1. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.

)
ans:
packet switching
path selection

2. Refer to the exhibit. Pings are failing between HostA and HostB. The network
administrator discovers that Router1 does not have a route to the 172.16.0.0 network.
Assuming Router2 is configured correctly, which two static routes could be configured
on Router1 to enable Host A to reach network 172.16.0.0? (Choose two.)
ans:
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2

3. Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are
needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.)
ans:
Paris(config)# router eigrp 100
Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0
Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0

4. Refer to the exhibit. A packet enters Router1 with a destination IP of 172.16.28.121.

Which routing table entry will be used to forward this packet to the destination
address?
ans:
172.16.16.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.17

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?
ans:
Packets routed to the R2 Fast Ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.

6. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router
to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
ans:
10.0.0.0/8
192.168.2.0/24

7. Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol. If network
10.0.0.0 goes down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false
routing information back to Router2?
ans:
split horizon

8. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the

output of various router commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three
statements are true? (Choose three.)
ans:
The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route.
The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120.
The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C.

9. The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0
255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command. How will this route appear in the routing table?
ans:
S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
10. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for
Router1? (Choose three.)
ans:
The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default
value.
Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
No default route has been configured.

11. The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is
suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with
the addressing used in the topology?
ans:
The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps
with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.

12. What is the purpose of the TTL field within an IP packet header?
ans:
limits the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network
before it should be discarded

13. Refer to the exhibit. When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from router
C, which devices will be displayed in the output?
ans:
B, D

14. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless
on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by
Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?
ans:
The packet will be dropped.

15. Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol. Network
10.0.0.0 goes down. Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this
topology will respond to this event?
ans:
Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0.

16. The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and
has a default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and
properly addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a
packet to destination address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What
can be a reason for this result?
ans:
The route was ignored if the Richmond router did not include the 172.29.198.0/24
network in its routing updates.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited
output? (Choose two.)
ans:
The serial interface between the two routers is down.
The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1.

18. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are running RIPv2 and EIGRP with
default routing protocol settings and have interfaces configured with the bandwidths
that are shown in the exhibit. Which protocol will be used and how will traffic between
the Router1 LAN and Router5 LAN be routed through the network?
ans:
RIPv2 traffic will use the path Router1, Router2, Router5 because it has the least hops.

19. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by
issuing the tracert command from host A to host B. Given the exhibited output on host
A, what are two possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two.)
ans:
Router2 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
Router3 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network

20. What are two switching functions of a router? (Choose two.)

ans:
The router encapsulates the packet in the appropriate data link frame type for the
outgoing data link.
The router determines the exit interface after data encapsulation.

21. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing
protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the
172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
ans:
The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost
load balancing to send packets out multiple exit interfaces.

22. When presented with multiple valid routes to a destination, what criteria does a
router use to determine which routes to add to the routing table?
ans:
The router first selects routes with the lowest administrative distance. The resulting
routes are then prioritized by metric and the routes with the best metric are added to
the routing table.

23. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose
two.)
ans:
NVRAM - stores the configuration file
POST - runs diagnostics on hardware modules

24. Refer to the exhibit. What are the effects of the exhibited commands on the
router?
ans:
Only the enable password is encrypted.

25. Refer to the exhibit. Routers 1 and 2 are directly connected over a serial link. Pings
are failing between the two routers. What change by the administrator will correct the
problem?
ans:
Change the IP address on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 192.168.0.1/30.

26. Which three statements about routing protocols are true? (Choose three.)
ans:
EIGRP supports unequal cost load balancing.
OSPF elects designated routers on multiaccess links.
RIP does not advertise a route beyond a hop count of 15.
27. What is the first step OSPF and IS-IS routers take in building a shortest path first
database?
ans:
send hello to discover neighbors and form adjacencies

28. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to
form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
ans:
The routers must agree on the network type.
The routers must use the same dead interval.

29. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet
network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route
and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing
table?
ans:
The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative
distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.

30. Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the
host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not
communicating with the network properly. What is the cause?
ans:
192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet.

31. Refer to the exhibit. Which two routes are child routes? (Choose two.)
ans:
10.0.0.0
10.1.2.0

32. Refer to the exhibit. The results of the show ip route command are displayed in the
graphic for Router R2. Which route will be selected for a packet with a destination
address of 10.1.4.1?
ans:
route to 10.1.0.0/23

33. Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the
highlighted value 192?
ans:
It is the metric, which is cost.

34. Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are
operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information
will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?
ans:
Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the
routing table.

35. A router has learned about a network through static and dynamic routing
processes. Which route will be used to reach network 192.168.168.0?
ans:
S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1

36. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network?
ans:
It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the
periodic updates.

37. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-
encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
ans:
The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit
interface.

38. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network
diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent
to Router A?
ans:
B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0

39. Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the
IOS loads from flash?
ans:
Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.

40. Refer to exhibit. A company network engineer enters the following commands in
the routers:

R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2

R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1

When the engineer enters the show ip route command on R1, the routing table does
not display the static route to the 10.1.1.0 network. All R1 and R2 interfaces are
correctly addressed per the graphic. What is a logical next step that the engineer
could take in order to make the static route display in the routing table in R1?
ans:
Enable the R1 and R2 serial interfaces.

41. What should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the

establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose two.)
ans:
OSPF interval timers mismatch
interface network type mismatch

42. Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to
reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public
address space or overlapping the networks on Router1?
ans:
172.16.0.0/13

43. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running
OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0?
ans:
R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0

44. Refer to the exhibit. Which path will traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network take to
get to the 10.0.0.0/24 network?
ans:
It will load balance the traffic between ADC and ABC

45. What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet?

ans:
used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests

46. Which statement is true regarding routing metrics?

ans:
Routers compare metrics to determine the best route.

47. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to determine why router JAX
has no OSPF routes in its routing table. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0.
From the JAX router, the administrator is able to ping its connected interfaces and the
Fa0/1 interface of the ORL router but no other router interfaces. What is a logical step
that the network administrator should take to troubleshoot the problem?
ans";
Use show and debug commands to determine if hellos are propagating.

48. Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse
method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.)
ans:
It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route.
It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was
received.

49.
Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.)
ans:
As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table.
If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the
topology.

50. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose
two.)
ans:
They are aware of the complete network topology.
They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.

51.
What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.)
ans:
tests Layer 2 connectivity
enabled by default on each interface
provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled

52. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1
interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would
hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the
JAX router?
ans:
The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
53. Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing
process configuration? (Choose three.)
ans:
network address
wildcard mask
area ID

54. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes
attached to router R1?
ans:
198.18.48.0/21

55. A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not
being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which
command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default
route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area?
ans:
Router_A(config-router)# ip ospf update-default

56. What can be determined from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
ans:
Montgomery has Layer 2 connectivity with Cumberland.
Brant, Fisherman, and Potomac are directly connected to Montgomery.

57. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on
Router1?
ans:
DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0.

58. Which of the following could describe the devices labeled "?" in the graphic?
(Choose three.)
ans:
DCE
CSU/DSU
modem

59. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are both level 1 and qualify for use as an
ultimate route?
ans:
2

1. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running the same routing protocol. Based on the
exhibit and its displayed commands, which statement is true?
ans:
The link to the ISP is not advertised by the routing protocol process.

2. Refer to the exhibit. While trying to diagnose a routing problem in the network, the
network administrator runs the debug ip rip command. What can be determined from
the output of this command?
ans:
The router will be unable to ping 192.168.1.2.
3. Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are unable to establish an adjacency. What is the
possible cause for this?
ans:
The hello and dead intervals are different on the two routers.

4. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are directly connected via their serial
interfaces and are both running the EIGRP routing protocol. R1 and R2 can ping the
directly connected serial interface of their neighbor, but they cannot form an EIGRP
neighbor adjacency.
ans:
Configure both routers with the same EIGRP process ID.

5. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R3 use different routing protocols with default
administrative distance values. All devices are properly configured and the destination
network is advertised by both protocols.

Which path will be used to transmit the data packets from PC1 to PC2?
ans:
The packets will travel via R2-R1.

6. Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 2?

ans:
It is the number of hops between R2 and the 192.168.8.0/24 network.

7. What is the function of the OSPF LSR packet?

ans:
It is used by the receiving routers to request more information about any entry in the
DBD.

8. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation
of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
ans:
The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit
interface.

9. Refer to the exhibit. The routers are properly configured using a dynamic routing
protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Router A is
forwarding data to router E. Which statement is true about the routing path?
ans:
If the network uses the RIP protocol, router A will determine that all paths have equal
cost.

10. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has run the show interface command.
The output of this command is displayed. What is the first step that is required to
make this interface operational?
ans:
Issue the no shutdown command on the interface.

11. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIPv2 routing protocol and static
routes are undefined. R1 can ping 192.168.2.1 and 10.1.1.2, but is unable to ping
192.168.4.1.

What is the reason for the ping failure?

ans:
The 192.168.4.0 network is not included in the RIP configuration of R2.

12. Refer to the exhibit. R2 is configured correctly. The network administrator has
configured R1 as shown. Which two facts are true about the forwarding of route
information by R1? (Choose two.)
ans:
R1 will forward the route information for subnet 192.168.100.0/30.
R1 will forward the route information with an administrative distance set to 50.

13. Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2, and R3. The
routes of all three routers are displayed. All routers are operational and pings are not
blocked on this network.

Which ping will fail?

ans:
from R1 to 192.168.3.1

14. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 as shown, and all
interfaces are functioning correctly. A ping from R1 to 172.16.1.1 fails. What could be
the cause of this problem?
ans:
The default route is configured incorrectly.

15. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose
two.)
ans:
NVRAM - stores the configuration file
POST - runs diagnostics on hardware modules

16. A network administrator uses the RIP routing protocol to implement routing within
an autonomous system. What are two characteristics of this protocol? (Choose two.)
ans:
It uses the Bellman-Ford algorithm to determine the best path.
It periodically sends complete routing tables to all connected devices.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Internet. What is the reason for
this?
ans:
The Fa0/1 interfaces of the two routers are configured for different subnets.

18. Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces are addressed and functioning correctly. The
network administrator runs the tracert command on host A. Which two facts could be
responsible for the output of this command? (Choose two.)
ans:
The entry for 192.168.2.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R1.
The entry for 192.168.1.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R2.

19. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)

ans:
It forwards data packets toward their destination.
It acts as an intersection between multiple IP networks.

20. Which statement is true about the RIPv1 protocol?

ans:
It excludes subnet information from the routing updates.

21. Refer to the exhibit. To implement the RIPv2 protocol, the network administrator
runs the commands as displayed. However, the show ip protocol command fails to
display any output. How can the administrator solve the problem that is indicated by
the lack of output from this command?
ans:
Specify the network for which RIP routing has to be enabled.

22. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is adding a new subnet of 50 hosts to R3.
Which subnet address should be used for the new subnet that provides enough
addresses while wasting a minimum of addresses?
ans:
192.168.1.64/26

23. Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are unable to establish an adjacency. What two
configuration changes will correct the problem? (Choose two.)
ans:
Configure the routers in the same area.
Match the hello and dead timers on both routers.

24. What two routing protocols use a hierarchal network topology? (Choose two.)
ans:
IS-IS
OSPF

25. Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is configured properly and all interfaces are
functional. Router R1 has been installed recently. Host A is unable to ping host B.

Which procedure can resolve this problem?

ans:
Configure a static route on R1 using the IP address of S0/0/0 on R2.

26. All routers in a network are configured in a single OSPF area with the same priority
value. No loopback interface has been set on any of the routers. Which secondary
value will the routers use to determine the router ID?
ans:
The highest IP address among the active interfaces will be used.

27. Which two statements are true for link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
ans:
Routers that run a link-state protocol can establish a complete topology of the
network.
The shortest path first algorithm is used.

28. A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?
ans:
The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.

29. Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run at R1. Which two
facts about the newly detected device can be determined from the output? (Choose
two.)
ans:
ABCD is a router that is connected to R1.
The device is connected at the Serial0/0/1 interface of R1.

30. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to
form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
ans:
The routers must agree on the network type.
The routers must use the same dead interval.

31. Refer to the exhibit. A ping between host A and host B is successful, but pings
from host A to operational hosts on the Internet fail. What is the reason for this
problem?
ans:
One of the default routes is configured incorrectly.

32. What two routing protocols will produce a shortest path first tree? (Choose two.)
ans:
IS-IS
OSPF

33. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for
Router1? (Choose three.)
ans:
The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default
value.
Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
No default route has been configured.

34. Refer to the exhibit. What action will R2 take for a packet that is destined for
192.168.2.0?
ans:
It will forward the packet to R1.

35. Refer to the exhibit. A router learns a route to the 192.168.6.0 network, as shown
in the output of the show ip rip database command. However, upon running the show
ip route command, the network administrator sees that the router has installed a
different route to the 192.168.6.0 network learned via EIGRP. What could be the
reason for the missing RIP route?
ans:
Compared to RIP, EIGRP has a lower administrative distance.

36. Which two components are used to determine the router ID in the configuration of
the OSPF routing process? (Choose two.)
ans:
the highest IP address of any logical interface
the highest IP address of any physical interface

37. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is accessing router R1 from the
console port. Once the administrator is connected to the router, which password
should the administrator enter at the R1> prompt to access the privileged EXEC
mode?
ans:
Cisco789

38. Which routing protocol maintains a topology table separate from the routing table?
ans:
EIGRP

39. Refer to the exhibit. Which summarization should R1 use to advertise its networks
to R2?
ans:
192.168.0.0/22

40. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. The two networks 10.1.1.0/29
and 10.1.1.16/29 are unable to access each other. What can be the cause of this
problem?
ans:
RIPv1 does not support discontiguous networks.

41. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are properly configured to use the EIGRP routing
protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Which statement
correctly describes the path that the traffic will use from the 10.1.1.0/24 network to
the 10.1.2.0/24 network?
ans:
The traffic will be load-balanced between A-B-D and A-C-D.

42. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network
diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent
to Router A?
ans:
B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0

43. Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse
method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.)
ans:
It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route.
It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was
received.

44. Refer to the exhibit. The 10.4.0.0 network fails. What mechanism prevents R2 from
receiving false update information regarding the 10.4.0.0 network?
ans:
split horizon

45. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are ultimate routes?
ans:
5

46. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited
output? (Choose two.)
ans:
All routes are stable.
The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1.

47. A router has learned two equal cost paths to a remote network via the EIGRP and
RIP protocols. Both protocols are using their default configurations. Which path to the
remote network will be installed in the routing table?
ans:
the path learned via EIGRP
48. Which two statements are true about the EIGRP successor route? (Choose two.)
ans:
It may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
It is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to the destination.

49. Refer to the exhibit. The output of the show ip route command for router R1 is
displayed. What action will the router take for a packet that is destined for
192.168.1.5?
ans:
It will forward the packet to the default gateway.

50. Refer to the exhibit. The hosts that are connected to R2 are unable to ping the
hosts that are connected to R1. How can this problem be resolved?
ans:
Configure the R2 router interfaces for area 0.

