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ATR 42 SYSTEMS QUIZ 230 terms essneraviator

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How many · Two; they can be operated from inside

type III exits and outside
are there and
how can they
be operated?

How many ·3
hand-held fire
extinguishers
are on the ATR
42?
On the cargo · When illuminated, indicates Ground
door operating Handling Bus is directly powered by the
panel, what HOT MAIN BATTERY BUS
does the red
light mean?

On the cargo · When illuminated all door hooks and

door operating latch locks are engaged
panel, what
does the blue
light mean?

When are the · When the #1 condition lever is in feather

CABIN and or fuel shut-off
CARGO door
unlocked aural
alerts
inhibited?

When are the · When the #2 condition lever is in

SERVICE and feather or fuel shut-off
FWD COMPT
unlocked aural
alerts
inhibited?

What does the · When the test button depressed,

door OK lights indicates cabin and service doors are
mean when opened and associated micro-switches
illuminated? are in the opened position

With no power · A switch located by the entrance door

available to the provides for 2 minutes of cockpit lighting
aircraft, how and emergency EXIT lighting
can we obtain
some lighting Note: Main cabin door must be open
in the cabin?
How many · TWO; DC EMER BUS via a voltage
power sources divider or a 6 volt batteries which are
are available charged from the DC EMER BUS
for emergency
evacuation Note: They have a 10 minute capacity
lighting?

With DC EMER · RH DOME light

BUS only, what · LH 3 lights located below the
cockpit glareshield
lighting is · Overhead panel light illuminating the
available? pedestal
· Light in the wet compass

What does the · Enables us to control the MIN CABIN

MIN CABIN LIGHTS powered by the MAIN BATTERY.
LIGHTING On the RH side of the cabin, every other
switch do? light is illuminated. Switch doesn't do
anything unless you're on battery power
only.

When would · On: Emergency exit lights illuminate

the emergency · Arm: Lights illuminate if DC EMER BUS
exit lights voltage drops below 18 Volts or if both
illuminate? generators are lost.
Lights extinguish if DC EMER BUS
voltage is over 20 Volts and at least one
generator is operating.
· DISARM: Exit light system is
deactivated.
Note: F/A's EMER LIGHT switch will
override the ARM and DISARM positions

What two ways · Directly through a local alert.

is a crew
notified of a · A central alert through the CCAS.
system failure?
When on · Warnings only, that portion of the CAC
batteries only, is powered by the DC ESS BUS.
what
information will
still be
processed in
the CCAS?

How many · Four levels (3=Warnings, 2=Cautions,

alert levels are 1=Advisories, 0=Information).
there, give an
example of · 3=Engine Fire, Stall Warning.
each, and
which are · 2=Bleed Fault, Pack Fault.
processed in
the CAC? · 1=A/Erect Fail (No Chime).

· 0=Airframe De-ice mode selected.

· Only level 3 & 2 are processed in the

CAC.

What lights on · All smoke lights, level 2 amber lights

the CAP can except EFIS COMP.
be inhibited in
the 42?

How long are · Until the gear starts to retract.

the warnings
inhibited after
takeoff?

What lights on · All amber except; PARK BRAKE, GPWS

the CAP can FAULT, CCAS, and MAINT PANEL.
be cleared?

(42) What items · Flaps 15° .

does the T/O · Trim in the green.
configuration · Power management in T/O.
test check? ( Note: It also performs an auto recall.)
Re: previous Parking brake not released
question: what
additional item
would cause a
CONFIG
warning on
takeoff?

Angle of attack · ALERT and STICK SHAKER

info is directly ACTIVATION 12.5° *.
processed by · STICK PUSHER ACTIVATION 15° *.
the CCAS; · Stall alarm and shaker are inhibited on
What are the the ground.
alert and · Pusher in inhibited on the ground and
shaker limits 10 seconds after takeoff.
and the pusher
limits (42)?

What occurs · ALERT and STICK SHAKER

when Horns ACTIVATION 7.5° *.
Anti-Icing is · STICK PUSHER ACTIVATION 15° *.
On (42): Note: During T/O the icing AOA stall
alert threshold is initially 8.5° *, and
changes over in 5 minutes after take-off,
or when flaps are selected to 0° which
ever comes first.
· Stall alarm and shaker are inhibited on
the ground.
· Pusher is inhibited on the ground and 10
seconds after takeoff.
Difference · On the 72 shaker AND pusher
between 42 thresholds change with horns selected
and 72: ON.
· On the 72, the pusher is also inhibited
when the aircraft descends below 500
feet. However, if the radar altimeter
gives an erroneous 500ft. signal while
IAS > 185 knots for more than 120
seconds, the STICK PUSHER FAULT
amber light will illuminate, notifying the
crew that the stick pusher is inhibited.

