades and an overall cross sectional area of 4.50 x 103 m2.
How much power is generated by this mill on a day that the wind, with a density of
1.25 kgm-3, is blowing steadily with a speed of 10.0 ms-1? (3 marks)
c) Explain whether the continuous emission of increasingly larger amounts of carbon dioxide
into the atmosphere contribute to global warming. (4 marks)

ANSWER
a) (i) A energy resource is an energy source which is available in economically viable
quantities.
An energy resources is any material form from which energy can be obtained

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(ii) Solar energy and hydroelectricity.
–They are environmentally friendly
–They are functional sources of energy.

b)

Reservoir Turbine
Penstock
Gravitational potential energy Linear Kinetic energy Relational kinetic
energy

Generator
Electrical energy

= density
(ii) P = ½ Av3 where A = Cross sectional area
v = Velocity
P = Power

= ½ (1.25 kgm-3) (4.5 x 103m2) (10ms-1)3 = 2.81 x 106W

c) Carbon dioxide is greenhouse gas. It continuous emission into the atmosphere leads to an
increase in the amount of infra-red radiation trapped.
Trapped infra-red radiation in the atmosphere leads to an increase in the earth temperature
hence global warming.

NW REGIONAL MOCK 2016

6.(a)(i) Distinguish between biomass and fossil fuels, stating an example of each. (3 marks)
(ii) By means of a block diagram, explain how electrical energy can be obtained from nuclear
energy in a nuclear reactor. (4 marks)
(b) A solar panel is used to heat water from 15.0°C to 30.0°C. If water flows through the
panel at a rate of 0.0600 kg s-1. Calculate the least gained per second by the water. (3 marks)
(c)(i) What do you understand by global warming?
(ii) State two causes of global warming.
(iii) State and explain two ways by which global warming can be reduced. (5 marks)

6
ANSWER
a.(i) Biomass is derived from sunlight energy converted to chemical energy and stored over
short periods of time. (e.g. fire wood, saw dust, charcoal , leaves etc).
Fossil are groups of primary fuels formed from the remains of plants and animals that leaved
millions of years ago (e.g. coal, oil, and natural gas).
(ii)
Nuclear Energy in Kinetic energy of
nucleus of atom Internal energy of
fission products steam

Electrical energy Kinetic energy of rotor Kinetic energy of

of generation turbine

b. Heat gain per second =heat supplied per second

Heat gain per second (Q/t) = mass per second (m/t) x specific heat capacity (c) x temperature
change

= xcx

0.6kgs-1 x 4.19 x103 jkg-1 K-1 x 15 k = 3771 W

c.(i) Global warming is the gradual increase in the temperature of the earth as a result of
trapped infra-red radiation within its atmosphere by greenhouse gases (such as carbon
dioxide, methane nitrous oxide etc).

(ii) Using materials that contain CFC

- Burning of bushes

- Deforestation

(iii) Avoid the use of CFCs

Planting more trees

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BAEBOC BOARD MOCK 2016

7.a. Give the different between (i) Secondary and functional energy sources.
ii) Energy source and energy resource (1mk)
iii) Explain how petroleum can be traced to the Sun and how functional energy could be
obtained from it in Cameroon (2mks)
6 2
b. Man O’ War bay near Limbe in Cameroon, has a surface area of 4.0 x 10 m and a tidal
variation of 4.0m. A tidal barrage is to be built across the bay using the fall of water at low
tide and the rise of water at high tide to generate power
i) If the density of sea water is 1.03 x 103 kgm3, what will be the tidal power available for a
tidal period of 15 hours from a barrage 3.0m high (2mks)

ii) Explain one major factor which countries with coastlines like Cameroon would not depend
on tides as a source of energy (1mk)
c.i) Two systems widely used in transmitting electrical power generated from solar power are
the stand-alone system and the interactive system. In what way does an interactive system
differ from a stand-alone system? (1mk)
ii) The solar energy flux near the earth surface is 1.4kWm-2. A solar power station consists of
concave mirror that focus sunlight on to a steam boiler. What must be the minimum mirror
surface area to give au output in 1.0MW assuming 100% and why in practice, should the
mirror area be greater? (2mks)
d. i) Define global warming (1mk)
Name and explain one human activity which increases the amount of green house gases in the
atmosphere. (1mk)
ii) Explain how a green house gas like carbondioxide contributes to global warming. (1mk)
iii) Name a gas which causes the depletion of ozone layer and explain how its affect causes a
change in the environment. (2rnks) (Total = 15mks

ANSWER
a.(i) A secondary energy source is a source of energy obtained by processing a primary
energy source
e.g. petrol, hydroelectricity
Functional energy source is energy in a form which can be used directly petrol, electricity
(ii) Energy source is a material from which energy can be obtained
Energy resource is an energy available in economically and commercially viable quantities

8
(iii) During photosynthesis plants absorb solar energy from the sun. Millions of years after
their dead, their remains decompose due to high heat and pressure to form petroleum.
During refining process, petroleum is converted to cooking gas which when burnt converts
chemical energy into heat which is used for cooking and heating.

b.(i) Tidal power P =

½
P=

= 3.4 x 106 W
(ii) – Tidal power stations are too expensive to build
– Power cannot be supplied continuously
– The efficiency is very low
– Animals or plants which live inside or around the area could die without regular supply
of tides.
c.(i) In an interactive system, energy from the sun goes through more than one change to
become usable energy while in a stand-alone system energy from the sun must undergo only
one change to make it into a usable form.
(ii) let A = minimum mirror area
P = energy falling on the mirrors per second
The P = A x solar energy flux

A= = 714.3 m2

Assuming 100% efficiency

d.(i) Global warming is the gradual increase in the temperature of the earth as a result of intra-
red radiation being trapped within its atmosphere by green house gases.
(ii) Visible and short-infrared radiation from the sun pass easily through the atmosphere and
warm the earth’s surface. The earth’s surface radials back at longer infrared wavelength
which are less energetic to penetrate the atmosphere so they are trapped by green house gases.
This causes the earth’s temperature to increase gradually hence there is global warming.
(iii) – Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC) used in air conditions and refrigerator
– Hydrogen used in fire extinguishers
The depletion of the ozone layer leads to an increase in ultra violet radiation reaching the
earth’s surface with the following effects
– Damage to aquatic life
– Increase in health problems like cataracts and skin cancer
– Reduced growth in plants
9
SW REGIONAL MOCK 2016
8) Solar energy is a renewable, alternative source of energy.
ai) Explain the meaning of the bolded words/phrase. (4mks)
ii) Name one advantage and one disadvantage of obtaining energy from solar energy. (2mks)
b) In a hydroelectric power plant the water falls through a height of 120m through an area of
1.6m2. If the available power P = Av3 where v is the speed of the water, then calculate the

expected available power ( = 1 gcm-3)

In practice, why is the real power obtained less than the calculated value? (5mks)
c) Carbon dioxide is an example of a greenhouse gas.
i) Name another example of a greenhouse gas. (1mk)
ii) State and explain an environmental effect of these gases (3mks)

ANSWER

a.(i) Renewable sources of energy are those sources which are not expected to get finish
within the life time of human species e.g. direct solar energy, geothermal energy Biomass etc
Alternative sources of energy are those sources which do not depend on the burning fossil
fields or splitting of atoms
Eg. Direct solar energy, wow energy, wind energy, etc.
(ii) Advantages
– Solar energy is free and available in large quantities
– Solar energy is free from pollution
Disadvantages
– Conversion of solar energy to electrical energy is very expensive
– Darkness and bad weather cause constant interruption of power supply

b. mgh = ½mv2 v = 2gh = 2 x 9.81 ms x 120 m = 48.5 ms-1

P = ½ x 1 x 103 kgm-3 x 1.6 m2 x (48.5 ms-1)3 = 91.28 MW

In practice the power obtained will be less than this because energy is wasted in the form of
sound and heat.
c.(i) Methane, Nitrous oxide
(ii) Global warming: Green house gases absorb longer wavelength infrared radiation from the
earth and redirect it to the earth.

10
a. Units of volume = m3
Unit of pressure = Nm-2
Units of product of volume and pressure = Nm-2 m3 = Nm
1Nm = 1J. Which is the unit of work or energy?

b. For every one second, a cylinder of air of length V and areas of cross section A moves into
the centre,
The volume of air entering the storm centre per second is V
The mass = V = density of air
From Newton’s second law of motion, the resultant force with which air enters the storm

centre is given by F = V = A V2

This force is responsible for the pressure change in the centre,

F=A = A V2

½
V=

= 998 mmHg – 995 mmHg = 3 mmHg

3 mmHg = 3 x 10-3 m 1.3 x 104 9.81 Nkg-1 = 382.6 a

V= = 18 ms-1

c. It was assumed in the calculation that, the wind velocity is constant, which is not so in
practice
– the density was assumed constant which is also not possible with changing velocities.

11
LIPTA MOCK 2016
9. a) (i) What is a fuel?
(ii) Why do fossil fuels still hold their place in Cameroon? (3mks)
b) Hydroelectricity is the most reliable source of energy to the third world countries like
Cameroon.
(i) Draw a block diagram of a hydroelectricity plant
(ii) Give two disadvantages of this power scheme to Cameroon
(iii) In one such plant, the efficiency is 25%. The height of the water driving the turbines is
0.30km. Calculate the volume of water that must pass through the turbines each second to
give a power output of 2 MW. (8mks)
c. (i) What is the difference between the global warming and climate change?
(ii) Explain the role of forest in climate change. (4mks)

ANSWER
a.(i) A fuel is any substance which can release energy when it is subjected to a chemical or
nuclear process. E.g. petrol, firewood, Uranium etc
(ii) - It is available in large quantities
- It is less expensive to produce as compared to other alternative sources
- It has a high calorific value
(b) (i)

Relational kinetic
Gravitational Potential Kinetic energy of
energy of turbine
energy of water water

Electrical Energy

(ii) People and property are displaced to construct a reservoir. The reservoir serves as a
breeding for mosquitoes

(iii) Available power = =

Power output =

Volume of water per second

(v) = = = 2.72 m3s-1

12
c) (i) Global warming is the gradual increase in the temperature of the earth as a result of the
trapping of infra-red radiation from the earth by greenhouse gasses.
-Climate change is the change in regional and global climatic patterns as a result of the rise in
temperature
(ii) Forest reduces the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere through photosynthesis
The amount of carbon dioxide released to the atmosphere is greatly reduced by minimizing
the burning down of forest.

JUNE 1996

10. The television signal received in Cameroon via satellite must have a high intensity of at
least 5 x 10-11 Wm-2 for good quality TV pictures to be obtained.

a. What other information is required in order to be able to estimate the minimum power that
the satellite would have to radiate?

b. Show how you would estimate the minimum power. State any assumptions you made

ANSWER

a. Intensity of signal received (I) =

A = 4 h2 h = height of satellite above Cameroon

= I x 4 h2
We need to know the height (h) of the satellite above Cameroon in order to estimate the
minimum power

b. Using the equation = I x 4 h2 the minimum power can be estimate.

This is based on the assumption that the intervening medium is an empty space and so no
absorption of the radiation takes place

13
JUNE 1996
11.a. One of the big discoveries in physics is the equivalence of mass and energy, Expressed
in Einstein’s famous equation E = mc2

Where E is energy, m is mass defect and c is the speed of light

(i) Explain the phrases in italics

(ii) How is the discovery being used to conveniently produce huge amounts of electrical
energy today?

(iii) Another aspect of this discovery is offering to mankind in the future, a practically
inexhaustible source of cheap energy. How is that?

b. A cask used for carrying radioactive material from nuclear power stations to a reprocessing
plant consists of a thick inner casing of lead and an outer casing of steel.

(i) Explain why the cask is NOT made completely of steel alone or completely of lead

(ii) To simulate a severe accident a cask is dropped into a “non yielding” surface. The centre
of mass of the cask falls 1.5 m

Calculate the speed with which it hits the surface

c. It is found that in a 1013 are radioactive, whereas the number is 8 in living wood.

If the half life of radioactive carbon is 6000 years, how old is the piece of wood?

ANSWER
a.(i) Equivalent of mass and energy means matter can be created or destroyed with a
corresponding decrease or in increase of the energy OR mass can be converted into energy
and energy can be converted into mass.

Mass defect is the difference is mass of a nucleus and the mass of its constituent nucleons.

(ii) In a fission reactor, matter is converted to kinetic energy of the fission fragments.

This energy is converted to internal energy of a cooking fluid which heats water in a heat
exchanger to produce steam.

The kinetic energy of the steam is converted to electrical energy by the steam-turbines.

14
Energy is released in fission because the sum of the masses of the original ingredients is
larger than that of the products. The mass difference is the energy equivalent

b.(i) The emission of gamma rays accompanies most nuclear reactions.

Fission reaction will still be going on in the cask with the release of gamma rays, energetic
neutrons as well as high temperatures and pressures

The lead casting serves as a shielding material for radiations such as gamma and x-rays. Lead
is also very resistant to corrosion.

The steel casting is designed to withstand the high pressure and temperature inside the cask.

(ii) Lost in potential energy PE = Gain in kinetic kE

ie. mgh = ½ mv2 v2 = 2gh
= 2 x 9.8 ms-2 x 15 m = 294
Hence velocity with which it hits the surface v = 17.1 ms-1

c. = 2n n = number of half-lives in the age of the wood

No= number of radioactive atoms in living wood

n
=4=2

n=2
The age of the dead wood is 2 x 600 years or 12000 years

12. The solar energy flux near the earth is 1.4kwm-2. A solar power station consists of
concave mirrors that focus sunlight on to a steam boiler. What must be the minimum mirror
area to give an output of IMW, assuming 100% efficiency?

(i) Why in practice, should the mirror area be greater?

(ii) What do you understand by solar energy flux?

ANSWER
P = A,K, P = Energy falling on mirror per second
A = Minimum area of mirror
K =Solar energy
P = A x 1.4KWm-2 and P = 1 MW = 106W
Assuming 100% efficiency, then

15
A= = 714.3m2

The mirror area should be greater surface area for the following reasons.
- The atmospheres absorb some of the solar energy, so not all of the solar energy is absorbed
by the mirrors.
- Some of the energy is scattered and absorbed by the mirror
- Some of the energy focused by the mirror is absorbed by the medium separating the mirror
and the boiler
Solar energy flux is the rate at which solar energy falls on a unit area on earth.