51. In a lab test environment, a router has learned about network 172.16.1.0 through
four different dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach this
network?
ans:
D 172.16.1.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Serial0/0/0

52. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be derived from this output? (Choose
two.)
ans:
Three network devices are directly connected to Router2.
The serial interface between Router2 and Router3 is up.

53. How does route poisoning prevent routing loops?

ans:
Failed routes are advertised with a metric of infinity.

54. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wants to reduce the size of the
routing table of R1. Which partial routing table entry in R1 represents the route
summary for R2, without including any additional subnets?
ans:
10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets
D 10.5.0.0[90/205901] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0

55. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router
to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
ans:
10.0.0.0/8
192.168.2.0/24

56. Refer to the exhibit. Although R2 is configured correctly, host A is unable to access
the Internet. What are two static routes that can be configured on R1, either of which
would enable Internet connectivity for host A? (Choose two.)
ans:
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Fa0/1
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.2

57. Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28?

ans:
Router4
58. Which statement is true about the metrics used by routing protocols?
ans:
A metric is a value used by a particular routing protocol to compare paths to remote
networks.

59. Refer to the exhibit. Which two components are required to complete the
configuration? (Choose two.)
ans:
a DTE device
a V.35 cable

1. Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address
of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the
network properly. What is the cause?
• The address is in the wrong subnet.
• 192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet.
• The default gateway is incorrect.
• The host address and default gateway are swapped.

2. Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value
192?
• It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates the number of hops in the
network.
• It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
• It is the metric, which is cost.
• It is the administrative distance.

3. Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to
configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.)
• Paris(config)# router eigrp 100
• Paris(config)# router eigrp
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.6.0
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.9.0

4. What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.)

• tests Layer 2 connectivity
• provides a layer of security
• operates a OSI layers 2 and 3
• enabled by default on each interface
• used for debugging Layer 4 connectivity issues
• provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled

5. Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true based on the output shown? (Choose two.)
• the reported distance to network 172.16.1.0 is 2172416
• 192.168.10.5 and 192.168.10.9 are feasible successors
• neighbors 192.168.10.9 and 192.168.10.5 have auto summary disabled.
• router 3 is load balancing traffic to the 172.16.3.0 network across its serial interfaces.
• all interfaces shown on Router3 are in the passive state and will not send EIGRP advertisements

6. Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the
establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three.)
• OSPF interval timers mismatch
• gateway of last resort not redistributed
• interface network type mismatch
• no loopback interface configured
• administrative distance mismatch
• inconsistent authentication configuration

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose
three.)
• The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160.
• Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0.
• The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
• Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
• Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route.
• No default route has been configured.

8. Refer to the exhibit. The ORL router is unable to form a neighbor relationship with the JAX
router. What is a possible cause of this problem?
• Router JAX has the wrong autonomous-system number.
• The command network 192.168.2.0 is missing from the EIGRP configuration on the JAX router.
• Automatic summarization is not disabled on the JAX router.
• Router JAX has the wrong IP address on the Fa0/1 interface.

9. Which statement is true regarding routing metrics?

• All routing protocols use the same metrics.
• EIGRP uses bandwidth as its only metric.
• Routers compare metrics to determine the best route.
• The larger metric generally represents the better path.

10. Which three statements are true of holddown timers? (Choose three.)
• used by link state routing protocols to prevent routing loops
• prevent update messages from reinstating a route that may have gone bad
• allow routers to still forward packets to destination networks that are in holddown
• limit the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded
• prevent a router advertising a network through the same interface from which the network was
learned
permit lower metric updates received from any neighboring router to reinstate the route to a
possibly down network

11. A router has learned about a network through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route
will be used to reach network 192.168.168.0?
• D 192.168.168.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Ethernet0
• O 192.168.168.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, Ethernet0
• R 192.168.168.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Ethernet0
• S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1
12. The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a default
route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed. However,
when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.198.5,
it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this result?
• The ip classless command is not enabled on the Richmond router.
• The route was ignored if the Richmond router did not include the 172.29.198.0/24 network in its
routing updates.
• The Richmond router is in a different autonomous system than the Suffolk router.
• The ip subnet-zero command was not configured on the Suffolk router.
• The ip classless command is not enabled on the Suffolk router.

13. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets
when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
• The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
• The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.
• The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
• The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
• The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.
• The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.

14. Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process
configuration? (Choose three.)
• network address
• loopback address
• autonomous system number
• subnet mask
• wildcard mask
• area ID

15. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What
statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the
192.168.200.0/24 network?
• The router chooses the first path that it learned and installs only that route in the routing table.
• The router chooses the path with the lowest administrative distance and installs only that route in
the routing table.
• The router chooses the highest routing ID based on the advertised network IP addresses and
installs only that route in the routing table.
• The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table but sends packets out only one,
holding the others in reserve in case the primary route goes down.
• The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load
balancing to send packets out multiple exit interfaces.

16. Which of the following could describe the devices labeled "?" in the graphic? (Choose three.)
• DCE
• CSU/DSU
• LAN switch
• Modem
• hub

17. Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.)
• As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table.
• If the feasible successor has a higher advertised cost than the current successor route, then it
becomes the primary route.
• If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology.
• The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor.
• EIGRP maintains full knowledge of the network topology in the topology table and exchanges full
routing information with neighboring routers in every update.
• EIGRP builds one routing table that contains routes for all configured routed protocols.

18. The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the
problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the
topology?
• The address assigned to the Ethernet0 interface of Router1 is a broadcast address for that
subnetwork.
• The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the
subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.
• The subnetwork assigned to the Serial0 interface of Router1 is on a different subnetwork from the
address for Serial0 of Router2.
• The subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to
Ethernet0 of Router3.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a
recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
• 10.0.0.0/8
• 64.100.0.0/16
• 128.107.0.0/16
• 172.16.40.0/24
• 192.168.1.0/24
• 192.168.2.0/24

20. Refer to exhibit. A company network engineer enters the following commands in the
routers:R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0
255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1When the engineer enters the show ip route command on R1, the routing
table does not display the static route to the 10.1.1.0 network. All R1 and R2 interfaces are correctly
addressed per the graphic. What is a logical next step that the engineer could take in order to make
the static route display in the routing table in R1?
• Enter default routes in R1 and R2.
• Enable the R1 and R2 serial interfaces.
• Configure the static route to use an exit interface instead of a next-hop address.
• Enter the copy run start command to force the router to recognize the configuration.

21. When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from Router C, which devices will be
displayed in the output?
• D, SWH-2
• A, B, D
• SWH-1, SWH-2
• B, D
• SWH-1, A, B
• A, B, D, SWH-1, SWH-2

22. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached
to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network
10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table?
• Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths.
• The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network
10.2.0.0/16.
• The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network
10.2.0.0/16.
• The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance
to network 10.2.0.0/16.
• The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to
network 10.2.0.0/16.

23. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of
the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
• A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
• B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64
• A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32
• B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
• A(config)# no router rip

24. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the
tracert command from host A to host B. Given the exhibited output on host A, what are two
possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two.)
• Router1 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
• Router1 is missing a route to the 192.168.1.0 network
• Router2 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
• Router2 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
• Router3 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
• Router3 is missing a route to the 192.168.0.0 network

25. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1?
• The Dijkstra algorithm will calculate the feasible successor.
• DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0.
• Neighbor 172.16.3.2 will be promoted to the feasible successor.
• Traffic destined to the 192.168.1.0 network will be dropped immediately due to lack of a feasible
successor.

26. Refer to the exhibit. Pings are failing between HostA and HostB. The network administrator
discovers that Router1 does not have a route to the 172.16.0.0 network. Assuming Router2 is
configured correctly, which two static routes could be configured on Router1 to enable Host A to
reach network 172.16.0.0? (Choose two.)
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.1
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2
• ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
• ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1
27. Refer to the exhibit. The results of the show ip route command are displayed in the graphic for
Router R2. Which route will be selected for a packet with a destination address of 10.1.4.1?
• static route to 10.1.0.0/22
• RIP route to 10.1.0.0/23
• RIP route to 10.1.0.0/24
• 0.0.0.0/0 via 192.168.0.1

28. Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol. Network 10.0.0.0 goes
down. Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event?
• Router4 will learn about the failed route 30 seconds later in the next periodic update.
• Split horizon will prevent Router4 from fowarding packets to the 10.0.0.0 network until the
holddown timer expires.
• Router5 immediately flushes the unreachable route from its routing table.
• Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0.

29. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of
various router commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose
three.)
• The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route.
• The missing information for Blank 1 is the command debug ip route.
• The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 100.
• The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120.
• The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter R.
• The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C.

30. A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared
with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the
administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the other
routers in the OSPF area?
• Router_A(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
• Router_B(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
• Router_A(config-router)# default-information originate
• Router_B(config-router)# default-information originate
• Router_A(config-router)# ip ospf update-default
• Router_B(config-router)# ip ospf update-default

31. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1.
What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for
host 192.168.0.26?
• The packet will be dropped.
• The packet will be forwarded to the gateway of last resort.
• The packet will match the 192.168.0.0 network and be forwarded out Serial 0/0.
• The packet will most closely match the 192.168.0.8 subnet and be forwarded out Serial 0/1.

32. Refer to the exhibit. A packet enters Router1 with a destination IP of 172.16.28.121. Which
routing table entry will be used to forward this packet to the destination address?
• 172.16.0.0/16 [1/0] via 192.168.0.1
• 172.16.0.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.9
• 172.16.16.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.17
• 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1
33. The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0
172.16.2.2 command. How will this route appear in the routing table?
• C 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
• S 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
• C 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
• S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2

34. Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from
flash?
• Perform the POST routine.
• Search for a backup IOS in ROM.
• Load the bootstrap program from ROM.
• Load the running-config file from RAM.
• Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.

35. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network?
• It reduces the update timer to 15 seconds if there are more then 10 routes.
• It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic
updates.
• It uses random pings to detect if a pathway is down and therefore is preemptive on finding
networks that are down.
• It uses multicast instead of broadcast to send routing updates.

36. Refer to the exhibit. What are the effects of the exhibited commands on the router?
• All passwords are encrypted.
• Only Telnet sessions are encrypted.
• Only the enable password is encrypted.
• Only the enable password and Telnet session are encrypted.
• Enable and console passwords are encrypted.

37. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router
R1?
• 198.18.0.0/16
• 198.18.48.0/21
• 198.18.32.0/22
• 198.18.48.0/23
• 198.18.49.0/23
• 198.18.52.0/22

38. Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational.
If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the
show ip route command output for router A?
• All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table.
• Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing
table.
• The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured.
• A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the
networks.

39. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are both level 1 and qualify for use as an ultimate route?
•1
•2
•3
•4
•5
•6

40. When presented with multiple valid routes to a destination, what criteria does a router use to
determine which routes to add to the routing table?
• The router selects the routes with the best metric. All routes that have the same best metric are
added to the routing table.
• The router first selects routes with the lowest administrative distance. The resulting routes are then
prioritized by metric and the routes with the best metric are added to the routing table.
• The router selects the routes with the lowest administrative distance. All routes with the same
lowest administrative distance are added to the routing table.
• The router installs all routes in the routing table but uses the route with the best metric most when
load balancing.

41. Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three
networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the
networks on Router1?
• 172.16.0.0/8
• 172.16.0.0/10
• 172.16.0.0/13
• 172.16.0.0/20
• 172.16.0.0/24

42. What is the purpose of the TTL field within an IP packet header?
• clears an unreachable route from the routing table after the invalid timer expires.
• prevents regular update messages from inappropriately reinstating a route that may have gone bad.

• removes an unreachable route from the routing table after the flush timer expires
• limits the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it
should be discarded.
• used to mark the route as unreachable in a routing update that is sent to other routers

43. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the
JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24
network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router?
• The JAX router has the wrong process ID.
• The JAX router needs the network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
• The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
• The BOS router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.

44. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to
advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0?
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0
45. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor
adjacency? (Choose two.)
• The routers must elect a designated router.
• The routers must agree on the network type.
• The routers must use the same dead interval.
• The routers must exchange link state requests.
• The routers must exchange database description packets

46. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?
• Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps.
• The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boudaries and should be summarized.
• The static route will not work correctly.
• Packets routed to the R2 ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.

47. What can be determined from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
• Annapolis is a 2611 router that is connected to the S0/0 interface of the Montgomery router.
• All of the routers are connected to Montgomery through an Ethernet switch.
• Montgomery has Layer 2 connectivity with Cumberland.
• Layer 3 connectivity is operational for all of the devices listed in the Device ID column.
• An administrator consoled into the Waldorf router can ping the Brant router.
• Brant, Fisherman, and Potomac are directly connected to Montgomery.

48. What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet?

• used to confirm receipt of certain types of OSPF packets
• used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers
• used to request more information about any entry in the BDR
• used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests

50. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are running RIPv2 and EIGRP with default
routing protocol settings and have interfaces configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the
exhibit. Which protocol will be used and how will traffic between the Router1 LAN and Router5
LAN be routed through the network?
• RIPv2 will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.
• EIGRP will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.
• RIPv2 traffic will use the path Router1, Router2, Router5 because it has the least hops.
• EIGRP traffic will use the path Router1, Router3, Router4, Router5 because it has the best metric.

51. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to figure out why BOS does not have the
10.0.0.0/24 network in its routing table. All routers are configured for OSPF in area 0. The links
between the routers are operational and the administrator is able to ping between all router
interfaces. What is a logical next step that the network administrator should take to troubleshoot the
problem?
• Reboot the routers.
• Change the OSPF process ID on all of the routers to 0.
• Check to see if the cable is loose between BOS and JAX.
• Check to see if CDP packets are passing between the routers.
• Use show and debug commands to determine if hellos are propagating.

52. Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol. If network 10.0.0.0 goes
down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false routing information back to
Router2?
• triggered updates
• poison reverse
• holddown timers
• split horizon

53. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
• DRAM -loads the bootstrap
• RAM -stores the operating system
• Flash -executes diagnostics at bootup
• NVRAM -stores the configuration file
• ROM -stores the backup configuration file
• POST -runs diagnostics on hardware modules

54. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
• packet switching
• microsegmentation
• domain name resolution
• path selection
• flow control

55. Refer to the exhibit. Which path will traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network take to get to the
10.0.0.0/24 network?
• ADC
• ABC
• It will load balance the traffic between ADC and ABC
• It will send the traffic via ABC, and will use ADC as a backup path only when ABC fails.

56. Refer to the exhibit. Routers 1 and 2 are directly connected over a serial link. Pings are failing
between the two routers. What change by the administrator will correct the problem?
• Set the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
• Decrease the bandwidth on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 1544.
• Change the cable that connects the routers to a crossover cable.
• Change the IP address on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 192.168.0.1/30.

57. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• They do not work well in networks that require special heirarchical designs.
• They are aware of the complete network topology.
• They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only.
• They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.
• They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path.
• They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates.