Air for the · Normally from the low compressor

packs is bled stage (LP). However, at low engine
from where? speed when pressure from LP stage is
insufficient the air is automatically
switched to the high compressor stage
(HP).

What is the · Pack shut off.

function of the · Pressure control; Normal or High are
pack valve? available (17 or 30). High flow increases
the pack entrance pressure.

What does the · Air pressure and electrical supply.

pack need to When one is missing the pack valve is
open? spring-loaded closed.

What happens · It passes over the primary and

to the air secondary heat exchangers and is
sucked in by exhausted overboard.
the ground
cooling fan?

(42) What · On the ground or in flight below 125

would be a knots when the respective pack faults.
likely indication
of a ground
cooling fan
failure?
What is · Valve position disagreement.
indicated by a · A temperature > 204° C*. downstream
pack fault? of pack compressor. The pack valve will
close automatically.

What is the · It controls the amount of hot air

function of the entering the mixing chamber, while the
temperature pack adds cold air.
control valve? Note: If one pack is inoperative, the
other pack supplies both compartments
through the mixing chamber.

What controls · Pack outlet temperature (duct

the position of temperature).
the · Demand selector position.
temperature · Compartment temperature.
control valve? · Skin temperature.
· In MANUAL it is controlled directly by
the demand selector position.

In AUTO mode · 88° C*.

duct
temperature is
limited to what
temperature?

In MANUAL · 88° C. We get an OVHT at 92° C.

mode the
controller
directly
controls the
temperature
control valve,
the duct
temperature is
limited to?

Why would a · Low fan RPM.

RECIRC FAN · Fan over temperature.
fault?
How do the · The auto digital controller uses:
outflow valves · Landing Elevation.
operate in · Takeoff elevation as memorized.
AUTO mode? · Cabin Pressure
· Static pressure from ADC1 and Captains
altimeter or, ADC2 and 29.92 if ADC1
fails. The controller adjusts the electro-
pneumatic outflow valve, which has the
pneumatic outflow valve slaved to it. If
the digital controller loses electrical
power both outflow valves go to full
close.

What does the · Two electric motors drive both outflow

DITCH pb do? valves closed. This is only in aircraft with
the outflow valves in the belly.

On the ground, · #1 engine is running (oil pressure above

with the OVBD 40 psi).
valve pb
selected to
AUTO, the
OBVD valve is
closed if?

In flight, if the · The OVBD valve will open slightly, the

exhaust mode under floor valve will close, and the fan
pb is released, will shut off.
what will
happen?

What is the · 6740 feet.

cabin pressure
at FL250
(maximum
theoretical
cabin altitude =
Max. ZCTH)*?
What are the · -2,500 fpm to +1500 fpm.
maximum
cabin rates in
MANUAL
mode?

What are the · up to 20,000 ft. not more than 550

maximum fpm.*
cabin rates in · 20,000 ft. not more than 620 fpm.*
AUTO mode? · Descent rate, normal = -400 fpm.
· Descent rate, fast = -500 fpm.

If operating in · You need to depressurize the cabin

manual before landing (especially before
pressurization reaching the gate) or the ramp agent
mode, could be killed if they open the service
remember to or cabin door! This does not happen
ensure that: automatically upon landing, as it would
in the auto mode.

In flight, with · The extract fan stops, the under-floor

the exhaust valve is closed and the ovbd valve is
push button on partially open. This allows for differential
OVBD what pressure to vent the avionics area
happens to the instead of the extract fan.
extract fan,
ovbd valve,
and under
floor valve?

What are the · One computer.

main · One control panel.
components of · One advisory display panel (ADU).
the AFCS? · Three servo actuators; one for each
axis.
The ADU has 4 · Line 1: Advisory message in white
lines of text. letters.
What is the · Line 2: Caution message in amber
meaning and letters.
color of each · Line 3: Armed modes in white letters.
line? · Line 4: Active modes in green letters.

What is the · Hi = 27°

difference · Lo = 15°
between low &
high bank?