13. Solar energy is the renewable alternative source of energy

a. i. Explain the meaning of the underlined phrase
ii. Name one advantage and one disadvantage of obtaining energy from solar energy
b. In a hydroelectricity power plant the water falls through a height of 120m through an area
of 1.6m2.
If the available power P = ½ av3 where v is the speed of the water, then calculate the
expected available power ( = 1 gcm-3).
In practice, why is the real power obtained less that the calculated value?
c. Carbon dioxide is an example of a greenhouse gas.
i) Name another example of a greenhouse gas.
ii) State and explain an environmental effect of these gases.

ANSWER
a.(i) – Renewable sources of energy are energy sources which can be continually replenished
naturally without using fuel from the earth.
– Alternative sources of energy are energy sources which do not depend on the burning of
fossil fuels or splitting of atoms. (More examples of renewable, alternative sources of energy
are geothermal energy, tidal energy, hydroelectric energy, wave energy, wind energy, biomass).
(ii) Advantage:
– Solar energy is free and available in huge amounts

Disadvantage:
– Not available at night and in bad weather

16
b) From the conservation of energy,
mgh = ½ mv2, where
h = height through which water fills.
m = mass of water
m = velocity of water insist before sinking
v = 2gh = 2 x 9.8 ms x 120 m = 2352 ms-1 = 48.5 ms-1

Expected available power P

P = 1000 kgm-1 (1.6 m2)( 48.5 ms-1)3

P = 90 MW
c.(i) – Chlorofluorocarbon from refrigerators and air conditions
– Hydrogen from fire extinguishers
(ii) Increase of the earth’s surface which traps long wavelength infra-red radiation radiated
from the earth. This causes the environment to become warmer.

JUNE 1995
14.a.(i) Describe two locally available primary energy sources in Cameroon.
(ii) Explain the term “energy consumption pattern” with reference to rural and urban regions
of Cameroon.
b.(i) Draw a block diagram of an electrical production plant.
(ii) Explain the role of each major component shown on your diagram.
(iii) State any two possible environmental hazards associated with the production process in
the chosen plant.
(c) The annual energy consumption of Cameroon is about 6 x 109 J per inhabitant. A 600 MW
nuclear power station can run on Uranium -235 contained in 105 kg of natural uranium for
two years. About 0.7% of natural uranium is made of the fissible isotope.
(i) Estimate how much useful energy may be said to be released by the fission of a uranium atom.
(ii) If the population Cameroon in sixteen million people, how much natural uranium is
needed to provide the yearly requirement of Cameroon?

17
ANSWER

a.(i) The primary energy sources locally available in Cameroon are Biofuels, oil and gas.

Biofuels

The are derived from solar energy converted into chemical energy and shored over short
periods of time

The are found in the form of firewood, charcoal, dung, konel shells, coconut husk, sawdust
and leaves

The are primary fuels and form the main energy source in the rural areas of developing
countries.

The are mostly used for domestic purposes such as cooking, roasting, smoking, etc.

Oil and gas

The are formed from bodies of prehistoric marine (sea) animals and plants remains by excess
pressure and heat on the sea bed

Natural gas is often found as a gas pocket trapped above the oil deposit

Cameroon’s oil deposits are found along the West coast line between Limbe and Ndian in the
South West Region and also in the West Region

Oil is mostly used in road vehicles, ship and air-craft.

(ii) Most of the energy available for consumption pattern depends on how much solar ebergy
is available to the region i.e the solar constant.

Cameroon is a principal consumer of primary fuels.

Oil and gas are primarily used for transformation in urban regions.

About 75% - 80% of the energy consumed in Cameroon is used for cooking in the form of
biofuels.

Most of the electrical energy consumed in Cameroon comes from hydroelectric plants.

18
b.

(i) Corrected in Red.

(ii) Reservoir: stores gravitational potential energy of water

Penstock: converts gravitational potential energy of water to kinetic energy

Turbine: converts kinetic energy of water to rotational kinetic energy of turbine

Generator: converts rotational kinetic energy of turbine to electrical energy

Step-up transformer: step up the voltage of the electrical energy for transformation

(iii) – Hydroelectric power schemes use up large land areas to hold water. This may result in
displacing large populations, destroying farmlands and animal life

– The reservoir serves as breeding ground for mosquitoes

– Leads to climatic changes which can cause some rivers to dry up.

c.(i) Mass of U = 235 in 105kg of natural Uranium is x 105kg = 700 kg.

Number of U-235 atoms in 700 kg is about x 6.02 x 1027 atoms

In two years the total energy produced by the power station = 6 x 108 x 2 x 3.15 x 107 J

= 3.78 x 1016 J

Therefore the total energy release per atom =

= 2.1 x 10-11 J/atom

(ii) The annual energy consumption of Cameroon = 16 x 106 x 6 x 109J = 9.6 x 1016 J

If 3.78 x 1016 J requires 105kg of natural Uranium, the 9.6 x 1016 J requires 2.54 x 105 kg.

19
JUNE 2011
15.(a) Natural Uranium contains 0.7% U-235 undergoes fission, 200 MeV of energy is
released. Calculate
(i) the number of U-235 nuclei contained in 1 kg of natural uranium
(ii) the cost to be paid to AES-SONEL at the rate of 60 francs per unit when the U-235
content in 1 kg completely undergoes fission. (5 marks)

(b) Sketch a block diagram of a nuclear and explain the functions of

(i) the coolant

(ii) the moderator

(iii) the control rods (9 marks)

ANSWER

b.(i) Mass of U-235 = 235 g = 235 x 10-3 kg

235 x 10-3 kg contain 6.02 x 1023 atoms

0.7% of 1kg contains x 1kg = 0.007 kg of natural Uranium

Number of nuclei = = 1.79 x 1022

1kg of natural Uranium contain 1.79 x 1022 nuclei

(ii) Each nuclei produces 200 MeV = 200 x 1.6 x 10-19 J x 106

= 3.2 x 10-11 J

Total energy = 1.79 x 1022 x 3.2 x 10-11 J

1 unit of AES SONEL = 1kWh = 3.6 x 106 J

Number of units = = 1.59 x 105 units

Cost = 60 x 1.59 x 105 = 9540000

Cost = 9540000

20
 Reactor core Heat Turbine
Exchanger

Generator

(i) The coolant: Reduces excess heat produced in the reaction. This heat energy released is
usually used as a source of power generation

(ii) The moderator: Slows down the neutrons so that they can be more early captured. They
are placed in the core

(iii) The control rods: Contain boron which absorb some of the ejected neutrons so that the
reaction can be controlled

21
 OPTION 2 COMMUNICATION
JUNE 2016
1.(a)(i) Draw a basic block diagram of a mobile telephone handset. (3 marks)
(ii) Compare the use of the optical fibre and the copper cable in the transmission of
information in term of:
- Security
- Noise
- Signal attenuation (6 marks)
(b)(i) What is the full meaning of following abbreviations?
- SIM
- SMS (4 marks)
(c) Explain how a radio receiver works. (2 marks)

ANSWER

(i)
aerial

Loud speaker

Microphone CPU Transmitter

Receiver

(ii)

Quantity Optical Fibre Copper cable

Noise Free from noise Not free from noise
Signal attenuation Less scattering of signal More scattering of signal
hence attenuation is very high
Low signal attenuation
Security Very secured because Less secured because
difficulty in tapping information can easily be
information tapped from it

22
b.(i) SIM stands for Subscriber’s Identification Module

SIM stands for short Message Service

MMS stands for Multi Message Service

c. The antenna receives radio waves from various radio stations

- The waves are converted to a.c signals different frequencies

- Low frequency signals pass through the inductor of the turning circuit while high frequency
signals pass through the capacitor to the ground

- Resonance frequency signal between “low” and “high” will pass to the output for delection

2.(a)(i) Draw a block diagram of a radio system. (4 marks)

(ii) A station is broadcasting on a frequency of 92.5 MHz. Determine the capacitance of the capacitor
which should be associated with an inductor of 1.25 x 109 H to receive this station. (3 marks)

(b)(i) Compare analogue and digital systems as means of transmitting information. (3 marks)

(ii) Discuss the problems and the advantages for Cameroon changing from analogue to digital
transmission in the neat future. (5 marks)

ANSWER
a.(i)

Power
supply

Carrier
RF amplifier
producer

Power Aerial
Modulator
Amplifier

Input
AF amplifier
transducer

C = Capacitance

L = inductance

23
(ii) C =

= =
( )( )

Hence C = 2.4 x 10-27 F

b.(i) – Digital systems are more reliable and cheaper than analogue system

– Digital signals are easy to produce and store

– Digital information is none easily produce than analogue information

(ii) Problem

- Many more complex circuit have to be built

- Many more station to be built “en route” to boost signal

- Many more citizens shall be rendered jobless

Advantages

- A larger amount of information shall be transported

- The circuits are less expensive to built

- The quality of transmitted signals shall be highly improve upon

NW REGIONAL MOCK 2015

3.a) State two advantages and two disadvantages of AM over FM broadcasting (4 marks)

b)(i) A radio broadcast as transmitted using amplitude modulation at a carrier frequency of

6.80 x 102 kHz, using the lower side band. Give the meaning of each of the underlined phrases.

(ii) The tuned circuit of a radio received with an inductor of inductance 1.8 raH. To what
value should the capacitance of the capacitor of this circuit be set order for it to capture the
waves from a station broadcasting using carrier waves of wavelength 1.50 x 103 m? (7 marks)

c) Some old – fashioned radio stations still broadcast on the medium wave and short wave
bands (MW and SW, respectively) using wavelength radio waves. Modern radio and mobile
phone broadcasters rather use microwaves.

24
(i) A short distance behind a hill facing a transmitter, an old fashioned radio receiver used to
have 5 on 5 (i.e., 100%) reception at regular intervals as away from the hill along a straight
line from transmitter. A mobile phone in a similar situation today, rather registers no
reception or close to zero reception. Explain this observation.

(ii) Before an ordinary mobile phone set can go operational and receive or make a call, the set
must carry a SIM card. Give the full meaning of the acronym S.I.M. (4 marks)

ANSWER
Advantages of AM over FM
- It is cheaper to use because no repeater stations are required to re-transmit the signals
- The circuits needed are less expensive
- AM signals travel longer distance because they are easily diffracted behind hills and other
larger obstacles.
Disadvantages of AM over FM
- FM carries greater quantity of information than AM
- FM receiver suffer less from noise and distortion
- FM has better quality and audio fidelity than AM
b.(i) Carrier frequency is the range of frequencies within the bandwidth of a channel which
are lower than the carrier frequency of the channel

(ii) f = = = 2.0 x 105 Hz

L = inductance
f=
C = Capacitance
f= ( ) )
= 3.5 x 10-10 F
f = resonant
c.(i) The long wavelength MW and SW are easily diffracted round hills and other large
obstacles whereas the short wavelength microwaves are not easily diffracted round hills and
other large obstacles.
(ii) SIM stands for Subscriber Identification Module.

25
JUNE 2015
4.(a) A radio station uses a carrier frequency of 200 KHz to transmit an amplitude-modulated
wave. The transmission consists of audio signals within the frequency range 50 Hz – 9 kHz.
(i) Explain the meaning of the bolded phrases
(ii) Calculate the minimum and the maximum frequency sidebands and the bandwidth. (4 marks)
(b) Figure 4 shows a simple tuning radio circuit

(i) Explain how the tuning circuit functions

(ii) Given that the coif used has an inductance of 4.0 mH, calculate the value for the capacitor
required to tune into the broadcast described in 9 (a) above. (4 marks)
(iii) What is the use of the decoder in this circuit (2 marks)
(c)(i) State three advantages which digital transmission has over analogue transmission.
(ii) Explain how several telephone conversations can be transmitted at the same time along a
single optical fibre. (5 marks)

ANSWER
a.(i) Carrier frequency is the frequency of the radio wave or the microwave used to transport
information
Amplitude Modulated refers to a situation in which the amplitude of the carrier wave is
caused to vary in response to the amplitude of the information signal, without affecting the
frequency of the carrier wave.

(ii) Minimum frequency = fc – fmax = 200 kHz – 9 kHz = 191 kHz

Maximum frequency = fc + fmax = 200 kHz + 9 kHz = 209 kHz

Signal bandwidth = 2 x 9kHz = 18 kHz

b.(i) An incoming radio wave from a radio station induces an alternating voltage on the
antenna. This Subsequently induces and alternating emf in the incoming radio wave is equal
to the resonant frequency of the circuit, maximum current is obtained and the station is
captured.
26
The variable capacitor varies the resonant frequency and so other stations can be captured.

(ii) resonant frequency f = hence c =

c= = 1.58 x 10-10 F
( ) )

(iii) The decoder is used to extract the original information transmitted from the received
signal.

c.(i) – Easy to store and transmit

– Less prone to noise

– Their circuits are easy to design

– Transmit a large signal multiplexing

(ii) This is done by signal multiplexing

In frequency-division multiplexing, the channel bandwidth of the fibre is divided into a

number of blocks corresponding to the signal bandwidth for the telephone conversions

Different telephone conversations are passed through the different slices of the channel
bandwidth

In time-division multiplexing, each conversation is divided into burst of digitally encoded

information.

Burst of information are passed alternately through the same channel.