58. Which three statements about routing protocols are true? (Choose three.)
• OSPF elects designated routers on multiaccess links.
• RIP does not support classless routing.
• EIGRP supports unequal cost load balancing.
• EIGRP uses broadcast traffic to establish adjacencies with its neighbors.
• RIP does not advertise a route beyond a hop count of 15.
• OSPF can convergence more quickly because it can find a feasible successor in its topology table
when a successor route goes down.
1. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1.
What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for
host 192.168.0.26?
• The packet will be dropped
• The packet will be forwarded to the gateway of last resort.
• The packet will match the 192.168.0.0 network and be forwarded out Serial 0/0.
• The packet will most closely match the 192.168.0.8 subnet and be forwarded out Serial 0/1.

2. Which three statements are true of holddown timers? (Choose three.)

• used by link state routing protocols to prevent routing loops
• prevent update messages from reinstating a route that may have gone bad
• allow routers to still forward packets to destination networks that are in holddown
• limit the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded
• prevent a router advertising a network through the same interface from which the network was
learned
• permit lower metric updates received from any neighboring router to reinstate the route to a
possibly down Network

3. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to
advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0?
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
• *R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0

4. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the
JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24
network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router?
• The JAX router has the wrong process ID.
• The JAX router needs the network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
• The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
• The BOS router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which path will traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network take to get to the
10.0.0.0/24 network?
• ADC
• ABC
• It will load balance the traffic between ADC and ABC
• It will send the traffic via ABC, and will use ADC as a backup path only when ABC fails.

6. Refer to the exhibit. Pings are failing between HostA and HostB. The network administrator
discovers that Router1 does not have a route to the 172.16.0.0 network. Assuming Router2 is
configured correctly, which two static routes could be configured on Router1 to enable Host A to
reach network 172.16.0.0? (Choose two.)
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.1
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2
• ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
• ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1

7. What can be determined from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
• Annapolis is a 2611 router that is connected to the S0/0 interface of the Montgomery router.
• All of the routers are connected to Montgomery through an Ethernet switch.
• Montgomery has Layer 2 connectivity with Cumberland.
• Layer 3 connectivity is operational for all of the devices listed in the Device ID column.
• An administrator consoled into the Waldorf router can ping the Brant router.
• Brant, Fisherman, and Potomac are directly connected to Montgomery.

8. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to
R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16
from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table?
• Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths.
• The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network
10.2.0.0/16.
• The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network
10.2.0.0/16.
• The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance
to network 10.2.0.0/16.
• The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to
network 10.2.0.0/16.

9. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• They do not work well in networks that require special heirarchical designs.
• They are aware of the complete network topology.
• They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only.
• They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.
• They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path.
• They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates.

10. A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared
with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the
administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the other
routers in the OSPF area?
• Router_A(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
• Router_B(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
• Router_A(config-router)# default-information originate
• Router_B(config-router)# default-information originate
• Router_A(config-router)# ip ospf update-default
• Router_B(config-router)# ip ospf update-default

11. Refer to the exhibit. What are the effects of the exhibited commands on the router?
All passwords are encrypted.
• Only Telnet sessions are encrypted.
• Only the enable password is encrypted.
• Only the enable password and Telnet session are encrypted.
• Enable and console passwords are encrypted.
12. When presented with multiple valid routes to a destination, what criteria does a router use to
determine which routes to add to the routing table?
• The router selects the routes with the best metric. All routes that have the same best metric are
added to the routing table.
• The router first selects routes with the lowest administrative distance. The resulting routes are then
prioritized by metric and the routes with the best metric are added to the routing table.
• The router selects the routes with the lowest administrative distance. All routes with the same
lowest administrative distance are added to the routing table.
• The router installs all routes in the routing table but uses the route with the best metric most when
load balancing.

13. Which statement is true regarding routing metrics?

• All routing protocols use the same metrics.
• EIGRP uses bandwidth as its only metric.
• Routers compare metrics to determine the best route.
• The larger metric generally represents the better path.

14. A router has learned about a network through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route
will be used to reach network 192.168.168.0?
• D 192.168.168.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Ethernet0
• O 192.168.168.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, Ethernet0
• R 192.168.168.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Ethernet0
• S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1

15. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets
when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
• The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
• The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.
• The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
• The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
• The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.
• The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.

16. When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from Router C, which devices will be
displayed in the output?
• D, SWH-2
• A, B, D
• SWH-1, SWH-2
• B, D
• SWH-1, A, B
• A, B, D, SWH-1, SWH-2

17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to determine why router JAX has no
OSPF routes in its routing table. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0. From the JAX router,
the administrator is able to ping its connected interfaces and the Fa0/1 interface of the ORL router
but no other router interfaces. What is a logical step that the network administrator should take to
troubleshoot the problem?
• Reboot the routers.
• Change the OSPF process ID on all of the routers to 0.
• Check to see if the cable is loose between ORL and JAX.
• Check to see if CDP packets are passing between the routers.
• Use show and debug commands to determine if hellos are propagating.

18. Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from
flash?
• Perform the POST routine.
• Search for a backup IOS in ROM.
• Load the bootstrap program from ROM.
• Load the running-config file from RAM.
• Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.

19. Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three
networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the
networks on Router1?
• 172.16.0.0/8
• 172.16.0.0/10
• 172.16.0.0/13
• 172.16.0.0/20
• 172.16.0.0/24

20. The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the
problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the
topology?
• The address assigned to the Ethernet0 interface of Router1 is a broadcast address for that
subnetwork.
• The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the
subnetwork
assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.
• The subnetwork assigned to the Serial0 interface of Router1 is on a different subnetwork from the
address for
Serial0 of Router2.
• The subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to
Ethernet0 of Router3.

21. Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address
of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. • The PC is not communicating with the
network properly. What is the cause?
• The address is in the wrong subnet.
• 192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet.
• The default gateway is incorrect.
• The host address and default gateway are swapped.

22. Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol. Network 10.0.0.0 goes
down. Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event?
• Router4 will learn about the failed route 30 seconds later in the next periodic update.
• Split horizon will prevent Router4 from forwarding packets to the 10.0.0.0 network until the
holddown timer expires.
• Router5 immediately flushes the unreachable route from its routing table.
• Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0.
23. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose
three.)
• The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160.
• Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0.
• The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
• Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
• Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route.
• No default route has been configured.

24. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router
R1?
• 198.18.0.0/16
• 198.18.48.0/21
• 198.18.32.0/22
• 198.18.48.0/23
• 198.18.49.0/23
• 198.18.52.0/22

25. What is the purpose of the TTL field within an IP packet header?
• clears an unreachable route from the routing table after the invalid timer expires
• prevents regular update messages from inappropriately reinstating a route that may have gone bad
• removes an unreachable route from the routing table after the flush timer expires
• limits the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it
should be
discarded
• used to mark the route as unreachable in a routing update that is sent to other routers

26. Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to
configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.)
• Paris(config)# router eigrp 100
• Paris(config)# router eigrp
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.6.0
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.9.0

27. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network?
• It reduces the update timer to 15 seconds if there are more then 10 routes.
• It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic
updates.
• It uses random pings to detect if a pathway is down and therefore is preemptive on finding
networks that
are down.
• It uses multicast instead of broadcast to send routing updates.

28. Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true based on the output shown? (Choose two.)
• the reported distance to network 172.16.1.0 is 2172416
• 192.168.10.5 and 192.168.10.9 are feasible successors
• neighbors 192.168.10.9 and 192.168.10.5 have auto summary disabled
• router 3 is load balancing traffic to the 172.16.3.0 network across its serial interfaces
• all interfaces shown on Router3 are in the passive state and will not send EIGRP advertisements
29. Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol. If network 10.0.0.0 goes
down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false routing information back to
Router2?
• triggered updates
• poison reverse
• holddown timers
• split horizon

30. What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet?

• used to confirm receipt of certain types of OSPF packets
• used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers
• used to request more information about any entry in the BDR
• used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests

31. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What
statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the
192.168.200.0/24 network?
• The router chooses the first path that it learned and installs only that route in the routing table.
• The router chooses the path with the lowest administrative distance and installs only that route in
the routing table.
• The router chooses the highest routing ID based on the advertised network IP addresses and
installs only that
route in the routing table.
• The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table but sends packets out only one,
holding the others
in reserve in case the primary route goes down.
• The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load
balancing to send
packets out multiple exit interfaces.

32. Refer to the exhibit. A packet enters Router1 with a destination IP of 172.16.28.121. Which
routing table entry will be used to forward this packet to the destination address?
• 172.16.0.0/16 [1/0] via 192.168.0.1
• 172.16.0.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.9
• 172.16.16.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.17
• 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1

33. Refer to the exhibit. Routers 1 and 2 are directly connected over a serial link. Pings are failing
between the two routers. What change by the administrator will correct the problem?
• Set the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
• Decrease the bandwidth on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 1544.
• Change the cable that connects the routers to a crossover cable.
• Change the IP address on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 192.168.0.1/30.

34. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
• DRAM - loads the bootstrap
• RAM - stores the operating system
• Flash - executes diagnostics at bootup
• NVRAM - stores the configuration file
• ROM - stores the backup configuration file
• POST - runs diagnostics on hardware modules
35. The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0
172.16.2.2 command.
How will this route appear in the routing table?
• C 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
• S 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
• C 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
• S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2

36. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are both level 1 and qualify for use as an ultimate route?
•1
•2
•3
•4
•5
•6

37. Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational.
If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the
show ip route command output for router A?
• All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table.
• Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing
table.
• The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured.
• A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the
networks.

38. Which three statements about routing protocols are true? (Choose three.)
• OSPF elects designated routers on multiaccess links.
• RIP does not support classless routing.
• EIGRP supports unequal cost load balancing.
• EIGRP uses broadcast traffic to establish adjacencies with its neighbors.
• RIP does not advertise a route beyond a hop count of 15.
• OSPF can convergence more quickly because it can find a feasible successor in its topology table
when a successor route goes down.

39. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1?
• The Dijkstra algorithm will calculate the feasible successor.
• DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0.
• Neighbor 172.16.3.2 will be promoted to the feasible successor.
• Traffic destined to the 192.168.1.0 network will be dropped immediately due to lack of a feasible
successor.

40. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?
• Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps.
• The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boudaries and should be summarized.
• The static route will not work correctly.
• *Packets routed to the R2 ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.

41. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of
the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
• A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
• B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64
• A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32
• B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
A(config)# no router rip

42. Which of the following could describe the devices labeled "?" in the graphic? (Choose three.)
• DCE
• CSU/DSU
• LAN switch
• modem
• hub

43. Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process
configuration? Choose three.)
• network address
• loopback address
• autonomous system number
• subnet mask
• wildcard mask
• area ID

44. The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a default
route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed. However,
when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.198.5,
it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this result?
• The ip classless command is not enabled on the Richmond router.
• The route was ignored if the Richmond router did not include the 172.29.198.0/24 network in its
routing updates.
• The Richmond router is in a different autonomous system than the Suffolk router.
• The ip subnet-zero command was not configured on the Suffolk router.
• The ip classless command is not enabled on the Suffolk router.

45. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of
various router
commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
• The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route.
• The missing information for Blank 1 is the command debug ip route.
• The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 100.
• The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120.
• The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter R.
• The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C.

46. Refer to exhibit. A company network engineer enters the following commands in the routers:
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
When the engineer enters the show ip route command on R1, the routing table does not display the
static route
to the 10.1.1.0 network. All R1 and R2 interfaces are correctly addressed per the graphic. What is a
logical next
step that the engineer could take in order to make the static route display in the routing table in R1?
• Enter default routes in R1 and R2.
• Enable the R1 and R2 serial interfaces.
• Configure the static route to use an exit interface instead of a next-hop address.
• Enter the copy run start command to force the router to recognize the configuration.

47. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the
tracert command from host A to host B. Given the exhibited output on host A, what are two
possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two.)
• Router1 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
• Router1 is missing a route to the 192.168.1.0 network
• Router2 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
• Router2 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
• Router3 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
• Router3 is missing a route to the 192.168.0.0 network

48. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor
adjacency?Choose two.)
• The routers must elect a designated router.
• The routers must agree on the network type.
• The routers must use the same dead interval.
• The routers must exchange link state requests.
• The routers must exchange database description packets.

49. Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value
192?
• It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates the number of hops in the
network.
• It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
• It is the metric, which is cost.
• It is the administrative distance.

50. Refer to the exhibit. The results of the show ip route command are displayed in the graphic for
Router R2. Which route will be selected for a packet with a destination address of 10.1.4.1?
• static route to 10.1.0.0/22
• RIP route to 10.1.0.0/23
• RIP route to 10.1.0.0/24
• 0.0.0.0/0 via 192.168.0.1

51. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a
recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
• 10.0.0.0/8
• 64.100.0.0/16
• 128.107.0.0/16
• 172.16.40.0/24
• 192.168.1.0/24
• 192.168.2.0/24
52. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
• packet switching
• microsegmentation
• domain name resolution
• path selection
• flow control

53. What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.)

• tests Layer 2 connectivity
• provides a layer of security
• operates a OSI layers 2 and 3
• enabled by default on each interface
• used for debugging Layer 4 connectivity issues
• provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled

54Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are running RIPv2 and EIGRP with default
routing protocol settings and have interfaces configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the
exhibit. Which protocol will be used and how will traffic between the Router1 LAN and Router5
LAN be routed through the network?
• RIPv2 will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.
• EIGRP will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.
• RIPv2 traffic will use the path Router1, Router2, Router5 because it has the least hops.
• EIGRP traffic will use the path Router1, Router3, Router4, Router5 because it has the best metric.

55. Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.)
• As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table.
• If the feasible successor has a higher advertised cost than the current successor route, then it
becomes the primary route.
• If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology.
• The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor.
• EIGRP maintains full knowledge of the network topology in the topology table and exchanges full
routing information with neighboring routers in every update.
• EIGRP builds one routing table that contains routes for all configured routed protocols.

56. Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the
establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three.)
• OSPF interval timers mismatch
• gateway of last resort not redistributed
• interface network type mismatch
• no loopback interface configured
• administrative distance mismatch
• inconsistent authentication configuration

57. What is the first step OSPF and IS-IS routers take in building a shortest path first database?
• learn about directly connected networks
• send hello to discover neighbors and form adjacencies
• choose successors and feasible successors to populate the topology table
• flood LSPs to all neighbors informing them of all known networks and their link states
1. Refer to the exhibit. The output of the show ip route command for three routers on a
network is displayed. All routers are operational, pings are not blocked on this network, and
no default routes are installed. Which two pings will fail? (Choose two.)
• from R1 to 172.16.1.1
• from R1 to 192.168.3.1
• from R2 to 192.168.1.1
• from R2 to 192.168.3.1
• from R3 to 192.168.1.1

2. A router that uses the RIP routing protocol has an entry for a network in the routing table.
It then receives an update with another entry for the same destination network but with a
lower hop count. What action will the router take for this new update?
• It will append the update information to the routing table.
• It will invalidate the entry for that network in the routing table.
• It will replace the existing routing table entry with the new information.
• It will ignore the new update.

3. Which two statements are true for OSPF Hello packets? (Choose two.)
• They negotiate correct parameters among neighboring interfaces.
• They are used for dynamic neighbor discovery.
• They use timers to elect the designated router with the fastest link.
• They are received from all routers on the network and used to determine the complete
network topology.
• They are used to maintain neighbor relationships.