The BANK pb · Heading

only affects
bank angle
when in the
______ mode

What is the · Temporarily allows the pilot to control

function of the the aircraft with the auto pilot engaged.
TCS button? · In BASIC mode, the TCS button will
cause the AP to change pitch and roll
references. If the pitch is > 15° when the
button is released the pitch will return to
15° . If the TCS button is released at a
bank angles < 6° the system will level the
wings. If the TCS button is released with
a bank angle between 6° and 35° it will
maintain that angle. At bank angles of
>35° the system will return to 35° .
Note: Action on the TCS with Alt Hold,
VS Hold, Or IAS HOLD modes selected,
will re-synchronize those modes.
How can the · Quick disconnect on the control wheel.
auto pilot be · Action on the pitch trim (normal or
disengaged standby).
manually? · Auto pilot pb on the AFCS control
panel.
· Yaw damp pb on the AFCS control
panel.
· Go around pb on the power lever.
· 30 daN force on the rudder pedals (66
pounds).

How can the · One of the engagement conditions of

auto pilot be the auto pilot or yaw damper is no
disengaged longer met.
automatically? · Stall warning indicator threshold is
achieved.
· There is a disagreement between two
AHRS or two ADC's.
· There is a mismatch between the two
pitch trims.

What data is · The AFCS computer uses data from the

used for coupled ADC and SGU and displays the
guidance same commands on both sides.
computations?

What does an · RCAU processing board failure or

AUDIO SELECT power loss.
FAULT mean?
After the · It can be accomplished by closing the
oxygen mask left oxygen mask door and pressing the
has been TEST pb.
pulled out how
can you use
the boom
microphone
again without
re-stowing the
oxygen mask?

Where is the · In the ceiling of the cabin between the

ELT transmitter passenger entry door and the lavatory
located? door.

Where is the · In fairing ahead of the stabilizer fin.

ELT antenna
located?

When does ELT · When deceleration exceeds 5 G's*.

transmission
occur?

Name the 11 · Hot Main Battery Bus. · DC Bus 1. · DC

DC buses. Emergency Bus.
· Hot Emergency Battery Bus. · DC Bus 2.
· DC Service Bus. · Utility Bus 1.
· DC Standby Bus. · Utility Bus 2.
· DC ESS Bus. · DC Ground Handling Bus.

What is the · It is for engine starting and emergency

function of the power supply which includes propeller
43 AH (Main) feathering.
battery?

What is the · To provide power to the emergency

function of the network if the main battery becomes
15 AH depleted. It's secondary role is to avoid
(Emergency) power transients on critical equipment
battery? during engine starts.
(42) What is the · Each connects the battery for charging.
role of the two · Analyzes the charge current and or
battery associated DC bus voltage so as to
protection prevent thermal runaway.
units (BPU)?

What is the · It provides for the control of bus tie

role of the Bus contactor.
Power Control · Battery start contactor.
Unit (BPCU)? · Load shedding.
· External power function.
· DC Service bus contactors.

How many · 18 volts.

volts are
required for
the inverters to
work?

What is the · Controls the generator contactor and

role of the the start contactor.
Generator
Control Unit
(GCU)?
List the (ECU fault lights will initially be on in 42.)
sequence of · Engine Start Rotary Selector to Start
events while · Press Start pb for Engine #1
starting Engine · 10% Nh: Move CL to FTR which
#1 (assume #2 introduces fuel and ignition
is already · 10% Nh: Generator #2 begins providing
running). power to the start circuit in addition to
the battery
· 25% Nh: ECU fault light extinguishes (42
only)
· 45% Nh: Start #1 ON light extinguishes =
starter / generator is resting
· 61.5% Nh: Starter / Generator #1 acts as
a generator
· 66% Nh = 42 / about 62% Nh = 72: Move
CL to Max RPM

In order of · Hot Emergency Battery Bus.

priority, in what · DC Bus 1.
ways can the · DC Bus 2.
DC Emergency
Bus be
supplied?

In order of · Hot Main Battery Bus.

priority, in what · DC Bus 1.
ways can DC · DC Bus 2.
ESS Bus be
supplied?

What does DC · Hot Emergency Battery Bus.

Bus 1 normally · DC Emergency Bus.
supply? · DC Standby Bus.
· Utility Bus 1.
· Inverter 1.
· DC Service Bus.
What does DC · Hot Main Battery Bus.
Bus 2 normally · DC ESS Bus.
supply? · Utility Bus 2.
· Inverter 2.