NW REGIONAL MOCK 2018

5. (a) A communication channel is characterized by a bandwidth that determines the volume

of information it can transmit in a given time.
(i) Define the words in bold. (2 marks)
(ii)In a tabular form, compare the wire pair and the fibre optic as communication channels
under the following
headings: description (what they are), advantages and disadvantages. (6 marks)
(b) (i) What do ADC and DAC stand for? (2 marks)
(iii) State at what point in the communication line each of ADC or DAC is used (2 marks)

27
(c) In a mobile phone telecommunication system state the role of the:
(i) base station,
(ii) SIM card,
(iii) PSTN. (3 marks)

ANSWER
a.(i) Communication means, sending information or message from a transmitter to a receiver
Bandwidth is a range of frequencies through which station broadcast with interference from
other stations
Channel Description Advantage Disadvantage
Wire pair Thin pair of copper - Cheaper - Less amount of
wires used to relay - relatively easier to information can be
information install transmitted
- More prone to
noise
Fibre Optic Thin glass fibre having - Greater amount of - More difficult to
greater refractive index information can be install
at the centre transmitted - None expensive
- Less prone to noise

b.(i) ADC – Analogue to Digital Converter

DAC – Digital to Analogue Converter

(ii) ADC – At the transmitting end of the digital communication line

DAC – At the receiving end of the digital communication line

c.(i) The box station generates the carrier waves

(ii) SIM card contains the users’ subscription information and phonebook

(iii) PSTN – Relaying calls from a fixed phone to a mobile phone network through the
mobile switch.

28
 LIPTA MOCK 2016

6.(a) In 2015, Cameroon had a historic cross-over from analogue to digital transmission

(i) What is digital transmission?

(ii) Explain why digital to analogue converters (DAC) are essential in a transmission system.

(iii) States two advantages that digital transmission has over analogue transmission

(b) The diagram below shows the block diagram of a simple radio transmitter
Transmitting
aerial

Sound Microphone
Audio frequency
amplifier

Radio frequency
Modulator amplifier

Oscillator or
Radio frequency
generator

(i) State the function of the microphone and the modulator

(ii) Briefly explain the difference between amplitude modulation (A.M) and frequency
modulation (F.M)

(iii) State one advantage that each of FM and AM has over the other

(c) In a mobile phone system, an area is divided into a large number of cells.

(i) State two advantages of using cells in a mobile phone system

(ii) State two major differences between a cell phone and a commercial radio transmitter.

29
ANSWER

a.(i) A digital signal is a signal which takes only discrete values.

(ii) Digital to analogue converters are located at the end of a transmission line inorder to
convert transmitted digital signals to analogue forms like light and sound.
(iii) Digital transmission has the following advantages

- high information-carrying capacity

- less prone to noise

- high information security

b.(i) The microphone is a transducer which converts sound to electrical audio signals.

The modulator adds information on the carrier wave in a way in which it can be transmitted

(ii) In AM, the amplitude of the radio wave changes in accordance with the information
signal

In FM, the frequency of the radio wave changes in accordance with the information signal.

(iii) Advantages of AM

- less complex circuits are needed

- travel longer distance

- no repeaters are required

Advantages of FM

- better quality and audio fidelity

- signals have a much bigger bandwidth

- signals suffer less interference from adjacent bands

c.(i) - Users at different cells can use the same frequency

- More calls can be handled at the same time

(ii) - A cell phone can transmit and receive information while a radio transmitter does not
serve as a receiver

- A cell phone is low powered while a commercial radio is high powered.

30
WORKED EXAMPLE
7.(a) Explain the term amplitude modulation and bandwidth
(b) What is the bandwidth when frequencies in the range 500Hz to 3500 Hz amplitude
modulate a carrier?
(c) A carrier of frequency 80 kHz is amplitude-modulated by frequencies ranging from 1 kHz
to 10 kHz. What frequency range does each sideband cover?

ANSWER
(a) Amplitude modulation is when the amplitude of the carrier wave varies in response to the
information signal.
(b) Bandwidth = 2fm , fm is the magnitude of the highest frequency of the frequencies created
by the modulating frequency on both sides of the carrier frequency during modulation.
Bandwidth = 2 x 3500 Hz = 7000 Hz
(c) The lower sideband ranges from 800 kHz – 10 kHz = 790 kHz to
800 kHz - 1 kHz = 799 kHz, while the upper sideband ranges from
800 kHz + 1 kHz = 801 kHz to 800 kHz + 10 kHz = 810 kHz

NW REGIONAL MOCK 2016

8.(a)(i) What is modulation?

(ii) State two reasons why it is necessary to modulate radio signals before transmission

(iii) Why is amplitude modulation said to be linear modulation?

(b)(i) Explain what is meant by superheterodyning

A superheterodyning receiver uses an FM system containing a mixer which translates the

carrier frequency to a fixed IF of 8 MHz by using local oscillator of frequency f.

The broadcasting frequency ranges from 1 MHz to 30 MHz

(ii) What is the range of turning that must be provided in the local oscillator?

(iii) States two advantages of the superheterodyne receiver over an RF receiver.

(c) Explain :

(i) Why there is a maximum length of cable along which a signal can be transmitted?

(ii) What measures are taken to maintain the strength of a signal along a transmission line?

31
ANSWER
a(i) Modulation is the process whereby a massage signal is added to a carrier signal in such a
way that some characteristics of the carrier wave is varied in accordance with the message signal.

(ii) Modulation

1. Allows many signals to be transmitted through the same channel without interference

2. Permits signals to be directed to specific channels for reception

3. Permits signals to travel faster

4. Adapts signals to travel faster

(iii) This is because a modulated signal produced by the sum of two or more message signals
is equal to the sum of the signals obtained by modulating each of the signals separately.

b.(i) Superheterodyning is the shift in frequency of a received signal by a radio receiver to an

intermediate frequency

(IF) using a local oscillator of frequency FLo greater them the incoming carrier frequency (fo)

(ii) Intermediate frequency IF = 8MHz

1MHz fc 30MHz

fc = carrier frequency

For superheterodyning FHo = V FLo = fc + IF

FLo = local frequency

Therefore 9MHz FHo 38MHz

(iii) Superheterodyne has the following advantages over RF receiver

1. They have a smaller turning range hence; they are easier to design than RF receiver

2. Their signals are easily amplified than those of an RF receiver

3. Turning is easier with superheterodyne than RF receiver

c.(i) This is because a signal loses energy as it is being transmitted

(ii) Amplifiers are used along a transmission line or chanell at calculated intervals.

32
9.(a) A radio broadcast is transmitted using amplitude modulation and a carrier frequency of
680 kHz, using the laser sideband
Explain the meaning of each of the underlined terms
(b) The aerial circuit of a radio set is equipped with a tuning coil of inductance 1.8 mH. What
tuning capacitor must be used with this to tune the station transmitting on a carrier wave of
wavelength 1500 m?

ANSWER
(a) – Amplitude modulation is a process in which the amplitude of a carrier is madder to vary
at the frequency of the information intensity signal to be transmitted.
– Carrier frequency is the channel of the radio station
– Laser bandwidth is the range of frequencies within the channels bandwidth which are
lower than the carrier frequency.

(b) The carrier frequency is given by f =

= carrier wavelength
C = speed of an electromagnetic wave

f= = 2 x 105 Hz

In order to capture this station, the tuner frequency must be equal (f) the carrier frequency.
Thus f = or 4 2LCf2 = 1 C=

L = 1.8 mH = 1.8 x 10-3 H

f = 2 x 105 Hz

C= ( )
= 350 x 10-12 F

10.(a)(i) A radio station uses a carrier frequency of200 kHz to transmit an amplitude
modulation wave.

The transmission consists of audio signals within the frequency range 50 Hz – 9 kHz

(i) Explain the meaning of the underlines phrases

(ii) Calculate the minimum frequency sidebands and the bandwidth.

(b) The figure shows a simple tuning radio circuit

33
(i) Explain how the tuning circuit functions
(ii) Given that the coil used has an inductance of 4.0 mH,
Calculate the value for the capacitor required to tune into the broadcast described in (a) above
(iii) What is the use of the decoder in this circuit?
(c)(i) State three advantages which digital transmission has over analogue transmission
(ii) Explain how several telephone conversations can be transmitted at the same time along a
single optical fibre.

ANSWER
a.(i) Carrier frequency is the channel or the path through which information source to the
receiver.
An amplitude modulated wave is a carrier wave whose amplitude has been caused to vary in
accordance with the frequency of the information signal.
(ii) maximum sideband frequency = 200 kHz + 9 kHz = 209 kHz
minimum sideband frequency = 200 kHz – 9 kHz = 191 kHz
bandwidth = 209 kHz – 191 kHz = 18 kHz
b.(i) By tuning or varying the capacitance of the capacitor, the circuit is made to resonate with
alternating currents produced in the aerial, by waves from a particular radio station. At
resonance , the radio station is captured.
(ii) fo = f = resonant frequency

L = inductance

C = capacitance
C= = ( )(
= 1.6 x 10-12 F

(iii) To extract the information (demodulate) from the modulated carrier wave.

34
c.(i) Digital transmission is
1. less proned to noise
2. easy to transmit and
3. easy to store.
(ii) By multiplexing, a multiplex system is one in which there are many channels using the
same line at the same time, the various signals are separated from either by allocating time for
each signal (Time-division multiplexing TDM) or letting each signal to occupy its own
frequency of the channel (Frequency-division multiplexing TDM)

11.a. The capacitance of receiver circuit of a radio handset was tuned to 628.0 nF and the
news from a radio station broadcasting at 96.8 MHz FM was received very clearly using the
handset. Calculate

(i) the capacitive reactance

(ii) the inductance of the receiver

b.(i) What is the meaning of the term bandwidth as use in radio telecommunication?

A radio station transmits an amplitude modulated signal with a carrier frequency of 200.0 kHz

The transmission consist of music and speech with a frequency range of 50.0 Hz to 9.00 kHz

(ii) Calculate the frequencies of the upper side band and lower side band. Hence determine the
bandwidth of the station.

c.(i) The advantage of digital transmission is that “an analogue signal reconstructed after
digital transmission has a stepped shape rather than the smooth shape of the original analogue
signal”. Explain this disadvantage and state how it can be overcome.

(ii) State and explain one advantage the optical fibre has over copper cable in telecommunication

d.(i) Define “mobile phone”

(ii) Give the full meaning of the acronyms MIN, SIM and MTSO

(iii) Under what circumstances is a “No Service” message displayed on the screen of a mobile
phone?

35
ANSWER
Capacitive reactance XC =

XC = = 2 x 10-3

XC = 2 x 10-3

(ii) Inductance XL = 2 fL

L= =

L = 4.8 x 10-3 H

b.(i) Bandwidth is a range of frequencies through which a station broadcast without

interference from other stations.
(ii) Let fc = carrier frequency
fm = audio frequency
fc ranges from 9 kHz to 50 Hz
Lower side band:
fc – f to fc – f "

200 kHz – 9 kHz to 200 kHz – 0.05 kHz

ie. from 191 kHz to 199.95 kHz
Upper side band:
fc + f to fc + f "

200 kHz + 9 kHz to 200 kHz + 0.05 kHz

ie. from 209 kHz to 200.05 kHz
Bandwidth = 2 f
= 2 x 9 kHz = 18 kHz
c.(i) To convert an electronic analogue signal into digital form, the signal is sampled at
regular time intervals by a sampling circuit and the information to turned into a digital code.
The problem in this process is that portions of the signal between the samples are lost during
the reconstruction phase.
To overcome this problem, intervals between samples are made shorter.

36
(ii) Optical fibres have a larger information – carrying capacity. A typical bundle of fibre can
support up to 370.000 conversations simultaneously whereas the best coaxial cables support
only 2000 conversations.
d.(i) A mobile phone is a portable radio transceiver
(ii) MIN stands for Mobile Identification Number
SIM stand for Subscriber Identity Module
MTSO stand for Mobile Telephone Switching Office
(iii) – When the phone is in an area or base station where the signals of its network are too
weak to be identified
– When the phone is out of its cell or range of SID (System Identification Code)

12. Cameroon National Radio Station (CRTV) broadcast on the 60 metre band
(a) What is the physical significance of the underlined phrase?
(b) Hence a otherwise, estimate with reasons, the frequency of a tuning circuit to capture
waves from this station.

ANSWER
(a) The carrier wave used by this station has a wavelength of 60 m.

(b) fc = fc = carrier frequency

Thus fc = = 5 MHz

The tuner must be adjusted to resonate with the above frequency in order to capture waves
from this station.
So the frequency of the circuit should be 5 MHz .

13. A radio station uses a bandwidth of 9 kHz for its amplitude-modulated transmissions in
the frequency band from 600 kHz to 1680 kHz . Determine the number of channels which can
be transmitted without overlap

ANSWER
Bandwidth = 1680 kHz – 600 kHz = 1080 kHz

Hence the transmission line can support a bandwidth of 1080 kHz .

Number of channels = = 120 channels

37
14. The diagram below is a very simple radio receiver which can be used for broadcast from
one station only.
(a) The tuning circuit selects one station (one frequency)
Is the output of the selected signal coming from the tuning circuit greater than the energy of
the signal collected by the aerial?
Explain your answer briefly.

(b) For which of the other three boxes is the energy of the output signal of the box larger than
the energy of the input signal box? Give the name of the box or boxes for which there is
energy increase.

(c) How could the tuning circuit be altered so that it could select other stations?

(d) What box or boxes is/are designed to transform energy from one to another?

(e) The frequency of the signal received at the aerial is about 106 Hz, and the frequency of the
speaker output is about 108 Hz . Would it matter if the amplifier could only amplify signals of
frequency less than 105 Hz and so fouled to amplify signals of 106 Hz ? Explain your answer.

ANSWER
(a) The energy of the selected signal coming from the tuning circuit is greater than the energy
of the signal collected by the aerial because at resonance energy transformed from the aerial
to the tuning circuit is maximum
(b) The amplifier
(c) By replacing the fixed capacitor in the tuning circuit with a variable capacitor the
frequency of tuning can be varied to obtain a resonant frequency hence capturing a station.

38
(d) The tuning circuit box and the loud speaker box.

(e) The radio-frequency of about 106 Hz was removed at the detector during the process of
demodulation so it does not matter if the amplifier could only amplify signals less than 105 Hz

The signal reaching the amplifier if of audio-frequency about 103 Hz .

15.(a) What is the use of modulation in a radio system?

(b) Draw a block diagram of a simple radio receiver.

(c) Model one often controlled by radio signals of approximately 27 MHz which are received
by an aerial of one-eighth of the wavelength.

If the speed of the radio waves is 3 x 108 ms-1 , calculate the length of the aerial.