4. A network administrator needs to configure a single router to load-balance the traffic over
unequal cost paths. Which routing protocol should the administrator use?
• EIGRP
• OSPF
• RIPv1
• RIPv2

5. Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of
routing loop prevention? (Choose two.)
• It is enabled by default on all Cisco IOS implementations.
• It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route.
• It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received.
• It instructs routers to hold all changes that might affect routes, for a specified period of
time.
• It limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is
discarded.

6. Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run on one of the devices as
shown. Based on this information, which two facts can be determined? (Choose two.)
• The command was run on the router.
• ABCD is a non-CISCO device.
• Layer 3 connectivity between two devices exists.
• ABCD supports routing capability.
• ABCD is connected to the Fa0/0 interface of the neighboring device.

7. Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2 and R3. The routes
of all three routers are displayed. What can be verified from the output?
• R1 and R3 are connected to each other via the S0/0/0 interface.
• The IP address of the S0/0/0 interface of R1 is 10.1.1.2.
• The IP address of the S0/0/1 interface of R2 is 10.3.3.2.
• R2 is connected to the S0/0/1 interface of R3.

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1?
(Choose three.)
• The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160.
• Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0.
• The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default
value.
• Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
• Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route.
• No default route has been configured.

9. Refer to the exhibit. All the routers are properly configured to use the RIP routing
protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Router A is forwarding
data to router E. Which statement is true about the routing path?
• Router A will send the data via the A-D-E path that is listed in the routing table.
• Router A will load-balance the traffic between A-B-E and A-C-E.
• Router A will determine that all paths have equal metric cost.
• Router A will send the data through A-D-E and keep A-B-E and A-C-E as the backup
paths.

10. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has run the following command on R1.
R1# ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.2What is the result of running this
command?
• Traffic for network 192.168.2.0 is forwarded to 172.16.1.2.
• This route is automatically propagated throughout the entire network.
• Traffic for all networks is forwarded to 172.16.1.2.
• The command invokes a dynamic routing protocol for 192.168.2.0.

11. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is planning IP addressing of a new
network. What part of this addressing scheme must be changed to allow communication
between host A and the server?
• the IP address of the server
• the default gateway of host A
• the IP address of host A
• the default gateway of the server

12. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OSPF using the following
command:
network 192.168.1.32 0.0.0.31 area 0
Which router interface will participate in OSPF?
• FastEthernet 0/0
• FastEthernet 0/1
• Serial 0/0/0
• Serial 0/0/1

13. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured to run RIPv1 and are fully converged.
Which routing updates will be received by R3?
• updates for 192.168.1.0/24 and 192.168.2.0/24
• updates for 172.16.2.0/24 and 172.16.3.0/24
• updates for 172.16.1.0/24, 172.16.2.0/24 and 172.16.3.0/24
• updates for 172.16.0.0/16

14. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIP protocol. Devices on the 192.168.1.1
network can ping the S0/0/0 interface on R2 but cannot ping devices on the 192.168.2.1
network. What is a possible cause of this problem?
• The routers are configured with different versions of RIP.
• R2 is not forwarding the routing updates.
• The R1 configuration should include the no auto-summary command.
• The maximum path number has been exceeded.

15. When a router boots, what is the default order to locate the Cisco IOS if there is no boot
system command?
• ROM, TFTP server, flash
• flash, TFTP server, RAM
• flash, NVRAM, TFTP server
• ROM, flash, TFTP server

16. Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28?

• Router1
• Router2
• Router3
• Router4

17. Which mechanism helps to avoid routing loops by advertising a metric of infinity?
• route poisoning
• split horizon
• hold-down timer
• triggered updates

18. Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 120?
• It is the metric that is calculated by the routing protocol.
• It is the value that is used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
• It is the administrative distance of the routing protocol.
• It is the hold-down time, measured in seconds, before the next update.

19. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator successfully pings R1 from R3. Next, the
administrator runs the show cdp neighbors command on R3. The output of this command is
displayed.What are two reasons for the absence of R1 in the output? (Choose two.)
• There is a Layer 2 connectivity problem between R1 and R3.
• The Fa0/0 interface of R1 is configured with an incorrect IP address.
• The no cdp run command has been run at R1.
• The no cdp enable command has been run at Fa0/1 interface of R3.R1 is powered off.

20. Refer to the exhibit. A device is required to complete the connection between router R1
and the WAN. Which two devices can be used for this? (Choose two.)
• a CSU/DSU device
• a modem
• an Ethernet switch
• a hub
• a bridge

21. In a complex lab test environment, a router has discovered four paths to 192.168.1.0/24
via the use of the RIP routing process. Which route will be installed in the routing table after
the discovery of all four paths?
• R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.110.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/1/0
• R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/0/0
• R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.100.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/0/1
• R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/4] via 192.168.101.1, 00:00:17, Serial 0/1/1

22. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator accesses router R1 from the console port to
configure a newly connected interface. What passwords will the network administrator need
to enter to make the connection and the necessary configuration changes?
• the Cisco123 password only
• the Cisco789 password only
• the Cisco001 password only
• the Cisco001 password and the Cisco789 passwords
• the Cisco001 password and the Cisco123 passwords

23. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator adds this command to router R1: ip route
192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 S0/0/0. What is the result of adding this command?
• This route is automatically propagated throughout the network.
• The traffic for network 172.16.1.0 is forwarded to network 192.168.2.0.
• A static route is established.
• The traffic for all Class C networks is forwarded to 172.16.1.2.

24. Refer to the exhibit. The router receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.5.79. How
will the router handle this packet?
• It will forward the packet via the Serial0/0/1 interface.
• It will forward the packet via the FastEthernet0/0 interface.
• It will forward the packet via the Serial0/0/0 interface.
• It will drop the packet.

25. Which two statements are true about classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• They can be used for discontiguous subnets.
• They can forward supernet routes in routing updates.
• They cannot implement classful routes in routing tables.
• They use only a hop count metric.
• They do not include the subnet mask in routing updates.

26. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are child routes?
•1
•3
•4
•6

27. A router has EIGRP configured as the only routing protocol. In what two ways does
EIGRP respond if there is no feasible successor route to a destination network and the
successor route fails? (Choose two.)
• It broadcasts hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor
adjacencies.
• It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until a new successor route is found.
• It immediately sends its entire routing table to its neighbors.
• It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until the lost route is unknown to the neighbors.
• It automatically forwards traffic to a fallback default route until a successor route is found.

28. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to
perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
• 10.0.0.0/8
• 64.100.0.0/16
• 128.107.0.0/16
• 172.16.40.0/24
• 192.168.1.0/24
• 192.168.2.0/24

29. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output?
(Choose two.)
• The administrative distance of EIGRP has been set to 50.
• All routes are stable.
• The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1.
• The serial interface between the two routers is down.
• Each route has one feasible successor.

30. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are properly configured with default configurations and
are running the OSPF routing protocol. The network is fully converged. A host on the
192.168.3.0/24 network is communicating with a host on the 192.168.2.0/24 network.
Which path will be used to transmit the data?
• The data will be transmitted via R3-R2.
• The data will be transmitted via R3-R1-R2.
• The traffic will be load-balanced between two paths — one via R3-R2, and the other via
R3-R1-R2.
• The data will be transmitted via R3-R2, and the other path via R3-R1-R2 will be retained
as the backup path.

31. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram.
Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
• A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
• B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64
• A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32
• B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
• A(config)# no router rip

32. Refer to the exhibit. The hosts on the R1 LAN are unable to access the Internet. What is
incorrectly configured?
• the IP address of the Fa 0/0 interface at R1
• the IP address of the S 0/0/1 interface at R2
• the IP address of the S 0/0/0 interface at R1
• the subnet mask of the S 0/0/1 interface at R2

33. Refer to the exhibit. A ping from R1 to 10.1.1.2 is successful, but a ping from R1 to
192.168.2.0 fails. What is the cause of this problem?
• There is no gateway of last resort at R1.
• The serial interface between the two routers is down.
• A default route is not configured on R1.
• The static route for 192.168.2.0 is incorrectly configured.

34. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has run the show ip protocol command
on R1. What can be determined from the exhibited output?
• The router is using RIPv2.
• The router is not forwarding routing updates.
• The router is receiving updates for both versions of RIP.
• The FastEthernet0/0 interface is down.

35. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured to use the EIGRP routing protocol with
default settings, all routes are advertised on all routers, and the network is fully converged.
Which path will the data take to travel between 172.16.1.0/24 and 192.168.100.0/24?
• It will travel via A, B, and C.
• It will travel via A, F, E, D, and C.
• It will travel via A, G, H, and C.
• The traffic will be load-balanced on all paths.

36. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0. The network
administrator requires that R2 always be the DR and maintain adjacency.Which two
configurations can achieve this? (Choose two.)
• Change the OSPF area of R2 to a higher value.
• Change the router ID for R2 by assigning the IP address 172.16.30.5/24 to the Fa0/0
interface.
• Change the priority values of the Fa0/0 interfaces of R1 and R3 to 0.
• Configure a loopback interface on R2, with an IP address higher than any IPaddress on the
other routers.
• Configure R1 and R3 with an IP address whose value is higher than that of R2.

37. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Internet, and troubleshooting has
revealed that this is due to an addressing problem. What is incorrectly configured in this
network?
• the IP address of the Fa 0/0 interface of R1
• the subnet mask of the S 0/0/0 interface of R1
• the IP address of the S 0/0/0 interface of R1
• the subnet mask of the S0/0/0 interface of R2

38. Refer to the exhibit. All routes are advertised and fully operational on all routers. Which
statement is true about the path that the data will take from router A to router B?
• If EIGRP is used with default configurations, the data will be equally distributed between
two paths — A, D, B and A, C, D.
• If RIPv1 is used with default configurations, the data will be load-balanced on all paths.
• If EIGRP and OSPF are both used with default configurations, the data will be sent
through paths learned by the OSPF protocol.
• If RIPv2 is used with default configurations, the data will be equally distributed between
two paths — A, D, B and A, C, D.

39. Refer to the exhibit. The interfaces of all routers are configured for OSPF area 0. R3 can
ping R1, but the two routers are unable to establish a neighbor adjacency. What should the
network administrator do to troubleshoot this problem?
• Check if the interfaces of the routers are enabled.
• Check the hello and dead intervals between the routers.
• Check the process ID of both routers.
• Check if CDP is enabled on all the routers.

40. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the highlighted output?
• R1 is originating the route 172.30.200.32/28.
• Automatic summarization is disabled.
• The 172.30.200.16/28 network is one hop away from R1.
• A classful routing protocol is being used.

41. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
• DRAM -loads the bootstrap
• RAM -stores the operating system
• Flash -executes diagnostics at bootup
• NVRAM -stores the configuration file
• ROM -stores the backup configuration file
• POST -runs diagnostics on hardware modules

42. Which routing protocol by default uses bandwidth and delay to calculate the metric of a
route?
• RIPv1
• RIPv2
• OSPF
• EIGRP

43. Two routers need to be configured within a single OSPF area. Which two components
need to be configured on both routers to achieve this? (Choose two.)
• the same process ID
• the same area ID
• network addresses and wildcard masks
• the same router ID
• the same loop back address

44. Refer to the exhibit. The networks that are connected to R1 have been summarized for
R2 as 192.168.136.0/21. Which packet destination address will R2 forward to R1?
• 192.168.135.1
• 192.168.142.1
• 192.168.144.1
• 192.168.128.1

45. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is running RIP with default parameters. R1 has learned four
different paths with the same metrics to network 192.168.6.0. Which path or paths will R1
use to forward a packet that is destined to 192.168.6.10?
• the first path that the router learned.
• only the first two of the four paths that the router learned.
• the last path that the router learned.
• all four paths.

46. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)

• It connects multiple IP networks.
• It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
• It determines the best path to send packets.
• It manages the VLAN database.
• It increases the size of the broadcast domain.

47. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the routing process for this network?
• A packet leaves interface Fa0/0 of R1 with the source MAC address as 000C.3010.9260.
• The packet leaves interface Fa0/0 of R1 with the source MAC address as 000C.3010.9260.

• The no shutdown command needs to run on the Fa0/0 interface of R1.

• The Fa0/0 interface of R2 could be configured with the IP address 172.16.4.1/24.

48. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has run the show interface command. The
output of this command is displayed. What is the first step that is required to make this
interface operational?
• Switch the cable with a known working cable.
• Issue the no shutdown command on the interface.
• Configure the interface as a loopback interface.
• Set the encapsulation for the interface.

49. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured properly for a single area OSPF, and R2 has been
recently installed in the network. Which set of commands is required to configure a single
area OSPF for the networks that are connected to R2?
• R2(config)# router ospf 1
R2(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R2(config-router)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
• R2(config)# router ospf 1
R2(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R2(config)# router ospf 2
R2(config-router)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
• R2(config)# router ospf 1
R2(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R2(config-router)# network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 1
• R2(config)# router ospf 1
R2(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
R2(config-router)# network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 1

50. Refer to the exhibit. The command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0 is run on router R2.
What are the two results of this command? (Choose two.)
• A static route will be updated in the routing table.
• The traffic from the Internet will be directed to R2.
• The traffic from the source network 172.16.0.0/22 will be blocked.
• The route will be specified as the default route for all networks not defined in the routing
table.
• All the broadcasts will be forwarded via the S0/0/0 interface of R2.

51. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of
packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
• The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
• The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.
• The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
• The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.

• The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.

• The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.

52. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a
neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
• The routers must elect a designated router.
• The routers must agree on the network type.
• The routers must use the same dead interval.
• The routers must exchange link state requests.
• The routers must exchange database description packets.

53. Refer to the exhibit. Although both the routers can ping the serial interface of their
neighbors, they are unable to ping the Ethernet interfaces of other routers. Which two
statements are true for this network? (Choose two.)
• The administrative distance has been set to 50 on both routers.
• R2 is learning about network 192.168.1.0.
• R1 is learning about network 192.168.2.0.
• The network 10.1.1.0 command has not been run on both routers.
• Autosummarization is enabled on both routers.

54. Which two situations require the use of a link-state protocol? (Choose two.)
• Fast convergence of the network is critical.
• The network is very large.
• The network administrator has limited knowledge to configure and troubleshoot routing
protocols.The network is a flat network.
• The capacity of the router is low.

55. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the displayed output?
• EIGRP packets are waiting to be sent to the neighbors.
• The adjacencies between the routers are yet to be established.
• The IP address 192.168.10.10 is configured at serial interface S0/0/1 of router R2.
• Router R2 is receiving hello packets from a neighbor with the IP address 192.168.10.10
via the R2 S0/0/1 interface.

56. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is unable to access the Internet. What is the cause of the
problem?
• An incorrect IP address is configured between the two routers.
• No static route is configured on Router2.
• A routing loop has occurred.
• No routing protocol is configured on either of the two routers.
 57. Refer to the exhibit. What summarization should R2 use to advertise its LAN networks
to R1?
• 172.16.0.0/24
• 172.16.4.0/22
• 172.16.4.0/23
• 172.16.4.0/24

1. What three processes does a router execute when it receives a packet from one network that
is destined for another network? (Choose three.)
ans:
decapsulates the Layer 3 packet by stripping off the Layer 2 frame header
uses the destination IP Address in the IP header to look up the next-hop address in the
routing table
encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into the new Layer 2 frame and forwards it out the exit
interface

2. Which interfaces in the exhibit could be used for a leased line WAN connection? (Choose
two.)
ans:
1
4

3. Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable
to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
ans:
Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.

4. Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?
ans:
load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration

5. What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?

ans:
NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE

6. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes
and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
ans:
VTY interface
console interface
privileged EXEC mode

7. Which are functions of a router? (Choose three.)

ans:
packet switching
segmentation of broadcast domains
selection of best path based on logical addressing

8. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet
interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)
ans:
destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234

9. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the running-configuration
of a router?
ans:
The commands that are displayed determine the current operation of the router.

10. From what location can a router load the Cisco IOS during the boot process? (Choose
two.)
ans:
TFTP server
Flash memory

11. Which two statements describe characteristics of load balancing? (Choose two.)
ans:
Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same
destination network.
Unequal cost load balancing is supported by EIGRP.

12. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output in the exhibit?
(Choose two.)
ans:
The FastEthernet0/0 and Serial0/0/0 interfaces of this router were configured with an IP
address and the no shutdown command.
An IP packet received by this router with a destination address of 198.18.9.1 will be
forwarded out of the Serial0/0/0 interface.

13. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration
commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne
site? (Choose three.)
ans:
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000

14. What is the outcome of entering these commands?

R1(config)# line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)# password check123
R1(config-line)# login
ans:
sets the password to be used for connecting to this router via Telnet

15. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have a route in its routing table to each network that is
shown in the exhibit. Default routes have not been issued on these routers. What can be
concluded about how packets are forwarded in this network? (Choose two.)
ans:
If RouterA receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.3.146, it will be forwarded out
interface S0/0/1.
If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 10.5.27.15, it will be forwarded out
interface S0/0/1.
 16. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the router with the
interface IP addresses shown for the directly connected networks. Pings from the router to
hosts on the connected networks or pings between router interfaces are not working. What is
the most likely problem?
ans:
The interfaces must be enabled with the no shutdown command.

17. A network administrator has just entered new configurations into Router1. Which
command should be executed to save configuration changes to NVRAM?
ans:
Router1# copy running-config startup-config

18. If a router cannot find a valid configuration file during the startup sequence, what will
occur?
ans:
The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode.

19. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives
from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?
ans:
the Layer 2 source and destination address

20. The network administrator needs to connect two routers directly via their FastEthernet
ports. What cable should the network administrator use?
ans:
cross-over

21. Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router? (Choose two.)
ans:
ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.
Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.

1. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output in the exhibit, how would a clock rate be determined
for this link?
ans:
The rate configured on the DCE determines the clock rate

2. Which piece of information is available from examining the output of the command show
ip interface brief?
ans:
Interface IP address

3. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands will configure static routes that will allow
the WinterPark and the Altamonte routers to deliver packets from each LAN and direct all
other traffic to the Internet?
ans:
WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1
Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1

4. The output of the Router# show interfaces serial 0/1 command displays the following:

Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down.

What is the most likely cause for the line protocol being down?
ans:
No clock rate has been set

5. Which two statements describe functions or characteristics of CDP? (Choose two.)

ans:
It starts up automatically and allows the device to detect directly connected neighbor devices
that use CDP
It allows systems to learn about each other even if different network layer protocols are
configured.

6. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not
available?
ans:
The route is removed from the table.

7. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not
available?
ans:
The route is removed from the table

8. The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient
route summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the
cloud?
ans:
192.1.1.0/25

9.Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the /8 in the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
ans:
It indicates the number of consecutive bits, from the left, in the destination IP address of a
packet that must match 10.0.0.0 to use that route

10. A router has one static route configured to each destination network. Which two
scenarios would require an administrator to alter the static routes that are configured on that
router? (Choose two.)
ans:
The destination network no longer exists.
A topology change occurs where the existing next-hop address or exit interface is not
accessible.

11. Refer to the exhibit. A company network engineer is assigned to establish connectivity
between the two Ethernet networks so that hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet can contact hosts
on the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet. The engineer has been told to use only static routing for these
company routers. Which set of commands will establish connectivity between the two
Ethernet networks?
ans:
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1

12. What two devices are responsible for converting the data from the WAN service
provider into a form acceptable by the router? (Choose two).
ans: a modem
a CSU/DSU device

13.Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?
ans:
By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.

14. Refer to the exhibit. How will packets destined to the 172.16.0.0 network be forwarded?
ans:
Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/0.

15. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the
10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)
ans:
A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

16. A static route that points to the next hop IP will have what administrative distance and
metric in the routing table?
ans:
administrative distance of 1 and metric of 0

17. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects
a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help
troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
ans:
ping
traceroute
show ip route

18. Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command?
(Choose three.)
ans:
platform
holdtime
local interface

19. A network administrator enters the following command into Router1: ip route
192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/1/0. Router1 then receives a packet that is destined for
192.168.0.22/24. After finding the recently configured static route in the routing table, what
does Router1 do next to process the packet?
ans:
encapsulates the packet into a frame for the WAN link and forwards the packet out the
S0/1/0 interface
 20. Refer to the exhibit. Which static route should be configured on Router1 so that host A
will be able to reach host B on the 172.16.0.0 network?
ans:
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0

21. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands are required to provide connectivity between
the 192.168.1.0 and 10.0.0.0 networks without requiring recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
ans:
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/1/0
B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/0/0

22. Which address can be used to summarize networks 172.16.0.0/24 thru 172.16.7.0/24?
ans:
172.16.0.0/21

23. Why is it advisable to enter a next-hop IP address when creating a static route whose exit
interface is an Ethernet network?
ans:
In a multi-access network, the router cannot determine the next-hop MAC address for the
Ethernet frame without a next-hop address.

1) Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how R1 will determine the best
path to R2?
ans:
R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the
administrative distance of EIGRP is lower than RIP.

2) Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
ans:
sends subnet mask information in routing updates
allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology

3) Which command would the network administrator issue to determine if load balancing is
in effect on a router?
ans:
show ip route

4) Which statement is true regarding routing protocols?

ans:
EIGRP uses DUAL to calculate the shortest path and can be configured to do unequal cost
load balancing.

5) An engineer creates a static route by entering the Router(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0

255.255.255.0 192.168.1.2 command. What can be concluded about this route?
ans:
The administrative distance of this route is 1.

6) Which two conditions would create a setting where the use of a distance-vector routing
protocol would be efficient? (Choose two.)
ans:
the network is using a hub and spoke topology
the network is using a flat design

7) Refer to the exhibit. If RIP is the routing protocol, what is the value of the metric from
router A to network 192.168.5.0/24?
ans:
3

8) What is the purpose of a routing protocol?

ans:
It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.

9) Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and
metric? (Choose two.)
ans:
Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.
Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.

10)Which of the following best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
ans:
They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.

11) Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?

ans:
shortest-path first calculations

12) The following line of code is displayed in a routing table:

R 209.165.201.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.252.2, 00:00:16, S0/0/0
What can be concluded from this output?
ans:
The value, 120, is used to determine the best path when a router has more than one routing
protocol configured for the same destination network.

13) Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
ans:
Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.

14) Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged
ans:
The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.

15) Which two statements are true regarding the advantages of the use of static routes?
(Choose two).

increased security
the administrator maintains control over routing

16) Which two statements are true regarding metrics? (Choose two.)
ans:
EIGRP uses bandwidth as a metric.
 OSPF uses cost based on bandwidth as a metric.

17) What will be the result of the following commands?

ORL(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
ORL(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.1 255.255.255.0
ORL(config-if)# no shutdown
ans:
A routing table entry is made to the 172.16.3.0 network with a code of "C".

18) Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running EIGRP. All interfaces are
operational and packets can be forwarded between all networks. What information will be
found in the routing table for Router1?
ans:
The administrative distance of the route to network 172.16.0.0 will be 90.

19) A growing medium-sized manufacturing company recently began to have routing

instability issues. The company uses static routes and has a mixture of over 30 Cisco and
non-Cisco routers. The network administrator has decided to convert the network to
dynamic routing. What characteristics of protocols should be considered in this selection
process?
ans:
OSPF can be used between the routers.

20) A router learns two paths with equal metrics to a destination network via the RIP routing
protocol. How will the router handle packets to the destination network?
ans:
The router will install both routes in the routing table and load balance between the two.

21) The following line of code is present in the routing table:

O 10.16.1.0/27 [110/129] via 192.168.1.5, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/1
What does the number 129 indicate in this output?
ans:
The cost for this link has a value of 129.

22) When multiple routing protocols have a route to the same destination network, what
determines which route is installed in the routing table?
ans:
lowest administrative distance

1. What does the RIP holddown timer do?

ans:
instructs routers to ignore updates, for a specified time or event, about possible inaccessible
routes

2. What metric does the RIP routing protocol consider to be infinity?

ans:
16

3. What is a routing loop?

ans:
a condition where a packet is constantly transmitted within a series of routers without ever
reaching its intended destination

4. Which two statements are true regarding the function of the RIPv1 routing updates?
(Choose two).
ans:
updates are broadcast at regular intervals
broadcasts are sent to 255.255.255.255

5. Which of the following can exist in a distance vector network that has not converged?
(Choose three.)
ans:
routing loops
inconsistent traffic forwarding
inconsistent routing table entries

6. Refer to the exhibit. What path will packets from the 192.168.1.0/24 network travel to
reach the 10.0.0.0/8 network if RIP is the active routing protocol?
ans:
The path will be router A -> router D -> router E.

7. What is the purpose of the TTL field in the IP header?

ans:
limits the time or hops that a packet can traverse through the network before it should be
discarded

8. Which two conditions are most likely to cause a routing loop? (Choose two.)
ans:
inconsistent routing tables
incorrectly configured static routes

9. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are using RIP, how many rounds of updates will occur
before all routers know all networks?
ans:
3

10. The graphic shows a network that is configured to use RIP routing protocol. Router2
detects that the link to Router1 has gone down. It then advertises the network for this link
with a hop count metric of 16. Which routing loop prevention mechanism is in effect?
ans:
route poisoning

11. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in this network are running RIP. Router A has not
received an update from Router B in over three minutes. How will Router A respond?
ans:
The Invalid timer will mark the route as unusable if an update has not been received in 180
seconds.

12. What actions will occur after RouterA loses connectivity to network 114.125.16.0?
(Choose two.)
ans:
RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterA.
Router C will learn of the loss of connectivity to network 114.125.16.0 from RouterB.

13. Three routers running a distance-vector routing protocol lost all power, including the
battery backups. When the routers reload, what will happen?
ans:
They will send updates that include only directly connected routes to their directly
connected neighbors.

14. Which statement is true regarding cisco’s RIP_JITTER variable?

ans:
It prevents the synchronization of routing updates by subtracting a random length of time
ranging from 0% to 15% of the specified interval time from the next routing update interval.

15. Which of the following methods does split horizon use to reduce incorrect routing
information?
ans:
Information learned from one source is not distributed back to that source.

16. A network administrator is evaluating RIP versus EIGRP for a new network. The
network will be sensitive to congestion and must respond quickly to topology changes.
What are two good reasons to choose EIGRP instead of RIP in this case? (Choose two.)
ans:
EIGRP only updates affected neighbors.
EIGRP updates are partial.

17. Which two statements describe EIGRP? (Choose two.)

ans:
EIGRP sends triggered updates whenever there is a change in topology that influences the
routing information.
EIGRP sends a partial routing table update, which includes just routes that have been
changed.

18. Which three routing protocols are distance vector routing protocols? (Choose three).
ans:
RIPv1
EIGRP
RIPv2

19. Which of the following statements are correct about RIP?

ans:
will send out an update if there is a failure of a link

20. Which event will cause a triggered update?

ans:
a route is installed in the routing table
1. Refer to the exhibit. The Ethernet interface on Router2 goes down and the administrator
notices that the route is still valid in the routing table of Router1. How much longer will it
take for Router1 to mark the route invalid by setting the metric to 16?
ans:
155 seconds

2. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running the RIPv1 protocol. The network
administrator configures the command network 10.1.0.0 on Router1. What network will
Router1 advertise to Router2?
ans:
10.0.0.0/8

3. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running RIPv1. What command was entered into Router1
to configure the gateway of last resort?
ans:
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1

4. Refer to the exhibit. All routers that are shown are running the RIP routing protocol. All
unknown IP traffic must be forwarded to the ISP. What router or set of routers are
recommended to have both a default route and the default-information originate command
issued to implement this forwarding policy?
ans:
only the gateway router

5. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured with valid interface addresses in the
indicated networks and are running RIPv1. The network is converged. Which routes are
present in the routing tables?
ans:
All routers have all /30 routes. Routers B and D also have some of the /24 routes in their
routing table.

6. Refer to the exhibit. A network consists of multiple routers. What can be verified when
the show ip protocols command is issued on one of the routers in the network?
ans:
routing protocol configuration in use for IP on this router

7. Which two statements are true regarding the characteristics of RIPv1? (Choose two).
ans:
It is a distance vector routing protocol.
The data portion of a RIP message is encapsulated into a UDP segment.

8. The following line was displayed in the output of the show ip route command.
R 192.168.3.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:30, Serial0/0
What is the value of the routing metric?
ans:
3

9. Which of the following is considered a limitation of RIP v1?

ans:
RIP v1 does not send subnet mask information in its updates.
10. What are three characteristics of the RIPv1 routing protocol? (Choose three.)
ans:
uses hop count as a metric
considers a metric of 16 as infinity
calculates metrics using the Bellman Ford algorithm

11. Refer to the exhibit. The network that is shown is running RIPv1. The 192.168.10.0/24
network was recently added and will only contain end users. What command or set of
commands should be entered on Router1 to prevent RIPv1 updates from being sent to the
end user devices on the new network while still allowing this new network to be advertised
to other routers?
ans:
Router1(config-router)# passive-interface fastethernet 0/0

12. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output of router B?
ans:
The default-information originate command has been entered on A.

13. Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?

ans:
debug ip rip

14. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the exhibit are running RIP v1. The network
administrator issues the show ip route command on router A. What routes would appear in
the routing table output if the network is converged? (Choose two).
ans:
R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1]
R 10.10.1.0/24 [120/2]

15. What is the default update period in seconds for the RIP routing protocol?
ans:
30

16. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the show ip route
command?
ans:
There are two equal cost paths to network 172.16.100.128.

17. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the show ip route
command?
ans:
RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 220.17.29.0

18. What will happen if an interface IP address is entered for the address portion of the
network command in a RIPv1 configuration instead of a network address?
ans:
All interfaces in the same classful network as the configured address will be included in the
RIPv1 routing process.
 19. Which command or set of commands will stop the RIP routing process?
ans:
RouterB(config)# no router rip

1. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to create a subnet for the point-to-
point connection between the two routers. Which subnetwork mask would provide enough
addresses for the point-to-point link with the least number of wasted addresses?
ans:
255.255.255.252

2. An additional subnet is required for a new Ethernet link between Router1 and Router2 as
shown in the diagram. Which of the following subnet addresses can be configured in this
network to provide a maximum of 14 useable addresses for this link while wasting the
fewest addresses?
ans:
192.1.1.224/28

3. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is summarizing the two groups of routes on
router R1 shown in the exhibit. Which summarization will work for all the subnets?
ans:
192.168.0.0/21

4. What is a supernet?
ans:
a summarization of serveral IP classful networks into one IP address range

5. In the network shown in the graphic, three bits were borrowed from the host portion of a
Class C address. How many valid host addresses will be unused on the three point-to-point
links combined if VLSM is not used?
ans:
84

6. What does VLSM allow a network administrator to do?

ans:
utilize multiple subnet masks in the same IP address space

7. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to minimize the number of entries
in Router1’s routing table. What should the administrator implement on the network?
ans:
CIDR

8. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician enters the static route in R1 needed to reach
network 10.1.1.0/24. A ping from the S0/0/0 interface on R1 to host B fails. The technician
begins testing the network and has the following results:
1. pings from R1 to the S0/0/0 interface on R2....successful
2. pings from R1 to the Fa0/0 interface on R2....successful
3. pings from host B to hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 network....successful
4. pings from host B to the Fa0/0 interface on R2....successful
5. pings from R2 to host B....successful.
What is the likely cause of the failure of the ping from R1 to host B?
ans:
The default gateway on host B is not correctly set.

9. Which three interior routing protocols support VLSM? (Choose three.)

ans:
OSPF
RIP v2
EIGRP

10. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to create two subnetworks from
10.0.0.0/8 for a router running RIPv2. The Admin subnet requires 120 hosts and the Sales
subnet requires 58 hosts. The network administrator assigned 10.0.1.128/25 to the Admin
subnet. The Sales subnet is given 10.0.1.192/26. What will be the result of this addressing
scheme?
ans:
The subnets overlap and will be rejected by the router.

11. Which of the following are contained in the routing updates of classless routing
protocols? (Choose two.)
ans:
32-bit address
subnet mask

12. A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using
VLSM, which bit mask should be used to provide for the number of host addresses required
on Router A, while wasting the fewest addresses?
ans:
/27

13. Refer to the exhibit. The number of required host addresses for each subnet in a network
is listed in the exhibit. This number includes the host address requirements for all router
ports and hosts on that subnet. After all device and router port address assignments are
determined, what will be the total number of unused host addresses available?
ans:
29

14. What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.)
ans:
reduced routing table size
reduced routing update traffic

15. A network administrator is tasked with dividing up a class C network among the QA,
Sales, and Administration departments. The QA department is made up of 10 people, the
Sales is made up of 28 people, and the Administration has 6. Which two subnets masks
adequately address the QA and Sales departments? (Choose two.)
ans:
255.255.255.224 for Sales
255.255.255.240 for QA

16. Refer to the exhibit. In the network that is shown, the router interfaces are assigned the
first address in each subnet. Which IP address would be usable for a host on one of the
 LANs in this network?
ans:
192.168.2.130/25

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which address is a broadcast address for one of the subnets that are
shown in the exhibit?
ans:
192.168.4.15/29

18. Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will be applied by router B when it receives a
RIPv1 update for the network 172.16.1.0?
ans:
24

19. Which of the following problems does VLSM help to alleviate?

ans:
the shortage of IP addresses

20. A router has a summary route to network 192.168.32.0/20 installed in its routing table.
What range of networks are summarized by this route?
ans:
192.168.32.0 – 192.168.47.0/24

1. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP version 2, why is there no route for the
192.168.1.32/27 network?
ans:
Rip version 2 will auto summarize routes by default.

2. What are two reasons to implement RIP version 2 rather than RIP version 1? (Choose
two.)
ans:
RIP version 2 supports VLSM.
RIP version 2 supports routing update authentication.

3. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv1 is configured as the routing protocol for the network that is
shown. The following commands are used on each router:
router rip
network 10.0.0.0
network 172.16.0.0
When this configuration is complete, users on the LAN of each router are unable to access
the remote LANs. Why?
ans:
RIPv1 is unable to route to discontiguous subnets of a major network.

4. Refer to the exhibit. What effect will the commands that are shown have on RIP updates
for Router1?
ans:
Only version 2 updates are sent to 224.0.0.9.

5. Refer to the exhibit. A technician needs to add a new loopback interface to test routing
functionality and network design. The technician enters the following set of commands on
the router:
Sanford(config)# interface loopback1
Sanford(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.62 255.255.255.252
Why does the router respond with an error?
ans:
The network address for Loopback1 overlaps with an already configured interface address.

6. What is the maximum network diameter permitted by the default metric of RIPv2?
ans:
15 hops

7. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIP version 2. JAX is configured to just
advertise the 10.0.0.0/24 network. CHI is configured to advertise the 172.16.0.0/16 network.
A network administrator enters the commands shown in the exhibit. What changes will
occur in this network?
ans:
The CHI router will install a route to the 192.168.0.0/16 network in its routing table.

8. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output shown in the exhibit?
ans:
The no auto-summary has not been configured on this router.

9. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. What changes will occur in the
routing table of router B if a loopback interface with an address of 10.16.1.129/27 is
configured on router B?
ans:
A connected route to the 10.16.1.128/27 network is added.

10. How are RIP v1 and RIP v2 similar to one another? (Choose three.)
ans:
They both use hop count as a metric.
They both have the same metric value for infinite distance.
They both use split horizon to prevent routing loops.

11. RIPv2 is the configured routing protocol on the routers in a network. The command
Router(config-router)# no version 2 is entered on the routers. What effect does entering this
command have on routing updates?
ans:
Version 1 and 2 updates will be received and the version 2 updates will not be sent.

12. A network administrator installed four new routers that are running RIPv2. Router1 is a
boundary router in the RIPv2 network and has a default route configured. Once the network
has converged, the network administrator enters Router1(config-router)# default-
information originate on Router1. How will this affect the network?
ans:
propagates the default route to all routers in the network

13. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited network contains a mixture of Cisco and non-Cisco
routers. The command debug ip rip was entered on the JAX router. All routers are running
the same version of RIP. Router CHI and Router ORL are not able to reach the
192.168.1.16/28 network. What is a possible solution to this problem?
 ans:
Configure RIPv2 on routers.

14. Refer to the exhibit. Which command on which router will allow Router1 to learn about
the 192.168.0.0/20 network?
ans:
Router2(config-router)# version 2

15. A network administrator has been told that the company IP address infrastructure must
adhere to RFC 1918. What three IP address ranges from RFC 1918 could the administrator
use on the network? (Choose three.)
ans:
10.0.0.0/8
172.16.0.0/12
192.168.0.0/16

16. Refer to the exhibit. Routers East and West are configured using RIPv1. Both routers are
sending updates about their directly connected routes. The East router can ping the West
router serial interface and West can ping the serial interface of East. However, neither router
has dynamically learned routes from the other. What is most likely the problem?
ans:
VLSM is not supported by RIPv1.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which command will allow Router2 to learn about the
192.168.16.0/28 network?
ans:
Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0

18. What field was added to the RIP message header by RFC 1723 to add support for VLSM
and CIDR?
ans:
subnet mask

19. What are two functions of the network command used when configuring routing
protocols? (Choose two.)
ans:
identifies which networks will be included in the routing updates
determines which interfaces can send and receive routing updates

1. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has discovered that packets destined for
servers on the 172.16.254.0 network are being dropped by Router2. What command should
the administrator issue to ensure that these packets are sent out the gateway of last resort,
Serial 0/0/1?
ans:
ip classless

2. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes in this output qualify for use as ultimate routes?
ans:
7

3. The following entry is displayed in the routing table:

R 192.168.8.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.4.1, 00:00:26, Serial0/0/1

What type of route is this?

ans:
a level 1 ultimate network route

4. Refer to the exhibit. The graphic contains partial contents of the routing table on router E.
Router E is running version 12.3 of the IOS and is configured for default routing behavior.
Router E receives a packet to forward. Which route in the routing table will be searched first
and why?
ans:
172.16.0.0/25 because it is the first level 1 route

5. Refer to the exhibit. A packet destined for host 128.107.0.5/16 is processed by the JAX
router. After finding the static route in the routing table that matches the destination network
for this packet, what does the router do next?
ans:
performs a recursive lookup to find the exit interface used to forward the packet

6. A network is converged and the routing tables are complete. When a packet needs to be
forwarded, what is the first criterion used to determine the best path in the routing table?
ans:
the route with the longest address and mask match to the destination

7. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running IOS version 12.2. What will the network
administrator need to do so that packets for unknown child routes of 172.16.0.0/24 will not
be dropped?
ans:
do nothing, ip classless is on by default

8. Refer to the exhibit. Router B receives a packet with a destination address of 10.16.1.97.
What will router B do?
ans:
use the default route

9. Refer to the exhibit. What protocol was used to distribute the routing information for the
network 172.16.1.4?
ans:
RIPv2

10. Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will Router1 apply to child routes of the
172.16.0.0/24 network?
ans:
255.255.255.0

11. A route to a destination network is learned from multiple routing protocols. What is used
by a Cisco router to select the preferred route to the destination that will be installed in the
routing table?
ans:
administrative distance
 12. What occurs when no ip classless is implemented on the router?
ans:
The router will assume it has knowledge of all subnets in the network and will not search
beyond child routes for a better match.

13. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 has been issued the ip classless command. What happens to
packets destined to host 172.16.3.10?
ans:
forward out interface Serial0/0/1

14. Refer to the exhibit. With the ip classless command issued, what will router R2 do with
a packet destined for host 172.16.4.234?
ans:
send packet out Serial 0/0/1

15. Refer to the exhibit. What parent network will automatically be included in the routing
table when the three subnets are configured on Router1?
ans:
172.16.0.0/16

16. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes this network?
ans:
There is at least one parent and one child route

17. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from this output?
ans:
All of the routes listed are network routes.

18. What determines if the router implements a classless route lookup process?
ans:
The command ip classless is enabled on the router.

1. On a router running EIGRP, what database would maintain a list of feasible successors?
ans:
topology table

2. Refer to the exhibit. This is the debug output from 2 directly connected EIGRP routers.
They are not forming an adjacency. What is the cause?
ans:
they have different autonomous-system numbers

3. Refer to the exhibit. Which command will advertise the 192.168.1.64/30 network but not
the 192.168.1.32 network on router A?
ans:
network 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.3

4. What two actions will the EIGRP DUAL FSM take if a link to a network goes down?
(Choose two.)
ans:
query neighbors for a new route
search topology table for a feasible successor

5. Refer to the exhibit. What is indicated by the P at the beginning of the topology entry?
ans:
the route is in a stable state

6. In which of the following tables does the EIGRP DUAL algorithm store the primary route
to a destination? (Choose two.)
ans:
routing
topology

7. What information is maintained in the EIGRP topology database for a destination route?
(Choose two.)
ans:
the feasible distance of the route
the route cost as advertised by the neighboring router

8. Which of the following statements describes the bounded updates used by EIGRP?
ans:
Partial updates are sent only to routers that need the information.

9. Host 192.168.1.66 in the network illustrated is unable to ping host 192.168.1.130. How
must EIGRP be configured to enable connectivity between the two hosts? (Choose two.)
ans:
R1(config-router)# no auto-summary
R2(config-router)# no auto-summary

10. Which two statements describe characteristics of EIGRP? (Choose two.)

ans:
EIGRP is a distance vector routing protocol.
EIGRP supports classless routing and VLSM.

11. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of show ip eigrp neighbors, what are two
possible problems with adjacencies between Router1 and Router2? (Choose two.)
ans:
The routers are configured with different EIGRP process IDs.
The serial interfaces for both routers are in different networks.

12. Refer to the exhibit. In the topology table, what do the numbers 3011840 and 3128695
represent?
ans:
the total metric for that network as advertised by the EIGRP neighbor

13. Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP is the only routing protocol enabled on this network. No
static routes are configured on this router. What can be concluded about network
198.18.1.0/24 from the exhibited output?
ans:
Packets that are destined for 198.18.1.0/24 will be forwarded to 198.18.10.6.

14. Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces have been configured with the bandwidths that are
 shown in the exhibit. Assuming that all routers are using a default configuration of EIGRP
as their routing protocol, what path will packets take from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the
192.168.200.0/24 network?
ans:
A,B,E

15. By default, which two metrics are used by EIGRP to determine the best path between
networks?
ans:
delay
bandwidth

16. Which term defines a collection of networks under the administrative control of a single
entity that presents a common routing policy to the Internet?
ans:
autonomous system

17. Refer to the exhibit. The company is using EIGRP with an autonomous system number
of 10. Pings between hosts on networks that are connected to router A and those that are
connected to router B are successful. However, users on the 192.168.3.0 network are unable
to reach users on the 192.168.1.32 network. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
ans:
The routers are not configured in the same EIGRP routing domain.

18. In the command router eigrp 20, what is the purpose of the number 20?
ans:
identifies the autonomous system number this EIGRP process will advertise

19. The show ip eigrp topology command output on a router displays a successor route and a
feasible successor route to network 192.168.1.0/24. In order to reduce processor utilization,
what does EIGRP do when the primary route to this network fails?
ans:
The backup route to network 192.168.1.0/24 is installed in the routing table.

20. What administrative distance would a router assign to a default route in EIGRP that is
learned from a source external to the autonomous system?
ans:
170

21. Refer to the exhibit. Network 192.168.0.0/28 goes down. What type of packet does
Router2 immediately send to Router1 and Router3?
ans:
unicast update packets to 192.168.1.1 and 192.168.2.1

1. Which algorithm is run by link-state routing protocols to calculate the shortest path to
destination networks?
ans:
Dijkstra

2. What feature do modern link-state protocols provide to minimize processing and memory
requirements?
ans:
splitting routing topologies into smaller areas

3. What is the final step in the link state routing process?

ans:
SPF computes best path to each destination network

4. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes the path traffic would take from
the 10.0.0.0/24 network to the 192.168.1.0/24 network if a link-state routing protocol was in
use?
ans:
BOS -> ORL -> JAX -> ATL because this path is the lowest cost

5. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of information would be seen in an LSP sent from router
JAX to router ATL?
ans:
cost of the link

6. Refer to the exhibit. When Router D is configured to use a link-state routing protocol and
is added to the network, what is the first thing that it does to begin learning the network
topology?
ans:
It learns about its directly connected networks when its interfaces reach the up state.

7. What two statements correctly describe the link state routing process? (Choose two.)
ans:
all routers in the area have link state databases
each router in the area floods LSPs to all neighbors

8. What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?

ans:
updates triggered by network changes

9. Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?
ans:
Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.

10. What are two advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance
vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)
ans:
Each router independently determines the route to each network.
After the inital LSP flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes
in a topology.