In the normal · Hot emergency battery bus.

mode, the DC
emergency
bus & DC
standby bus
are powered
by?

In basic mode · DC emergency bus: Hot Emergency

what powers Battery bus
the busses? · DC essential bus, DC and AC STBY
busses: Hot main battery bus until
override pb depressed
· After Override pb is depressed the DC
and AC STBY supply will change to the
Hot Emergency Battery bus

What lights on · DC generator 1 & 2 fault.

the electrical · DC bus 1 & 2 fault.
panel will be · DC utility bus shed.
on with battery · Both battery charge contactor Fault
power only? lights
· Both battery arrows
· AC Bus 1 & 2
· Inverter 2
· AC wild bus 1 & 2 off.
· AC wild generator 1 & 2 fault.

What lights on · DC generator 1 & 2 fault.

the electrical · AC wild generator 1 & 2 fault.
panel will be · AC wild bus 1 & 2 off.
on with GPU
power?
What lights on · Hyd.
the CAP will be · Anti-icing.
on with GPU · Fuel.
power? · Elect.
· Air.
· Prkg. Brk.
· ENG

How is the · By the main battery or by external

Ground power.
Handling Bus
supplied?

What does the · The ground handling bus is being

red light on the supplied by the hot main battery bus.
cargo door Note: The red light indicates that the
panel mean? main battery is emptying, even if the
battery switch is in the off position.

What happens · It is de-energized.

to the ground
handling bus in
flight?

How can we · Open an entrance door.

activate the · Open the fueling panel.
GND HDLG · Open the cargo door operating panel
BUS without cover.
turning the · Activate the DC AUX PUMP.
battery on?

How is the DC · It can be powered by external power

SVCE Bus or DC BUS 1.
powered, and · If it is being powered by external
why is it power the flight attendant has control,
important to and if it is being powered by DC Bus 1
know? then the pilots have control.
Note: At no time do the pilots have an
indication of the status of the Service
bus. Just control via the SVCE/UTIL pb.
What does a · At least one UTIL BUS is disconnected
DC SVCE / from its associated main DC Bus.
ULIT Bus shed Note: To determine which one, check the
light mean? recirculation fans.

Each battery · Thermal runaway of associated battery.

Charge · Undervoltage of DC MAIN Bus (< 25
Contactor is volts).
closed in · Start sequence initiated (both are
normal opened until Engine Start Rotary Sel. is
operation. OFF - but no fault light illuminates).
When do they · Battery switch selected to OVRD.
open?

What does a · An overheat is detected by the BPU

battery charge and the contactor is opened.
fault mean? · A failure of the charge contactor.

What major · Master cautions and aural warnings still

items are work if other busses are powered.
affected by a · Torque gauges inop.
loss of the DC · VHF 1 radio inop.
emergency · Standby horizon inop.
bus?* · Both bleeds and packs will be lost.
· AC wild powered blue hydraulic pump
is lost. Use the hyd. Crossfeed.
· Captain and standby probes heating is
lost.
· Captain and standby altimeters should
be compared to the first officers side.
· Normal pitch trim is lost, but the
standby pitch trim will work if the other
busses are powered.
What items are · Red light on forward cargo door.
on the DC · Fueling control and indicators.
ground · DC aux. pump power supply and
handling bus? indication when on the ground.
· Cargo door power supply.
· 2 minute lights.

What are the · Flap indicator.

major items on · Course / heading select panel 1.
the 26 volt AC · First officers RMI.
standby bus?* · Some EFIS comparator warnings.

What does the · Hydraulic pumps.

ACW system · Anti-ice Heat.
run? · Landing, Taxi, and Strobe lights
· LAV flush.
· Hot Jugs.

What is the · Pressure of 1850 psi is reduced to 78

pressure of the psi.
oxygen
system?

How long can · at least 15 minutes.

the oxygen
system provide
100% oxygen
to the crew?

What must · A fire signal must be detected by both

happen for the loops A & B unless one is de-selected.
RED ENG FIRE Then the other will work alone.
to illuminate?
What happens · Fuel LP valve is closed.
when the fire · Air: Bleed and HP valves are closed.
handle is · Arms the Squibs and light is illuminated.
pulled? · De-ice and isolation valves are closed.
· Electrical: ACW and DC generators are
deactivated.
· Prop is feathered.

How is aileron · By offsetting the LH aileron tab from

trim the neutral position.
performed?

When do the · At 2.5° aileron deflection.

spoiler start to
deploy?