(d) The figure above shows a cross-section of an optical fibre used in telecommunications.
(i) State and explain two reasons why the optical fibre is preferable to the copper cable for this
propose.
(ii) The speed of light in the core is 1.95 x 108 m/s while the smallest angle of incidence in the
core is 80°.
Determine the refractive indices for (i) the core (ii) the cladding.

ANSWER

(a) Modulation has the following uses in a radio system:

1. It permits many signals to be transmitted through the same channel without interference
(multiplexing)

2. It enables the signal to be transported faster

3. It adapts the signal for the medium of transmission

4. It permits signals to be directed to specific channels for reception.

39
(b)

(c) The length of the aerial is given by l =

l = length of aerial
T = period
C = speed of light

)
l= = 1.4 m

(d)(i) Optical fibres have a higher information carrying capacity than copper cables

(ii) The optical fibre offers greater security for the use

ie. information leakage from one fibre to another is greatly reduced by the cladding.

(iii) Information can be transmitted over greater distances without attenuation, with optical
fibres than with copper cables.

(iv) Optical fibres are less prone to damage by water or corrosion

(e)(i) Refraction index of core n1 =

= = 1.54

(ii) n1 sin80 = n2 sin90 n2 = refractive index of cladding

n2 = 1.54 sin80 = 1.51

40
16. Rayleigh scattering by molecules is one cause of signal attenuation. Attenuation due to
Rayleigh scattering depends on the wavelength ( ) of the signal and is proportional to

(a) What do you understand by

(i) scattering and

(ii) signal attenuation?

(b) If a signal of wavelength 850 nm is attenuated by 2.0 dBkm-1 because of Rayleigh scattering,

(i) calculate the attenuation of a 1500 nm signal in the same direction

(ii) what physical quantity has unit the decibel?

ANSWER

(a)(i) Scattering is the deflection of incident particles like electrons, photons or other
radiations from their original path by other particles in their path

(ii) Signal attenuation is the decrease in intensity of a signal

4
(b) From Rayleigh’s relation = constant

A = amount of attenuation for a given wavelength

= wavelength

Thus A1 = A2

A2 = A1 = 2.0 dBkm-1 4
= 0.21 dBkm-1

Hence the attenuation of a 1500 nm signal is 0.21 dBkm-1

(iii) The decibel is the unit of sound intensity

41
JUNE 2003
17.

(a)(i) The figure above shows the simple radio receiver. The tuning circuit selects one station.
Explain why this happens

(ii) Explain the functions of the demodulator and amplifier

(b)(i) Briefly explain the difference between the FM and AM transmissions

(ii) If the capacitance of the capacitor is 2 F and the circuit is turned at a frequency of 106 Hz,
calculate the inductance of the inductor.

(iii) How could the tuning circuit be altered so that it could select other frequencies?

(c) A satellite of mass m is launched from the earth’s surface to circle the earth in the plane
of the equator

(i) Explain the condition under which such a situation is possible

(ii) Explain the height of the satellite orbit above the earth’s surface, f the radius of the earth is
6400 km.

42
ANSWER
(a)(i) The capacitor is fixed so it can resonate only at one frequency which is that of the
carrier wave.

(ii) The demodulator extracts audio frequency signals from its carrier wave.

The amplifier boosts or amplifies the strength of the audio-signal

(b)(i) In FM transmission, the carrier frequency is changed to match with that of the audio-
signal, leaving the carrier frequency unaltered.
L = inductance of the coil
(ii) At resonance fo = fo = resonant frequency

C = capacitance

L= L= = 1.3 x 10-8 H
( )

(iii) Replace the fixed capacitor with a variable capacitor

(c)(i) The satellite must be launched in a geosynchronous (geostationary) orbit

(ii) = m 2r or r3 =

M = mass of earth

m = mass of satellite

r = distance of satellite from the centre of the earth

C1M = g R RE = radius of the earth . hence r3 =

( ) ( )
r3 = = 7.6 x 1022 m3

r = 42400 km

The height above the earth’s surface h = v – RE

h = 42400 – 6400 = 36000

hence h = 36000 km

43
18.(a) Explain briefly the following terms with reference to the transfer of information by
radio-systems:

(i) Amplitude modulation

(ii) Frequency modulation

(iii) Bandwidth

States briefly two advantages of each of the modulation in (i) and (ii) over the other.

(b) A carrier wave of frequency 800 kHz is amplitude-modulated by frequencies ranging from
1 kHz to 10 kHz.

Show with the aid of a diagram the frequency range which each sideband occupies

(c) The aerial circuit of a radio set is equipped with o tuning coil of inductance 1.8 mH. What
tuning capacitor must be used with this to capture a station transmitting on a carrier of
wavelength 1500 m?

(d) State and explain three advantages that digital electronic systems may have over analogue
systems.

ANSWER

(a)(i) Amplitude modulation is the process in which the amplitude of a carrier wave is made
to vary at the frequency of the information signal to be transmitted.

(ii) Frequency modulation is the process in which the frequency of the carrier is varied to
follow that of the information signal without altering the amplitude of the carrier wave.

(iii) Bandwidth is the range of frequencies that must be transmitted to make a signal
intelligible.

AM: advantages

- uses carrier waves of larger wavelength hence information can be carried through a longer
distance

- the required circuits are very simple

- the bandwidth required is smaller than for other methods of modulation

44
FM: advantages

- suffers less from noise and distortion

- more information is transmitted

- suffers less interference from adjacent bands

(b) Let fc = the carrier frequency (800 kHz)
f1 = the highest frequency in the modulating signal
fc = the lowest frequency in the modulating signal
The upper sideband = fc + f1 to fc + fn
= 800 kHz + 1 kHz = 801 kHz
to 800 kHz + 10 kHz = 810 kHz
Hence the upper sideband ranges from 801 kHz to 810 kHz
The lower sideband = fc – f1 to fc – fn
= 800 kHz – 1 kHz = 799 kHz
to 800 kHz – 10 kHz = 790 kHz
Hence the lower sideband ranges from 799 kHz to 790 kHz
The signal bandwidth = 2fn = 2 x 10 kHz = 20 kHz

(c) fo = fo = carrier frequency of the desired radio station

L = inductance of the coil (1.8 x 10-3H)

C = capacitance of the tuning circuit

C´ = of electromagnetic wave
fo = C´/ = wavelength

fo = = 20 x 105 Hz

45
C´ = = = 3.5 x 10-10 F
( )

(d)(i) Digital signals are less prone to noise

(ii) Cheaper to produce

(iii) Easier to store

(iv) Easier to transmit

SW REGIONAL MOCK 2016

19.(a) When a mobile phone user attempts to make a call, the cell phones connected to a base
station broadcast signal requesting a service on a control channel.
(i) Explain the meaning of the underlined phrases
(ii) Explain briefly the changes that occur to a signal as cell phone user moves from one base
station to another
(iii) Draw a simple block diagram of a mobile phone
(b) One of the major setbacks in long distance transmission in fibre optics is signal attenuation
(i) What is signal attenuation and what are its causes?
(ii) How can it be overcome?
(c) State any two advantages of superheterodyne receivers over simple radio receivers.

ANSWER
(a)(i) A base station is a cellular network of stations which receive and transmit signals within
a range of frequency from one cell to the other at the ground or building level.

A control channel is a special frequency used by a plane and a base station to communicate.

(ii) The strength of the signal decreases at the base station from where the user is moving
away and increases at the base station where the user is approaching.

Circuit band Microphone Antenna Battery

and SIM

Speaker Keyboard Screen

46
(b)(i) Signal attenuation is the decrease in intensity of signal as the signal moves away from
the source
Attenuation in optical fibre is caused by dispersion of the signal
(ii) It can be overcome by using amplifiers or regenerator
(c) Superheterodyne receivers have the ability to receive weak signals ie they are more
sensitive than simple radio receivers.
They also have the ability to discriminate or select signals on adjacent channels ie have
improved sensitivity.

20. A communication channel has a minimum signal-to-noise radio of 35 decibel. If the signal
power to be transmitted is 3 W, what is the maximum amount of noise that can be allowed in
the channel?

ANSWER

= 3.5 dB = 10 log

3.5 = 10 log PN = noise power

log = 3.5 = 103.5 = 3162 PN = = 9.5 x 10-4 N

The maximum amount of noise allowable in the channel is 0.95 mN.

47
 OPTION 3 ELECTRONICS
JUNE 2017
1. (a) State in words and in form of a truth table the actions of the following logic
gates.

(i) AND

(ii) OR

(iii) NAND

(b) Figure 2 shows transistor circuit operating in the common emitter mode with a current
gain of 60 and Vae of 0.7 V.

Figure 2

Calculate the output voltage V0 (9 marks)

ANSWER

AND A B Q
0 0 0
0 1 0
The output Q is only HIGH if 1 0 0
input A AND B are HIGH 1 1 1

A B Q
OR 0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 1
The output Q is only HIGH if
input A OR B are HIGH or
48
both are HIGH
 A B Q
NAND 0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0
A NAND gate is equivalent
to an AND gate followed by a
NOT gate

Loop 1: 2.7 V – IB(10 x 103 ) - VBE = 0 VBE = 0.7 V

IB = = 0.2 x 10-3A

IC = IB = 60x 0.2 x 10-3 A

IC = 1.2 x 10-2 A

Loop 2: Vo + (200 ) IC – 4.5 V = 0

Vo = 4.5 V – 200 x 1.2 x 10-2 A

= 4.5 V – 2.4 V

Vo = 2.1 V

49
JUNE 2016

2.(a) Explain why a piece of pure silicon may not conduct electricity at 0°C but would
conduct at 80°C. (4 marks)

(b) A capacitor, an ammeter and an a.c. power source are connected in series and the reading
on the ammeter noted. The capacitor and the ammeter are disconnected and connected to a.d.c
power source. The reading is also noted. Will the ammeter readings in the two cases be
similar or different? Explain. (4 marks)

Figure 3 is an amplification circuit using an NPN transistor in the common emitter mode. The
base current is 25 A when the output voltage Vo is 6.0V for a current gain of 60.

Calculate:
(i) The base resistance Rb (2 marks)

(ii) The value of R1 (3 marks)

(iii) Explain the use of the capacitor Co (2 marks)

50
ANSWER

a. At 80ºC the silicon atom gain more energy and vibrate more. This increase in vibration can
cause valence bonds to break with the release of free electron.

With free electrons, the conductivity of silicon increases.

The ammeter reading will not be the same in the two cases when the capacitor in connected to
the ac source, it is charged and discharge continuously at the frequency of the source. The
ammeter records a reading.

When the capacitor is connected to the dc source the ammeter reading drops sharply from a
certain high reading to zero.

(i) Rb =

= = 0.336 x 106

Rb = 336 k

RL = From the output circuit equation

IC = IB

= 60 x 25 x 10-6 A. hence IC = 1.5 x 10-3 A

RL = = 2 x 103

RL = 2 k

(iii) To ensure that only a.c components appear at the output terminal

51
JUNE 2015

3.(a)(i) What is meant by thermionic emission? (2 marks)

(ii) Distinguish between n-type and p-type semiconductors (2 marks)

(b) You are given two circuits consisting of:

(i) A resistor of 500 and a capacitor connected in series to 9.0 V de supply

(ii) An inductor and a resistor of 500 connected in series to 9.0 v dc supply

Sketch current-time graphs for these circuits and explain the differences between them. (4 marks)

(c)(i) Explain how a transistor is used as a switch (4 marks)

(ii) State in word and in the form of a truth table, the action of an OR logic gate with two
inputs. (3 marks)

ANSWER

a.(i) Thermionic emissions is the emission of electrons from sufficiently heated metal surface

N-type P-type
- Obtained by adding a pentavalent elements - Obtained by adding a trivalent elements to
to silicon silicon
- Electrons are the majority charge carriers - Holes are the majority charge carriers

An exponential decay current reduce Current growth is opposed by a large

exponentially from an initial value at back emf
the start of charging and falls to zero The current takes some times to grow
when the capacitor is fully charged exponentially to a maximum value 52
Vi ‹ V1 at low input the voltage across the base-emitter junction is less than VBE. Both IB and
IC are zero and the transmitter is said to be at “cut-off”

At Vi V1 the output voltage is zero and the battery voltage is dropped across R1. IC is
maximum and the transistor is said to be at” salutation”

By switching the input voltage from Vi ‹ V1 to Vi V1 the voltage is being used as a switch

(ii)

OR A B Q
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
The output Q is only
1 1 1
HIGH if
input A OR B are HIGH

53
NW REGIONAL MOCK 2016

4.(a) Figure 3 shows a transistor, an LDR, a lamp and a standard resistor connected in a
circuit. Four strategic points in the circuit where components could be connected have been
numbered 1, 2, 3 and 4

(i) State the type of transistor used and the mode in which it has been connected in the circuit.
(ii) State the full meaning of the acronym LDR and explain how an LDR behaves in a circuit.

(3 marks)

(iii) Explain how this circuit functions.

(iv) If an alarm system’s control were connected in position 4, what would happen? State one
use to which such a circuit could be put. (3 marks)

(b) The following measurements were made during a test on an amplifier : Vin = 250 mV, Iin = 2.5 mA

Vout = 10 mV, Iout = 400 mA. Calculate the

(i) current and voltage gains; as well as he

(ii) power gain an input resistance, of the amplifier (3 marks)

(c) Figure 4 shows an inverting amplifier

54
(i) What is an inverting amplifier?
(ii) Calculate the close – loop gain of the amplifier. (4 marks)
(15 marks)
ANSWER

a.(i) The biasing pd across the p-n junction

- the level of doping

- increase in temperature

(ii) The size of the biasing pd across the p-n junction

b.(i) npn transistor it is connected in the common emitter mode

(ii) IB =

= = 5.4 x 10-5 A

(iii) IC = hfe Å IB

= 75 x 5.4 x 10-5 A

IC = 4.05 x 10-3 A

VCE = VCC – IC R2

= 6.00 V – 4.05 x 10-3 A x 0.9 x 103

N
A
N A B C D Y
O 0 0 0 0 0
N 1 0 0 0 0
A 0 1 0 0 0
0 0 1 0 0
0 0 0 1 0
N 1 1 1 1 1
A

(iii) Filtration, Signal control, addition, subtraction, ect.

