DATE : 05/05/2019 Test Booklet Code

S2
ESURYA

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Ph.: 011-47623456

Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720

for
NEET (UG) - 2019
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries
4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

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 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-S2)

1. From evolutionary point of view, retention of 4. Due to increasing air-borne allergens and
the female gametophyte with developing pollutants, many people in urban areas are
young embryo on the parent sporophyte for suffering from respiratory disorder causing
wheezing due to
some time, is first observed in
(1) proliferation of fibrous tissues and
(1) Pteridophytes
damage of the alveolar walls
(2) Gymnosperms (2) reduction in the secretion of surfactants
(3) Liverworts by pneumocytes.

(4) Mosses (3) benign growth on mucous lining of nasal

cavity
Answer ( 1 )
(4) inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles
S o l . In Pteridophyte, megaspore is retained for Answer ( 4 )
some times in female gametophyte, however
S o l . Asthma is a difficulty in breathing causing
the permanent retention is required for seed wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and
formation in Gymnosperms. bronchioles. It can be due to increasing air
That's why Pteridophytes exhibit precursor to born allergens and pollutants. Asthma is an
seed habit only. allergic condition. Many people in urban areas
are suffering from this respiratory disorder.
2. Extrusion of second polar body from egg
5. The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in
nucleus occurs : 1992 was called
(1) before entry of sperm into ovum (1) to assess threat posed to native species
(2) simultaneously with first cleavage by invasive weed species
(2) for immediate steps to discontinue use of
(3) after entry of sperm but before fertilization
CFCs that were damaging the ozone layer
(4) after fertilization (3) to reduce CO 2 emissions and global
Answer ( 3 ) warming
S o l . Extrusion of second polar body from egg (4) for conservation of biodiversity and
nucleus occurs after entry of sperm but sustainable utilization of its benefits
before fertilization. Answer ( 4 )

The entry of sperm into the ovum induces S o l . Earth Summit (Rio Summit)-1992, called upon
all nations to take appropriate measures for
completion of the meiotic division of the
conservation of biodiversity and sustainable
secondary oocyte.
utilisation of its benefits
Entry of sperm causes breakdown of
metaphase promoting factor (MPF) and turns 6. Match the hominids with their correct brain
size :
on anaphase promoting complex (APC).
(a) Homo habilis (i) 900 cc
3. DNA precipitation out of a mixture of (b) Homo neanderthalensis (ii) 1350 cc
biomolecules can be achieved by treatment
(c) Homo erectus (iii) 650-800 cc
with
(d) Homo sapiens (iv) 1400 cc
(1) Methanol at room temperature
Select the correct option.
(2) Chilled chloroform
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) Isopropanol (1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) Chilled ethanol (2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Answer ( 4 ) (3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
S o l . During the isolation of desired gene, chilled (4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
ethanol is used for the precipitation of DNA. Answer ( 1 )

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NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-S2)

S o l . The correct match of hominids and their brain 10. Which of the following ecological pyramids is
sizes are : generally inverted?
Homo habilis — 650-800 cc (1) Pyramid of biomass in a forest
Homo neanderthalensis — 1400 cc (2) Pyramid of biomass in a sea
Homo erectus — 900 cc (3) Pyramid of numbers in grassland
Homo sapiens — 1350 cc
(4) Pyramid of energy
7. How does steroid hormone influence the Answer ( 2 )
cellular activities?
S o l . In an aquatic ecosystem, the pyramid of
(1) Activating cyclic AMP located on the cell biomass is generally inverted.
membrane
(2) Using aquaporin channels as second TC = Large fishes
messenger
SC = Small fishes
(3) Changing the permeability of the cell PC = Zooplanktons
membrane PP = Phytoplanktons
(4) Binding to DNA and forming a gene-
hormone complex
11. Which of the following pair of organelles does
Answer ( 4 ) not contain DNA?
S o l . Steroid hormones directly enter into the cell
(1) Lysosomes and Vacuoles
and bind with intracellular receptors in
nucleus to form hormone receptor complex. (2) Nuclear envelope and Mitochondria
Hormone receptor complex interacts with the (3) Mitochondria and Lysosomes
genome
(4) Chloroplast and Vacuoles
8. Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to :
Answer ( 1 )
(1) DNA polymorphism
S o l . Lysosomes and Vacuoles do not have DNA.
(2) Novel DNA sequences
(3) Genes expressed as RNA 12. Select the correct sequence for transport of
sperm cells in male reproductive system.
(4) Polypeptide expression
(1) Seminiferous tubules  Vasa efferentia 
Answer ( 3 )
Epididymis  Inguinal canal  Urethra
S o l . Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) are DNA
sequences (genes) that are expressed as (2) Testis  Epididymis  Vasa efferentia 
mRNA for protein synthesis. These are used in Vas deferens  Ejaculatory duct 
human Genome Project. Inguinal canal  Urethra  Urethral
meatus
9. It takes very long time for pineapple plants to
produce flowers. Which combination of (3) Testis  Epididymis  Vasa efferentia 
hormones can be applied to artificially induce Rete testis  Inguinal canal  Urethra
flowering in pineapple plants throughout the (4) Seminiferous tubules  Rete testis 
year to increase yield? Vasa efferentia  Epididymis  Vas
(1) Gibberellin and Abscisic acid deferens  Ejaculatory duct  Urethra 
(2) Cytokinin and Abscisic acid Urethral meatus
(3) Auxin and Ethylene Answer ( 4 )
(4) Gibberellin and Cytokinin S o l . The correct sequence for transport of sperm
Answer ( 3 ) cells in male reproductive system is
Seminiferous tubules  Rete testis  Vasa
S o l . Plant hormone auxin induces flowering in
pineapple. Ethylene also helps in efferentia  Epididymis  Vas deferens 
synchronization of flowering and fruit set up Ejaculatory duct  Urethra  Urethral
in pineapple. meatus