11. To achieve network convergence, what three steps does each link state router take?
(Choose three.)
ans:
build a Link State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link
flood the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database
construct a complete map of the topology and compute the best path to each destination
network
 12. What two events will cause a link state router to send LSPs to all neighbors? (Choose
two.)
ans:
whenever the network topology changes
upon initial startup of router or routing protocol

13. Which database or table must be identical on all link-state routers within an area in order
to construct an accurate SPF tree?
ans:
link-state database

14. Which two routing protocols use Dijkstra’s shortest path first algorithm? (Choose two.)
ans:
IS-IS
OSPF

15. When are link-state packets sent to neighbors?

ans:
when a link goes up or down

16. Refer to the exhibit. What does JAX do with link-state packets from ORL?
ans:
sends out the individual link-state packets out the interface connected to BOS

17. A new network administrator is given the task of selecting an appropriate dynamic
routing protocol for a software development company. The company has over 100 routers,
uses CIDR and VLSM, requires fast convergence, and uses both Cisco and non-Cisco
equipment. Which routing protocol is appropriate for this company?
ans:
OSPF

18. What action does a link-state router take immediately upon receipt of an LSP from a
neighboring router?
ans:
floods the LSP to neighbors

19. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers and interfaces are configured to use a link-state routing
protocol, from which routers will router D receive hello packets?
ans:
B and C
2. 1. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)
3. It connects multiple IP networks.
4. It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
5. It determines the best path to send packets.
6. It manages the VLAN database.
7. It increases the size of the broadcast domain
8. 2. When a router boots, what is the default order to locate the Cisco IOS if there is no boot
system command?
9. ROM, TFTP server, flash
10. flash, TFTP server, ROM
11. flash, NVRAM, TFTP server
12. NVRAM, TFTP server, flash
13. 3. Which router component is used to store the routing table?
14. Flash
15. NVRAM
16. ROM
17. SDRAM
18. 4. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are child routes?
19. 1
20. 3
21. 4
22. 6
23. 5. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?
24. Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps.
25. The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boundaries and should be summarized.
26. Packets routed to the R2 Fast Ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.
27. The static route will not work correctly
28.6. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on
Router1. What forwarding action
29. will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?
30. The packet will be dropped.
31. The packet will be forwarded to the gateway of last resort.
32. The packet will match the 192.168.0.0 network and be forwarded out Serial 0/0.
33. The packet will most closely match the 192.168.0.8 subnet and be forwarded out Serial 0/1
34.7. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R3 use different routing protocols with default
administrative distance values. All
35. devices are properly configured and the destination network is advertised by both protocols.
36. Which path will be used to transmit the data packets between PC1 and PC2?
37. The packets will travel via R2-R1.
38. The packets will travel via R2-R3.
39. The traffic will be load-balanced between two paths — via R2-R1 and via R2-R3.
40. The packets will travel via R2-R3, and the other path via R2-R1 will be retained as the backup
path
41. 8. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is configured as shown in the exhibit. PC1 on 172.16.1.0/24
network can reach the default
42. gateway on R1. The rest of the routers are configured with the correct IP addresses on the
interfaces. Routers R2 and R3 do not
43. have static or dynamic routing enabled. How far will PC1 be able to successfully ping?
44. router R1 Fa0/0 interface
45. router R1 S0/0/0 interface
46. router R2 S0/0/0 interface
47. router R2 Fa0/0 and S0/0/1 interfaces
48. router R3 Fa0/0 and S0/0/0 interfaces
49. 9. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are properly configured to use the EIGRP routing protocol with
default
50. settings, and the network is fully converged. Which statement correctly describes the path that
the traffic
51. will use from the 10.1.1.0/24 network to the 10.1.2.0/24 network?
52. It will use the A-D path only.
53. It will use the path A-D, and the paths A-C-D and A-B-D will be retained as the backup paths.
54. It will use all the paths equally in a round-robin fashion.
55. The traffic will be load-balanced between A-B-D and A-C-D.
56. 10. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
57. They are aware of the complete network topology.
58. They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.
59. They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates.
60. They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path.
61. They do not work well in networks that require special hierarchical designs.
62. They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only
63. 11. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network
attached to R3. R1 learned Path A
64. to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which
route will R1 install in its
65. routing table?
66. Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths.
67. The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network
10.2.0.0/16.
68. The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network
10.2.0.0/16.
69. The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance
to network 10.2.0.0/16.
70. The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to
network 10.2.0.0/16.
71. 12. What two routing protocols use a hierarchal network topology? (Choose two.)
72. IS-IS
73. EIGRP
74. OSPF
75. RIPv1
76. RIPv2
77.13.Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output from the show running-config and debug ip rip
commands, what are two of
78. the routes that are added to the routing table of R1? (Choose two.)
79. R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.2.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/1
80. R 192.168.100.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.1.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0
81. S 192.168.1.0/24 [1/0] via FastEthernet0/0
82. R 192.168.9.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.2.1, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0
83. R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1] via 172.16.1.2, 00:00:24, Serial0/0/0
84. 14. Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2 and R3. The routes of
all three routers are
85. displayed. What can be verified from the output?
86. R1 and R3 are connected to each other via the S0/0/0 interface.
87. The IP address of the S0/0/0 interface of R1 is 10.1.1.2.
88. The IP address of the S0/0/1 interface of R2 is 10.3.3.2.
89. R2 is connected to the S0/0/1 interface of R3.
90.15.Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are
operational. If no routing protocols or
91. static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command
output for router A?
92. All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table.
93. Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing
table.
94. The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured.
95. A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the
networks.
96. 16. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is accessing router R1 from the console port.
Once the administrator is
97. connected to the router, which password should the administrator enter at the R1> prompt to
access the privileged EXEC
98. mode?
99. Cisco001
100. Cisco123
101. Cisco789
102. Cisco901
103. 17.Which of the following could describe the devices labeled "?" in the graphic? (Choose
three.)
104. DCE
105. CSU/DSU
106. LAN switch
107. modem
108. hub
109. 18. Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28?
110. Router1
111. Router2
112. Router3
113. Router4
114. 19.Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run at R1. Which two
facts about the newly detected device
115. can be determined from the output? (Choose two.)
116. ABCD is a router that is connected to R1.
117. ABCD is a non-CISCO device that is connected to R1.
118. The device is connected at the Serial0/0/1 interface of R1.
119. R1 is connected at the S0/0/1 interface of device ABCD.
120. ABCD does not support switching capability.
121. 20. A static route has been configured on a router. However, the destination network no
longer exists. What should an
122. administrator do to remove the static route from the routing table?
123. Change the routing metric for that route.
124. Nothing. The static route will go away on its own.
125. Change the administrative distance for that route.
126. Remove the route using the no ip route command.
127. 21. Refer to the exhibit. A ping between host A and host B is successful, but pings from
host A to operational hosts on the
128. Internet fail. What is the reason for this problem?
129. The FastEthernet interface of R1 is disabled.
130. One of the default routes is configured incorrectly.
131. A routing protocol is not configured on both routers.
132. The default gateway has not been configured on host A.
133. 22. Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2, and R3. The
routes of all three routers are displayed. All
134. routers are operational and pings are not blocked on this network.
135. Which ping will fail?
136. from R1 to 172.16.1.1
137. from R1 to 192.168.3.1
138. from R2 to 192.168.1.1
139. from R2 to 192.168.3.1
140. 23. Refer to the exhibit. What action will R2 take for a packet that is destined for
192.168.2.0?
141. It will drop the packet.
142. It will forward the packet via the S0/0/0 interface.
143. It will forward the packet via the Fa0/0 interface.
144. It will forward the packet to R1
145. 24. Refer to the exhibit. The users on the local network 172.16.1.0/24 complain that they
are unable to connect to the Internet.
146. What step should be taken to remedy the problem?
147. A new static route must be configured on R1 with the R3 serial interface as the next hop.
148. A new default route must be configured on R1 with the R3 serial interface as the next hop.
149. The default route on R2 should be configured with the R3 serial interface as the next hop.
150. The default route on R2 must be replaced with a new static route and the next hop should
be the R1 FastEthernet interface
151. 25. Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to
reach the three networks on Routers 3,
152. 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on
Router1?
153. 172.16.0.0/8
154. 172.16.0.0/10
155. 172.16.0.0/13
156. 172.16.0.0/20
157. 172.16.0.0/24
158. 26. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Internet, and troubleshooting has
revealed that this is due to an
159. addressing problem. What is incorrectly configured in this network?
160. the IP address of the Fa0/0 interface of R1
161. the subnet mask of the S0/0/0 interface of R1
162. the IP address of the S0/0/0 interface of R1
163. the subnet mask of the S0/0/0 interface of R2
164. 27. Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the
host address of 192.168.10.31 with a
165. default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the network
properly. What is the cause?
166. The default gateway is incorrect.
167. The address is in the wrong subnet.
168. The host address and default gateway are swapped.
169. 192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet
170. 28.Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is planning IP addressing of a new
network. What part of this addressing
171. scheme must be changed to allow communication between host A and the server?
172. the IP address of the server
173. the default gateway of host A
174. the IP address of host A
175. the default gateway of the server
176. 29. Which network design feature requires the deployment of a classless routing protocol?
177. private IP addressing
178. advertising default routes
179. variable length subnet masks
180. summarization on major network boundaries
181. 30. A network administrator needs to assign the very last usable IP address in the
172.24.64.0/18 network range to the router
182. interface that serves this LAN. Which IP address should the administrator configure on the
interface?
183. 172.16.128.154/18
184. 172.16.255.254/18
185. 172.24.64.254/18
186. 172.24.127.254/18
187. 31. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. The two networks 10.1.1.0/29 and
10.1.1.16/29 are unable to access
188. each other. What can be the cause of this problem?
189. Because RIPv1 is a classless protocol, it does not support this access.
190. RIPv1 does not support discontiguous networks.
191. RIPv1 does not support load balancing.
192. RIPv1 does not support automatic summarization.
193. 32. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the highlighted output?
194. R1 is originating the route 172.30.200.32/28.
195. Automatic summarization is disabled.
196. The 172.30.200.16/28 network is one hop away from R1.
197. A classful routing protocol is being used
198. 33. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network?
199. It uses multicast instead of broadcast to send routing updates.
200. It reduces the update timer to 15 seconds if there are more than 10 routes.
201. It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the
periodic updates.
202. It uses random pings to detect if a pathway is down and therefore is preemptive on
finding networks that are down
203. 34. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram.
Which of the following commands
204. will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
205. A(config)# router rip
206. A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
207. B(config)# router rip
208. B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48
209. B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64
210. A(config)# router rip
211. A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32
212. B(config)# router rip
213. B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
214. A(config)# no router rip
215. 35.Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIP protocol. Devices on the
192.168.1.1 network can ping the S0/0/0
216. interface on R2 but cannot ping devices on the 192.168.2.1 network.
217. What is a possible cause of this problem?
218. The routers are configured with different versions of RIP.
219. R2 is not forwarding the routing updates.
220. The R1 configuration should include the no auto-summary command.
221. The maximum path number has been exceeded.
222. 36. Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method
of routing loop prevention? (Choose
223. two.)
224. It is enabled by default on all Cisco IOS implementations.
225. It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route.
226. It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received.
227. It instructs routers to hold all changes that might affect routes, for a specified period of
time.
228. It limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is
discarded
229. 37. Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are
needed to configure EIGRP on the
230. Paris router? (Choose three.)
231. Paris(config)# router eigrp 100
232. Paris(config)# router eigrp
233. Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.6.0
234. Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0
235. Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0
236. Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.9.0
237. 38. A router has EIGRP configured as the only routing protocol. In what way might EIGRP
respond if there is no feasible
238. successor route to a destination network and the successor route fails?
239. It broadcasts hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor
adjacencies.
240. It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until a new successor route is found.
241. It immediately sends its entire routing table to its neighbors.
242. It will set the metric for the failed route to infinity.
243. 39. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface
on the JAX router and all
244. interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not
be able to ping hosts on the
245. Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router?
246. The JAX router has the wrong process ID.
247. The JAX router needs the network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
248. The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
249. The BOS router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command
250. 40. Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.)
251. As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table.
252. If the feasible successor has a higher advertised cost than the current successor route,
then it becomes the
253. primary route.
254. If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology.
255. The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor.
256. EIGRP maintains full knowledge of the network topology in the topology table and
exchanges full routing
257. information with neighboring routers in every update.
258. EIGRP builds one routing table that contains routes for all configured routed protocols.
259. 41. Refer to the exhibit. What happens to a packet that has 172.16.0.0/16 as the best
match in the routing table that is
260. shown?
261. The packet is discarded.
262. The packet is flooded out all interfaces.
263. The packet is forwarded via Serial0/0/0.
264. The packet is forwarded via FastEthernet0/0.
265. 42. A network is configured with the IP, IPX, and AppleTalk protocols. Which routing
protocol is recommended for this
266. network?
267. RIPv1
268. RIPv2
269. EIGRP
270. OSPF
271. 43. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output?
(Choose two.)
272. Automatic summarization is disabled.
273. The EIGRP routing protocol is being used.
274. There is one feasible successor in the routing table.
275. The serial interface S0/0/0 is administratively down.
276. The router is originating the route to 172.16.1.0/24 via the S0/0/0 interface
277. 44. Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are unable to establish an adjacency. What is the
possible cause for this?
278. The two routers are connected on a multiaccess network.
279. The hello and dead intervals are different on the two routers.
280. They have different OSPF router IDs.
281. They have different process IDs
 282. 45. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running
OSPF to advertise the entire range of
283. addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0?
284. R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
285. R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
286. R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
287. R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0
288. 46.What should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of
neighbor relationships between
289. OSPF routers? (Choose two.)
290. OSPF interval timers mismatch
291. administrative distance mismatch
292. interface network type mismatch
293. no loopback interface configured
294. gateway of last resort not redistributed
295. 47. Which two components are used to determine the router ID in the configuration of the
OSPF routing process? (Choose
296. two.)
297. the IP address of the first FastEthernet interface
298. the highest IP address of any logical interface
299. the highest IP address of any physical interface
300. the default gateway IP address
301. the priority value of 1 on any physical interface
302. 48. What is the function of the OSPF LSR packet?
303. It is used to confirm the receipt of LSUs.
304. It is used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers.
305. It is used by the receiving routers to request more information about any entry in the
DBD.
306. It is used to check the database synchronization between routers.
307. 49. Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces are configured with the correct IP addresses and
subnet masks. OSPF has been
308. configured as the routing protocol. During troubleshooting, it is determined that hosts on
network B can ping the Lo0
309. interface on R1 but are unable to reach hosts on network A. What is the cause of the
problem?
310. Routers R1 and R2 have incorrect router IDs configured.
311. Router R1 is unable to form a neighbor relationship with router R2.
312. Routers R1 and R2 have been configured in different OSPF areas.
313. The configuration of router R1 fails to include network A in the OSPF routing process
314. 50. Refer to the exhibit. The interface addresses and OSPF priorities are configured as
shown. Because of
315. the boot order of the routers, router A is currently the DR and router B is the BDR. If router
A fails and is
316. replaced the next day by a new router, router D, what OSPF protocol action or actions will
happen?
317. Router D will be elected DR, and router C will become the BDR.
318. Router D will be elected DR, and router B will remain the BDR.
319. Router C will become the DR, and router B will become the BDR.
320. Router B will remain the BDR, and OSPF will function on the segment via the use of only
the BDR

1-A building has experienced a power outage. When the power returns, none of the devices on one floor can access the
Internet. The network administrator checks the switch in the IDF that these devices are connected to and notes that the SYST
LED on the front of the switch is amber.