55
JUNE 2012

5. (d) Distinguish between intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductor. (3marks)

(e) The output characteristics in Figure 7 are for the transistor circuit show in figure 6

56
 Figure 7

(i) Construct a table of values which would enable you draw the transfer characteristic at
constant VCE of 3.5V. Hence draw a graph from which you could obtain the current gain hfe,
for the transistor. What is the value 0f hfe. (7 mark)

(ii) What are the functions of R3, C1 and C2 (3 mark)

(iii) Calculate R3 and R2

Given that current through R4 = 1mA, current through R3 = 1mA and VBE = 0.6 V (6 mark)

State the type of capacitor used in the circuit (1 mark)

57
ANSWER

a.(i)

Intrinsic semiconductor Extrinsic semiconductor

- does not contain impurity atoms in its - contain impurities in its lattice structure
lattice - charge carriers are both thermally generated
- charge carriers are thermally generated and by doping

IB / A 20 40 60 80
IC / mA 2.4 4.4 6.4 8.4

58
 IC = (7.4 – 3.4) x 10-3 A

IB = (70 – 30) x 10-6 A

Hence hfe = 100

(iii) R3 converts the transistor from current amplifier to voltage amplifier

C1 is a decoupling capacitor. It prevents dc components from the input interring the circuit
from the current

C2 is a coupling capacitor. It ensures that only ac component appears at the output

59
LIPTA MOCK 2016

6. The transfer characteristics in the figure shows the relationship between the output voltage

and the input voltage for an operational amplifier.

(i) State and explain whether the characteristics refer to an inverting or a non-inverting
amplifier.
(ii) What is the value of the dual-balance voltage supply?
(iii) Determine the voltage gain of the amplifier.

b) The diagram bellow shows a transistor circuit with a base resistor, RB at the input in the

quiescent mode. VCC= 9.0 V, VCE = 4.0 V, hFE = 150, VBE =0.62 V, R1 = 900 .

(i) Determine the meaning of the underlined phrase.

(ii) Determine the value of 1B and 1C
(iii) Determine the value of RB
(iv) State the function of the capacitor, C.

60
C) The diagram bellow shows a network of electronic gates. Copy the table shown and complete it to

bring out the truth table of the gate network.

ANSWER

a.(i) Non-inverting amplifier

The slope is position, therefore the gain is positive

)
(ii) Voltage gain = slope = = 50
)

b.(i) Quiescent mode means there is no input signal

(ii) IB = hFE = 150 IC =

IC = 5.5 x 10-3 A

IB = = 3.7 x 10-5 A

(iii) RB = = = 2.26 x 105

RB = 226 k

(iv) To ensure that only ac components appear at the output terminal

A B C D Y
0 0 1 1 0
0 1 1 0 0
1 0 0 1 0
1 1 0 0 1

VCC = VCE + IC R3

61
R3 =

= = 6 x 103

R3 = 6 k

VR2 = VR4 + VBE = 1 V + 0.6 V = 1.6 V VR2 = Vo

R2 Vo = R1 VR2 + R2 VR2

R2 = =

R2 = 16 k

Non-polar capacitor

JUNE 2013

7.a.

(i) What is the p-type semiconductor?

The figure 2 below shows a transistor in the common emitter mode. The transistor has the
following characteristics VBE = 0.62 V, and hfe =100. The input resistance R1 = 60 k and the
load resistance R2 = 600 k
(ii) Calculate the current through the load
(iii) Calculate VCE

62
ANSWER

(i) A p-type semi-conductor is an extrinsic semi-conductor in which the majority charge

carriers are boles. Applying Kirchhoff voltage rule

VCC = IE R1 – VBE = 0

IB =

IB = 1.4 x 10-4 A

(ii) Current through the load IC = hfe IB

IC = (1.4 x 10-4 A) (100) = 1.4 x 10-2 A

(iii) VCE = VCC - IC R2 = 9.0 V – (1.4 x 10-2A) (600A)

VCE = 0.60 V

NW REGIONAL MOCK 2018

8.(a) (i)What is a semiconductor? (2 marks)

(ii) Describe how a p-n junction is produced explaining clearly how the depletion layer is
formed. (4 marks)
(iii) What is a barrier potential? (1 mark)
(b) The circuit below is the basic silicon transistor switching circuit

63
(i) What is the function of the resistor R2 in the circuit? (1 mark)
(ii) Identify the voltages V1, V2 and V3. (3 marks)
iii) How does the switching action take place? (4 marks)

ANSWER
a.(i) a semi-conductor is a material whose conductivity his between that of an insulator and a
conductor. They are found in group four of the periodic table.

(ii) A p-n junction is the boundary between an n-type and a p-type semi-conductor.

It is constructed in a special manufacturing process by fusing an n-type semi-conductor onto a

p-type semi-conductor and so heat-treating the device that the junction formed is part of a
single continuous layer.

P N

+ –

p-n junction

The depletion layer is a layer of ions on both sides of the p-n junction.
This layer is completely free of mobile change carriers ie. holes and electrons
As soon as the p-n junction is formed, free electrons, the majority carriers from the n-type
side, diffuse across the junction to combine with positive holes in the p-type side of the
junction.
Each electron which crosses the p-n junction leaves behind positively charge ion from the
donor or impurity atom in the n-type material and creates a negatively charged ion from the
acceptor atom in the p-type hence the formation of a depletion layer.

– +

– +
p n
– +

– +

64
deplection layer
(iii) A barrier potential is the potential which stops charge carrier from crossing the p-n
junction of their own accord.

b.(i) R2 protects the transistor from damage when the base current IB goes beyond a certain value

(ii) V1 = input voltage

V2 = biasing voltage

V3 = output voltage

(iii) At cut-off V1 < 0.6 < V hence IB = 0 and the output V3 V2 the transistor behaves
like a very large resistor and all of V2 dropped across it

At saturation V1 > 0.6 V IC is maximum and V3 0

JUNE 2003
9.(a)(i) Distinguish between the conduction mechanism for copper and silicon (6 marks)

(ii) Describe how an n-type semi conductor may be produced. Hence explain the formation of
a p-n, junction. (6 marks)

(b)

From the circuit in figure 5 calculate

(i) Base emitter voltage 0f the transistor at saturation.

(U) If the base emitter resistance is 1000. Calculate a value for Rat saturation. (4 marks)

(e) (i) Draw a circuit diagram of a bridge rectifier to convert a.c. to d.c. (2 marks)

(ii) Sketch the output characteristics of the transistor in the C.E. mode (2 marks)

65
ANSWER
Copper Silicon
- Electrons only are responsible for - Electrons and holes are responsible for
conduction conduction
- Conduction decreases with increase in - Conduction decreases with increase in
temperature temperature

An n-type semiconductor is formed by introducing pentavalent impurity atom like

phosphorous into the crystal lattice of silicon.

Only four valence electrons are needed to form covalent bonds with the silicon atoms in its
lattice.

This leaves an extra free electron to wander about and free to carry an electric current through
the crystal when a pd is applied.

A p-n junction is formed between an n-type semi-conductor and a -type semi-conductor.

It is constructed in a special manufacturing process by fishing the two types of

semiconductors and so heat-treating the device junction is formed which is part of a single
continuous crystal.

66
b.(i) Base emitter voltage at saturation is 0.6 V.

(ii) IB = IB = base curent IB = 6 mA

IBR + 0.6 V = 6 V

Hen R = 6 V – 0.6 V

= = 0.9 x 103

R = 900

67
CGCEB, 1998.
10.

3. In the figure the relay can close switch, S. if the output of the NOT gate is high.

a) When a bright light is shone on the light — dependent resistor, the input voltage to the
NOT gate falls.

(i) Why does this happen? (ii) Explain why the bell rings.

b) Suggest and explain a practical use for [lie circuit.

ANSWER

a.(i) When light shines on the LDR its resistance and hence the pd across it falls

(ii) The NOT gate is an inverter so when the input is low, the output is high. With a high
output, the relay energies and its electromagnet closes the switch S so the bell rings

b. This circuit can be used to announce the arrival of some at the gate, with the lights of his
head lamps on at night.

NW MOCK 2015

11.a)(i) Enumerate the causes of a leakage current in a reverse biased p-n junction

(ii) State one factor that determine the size of such a leakage current. (3 marks)

b) A bipolar junction transistor used as a voltage amplifier is shown in figure 1. For this
particular amplifier stage: R1 = 0.900k ; VCC = 6.00 V and VEE = 0.600 V

68
 Figure 1

(i) State one type of bipolar junction used and the mode in which it is connected in this circuit

(2 marks)
If hfe = 75.0 , calculate

(ii) IE

(iii) VCE (5 marks)

c) An electronic switch comprises two NAND gates connected to the inputs of a NOR gate.

(i) Using only circuit symbols, draw the resulting logic gate.

(ii) Construct the truth table of this gate.

(iii) Give two applications of operational amplifiers. (5 marks)

ANSWER

a.(i) The biasing pd across the p-n junction

- the level of doping

- increase in temperature

(ii) The size of the biasing pd across the p-n junction

b.(i) npn transistor it is connected in the common emitter mode

(ii) IB =

= = 5.4 x 10-5 A

(iii) IC = hfe Å IB

= 75 x 5.4 x 10-5 A

69
IC = 4.05 x 10-3 A

VCE = VCC – IC R2

= 6.00 V – 4.05 x 10-3 A x 0.9 x 103

N A B C D Y
A 0 0 0 0 0
N 1 0 0 0 0
O 0 1 0 0 0
N 0 0 1 0 0
A 0 0 0 1 0
1 1 1 1 1

N
A

(iii) Filtration, Signal control, addition, subtraction, ect.

12.a. The figure below shows a transistor circuit. Find IB , IC and V0 assuming that the
transistor operates in the active mode and that = 50

ANSWER

Using the top loop rule

Loop 1: 4 - IB(20 x 10) - VBE = 0 VBE = 0.7V

IB = = 0.165 x 10-3 IB = 165 A

IC = IB = 50 x 165 A = 8.25mA

Loop 2 V0 + 100IC – 6 = 0

V0 = 5.175V

70
13. The input resistance of a silicon transistor is 665 . It base current is changed by 15 A
which results in the change in collector current by 2mA. This transistor is used as a common
emitter amplifier with a load resistance of 5k . What is the voltage gain of the amplifier.

ANSWER

Voltage gain = ri = input resistance , RL = load resistance

= IC = change in collector current , IB = change in base current

= =

RL = 5k = 5 x 103 ri = 665

Therefore voltage gain

= ( x 103)( = 1000

14. In the circuit shown the transistor used has a current gain = 100. What should be the bias
resistor RB so that VCE = 5V? Neglect VBE.

ANSWER

VCC = ICRC + VCE VCC = 10V , RC = 1K , VCE = 5V

Therefore 10 = IC x 103 + 5 IC = 5mA

Current gain = 100

Therefore = , IB = = = 50 A

Since VC = IBRB + VBE then 10 = (5 x 10-6 )RB since VBE is negligible

Therefore RB = 0.2m

71
15. An npn transistor in a common emitter mode is used as a simple voltage amplifier with a
collector current of 4mA. A terminal of a 8V battery is connected to the collector through a
load resistance RL and to the base through a resistance RB. The collector emitter voltage VCE
= 4V, base emitter voltage VBE = 0.6V and the base current amplification factor de = 100.
Calculate the values of RL and RB.

ANSWER

VCC = VCE + ICRC ---------------------(i)

VCC = VBE + IBRB -------------------(ii)

VCC = 8V , VCC = 4V , and IC = 4mA

From (i) RL = RC =

= = 1k

dc = IC/IB and IC = 4mA dc = 100

Therefore IB = = = 40 A

Putting VCC = 8V VBE = 0.6V

IB = 40 A from (ii) RB = = = 185k

16. Figure

72
(i) What is a p-types semiconductor?
The figure above shows a transistor in the common emitter mode. The transistor has the
following characteristics VBE = 0.62V and hfe = 100. The input resistance R1 = 60k and the
load resistance R2 = 600
(ii) Calculate the current through the load
(iii) Calculate VCE

ANSWER

(i) P-type semiconductor is an extrinsic semiconductor have holes as majority carriers

(ii) VCC = IBRI + VBE
9.0V = IB(60 x 103) + 0.62

IB = = 1.4 x 10-4 A

(iii) IC = hfe = 100(1.4 x 10-4) = 1.4 x 0-2A

VCE = VCC – ICR2 = 9.0 – (1.4 x 10-2)(600)
VCE = 0.6V

17. (a) Explain why when a p-n junction diode is connected in a circuit and is reverse biased,
there is a very small leakage current across the junction. How will the size of the current
depend on the temperature of the diode?
(b) A semiconductor diode and a resistor of constant resistance are connected in some way in
a box having two external terminals as shown in the figure.

When a potential difference V of 1.0V is applied across the terminals, the ammeter reads
25mA. If the same potential difference is applied in the reverse direction, the ammeter reads
50mA
i) What is the most likely arrangement of the diode and the resistor? Explain your
deduction and sketch a diagram to illustrate your arrangement
ii) Calculate the resistance of the resistor and the forward resistance of the diode.

73
ANSWER

(a) The leakage current is due to the flow of minority charge carriers across the p-n junction,
minority charge carriers are thermally generated so the leakage current increases with
temperature
(b)(i) The reading of the ammeter is to large if the diode and the resistor were connected in
series. The most likely arrangement is therefore, a parallel arrangement. When the diode is
reversed biased all the current will flow through the resistor and when forward biased most of
the current flows through the diode. Therefore in both connections the ammeter reading is
larger than the leakage current

(ii) The smaller current flows when the diode is reversed biased
It is given by 0.025A = R= = 40

When the diode is forward biased let the effective resistance of the parallel combination be R1
then = 0.050A => R1 = = 20

Rr/R + r = R1 r is the resistance of the diode when it is forward biased

= 20 40r = 800 + 20r or 20 r = 800

Therefore the forward resistance of the diode is 40

74
18. The figure bellow shows the circuit of a time delay switch.