What do the · The associated spoiler is not in the

spoiler lights retracted position.
indicate?

How many · 2; each control column controls the

elevators are associated elevator; and through the
there? pitch coupling mechanism; the other
elevator and opposite column.

How is pitch · By offsetting both tabs from the neutral

trimming position.
performed?

What happens · An alert on the CCAS.

when the pitch · Normal and standby trims are
tabs become inoperative.
desynchronize · The AP disconnects.
d?

What is the · It limits excessive movement of the

rudder rudder due to wind gusts.
damper?
What is the · Similar to a balance tab, it operates in
rudder spring the opposite direction of desired rudder
tab? travel in flight. Relative wind then assists
in moving the rudder. The amount of
deflection of the tab in relation to the
rudder is proportional to air load on the
rudder.

What does the · Changes "neutral" spring tab position

rudder trim
do?

How do the · The lever electrically controls the flap

flaps operate? valve which hydraulically actuates the 4
flap actuators.

What happens · The flaps stay in their present position

when flap and the control lever no longer works
asymmetry
occurs?

What is FLAP · Spurious retraction from flaps 15° and

UNLK? more; the alert is triggered if retraction
is more than 3° * (42).

After the flaps · There is a leak in the system.

are extended
to there
selected
position there
is still a EXT
flag; what
might this
mean?

What are the · Static air pressure from static port.

inputs to each · Total air pressure from pitot tube.
ADC? · Total air temperature from TAT probe.
What does the · Pressure altitude.
ADC · Vertical speed.
compute? · Computed airspeed (IAS).
· True airspeed.
· Total air temperature.
· Static air temperature.

What happens · The associated airspeed, altimeter and

with an ADC VSI are lost and unrecoverable.
failure and can · With ADC 1 failure we lose the TAT and
we recover the SAT indicator (42) and the pressurization
lost items? system now uses ADC 2.

How many TAS · 3; 1 analog from respective ADC

inputs are directly, 1 digital from each ADC through
there to each the ASCB.
AHRS?

Is the TAT · No.

probe heated
on the
ground?

What makes up · 2 Attitude heading reference units.

the AHRS? · 2 Flux valves.
· 1 Dual remote compensator.

What is a flux · A device that senses magnetic north,

valve? much like a magnetic compass.

What does · SGU 1.

AHRS 1 · F/O RMI.
supply? · FDAU.
· Radar stabilization.
· ASCB.

What does · SGU 2.

AHRS 2 · CPT's RMI.
supply? · ASCB.
What · A red OFF flag appears. The ADF
indication do needle displays relative bearing only;
we have of an while the VOR needle displays magnetic
RMI failure bearing to the station.
(The RMI itself
or AHRS
failure)?

When does the · If the SGUs note a 6° heading

EFIS COMP difference between the 2 AHRS with the
light bank less the 6° (if the aircraft bank is
illuminate? greater than 6° the threshold is 12°);
there will also be an amber HDG in the
upper right corner of the EADI.
· If the 2 SGUs disagree more than 6° on
the pitch we see a PIT.
· If the 2 SGUs disagree more than 6° on
the roll we see a ROL.
· If the 2 SGUs disagree more than 6° on
the pitch and roll we see ATT.
· ILS parameters: .6° LOC, .2° GS, both
out of limits: ILS

What · If part A and / or B fails we see two red

indication do X's on both the EADI and the EHSI.
we have of a · If part C fails or if the whole SGU fails
SGU failure? we see 2 blank screens.
What are the 3 · C = Symbol generation; this part
parts of the generates the symbols going to the
SGU? CRT's.
· B = ASCB Input output; this part sends
and receives data from the ASCB
enabling exchange of data from the
other pilots data.
· A = Data input; this part receives data
from AHRS and NAV systems.
· Memory aid: A = Acquires data. B = Both
can share. C = Creates the picture.

You see one · CRT failure

blank CRT.
What type of
failure is this?

You see two · SGU failure

blank CRTs.
What type of
failure is this?

You see a · SGU failure but part C still works

large red X on
both CRTs.
What type of
failure is this?

You see a · AHRS

"blue ball" on
the EADI with
ATT fail and an
empty
compass rose
on the EHSI
with HDG fail.
What failed?
You see a · Source failure. For example, if the red X
small red X on covers the glideslope, no suitable
some glideslope signal is being received.
information.
What type of
failure is this?