2-What is a possible cause of this problem?

The switch has failed POST.

3-The connection between the switch and the server did not autonegotiate speed and duplex properly.

5- Refer to the exhibit. Devices need to connect to the file server from remote networks. What method should be used to
provide the file server with an IP address to allow these connections?
 dynamic NAT

6- A user is able to ping an FTP server across a WAN but is unable to download files from the server. What should be
checked to resolve this problem?

firewall settings

5-While troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two directly connected routers, the network administrator checks the
encapsulation settings on the serial interfaces of both routers. Which layer of the OSI model is the administrator
troubleshooting?

network layer

4-A customer reports connectivity problems to an ISP technician. Upon questioning the customer, the technician discovers
that all network applications are functioning except for FTP. What should the technician suspect is the problem?

misconfigured firewall

7 -When does a router enter the setup mode?

when the configuration is missing in NVRAM

8-What is the effect of issuing the hostname RouterA command on a router?

The router prompt will change from Router(config)# to RouterA(config)#

9 -If the start-up configuration is not found in NVRAM, where will the router look for it next by default?

TFTP server

10 -Which statement correctly describes an SLA?

It lists the terms of the agreement between the user and the manufacturer of the system.

It outlines the management, monitoring, and maintenance of a network.

It specifies the software and hardware configurations of a system.

It describes the operation of a system.

11-Which address does a switch use for implementing port security?

the source MAC address

12 -Which type of cable may be used for backbone cabling between data centers that are located on different floors and that
are separated by a distance of 1640 feet (500 meters)?

coaxial

14 -Which two services are required to enable a computer to receive dynamic IP addresses and access the Internet using
domain names? (Choose two.)

DNS

HTTP

16-What are three features of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)

It provides retransmission of data packets if they are lost during transmission.

It uses a three-way handshake between the sending and receiving systems to establish each conversation.

It requires only 8 bytes of overhead.

17 -Refer to the exhibit. The interfaces on R1 and R2 have been properly configured with the IP addresses as shown. No
dynamic routing protocols have been configured. The network administrator has entered the commands that are shown in
the exhibit.
17-Which two additional commands need to be entered on the routers to enable host A to access the Internet? (Choose two.)

R2(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0

R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/0

R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.213.219.1

R2(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.1

R1(config)# ip route 198.133.219.1 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.2

18 -How many host addresses can be assigned in each subnetwork when using network address 172.16.0.0 with subnet mask
255.255.252.0?

256

19 -Which two subnet masks can be used when subnetting a Class A IP address? (Choose two.)

255.0.0.0

255.255.0.0

20 -Refer to the exhibit. A computer with the displayed IP settings is unable to access a server on the 192.168.2.0 network
using the server IP address but can access hosts on the 192.168.1.0 network. What should the network administrator do to
troubleshoot this problem?

Issue the ping 192.168.1.1 command on the host to determine if the host can communicate with the default gateway.

Issue the ipconfig /all command to determine if a DNS server IP address was configured.

Verify that the host has a link light.

Check the cabling of the host.

21-Refer to the exhibit. The S0/0/0 interface of R2 is configured correctly with the default encapsulation. Which
configuration should be implemented at the S0/0/0 interface of R1 to complete the connection between the two routers?

R1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.31 255.255.255.252

R1(config-if)# no shutdown

R1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.33 255.255.255.252

R1(config-if)# encapsulation PPP

R1(config-if)# no shutdown

R1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.28 255.255.255.252

R1(config-if)# encapsulation PPP

R1(config-if)# no shutdown

R1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.29 255.255.255.252

R1(config-if)# no shutdown

22 -What is an example of a dedicated point-to-point WAN link?

T1/E1

23 -Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be drawn about the exhibited command output? (Choose two.)
 Router RTB is directly connected to a router and a switch.

Router RTB is able to ping its directly connected neighbors.

The network administrator needs to log in to the neighboring devices to gather this information.

Router RTB has Layer 2 connectivity with two neighboring devices.

Router RTB is connected to two Cisco devices by FastEthernet links.

24 -Which statement correctly describes the difference between HTTP and HTTPS?

HTTPS authenticates and encrypts the data being transferred between the client and the web server.

25 -A hacker attempts to reach confidential information that is stored on a server inside the corporate network. A network
security solution inspects the entire packet, determines that it is a threat, and blocks the packet from entering the inside
network. Which security measure protected the network?

an IPS

26-How do port filtering and access lists help provide network security?

They prevent specified types of traffic from reaching specified network destinations.

27 - Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting the serial connection between R1 and R2. There is no
communication between R1 and R2. Based on the output of the show ip interface brief command, what is the cause of the
problem?

There is a misconfiguration of IP addresses.

There is a mismatch of encapsulation methods.

The no shutdown command has not been issued on R2.

The routing protocols are not compatible.

28 -A tracert command is run on a host to determine if another host can be reached across a network. Which two events will
occur if connectivity with the other host is unsuccessful? (Choose two.)

The command will display all the successful hops a packet makes before it is lost.

The command will calculate the time between successful and unsuccessful packets.

The host on which the command is run will send a UDP request message to the other host.

The command helps to determine where a packet was lost on the path from the source to the destination.

All hops between the two hosts display !!!!! to signify success.

29 -Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are configured with the commands that are displayed. All interfaces are properly
configured, but neither router is receiving routing updates. What two things can be done to solve the problem? (Choose two.)

Configure the routing protocol on R1 for network 10.0.0.0.

Configure the routing protocol on R2 for network 10.0.0.0.

Configure the routing protocol on R1 for network 192.168.4.0.

Configure the routing protocol on R1 for network 192.168.2.0.

Configure the routing protocol on R2 for network 192.168.1.0.

Configure the routing protocol on R2 for network 192.168.3.0.

30 -Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has added a route by using the ip route 10.13.13.0 255.255.255.0
192.168.1.1 command on R1. Hosts on the 10.12.12.0 network cannot communicate with hosts on the 10.13.13.0 network.
What is the reason for this?

The gateway of last resort is not set.

 The destination prefix mask is incorrectly configured.

The routing protocol has not been configured on R1.

The static route has not been configured correctly.

31-Which routing protocol excludes the subnet information from routing updates?

RIPv1

32- Refer to the exhibit. What method is most commonly employed by large ISPs, such as ISP1, ISP2, and ISP3, to exchange
and maintain routing information?

EGP protocols

33 -Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator uses the command below to configure a default route on RTB:

RTB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 fa0/0

A ping issued from PC3 is successful to RTB. However, echo request packets arrive at PC1 but the echo replies do not make it back
to PC3. What will fix this problem?

RTA must be configured to forward packets to the 192.168.2.0 network.

The ip route command needs to be edited so that the next hop address is 10.1.1.5.

The ip route command needs to be edited so that the 192.168.2.1 address is the next hop address.

The ip route command should be removed from the RTB router configuration.

Another default route should be configured on RTA with a next hop address of 10.1.1.6.

34 -What is the function of the forward lookup DNS zone in the DNS name resolution process?

It resolves fully qualified domain names into IP addresses.

. 35 -Which WAN connection provides a dedicated circuit with fixed bandwidth available at all times?

point-to-point

36-Refer to the exhibit. A new router has been configured for the first time with the commands that are displayed. Which
two facts can be determined about the interface of this router? (Choose two.)

It will act as a DCE device.

It is administratively down.

It will operate at a speed of 6.4 Mb/s.

It is the first interface on slot 0 of controller 1.

Because MOTD is not configured, the interface will not work.

37 -What is the basis for determining the vector component of a route in the distance vector routing algorithm?

the IP address of the next hop

38 -Which statement is true about FTP implementations?

The protocol interpreter (PI) function engages once the data transfer process (DTP) function is complete.

39 - The show ip route command was executed on one of the routers shown in the graphic and the following output was
displayed:

C 192.168.4.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0

R 192.168.5.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.4.2, 00:00:19, Serial0/0

R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.3.1, 00:00:20, Serial0/1

R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.3.1, 00:00:20, Serial0/1

C 192.168.3.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/1

39-From which router was this command executed?

40 -Which statement correctly describes MIB?

It is a database that a device keeps about itself concerning network performance parameters.

41-Which two statements are true about resolvers in the DNS hierarchy? (Choose two.)

The DNS server queries the resolvers to translate the domain name to an IP address.

The DNS server uses the resolver to forward the name resolution request to another DNS server.

42 -Which routing protocol depends on the DUAL algorithm to calculate the shortest path to a destination?

RIP

43-Which two parameters are stored in the routing table? (Choose two.)

the best route to reach remote networks

44- What will a router do with a packet that is destined for a host with the IP address 192.168.1.5/24 if no entry for the
192.168.24.0/24 network exists in the routing table?

It will broadcast the packet out of all of its active interfaces.

45-Which cable should be used to connect a PC to the console port of a Cisco router? rollover

47-What is a characteristic of Syslog?

It enables devices to send information to a daemon that runs on a management station.

48 -The network administrator can ping a remote router but is unable to telnet to it. At what layer of the OSI model does
this error occur?

application

49 - Which type of address is 192.168.17.111/28? broadcast address

50 What is a feature of PAT?

It allows multiple hosts on a single LAN to share globally unique IP addresses.

52-Which statement describes a feature of TCP?

It acknowledges the receipt of packets.

53-Which two statements are true about the c:\> ping command? (Choose two.)

It tests the accessibility of an IP address.

It sends a TCP packet to the destination IP address.

22. Which two statements are correct about the UDP protocol? (Choose two.)
*It does not provide acknowledgment of receipt of data. *It is a connectionless
protocol.
27. Which statement correctly describes the importance of an SLA?.
*It outlines the management, monitoring, and maintenance of a network.
28. A user is able to ping IP addresses but is unable to ping hosts by domain
name. What should be checked at the workstation of the user? *the DNS
configuration
30. What is a characteristic of the EIGRP routing protocol?. *It builds the
topology table based on all of the advertisements from its neighbors.
33. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has been configured with the commands
that are displayed. Which password will be used to access the EXEC
privileged mode of the router? *password2

36. What are two reasons for issuing the show ip route command on a
router? (Choose two.).
*It displays the directly connected networks.
*It displays the routing protocol that is receiving updates from the neighboring
routers.

37. When a router learns two paths to the same destination network, which
two factors determine the path that will be included in the routing table?
(Choose two.) *route metric *administrative distance
39. A host has been properly cabled and configured with a unique hostname
and valid IP address. Which two additional components should be configured
to enable the host to access remote resources? (Choose two.)
*the subnet mask *the default gateway
43. Which two statements are correct about the ICMP packet that is used by
the ping command? (Choose two.)
*It verifies Layer 3 connectivity.
*It measures the time that elapses between when the request packet is sent and the
response packet is received.

47. What occurs during a static NAT translation?

*A one-to-one mapping is created between an inside local and outside global address.

46. In order to load an initial configuration on a new switch, a network

administrator has connected a laptop to the switch via the use of a console
cable. About a minute after the network administrator powers on the switch,
the SYST LED on the front of the switch changes from blinking green to
amber. What does this indicate? *The switch failed POST.

49. Why do the static routes fail to appear in the routing table? *The
router interfaces are administratively down.

54. Different hosts connect to the same switch port at different times. If the
switch port is configured with dynamic port security, how does it process the
MAC addresses?
*The addresses are dynamically learned and stored in the address table.

1. A customer reports connectivity problems to an ISP technician. Upon

questioning the customer, the technician discovers that all network
applications are functioning except for FTP. What should the technician
suspect is the problem? *misconfigured firewall

5. Which type of address is 192.168.17.111/28? *broadcast address

3. How do port filtering and access lists help provide network security?
*They prevent specified types of traffic from reaching specified network destinations.

6. An organization has 50 traveling salespersons who must be able to

connect to the company network from client sites and hotels. Which WAN
connection will allow this access? *dialup

8. A ping issued from PC3 is successful to RTB. However, echo request

packets arrive at PC1 but the echo replies do not make it back to PC3. What
will fix this problem?
*The ip route command needs to be edited so that the next hop address is 10.1.1.5.

12. Which statement is true about the reverse lookup DNS zone?.
*It resolves an IP address to a fully qualified domain name.

13. Which two statements are correct about the DNS hierarchy? (Choose
two.)
*DNS relies on the hierarchy of decentralized servers to maintain records.
*The root servers maintain records about how to reach top-level domain servers.

15. Which routes are automatically added to the routing table on a neighbor
router when routing protocols exchange information about directly
connected networks? *dynamic routes

16. Which combination of network address and subnet mask allows 62 hosts
to be connected in a single subnet?
*Network address 10.1.1.0 Subnet mask 255.255.255.192

19. What is a characteristic of UDP? *It adds a minimal amount of overhead to

the data to be transmitted.

20. What can cause a problem at the data link layer? *incorrectly configured
device drivers

21. Which cable type is used to interconnect the FastEthernet interfaces of

two routers? *crossover

9 -Which router component stores the information that is displayed by the

show running-config command?
• RAM
10- If a PC does not have network connectivity to a router, which router port
can be used to establish communication?
• console
13-What are the primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
• determine the best path for packets
• forward packets to the appropriate interface
15 What are the results of setting the boot field bits in the configuration
register to "0000"? (Choose two.)
• The router will enter ROM monitor mode upon reload.
• The administrator can enter the b command to manually boot the IOS.

16- What can a network administrator do to recover from a lost router

password?
• boot the router to ROM monitor mode and configure the router to ignore NVRAM
when it initializes

17- Which router components and operations are correctly described?

(Choose two.)
• RAM - stores the ARP cache
• ROM - stores the backup IOS

22 -A network administrator issues the erase startup-config command on a

configured router with the configuration register set to 0x2102 and observes
the following output:
Erasing the nvram filesystem will remove all files! Continue? [Confirm]
[OK]Erase of nvram: complete
• The router will prompt the user to enter setup mode or to continue without entering
setup mode.

40- What are two possible reasons a router would not load a valid IOS from
flash? (Choose two.)
• The configuration register is set to 0x2142.
• The first boot system command executed in the startup configuration file is boot
system rom.
• The configuration register is set to 0x2100..

43- Which two steps describe how to create a functional physical connection
between a router console and a terminal? (Choose two.)
• Use an RJ-45 to DB-9 adapter on the terminal serial port to connect to the cable
going to the router console.
• Use a rollover cable to connect from a terminal serial port to the router console port.

49 -Which of the following are true statements regarding IGRP and RIP?
(Choose two.)
• IGRP uses a combination of different metrics for path selection.
• IGRP has the ability to scale to large networks.

2 -Which of the following parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose
three.)
• protocol suite
• source address
• destination address

30-Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when
traveling through a router? (Choose three.) *The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
*The router maintains the same source and destination IP. *The router changes the source physical

31-Which two statements are true for link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
*Routers that run a link-state protocol can establish a complete topology of the
network.

*The shortest path first algorithm is used. Split horizon is used to avoid routing loops.

45 -Refer to the exhibit. Which two components are required to complete the
configuration? (Choose two.)

*a V.35 cable

*a DTE device

32-What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?

PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.