(a) To which lead of the transistor is

(i) the lamp connected
(ii) the ov line connected
(iii) the bottom of the resistor, R, connected?
(b) State the approximate potential difference between the base and the emitter of a silicon
transistor on
(c) With switch , S, open the lamp lights some time after battery is connected. Explain why
this happens
(i) State two ways by which the time delay may increased
(ii) Switch S may be used to switch the lamp off so that the circuit may be used again. Explain
how the switch achieves this.

ANSWER

(a)(i) The lamp is connected to the collector lead

(ii) The 0V line is connected to the emitter lead
(iii) The bottom of the resistor R connected to the base lead
(b) About 0.6V
(c) The capacitor takes some time to charge up before providing the necessary base emitter
VBE voltage to light up the lamp
(i) The time delay may be increased by either increasing the value of the resistance R, and <c
since time constant is RC
(ii) When the switch S is closed the capacitor discharge through it, VBE therefore decrease
after sometime hence the lamp is turned off.

75
19.

(a) Copy the transistor circuit shown in the figure below and on your copy mark the direction
of the current passing through each terminal of the transistor. If the output voltage is at 5.0V
calculate
(i) The pd across the load resistor and hence the collector current
(ii) The base emitter current assuming VBE = 0.5V
(iii) The current gain of the transistor

(b) In a similar circuit to that shown above the resistor R is replaced by an LDR which has a
dark resistance of 800k . In the daylight the LDR’S resistance falls to 100k . The transistor
has a current gain of 150. Calculate the collector current and the output voltage when the LDR
is in
(i) Darkness
(ii) Daylight ( Assume VBE = 0.5 V)

ANSWER

The direction of the arrow in the transistor symbol shows that it is an n-p-n transistor

76
i) If V0 = 5.0V then pd across the load resistor is 4.0V hence the collector current IC
= = 4mA
ii) Pd across R + VBE = 9V
Pd across R = 9V – 0.5V = 8.5V
IB = 8.5V/400000 = 21.24 A
iii) Current gain = IC/IB = 4mA/21.25 A = 188
(b) (i) In darkness R = 800k so IB =

IC = x 150 = 1.6mA

Pd across load = 1000 x 1.6mA = 1.6V

V0 = 9 – 1.6 = 7.4V

(ii) In the light R = 100k so IB =

IC = x 150 = 12.8mA

Pd across load = 1000 x 12.8mA = 12.8V

This is not possible since it is greater than the supply voltage of 9V. The deduction is that the
transistor is saturated and the output is bottomed thus V0 = 0V

20.
(a) Explain the effect of temperature change on the conductivity of an intrinsic semiconductor
(b) What are the important characteristics that distinguish the depletion layer in a p-n junction
from the p- and n- regions
(c) The figure below shows a simple alarm circuit . the device Y could be a
(i) thermistor
(ii) light dependent resistor LDR
Explain how each of these devices could be used to make the diagram in the figure function as
an alarm
(iii) The resistance of the LDR in the position of Y for a given light intensity is 200
Explain whether the alarm in the figure will be on or not

77
ANSWER

(a) An intrinsic semiconductor behaves as an insulator at very low temperatures because of

the absence of free electron-hole pairs. At higher temperatures they behave as good conductor
because some valence electrons gain enough energy due to lattice vibrations to break free
from their bonds an so can take part in electrical conduction.
(b) The depletion layer has no free charge carriers whereas the p and n-region contain free
charge carriers
(i) A thermistor is temperature – sensitive. The resistance of a thermistor decreases with
temperature rise. At high temperature the resistance will be so small that, the pd across it will
not be enough to provide enough VBE to turn on the transistor. There will be no alarm at high
temperatures .
When R and Y are interchanged there will be an alarm at high temperatures.
(ii) A light dependent resistor is sensitive to light. Its resistance is low when in the presence of
light and high in darkness.
In the presence of light, the resistance is low and hence the pd across it is low VBE is not
enough to turn on the transistor. So R and Y should be interchanged for the loudspeaker to be
turned on in the presence of high light intensity.
(iii) VBE = x 6V = 0.12V

This is too small to turn on the transistor

78
21. A coulomb meter made from the components shown in the diagram in the figure below is
used to measure the charge on a conducting sphere, by transferring the charge to the capacitor

(i) If the base emitter bias voltage is 0.6V, will the ammeter give a reading ?
(ii) If the voltage gain is 20, estimate the reading of the voltmeter

(b) Distinguish between analogue and digital circuits as used in electronics. Give a practical
application of each.

ANSWER

(i) When the charge on the sphere is transferred to the capacitor, the pd across its plates is
given by V=Q/C Q = charge , C = capacitance

V = 3.2 C/4.7 F = 0.68V

This is the input pd and since it is greater than the base emitter bias voltage, the transistor is

turned on and a collector current will flow. The ammeter will therefore give a reading

(ii) Voltage gain A = - = 20 V0 = change in output voltage,

Vi = change in input voltage

The minus sign is to indicate that the output voltage V0 and the input voltage Vi are out of

phase A= = 20

Vi = 0.68 – 0.6 = 0.08V

V0 = – 20 x 0.08V = –1.6V
This is superposed on the quiescent value of VCE = 3V
Thus the voltmeter reading = 3v – 1.6v = 1.4V

79
(b) Analogue circuits are linear circuits in which the output varies uniformly and smoothly in

exactly the same way as the input.

Digital circuits are electronic circuits in which information is coded.

The voltage switches between two permitted levels, “o” (low) and logical “I”(high) no value

in between these two levels is allowed.

Amplifiers and microphones are analogue devices while electronic calculators, counters and

computers are digital circuits.

22. In the transistor circuit shown above, R has a resistance of 150k , RL has a resistance of
750 and the direct current gain of the transistor is 80. Assuming that there is a negligible
potential difference between the base and the emitter, calculate

(a) The base current IB

(b) The potential difference between the collector and emitter.

ANSWER

(a) VBE +IBR = 9.0V VBE = 0

Therefore IBR = 9.0V
IB = 60 A

(b) The collector current is given by IC = 80IB

IC = 80 x 60 A = 4.8 x 10-3A

80
The potential difference across RL = ICRL
= 750 x 4.8 x 10-3 = 3.6V
Potential difference between the collector and emitter
VCE = 9.0V – 3.6V
Therefore VCE = 5.4V

JUNE 1999
23.

81
(i) Construct a table of values which would enable you to draw the transfer characteristics (I C
versus IB at constant VCE) at a constant VCE of 4V. determine the current gain, hfe for the
transistor
(ii) Calculate the base-bias voltage
(iii) Explain the limits within which the transistor is to be used as an amplifier
(iv) Explain the functions of capacitors C1 and C2
(v) Draw a typical output voltage V0 versus input voltage, Vi characteristics of a transistor
operating as a switch.

ANSWER

(i) At a constant VCE of 4V corresponding values of IB and IC are taken

IB A 20 40 60 80 100 120 140

IC A 0.6 1.6 2.6 3.8 5.0 6.2 7.2

Current gain, hfe = slope of line

Therefore hfe = = 0.05 x 1000 = 50

82
(i) From the potential divider used to bias VBE = x 6V = 1V

(ii) The transistor can be used as an amplifier in the linear portion of the graph. That is to the
right of the sharp bend. It must therefore operate between VCE = 1V and VCE = 8V
(iii) C1 prevents any dc component of the input signal flowing into the base.
C2 blocks any dc from the collector circuit passing into the output so that the output is a
replica of the input.
(iv) As a switch, the transistor operates between two stable states cut-off and saturation. When
the input is very low (close to zero), the output is high when the input is high (close to VCC)
the transistor is saturated and the output is low(close to zero)

24. The figure shows a transistor amplifier circuit designed with a voltage gain of – 8 and its
output is biased at 4.5V

(a) Sketch a graph to show the variation of the output with input voltage for the output voltage
range from 0 to 9V ( VBE = 0.5V)

83
(b) A 50Hz since wave voltage is applied across the input terminals of the amplifier. Sketch
the input and out waveforms if the input voltage has a peak value of
(i) 0.5V
(ii) 1.0V
ANSWER

(a) Voltage gain A = 8

The output swings from 0 to 9V at the point of saturation, its peak value = 4.5V
The maximum peak to peak value of the output pd which just gives saturation = 9/8V = 1.125V.
This input can swing from 0.5V to 1.625V at the point of saturation with an optimum bias at

= 1.0625V

(b) The maximum input amplitude allowed by the system = 4.5/8 = 0.5625V
Any sinusoidal ac voltage with a peak value higher than this will drive the transistor to
saturation, leading to clipping of the output waveform.
In (i) the peak value of 0.5V is less than the maximum value of 0.5625 allowed and the peak
value of the output voltage = 8 x 0.5 = 4.0V, which is less than the limits set by the supply.
This signal can be amplified without distortion.
In (ii) the peak value of 1.0V for the input gives an output peak of 8 x 1.0 = 8.0V. this is
above the maximum value set by the supply of 4.5V.
Applying this signal to the input would saturate the transistor. The result is clipping of the
output voltage waveform.

84
25. The transistor circuit shown in the figure above is used as a sensitive switch.

a) For a silicon transistor, what is the value of VBE required to switch the transistor on?
b) What is the pd then across R1?
c) What is the current in R1 ?
d) If the transistor is saturated, what will be the pd across R2?
e) What will be the current in R2 at saturation.

ANSWER

a) VBE = 0.6V for silicon

b) Input pd = pd across R1 + VBE , pd across R1 = 4 – 0.6 = 3.4V
c) Current in R1 = 3.4/3300 = 1.0mA
d) At saturation V0 = 0 then pd across R2 = supply pd = 10V
e) Saturation current in R2 = 10/100 = 100mA

26. The figure below shows a basic amplifier circuit with an n-p-n transistor
If the input voltage Vi is 20V ac and dc gain of the transistor is 60, calculate

i) The base current

ii) The collector current
iii) The output voltage

85
On the same axes sketch graphs to show how the input voltage and the output voltage vary
with time.

ANSWER

i) Vi = 2.0 VBE = 0.6V for silicon

Pd across the 50k resistor = 1.4V
IB = = 28 A

ii) IC = 60 x 28 A = 1.68mA
iii) Pd across load resistor = 1.68 x 3 = 5.04V , output voltage = 9 – 5.04 = 3.96V

The figure shows an arrangement for investigating the characteristics of a transistor circuit.
The input voltage Vi is varied using the potentiometer, p. the corresponding output voltage V0
is shown graphically in (b)

The circuit is used as an alternating voltage amplifier. The input voltage must first be fixed at
a suitable value by adjusting P.

86
27.(a) Suggest the most suitable value for this fixed input voltage explaining your answer
(b) A sinusoidally alternating voltage of amplitude 0.5V is superimposed on this fixed
voltage. What would be the amplitude of the output voltage variation? Will the output
variations be sinusoidal? Justify your answer
(c) Sketch one complete circle of the output voltage which would be obtained if the amplitude
of the superimposed sinusoidal voltage were increased to 1.5V

ANSWER

(a) Maximum input swing is from 0.6V to 2.4V. optimum bias = = 1.5V

The most suitable value for the fixed input voltage = 1.5V
(b) Voltage gain A = slope of the linear part of the graph A = = -3

Amplitude of output voltage = 3 x 0.5V = 1.5V The maximum amplitude of the output
voltage, set by supply is 3V(that is 0V – 6V) peak to peak. These limits have not been
exceeded, so the output is proportional to the input and the output, variation will be sinusoidal
for the given input.
(c) If the peak value of the input were increased to 1.5V, the corresponding peak value of the
output would be 3 x 1.5 = 4.5V. this exceeds the limits set by the supply voltage.

28. (a)(i) What is meant by thermonic emission?

(ii) Distinguish between n-type and p-type semi-conductor
(b) You are given two circuits consisting of :
(i) A resistor of 500 and a capacitor connected in series to 9.0V dc supply
(ii) An inductor and a resistor of 500 connected in series to 9.0V dc supply.
Sketch current-time graphs for these circuits and explain the difference between them
87
(c) Explain how a transistor is used as a switch
(i) State in words and in the form of a truth table, the action of an OR logic gate with two
inputs.

ANSWER
Thermionic emission is the release of electrons from a metal surface that has been heated up
to its work function.
n-type p-type
Found by doping a pure semiconductor with Formed by doping a semiconductor with
pentavalent atoms e.g. phosphorus trivalent atoms e.g. boron
Electrons are the majority charge carriers Holes are the majority charge carriers

a) (i) It is an exponential decay. Current decreases exponentially from an initial value to

zero when the capacitor is fully charged

(ii). The current grows exponentially to a maximum value

b) (i)

88
- When input voltage Vi is low that is Vi < V1 VBE is too small therefore both IB and IC
are zero and the transistor is said to be “cut-off”
- When input Vi V2 , V0 is practically zero , IC attains its maximum value and the
transistor is said to be saturated.
- By switching the input voltage from Vi < V1 to Vi V2 the transistor can be used as a
switch.
(ii). For an OR gate, the output is high when any or both of the inputs voltage are high
Input Output

A B C

0 0 0

1 0 1

0 1 1

1 1 1

89
29.(a)

In the n-p-n transistor above provision must be made to avoid thermal runaway
(i) Explain the meaning of the underlined phrase and state how it can be minimized
(ii) If the dc current gain for the transistor is 80, determine a value for R if the transistor is to
saturate for a minimum input of 3.0V

(b). The circuit above indicates an RLC series circuit. If the AC source vibrates with a
frequency of 50Hz

(i) Calculate the impedance of the circuit

(ii) Represent VR , VL VC and I on a phasor diagram.

ANSWER

(a) (i) Thermal runaway is an uncontrolled increase in IC due to an increase in temperature

across the C-B junction caused by power dissipated across it. It can be reduced by connecting
a resistor in the emitted lead, and a by -pass capacitor connected in parallel with the resistor.
(ii). R = = 80

VCC = V0 + ICRC
At saturation V0 = 0

90
Hence IC x 1500 = 6V
IC = 4mA
IB = 0.5µA
R = = 60.000 or 60k

a) (i) Z = XL = 2 fL = 2 (50Hz)(0.2H) = 62.8

CC = = 35.4

Z= = 33.9

The phase angle by which V leads I is tan = = = = 1.37

Hence = 53.9°

30.(a) State Thevenins theorem

(i) The figure below shows a load resistor of 40.0 connected across the points A and B in
the circuit.