After a source · The course knob on the captain's side.

failure of Nav 1,
the captain
selects
VOR/ILS
Switching.
Which course
knob should
the captain
use?

After a failure · Nav 1 and the course knob on the

of AHRS #1, captain's side.
which nav
source and
course knob
should the
captain use?

After a failure · Nav 2 and the F/O's course knob.

of SGU #1,
which nav
source and
course knob
should the
captain use?
Following the · Turning the EADI brightness all the way
failure of the down until it clicks off.
top CRT, you
go to
composite
mode by doing
what?

Following the · Increase the radar display brightness

failure of the (inner knob for EHSI).
top CRT, you
have gone to
composite
mode but the
colors are
missing. How
do you fix this?

How is the · From HP fuel from the HMU.

engine feed jet
pump
activated?

Where are the · In the feeder compartment.

engine feed jet
pump and
electric pump
located?

Where are the · They are located at the fuel outlet of

LP valves each fuel tank and they can only be
located and operated by pulling their respective fire
how do we handle which electrically closes the
operate them? valve.

What happens · The electric pump is deactivated and

when a fuel the motive flow valve is closed on that
pump pb is side.
deselected?
What · Pump RUN light on (green). Possibly a
indication will very brief FEED LO PR light.
there be if a jet
pump fails in
flight?

When do the · When Fuel low level light illuminates

electric pumps (less than 352 pounds or test PB
automatically pressed).
run? · When the fuel x-feed valve is open.
· When jet pump pressure drops below 5
psi.

If the left fuel · The left fuel gauge on the fuel panel
gauge in the will be inoperative, making the automatic
cockpit is function of the pressure refueling system
inoperative, unusable.
how will the
refueling
system be
affected?

What could be · A fuel leak or jet pump failure and weak

the cause of a electric pump.
engine 1 feed
low pressure
light and
engine 1 fuel
pumps run
light?

Where is the · In the left feeder tank.

fuel tank
temperature
indicator
located?

What is the · 2.54 gallons.*

total hydraulic
fluid volume?
When does the · .67 gallons.*
LO LVL
hydraulic alert
illuminate?

What occurs · The hydraulic x-feed automatically

with a LO LVL closes.
hydraulic
alert?

What is the · 3000 psi.

delivery
pressure of
each hydraulic
pump?

How do the · The blue and green cockpit gauges

hydraulic indicate system pressure, while the
gauges in the exterior gauges indicate the greater of
cockpit differ accumulator pressure or system
from the pressure.
gauges in the · The parking brake accumulator
hydraulic bay? pressure on the cockpit gauge is
showing the fluid side and can drop to
zero after repeated use of the parking
brake with no blue system pressure, but
the exterior gauges show accumulator
pressure on the gas side and should
never drop below 1500 psi.

During a · Green = 1500 psi.

walkaround · Blue = 1500 psi.
what should · Emer/Park 3000 psi.
the exterior
hydraulic
gauges
indicate (no
engines
running)?
When does the · ACW Blue pump pressure less than
DC AUX pump 1500 psi.
automatically · Gear handle down.
run? · At least one engine running.
· Aux Lo PR Sw in/on
· DC Bus 2 Pwrd
· Prop Brake Off

If the blue · No. The pressure provided by the AUX

pump LO PR pump cannot extinguish the blue main
light pump LO PR light due to a check valve.
illuminates on
final approach
(gear down)
will the AUX
pump cycle on
and off?

What is · Ground handling bus must be powered

required for (aircraft must be on the ground).
the standby · Automatic aux. pump logic is not met.
hydraulic
pump pb to
work?

With a total ·6
loss of
hydraulic
pressure, if you
have a full
accumulator
charge, how
many
applications
are available of
the emergency
brake?
What does the · Flap extension and retraction.
blue system · Spoilers.
operate? · Nose wheel steering.
· Emer./park brake.

What does the · Landing gear extension and retraction.

green system · Normal braking.
operate?

What do the · The associated pump pressure is less

pump LO PR than 1500 psi.
lights indicate?

What areas are · Outer and center wing leading edges.

pneumatically · Horizontal tail.
ice protected? · Engine air intakes.
· Separation chambers.

What areas are · Prop. Blades.

electrically ice · Windshields.
protected? · Probes.
· Horns.
· Inlet guide vanes.

What is the · Flashing: Ice detected with level 1 or 2

meaning of the ice protection on (modified in 1999).
amber Icing · Steady: Ice detected with level 3 ice
light on the protection on.
center panel?