Using Thevenin’s law determine the pd VAB across the load and the current through it.
(b) Using the band theory and NOT the octet configuration, explain why the conductivity of a
piece of silicon changes when it is doped with atoms of trivalent element

91
(i) An n-p-n transistor has the following parameters: Rin = 800.0 hfe = 120.0 hoe = 50.0 s
hfe is negligible. The transistor is used to provide amplifier stage in the common emitter mode
with RL = 120.0k . Determine the output voltage when an input signal of 2.00mV is applied.

ANSWER

(a)(i) Any linear network of voltage sources and resistances, if viewed from any two points in
the network can be replaced by an equivalent resistance RTH in series with the equivalent
source of emf ETH
(ii). The 40.0 resistor (RL) is removed and the voltage sources shorted out.

The 10.0 resistor is in parallel to the 20.0 resistor hence equivalent resistance

RTH = = 6.67

Voltage sources re-connected to determine the equivalent source of emf ETH

( )
Current I = = 0.33A

Loop 1 ETH = 10.0V + 10I

= 10.0V + 10(0.33A) = 13.3V
RTH = 6.67
Thevenin’s equivalent circuit

92
IL = = = 0.29A

VAB = ILRL = 0.29A x 40.0 = 11.44V

a) (i) doping Si with trivalent atoms introduces new energy levels in the forbidden
gap just above the valence band.
Electrons in the valence band jump into these new energy levels and are not available to
conduct electricity but the holes they created in the valence band move about through out the
lattice increasing its electrical conductivity.

(ii). IB = = = 2.5 x 10-6A

IC = hfe x IB
= 120.0 x IB
= 120 x 2.5 x 10-6A
IC = 3.00 x 10-4A

Rout = =

Rout = 2.00 x 104

Vout = IC(Rout + RL)

= 3.00 x104 A(2.00 x 104 + 120 x 103) = 42.0V
Vout = 42.0V

93
31. The figure below shows a transistor, an LDR a lamp and a standard resistor connected in a
circuit. Four strategic points in the circuit where components could be connected have been
numbered 1, 2, 3 and 4.

(i) State the type of transistor used and the mode in which it has been connected in the circuit
(ii) State the full meaning of the acronym LDR and explain how an LDR behaves in a circuit.
(iii) Explain how this circuit functions
(iv) If an alarm system’s control were connected in position 4, what would happen? State one
use to which such a circuit could be put.

ANSWER

(i) An n-p-n transistor used in the common emitter mode

(ii) LDR mean Light Dependent Resistor
It has a very high resistance in darkness and a very low resistance in brightness
(iii) In day light the resistance of the LDR is very low. Only a very small fraction of the
supplied voltage VCC drops across LDR, which is too small to forward bias the emitter base
junction. So the base current IB is zero and IC the collector current is also zero, the lamp does
not come during the day.
In darkness a large fraction of the supplied voltage drops across the LDR due to its high
resistance. There is enough IB and IC so the lamp comes on.
(iv) When the lamp is on, the alarm goes off and vice versa. This system can be used as a
dusk to dawn indicator.

94
OPERATIONAL AMPLIFIER

32. Explain what is meant by

(i) The open loop gain of an operational amplifier
(ii) Saturation of the output of the amplifier
(a) The open loop gain of an operational amplifier is 105 and the supply voltage is ±15V.
calculate the minimum potential difference which may be applied between the input terminals
to produce saturation of the amplifier.
(b) In the circuit shown, V1 and V2 are input voltages to an operational amplifier of large
open loop gain. V1 is sinusoidal signal of peak value 10.0V and V is a 5.0V d.c signal. On
the same axes, sketch graphs of voltage against time for each of the two input voltages and for
the output voltage.

ANSWER

(a)(i) This is the output voltage of the operational itself divided by the difference in voltage
between the non-inverting and inverting inputs.
(ii). When the output voltage reaches the rail voltage it can change no further in that direction
and the amplifier is said to be saturated.
(b) Voltage between input terminals when the output voltage has just reached 15V is found.

Input voltage = = = 0.15mV

(c)

95
Output voltage = gain(V1 – v2)
Since when V2 is approximately the same as V1

32. Explain :
(a) What is meant by negative feedback
(b) The diagram below shows an operational amplifier circuit using feedback. Give reason for
employing negative feedback in the circuit and using the letters on the diagram, explain the
negative feedback path.

(c) The amplifier in the diagram has a gain of 80000. What will VOUT be when VIN = 0.2V?

ANSWER

(a) Negative feedback occurs when a fraction of the output which is anti-phase with the
original input is fed back to the input
(b) The negative feedback improves on the stability of the gain by making it dependent on the
values of relatively stable resistors, and not on the very temperature sensitive semiconductors
in the operational amplifier.

96
(c) The inherent gain of 80000 is large so the gain of the amplifier with feedback is the
reciprocal of the proportion of the signal that is the fed back. Using the potential divider
equation.

Proportion of feedback = = ¼

Vout = 4 x Vin = 4 x 0.2V = 0.8V

33. The figure below shows a summing amplifier. One of the input voltages V1 is 0.55V and
the other is V2. Calculate V2 if the output voltage is 0.9V

ANSWER

Current in R1 = V1/R1 = 0.55V/12000 = 4.6 x 10-5A

Current I R2 = V2/R2 = V2/12000

Current in Rf = V0/Rf = 0.9/47000

Applying the junction rule we have

Therefore

V2 = - 0.027 x 12 = - 0.32V

97
34. In the OP Amp circuit shown in the figure above R and S are resistances

(a) Write down

(i) The current gain
(ii) The phase difference between the input and output voltages
(b) Why is X a virtual earth?
(i) Explain why the currents in R and S are equal.

ANSWER

(a)(i) The gain A = - S/R

(ii). The phase difference between R and S is r
(b)(i) The OP Amp is a differential amplifier that is, it amplifies the potential difference
between the inverting input (-) and the non-inverting (+) . To avoid saturation of the OP Amp
due to its high open loop gain, the two inputs must always be at about the same potential.
Since the (+) input is at 0V, the (-) input must also be at 0V, Hence X is a virtual earth.
(ii). Due to its high impedence. Virtually no current enters the OP Amp through its inputs
hence current in R is equal to current in S.

35. The following measurements were made during a test on an amplifier: VIN = 250mV
IIN = 2.5mA VOUT = 10V IOUT = 400mA. Calculate the
(a)(i) Current and voltage gains as well as
(ii) Power gain and input resistance, of the amplifier
The figure below shows an inverting amplifier

98
(b)(i)What is an inverting amplifier?
(ii) Calculate the close-loop gain of the amplifier

ANSWER

(a)(i) current gain = = = 160

Voltage gain A = = = 40

(ii). Power gain = = = = 6400

Rin = = = 100

(b)(i) An inverting amplifier is an amplifier whose input is inverted at its output

(ii). Gain = V(CL) = = = - 10

36.
(a) Draw
(i) The circuit symbol for OP Amp and state the names of the inputs marked + and -
respectively
(ii) State one use of an OP Amp
(b) The non inverting input of an OP Amp is held at 0V while its inverting input is raised to a
pd of 8.00 V. A 2.50k resistor, a fraction of the output is coupled back into this input.
(i) Giving reasons for your answer, state what type of feedback this is
(ii) State one advantage of this type of feedback this is
(iii) Calculate the feedback factor of this circuit

99
ANSWER
(a)(i)

+ is the non inverting input

- Is the inverting input

(ii) It is used as high gain dc and ac voltage amplifier

(b)(i) This is a negative feedback because a fraction of the output, which is out of phase with
the input is coupled back into the input
(ii) The negative feedback improves the stability of the gain by making it dependent on the
values of the relatively stable resistor, and not on the very temperature sensitive
semiconductors in the operational amplifiers.

Feedback factor = = = 1.20

37. The circuit in the figure below shows an inverting amplifier with a feedback resistance of
2m and an output resistance of 0.5m . the OP Amp is adjusted so that V0 = 0 when Vi = 0
Calculate the output voltage when
a) Vi = +1V
b) Vi = - 3V
c) A second 2m resistor is connected in parallel with the 2m feedback resistor.
What would the output voltage now be when the input voltage is
i) + 1V
ii) – 3V ?

100
ANSWER

A= = =-4

V0 = Vi = - 4Vi

a) V0 = - 4 x 1V = - 4V
b) V0 = - 4 x (-3V) = +12V
c) A= = -2 and V0 = - 2Vi

(i) V0 = -2 x 1V = -2V
V0 = -2(-3V) = +6V

LOGIC GATES

A logic gate is an electronic circuit or device with two or more input but one output which
occurs only for certain combinations inputs.
There are three basic gates i.e. OR, AND and NOT .
Each logic gate is characterized either by an input/output table known as the truth table or by
certain equation known as Boolean Equation.
A truth table is a table which shows input/output possibilities of a given logic gate.
Boolean Equation is a mathematic operation or equation through which simple logic can be
expressed.

OR GATE

A B C
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 1

An OR gate is a device in which output is present when one OR more of the inputs are
present.
In the circuit diagram above the bulb, glows when either the key A or B or both are closed. If
an open key is represented by O and a close key by 1, then the truth table for OR gate is
shown in the right of the circuit.

101
AND GATE

A B C
0 0 0
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 1

An AND gate is an electronic circuit or device in which the output is present when the input
A and input B are simultaneously present.
It may have two or more inputs.
From the circuit diagram above, the bulb will not glow unless key A and B are closed.
If open key is represented by O and closed key by 1, then the truth table for an AND gate is
as given on the right of the circuit.

NOT GATE

A B
0 1
1 1

A NOT gate is an electronic circuit or device in which output is not present when input is
present.
A NOT gate converts O to 1 and 1 to O.
In the circuit, if the key is not pressed, the bulb glows as there is some output voltage.
However if the key is pressed then as there is no voltage across a closed key the bulb does not
glow, if pressed key represents 1, while an open key by O, then the truth table is as given in
the right.

102
NOR GATE

A NOR gate is NOT ed OR gate – its first operation is OR, the result of which is then
inverted using a NOT operation. In the language of Booleom algebra

A B C C A B C
0 0 0 1 0 0 0
0 1 1 0 0 1 0
1 0 1 0 1 0 0
1 1 1 0 1 1 1

NAND Gate

A B C C A B C
0 0 0 1 0 0 1
0 1 0 1 0 1 1
1 0 0 1 1 0 1
1 1 1 0 1 1 0

A NAND gate is NOT ed AND gate – its first operation is AND, the result of which is then
inverted using a NOT operation.
In Boolean algebra its operation is represented by .B
It should be noted that a NAND gate is universal gate because it can be connected to other
NAND gates to generate any logic function such as OR, AND and NOT. The NOR gate is a
universal gate too.

103
NB

In Boolean algebra, the operation is denoted by the symbol +, if A and B are the inputs in an
OR gate, the output C is given by C = A + B
Here + sign means that A and B are to be combined in the same way that an OR gate
combines A and B, therefore for OR gate;
0 + 0 = 0, 1+ 0 =1, 0 + 1 = 1, 1+1=1
AND operation is denoted by the symbol. (dot) placed in the centre between A and B.
Thus, the output C of an AND gate is given by C = A • B
Although the dot here does not mean ordinary multiplication in Boolean algebra but the result
of AND operations are similar to the result of simple multiplication.
For AND gate.
0.0=0, 0.1=0, 1.0=0, 1.1=1
The result of NOT operation in Boolean algebra is represented by a bar i.e. output C of input
A is C=
For NOT gate = I, = 0, = =0

EXAMPLE

1. What is the output of the circuit below, if A=1 and B=0

ANSWER
The input to the AND gate are an B therefore C1= .B since C1 is the input for the second
NOT gate, the final output is C=C1= .B
Hence A=1 and B=0 so
C= 1.0 = 0.0= =1

2. Diagram

Find the logical output Q in the system shown above

104
ANSWER
A B C D Q

0 0 0 1 1

0 1 0 0 0

1 0 0 1 1

1 1 1 0 1

3. Diagram

Complete the truth table for the simple combination of logic gates shown above.

A B C D E

0 0

0 1

1 0

1 1

ANSWER
1. The output C obey the truth table for an AND gate C is 1 when both A and B are 1
otherwise C = 0
2. The output D is an inverted version of input B. 1 replaces 0 and 0 replaces 1 in column D.
3. The input C and D to the NAND gate control the output E
The output of the NAND gate is the inverted version of the AND gate.

A B C D E

0 0 0 1 1

0 1 0 0 1

1 0 0 1 1

1 1 1 0 1

105
Three NAND gates connected as shown in the circuit below. Show that the circuit acts as an
OR gate.

106
 OPTION IV MEDICAL PHYSICS

NW REGIONAL MOCK 2016

1.(a) In medical physics, when dealing with ionizing radiations, two physical quantities
namely the absorbed dose and the equivalent dose come prominently into play.

(i) State the meaning of the expressions in italics

(ii) What is rad ? What is it used for and how is it related to the gray? (5 marks)

(c)(i) State the full meaning of the acronym P.E.T, as used in medical physics.

(ii) Outline two uses of a PET scan (3 marks)

(iii) Draw in outline form, a labeled diagram showing the basis structure of the human heart
as a double pump (3 marks)

(15 marks)

ANSWER

a.(i) Absorbed dose is the quantity of energy delivered by a given type of ionizing radiation to
a given type of body tissue per unit mass of the tissue.

Equivalent dose is the product of the absorbed dose and the relative biological effectiveness.

(ii) the rad is the most commonly used unit in which absorbed doses of ionizing radiations are
measured.

One gray is one joule par kilogram (1Jkg-1) which is the SI unit of absorbed dose.

One rad is equal to a hundredth of a gray.

b. Energy E absorbed per unit mass = (0.5 mSv)(82.6 kg)

= (5.0 x 10-4Jkg-1)(82.6 kg)

Hence E = 4.13 x 10-2J

Energy of X-ray W = 50 keV

= 4 x 10-14J.

107
Number of photons absorbed N =

= 1 x 1012 photons

Number of photons per second = =

= 8.3 x 109 photons per second which is approximately

equal to 9 x 109 photons per second

c.(i) PET means Position Emission Tomography

(ii) A PET scan can be used to

- Locate cancerous tumours

- To find out if the cancer is part of the body has spread to other parts of the body

- Detect biochemical changes in body tissues

108
LIPTA MOCK 2016

2. a) Nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) imaging is a technique in which protons inside the
patient are made to emit an electromagnetic signal.

(i) Outline the mechanism by which the signal is emitted by the protons.

(ii) State two advantages to the patient of using NMR imaging compared to X-ray
radiography. (5mks)

b) A patient is able to see a text which is nearby but finds that the same text appears blurred
when moved further away.

(i) State the eye defect from which the patient is likely suffering from and describe, with the
aid of a ray diagram, how a lens can be used to correct the eye defect.

(ii) Given that he cannot see a text clearly unless the text is held at least 100 cm from the eye.
Calculate the minimum power of the lens required in order that the patient my see the text
when placed 25 cm from the eye. State any assumptions made.

The diagram below shows a scan trace for soft tissue on a cathode ray oscilloscope whose
time setting is 0.1ms cm-1.

(i) Explain why there are several pulses on the display after each transmitted pulse.
(ii) Calculate the distance from the ultrasonic probe to the boundary that caused pulse X,
given that the speed of the sound in soft tissue is 1500 m s-1.
(iii) During ultrasound imaging on the belly of a pregnant woman, the gynecologist applies
a gel on the belly before placing the ultrasonic probe. What is the importance of the gel?

109
ANSWER
a.(i) Different tissues contain different concentration of hydrogen atoms.

In a magnetic field, the spinning motions of the hydrogen nuclei (protons) are disturbed by
pulses of this, the nuclei (protons) emit radio-frequency signals which can be detected and
located electronically.

(ii) – It cannot cause cell damage

– It is very efficient with soft tissue infection

b.(i) myopia

Rays from near objects are formed on the retina and so the patient can see clearly

Rays from a distant object are formed infront of the retina so the patient cannot see clearly.

A diverging lens is used to diverge the rays before they reach the eyes lens. The image can
now be formed on the retina for the patient to see clearly.

(ii) Object distance U = 25 cm

Image distance V = -100 cm

= - = 0.03 cm-1 = 3 m-1

Hence power of lens is 3D.

The distance between the corrective lens and the eye lens is negligible

110
c.(i) Ultrasound reflects at boundaries between different tissues in different places in the body,
so the time delay for each reflection is different.

(ii) t = (0.1 x3.1) – (0.1 x0.8) = 0.23

Hence t = 0.23 ms

)
V= d= = 1.72 x 10-1

d = 1.72 x 10-1 m

(iii) To reduce the reflection of sound so that most of he sound penetrates the body.

SW REGIONAL MOCK 2016

3.a) The lowest intensity of sound that the human ear can hear is known as the threshold of
hearing.

i) Explain the-meaning o the bolded phrase (2mks)

ii) What is the value of the threshold of hearing for the human ear? (1mk)

iii) Name any one hearing defect explaining how it manifests and how it can be corrected. (3mks)

b) The ultra sound required for medical diagnosis is normally generated and detected using a
piezoelectric transducer.

i) State the energy conversion that takes place in a piezoelectric transducer (1mk)

ii) Give a brief description of the piezoelectric effect (2mks)

iii) Briefly explain how an ultrasound image is created. (2mks)

e) Iodine-131 is an important radioisotope which is gradually being replaced by I-123 in

modem medicines.

i) Explain how I-131 is used in medical diagnosis (2mks)

ii) Why is it gradually replaced by I-123? (2mks)

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ANSWER
a.(i) Intensity of sound is the amount of energy carried per unit area per unit time

(ii) The threshold value of hearing is 10-2 Wm-2

(iii)

Hearing defect Manifestation Correction

- Nerve loss Failure of cochlea to pass Use of a hearing device
nerve impulse to the brain
- Conductive loss Sound does not reach the Corrected by surgery
inner ear

b.(i) Electrical energy to sound energy.

(ii) A pd is set across opposite faces of some non-conducting crystals when subjected to
mechanical stress between the opposite faces

(iii) A pulse of ultrasound is sent into the body, it is partially reflected at the boundaries
between different layers of tissue and their positions can be calculate from the time delays of
the received echoes.

c. (i) I-131 is used as a tracer isotope in the thyroid gland

(ii) – It has a longer half-life

– It produces additional -radiation and also produces very high energy -rays difficult to
be imaged by gamma camera.

JUNE 2015

4.(a)(i) Draw a simple diagram of the hum eye, showing clearly the parts

which enable the eye to form an image of an object (3 marks)

(ii) Name any two eye defects explaining how each defect manifests and explain how each
defect may be connected. (3 marks)

(b) X-rays ultrasound are two techniques used for imaging of parts of the human body.

(i) State one part of the body where each of the techniques would be more suitable than the
other. (2 marks)

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(ii) Explain why ultrasound is not likely to replace X-rays completely for medical diagnosis.
(3 marks)

(c) Explain how the Magnetic Resonance (MR) Scanner produces a visual image of a cross-
section of a part of the body of a patient under examination. (4 marks)

ANSWER
a.(i)

(ii)

Hearing defect Manifestation Correction

- Astigmation - The curvature of the cornea Using a non-spherical
varies in different directions spectacle lens
- The image seen is distorted
- Presbyopia - The eye loses its ability to - Two pairs of spectacles
accommodate may be need, one far reading
and one for distant objects
- Shortsightedness - Distant objects are not seen - A diverging lens is used
clearly infront of the eye
- Longsightedness - Near objects are not seen - A converging lens is used
clearly infront of the eye

b.(i) X-rays used on bones

Ultrasound used on soft body tissue

(ii) Ultrasound cannot be used in cases of fractures because it cannot image hard body tissue (bone)

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 Ultrasound is partially reflected from the boundary between tissues which X-rays
continue. So ultrasound cannot be used in bone scan.

c. Magnetic Resonance uses the fact that different tissues contain different concentrations of
hydrogen atoms. In an applied magnetic field, the spinning motions of the hydrogen nuclei
(protons) are disturbed by pulses of radio waves of suitable frequency. As a result, the nuclei
(protons) emit radio frequency signals which can be detected and located electronically.

JUNE 2016

5.(a)(i) Draw a simple structure of the ear and describe how the ear functions (4 marks)

(b)(i) Name two light –sensitive receptors in the human eye.

(ii) By reference to refraction at the cornea and the lens, draw a diagram showing how the
rays from a distant object form a blurred image in the eye.

(iii) A patient suffering from long sight has a near point which is 1.5m from his eyes.
Determine the type of lens that the patient should use to correct this defect.
(8 marks)

(c) Explain the principle of operation for obtaining ECG waveform. How is it useful in
diagnosing heart problems? (3 marks)

ANSWER
a.(i)

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- The outer ear receives sound signals

- The middle ear amplifies the signals

- The inner ear transmits the sound to the brain for interpretation

b.(i) rods and cones

(ii)

(iii) V = -1.5 m U = 25 cm

= - =

f = 0.3 m

P= = = 3.3 D.

A converging lens of 30 cm should be used o correct this effect

c. The muscular actions of the heart produce voltages. These voltages an set up as pulses.
These pulses are transmitted through the body fluid to the skin. The instantaneous values are
recorded by an electrocardiograph. The pattern recorded by this instrument is called an
electrocardiogram ECG.

An ECG can be used to show

- the rate of heart beat

- to determine whether the rhythm of heart beat is steady or irregular

The strength and timing of electrical signals as they pass through each part of the heart.

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NW REGIONAL 2015

6.a)(i) State one medical application of optical fibres

(ii) Give the name of one medical instrument that makes use of optical fibres. (2 marks)

b)(i) List the advantages of ultrasound over ionizing radiations in medical diagnosis (4 marks)

(ii) Keyhole surgery involves the use of LASERS. Cite two reasons why LASERS are
useful for such surgery. (2 marks)

c) The near point of a normal human eye is 25.0 cm. A young lady discovers that with time,
her bear point has receded to a point 1.25 m from her eye. She is bound to start using
eyeglasses but she feels comfortable with such glasses only when she wears them 2.00 cm
from her eyes.

(i) State and explain the type of eye defect she is suffering from

(ii) State the type of lenses she needs in her glasses to correct this defect and calculate its
refractive power. (7 marks)

ANSWER
a.(i) To fabricate an endoscope which is used for looking inside the body.

(ii) Surgeon’s endoscope

b.(i) Advantages of ultrasound over ionizing radiations in medical diagnosis

- It does not destroy body cells

- It does not cause cancer

- It does not produce deep-seated wounds

- It can be repeated at short notice without any noticeable danger to health

(ii) LASERS a highly collimated beam which can be made very narrow to enable it to achieve
very precise and accurate cuts

Their beam is very intense that can be used for cutting or destroying tissue

c.(i) She is suffering from hypermetropia (long sightedness)

The beam from a nearly objects very clearly.

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 (ii) She needs a converging lens in her eye glasses

u = distance of normal nearpoint from correcting lens

= 25 cm – 2 cm = 23 cm

The distance of the defective nearpoint from the correcting lens = (125 - 20) = 105 cm

So the lens has to form an image at a distance of 105 cm to the left of it when an object is
placed at the nearpoint of the normal eye v = -105 cm

From the lens equation = + = + = 0.034

f = 29.45

Refractive power = 3.4 x 10-2 D

NW REGIONAL MOCK 2018

7.(a) State two advantages of the use of CT scanner in comparison with ordinary x-ray
imaging system. (4marks)

(b)(i) Presbyopia and astigmatism are two defects that the human eye is liable to suffer from.
State the type of lens that can be used to correct each of these defects. (2 marks)

(ii) A medical examination shows that two patients A and B have eye defects. A is short
sighted with a far point of 215.0 cm while B bas a near point of 50.0 cm. Calculate the focal
length of the lens and hence the lens power used to correct these detects if the normal far
point and near point are at infinity and 25.0 cm respectively. (4 marks)

(c)(i) Differentiate between hard and soft X-rays. (2 marks)

(ii) A certain X-ray tube bas an efficiency of 2.00 % al an operating p.d. of 50.0 kV. If it
produces X-radiation at the rate of 20.0 J.s-1. Calculate the current in the tube. (3 marks)

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ANSWER
a. – CT scanned images can be processed to make them sharper while X-ray images cannot

– CT scanned images are digital while X-ray images are analogue

– CT scanner can provide information about the depth of an organ in the body while an X-
ray images cannot

– CT scanner can be used to generate three dimensional images while X-ray cannot.

b.(i) Prebyopia can be corrected by using a converging lens of appropriate focal length

Astigmatism can be corrected by using a cylindrical lens of appropriate focal length

= + f = -2.15 m

Power of lens = = 0.46 D

c.(i) Hard X-ray photons are more energetic than soft X-ray photons

(ii) Efficiency = 2.00%

Operating pd V = 5 x 104 V

Power output Po = 20.0 W

Power input Pm = 0.2 x 10-3 A.

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JUNE 2017

8.(a) Explain using ray diagram how a normal eye focuses on image of an object on the retina.
(5 marks)
(b) A doctor notices that one of her patients can see clearly some text when it is near but
will see the same text appearing blurred when moved further away. Explain how such a defect
can be corrected using a named lens. (4 marks)
(c) Select a non-ionizing imaging technique and explain how it is used in medical diagnosis.
(6 marks)

ANSWER
a.

b. This patient is suffering from short sightedness (myopia)

The patient’s eye ball is elongated

The patient’s eye lens cannot fully relax due to problem with the muscle

The rays from a distant object are brought to a focus before they reach the retina

This defect is corrected by a concave spectacle lens.

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A pulse of ultrasound is sent into the body, it is partially reflected at the boundaries between
different layers of tissue, so their positions can be found from the time delays of the echoes
received.

The probe is used to send and receive the ultrasound pulses.

The ultrasound is produced using the piezoelectric effect

When the reflected waves return, they cause vibrations in the slice which generate a small
alternating voltage.

Signals from the probe can be displayed on a CRO or processed by a computer

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BAE BOC BOARD MOCK 2016

9. a) In medicine, the use of non invasive techniques to effect diagnosis is on the increase.

i) State two methods of producing images of internal organs of the human body using ionizing
radiations. (2rnks)

ii) State two advantages of using ultrasonic waves over ionizing radiations in medicine (2mks)

b)i) Define accommodation as used in medical physics (1mk)

ii) How does. hypermetropia differ from myopia? Use diagrams to illustrate their correct (3mks)

c) A person wear a hearing aid that uniformly increases the sound level of all audible
frequencies of sound by 30.0dB. The hearing aid picks up sound having a frequency of
250.0Hz at an intensity 3.00 x 10-11 Wm-1. What is the intensity delivered to the eardrum?

(3mks)

d) i) State the range of the heart beat of a healthy adult who is neither under stress nor is
performing physical exercises. (1mk)

ii) The human heart is a powerful and reliable pump. Each day it takes in and discharges
about 7500 litres of blood. Assume that the workdone by the heart is equal to the work
required to lift that amount of blood o height equal to that of the average Cameroonian
woman, approximately 1.63m. If the density of blood is 1050kgm-3, determine the heart’s
power output in watts. (3mks)

(Total = 15mks)

ANSWER
a.(i) – Position Emission Tomography (PET)

– Computerized Tomography (CT)

(ii) – Low risk of damage to surrounding tissues

– A single but very intense dose can be used

– No deep seated burns are produced

– No risk of causing cancer

b.(i) The ability of the eye to automatically adjust its focal length

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(ii) In hypermetropia the patient sees distant objects very clearly (long sighted)

eye defect correction

Hypermetropia can be corrected using a convex lens

eye defect correction

In myopia the patient sees nearly objects clearly

Myopia can be corrected using a concave lens

c. Sound level difference = 2 – 1

but 2 – 1 = 30.0 dB

and 2 – 1 = 10 log =

= 10

I2 = 3.00 x 10-11 x 10

I2 = 3.00 x 10-8 Wm-2

d.(i) it lies between 50 to 100 beats per minute

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(ii) volume V = 7.5 m3 (1L = 10-3 m3)

Heart’s power output Po = =

Po = = 1.457 W

Po 1.5W

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