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 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-S2)

13. Match the following hormones with the 16. Cells in G0 phase :
respective disease
(1) suspend the cell cycle
(a) Insulin (i) Addison's disease
(2) terminate the cell cycle
(b) Thyroxin (ii) Diabetes insipidus
(3) exit the cell cycle
(c) Corticoids (iii) Acromegaly
(d) Growth Hormone (iv) Goitre (4) enter the cell cycle

(v) Diabetes mellitus Answer ( 3 )

Select the correct option. S o l . Cells in G0 phase are said to exit cell cycle.
(a) (b) (c) (d) These are at quiescent stage and do not
proliferate unless called upon to do so.
(1) (v) (iv) (i) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) 17. Match the following structures with their
respective location in organs
(3) (v) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (a) Crypts of Lieberkuhn (i) Pancreas

Answer ( 1 ) (b) Glisson's Capsule (ii) Duodenum

Sol.  Insulin deficiency leads to diabetes (c) Islets of Langerhans (iii) Small
mellitus
intestine
 Hypersecretion or hyposecretion of
thyroxine can be associated with (d) Brunner's Glands (iv) Liver
enlargement of thyroid gland called goitre Select the correct option from the following
 Deficiency of corticoids (Glucocorticoid + (a) (b) (c) (d)
mineralocorticoid) leads to Addison's
disease (1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
 Growth hormone hypersecretion in adults (2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
leads to Acromegaly
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
14. Persistent nucellus in the seed is known as
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(1) Hilum (2) Tegmen
Answer ( 1 )
(3) Chalaza (4) Perisperm
Answer ( 4 ) S o l . Crypts of Lieberkuhn are present in small
intestine. Glisson's capsule is present in liver.
S o l . Persistent Nucellus is called Perisperm
Islets of langerhans constitutes the endocrine
e.g.: Black pepper, Beet portion of pancreas. Brunner's glands are
15. Pinus seed cannot germinate and establish found in submucosa of duodenum.
without fungal association. This is because :
18. Grass leaves curl inwards during very dry
(1) it has very hard seed coat. weather. Select the most appropriate reason
(2) its seeds contain inhibitors that prevent from the following
germination.
(1) Shrinkage of air spaces in spongy
(3) its embryo is immature. mesophyll
(4) it has obligate association with (2) Tyloses in vessels
mycorrhizae.
(3) Closure of stomata
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Fungus associated with roots of Pinus (4) Flaccidity of bulliform cells
increases minerals & water absorption for Answer ( 4 )
the plant by increasing surface area and in
turn fungus gets food from plant. Therefore, S o l . Bulliform cells become flaccid due to water
mycorrhizal association is obligatory for Pinus loss. This will make the leaves to curl inward
seed germination to minimise water loss

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NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-S2)

19. Consider the following statements : 22. Phloem in gymnosperms lacks :

(A) Coenzyme or metal ion that is tightly (1) Companion cells only
bound to enzyme protein is called (2) Both sieve tubes and companion cells
prosthetic group.
(3) Albuminous cells and sieve cells
(B) A complete catalytic active enzyme with (4) Sieve tubes only
its bound prosthetic group is called
Answer ( 2 )
apoenzyme.
S o l . Phloem in Gymnosperms lacks both sieve
Select the correct option.
tube and companion cells.
(1) Both (A) and (B) are false. 23. Under which of the following conditions will
(2) (A) is false but (B) is true. there be no change in the reading frame of
following mRNA?
(3) Both (A) and (B) are true.
5AACAGCGGUGCUAUU3
(4) (A) is true but (B) is false.
(1) Insertion of A and G at 4th and 5th positions
Answer ( 1 ) respectively
S o l . “Coenzymes, metal ions and prosthetic groups (2) Deletion of GGU from 7 th , 8 th and 9 th
that is bound to enzyme protein is called co- positions
factor. Prosthetic groups are tightly bound to
(3) Insertion of G at 5th position
enzyme where as metal ions and coenzymes
are not tightly bound to enzyme.” (4) Deletion of G from 5th position

20. Respiratory Quotient (RQ) value of tripalmitin Answer ( 2 )

is Sol.
(1) 0.07 (2) 0.09 5 3
m-RNA - A A C A G C G G U G C U A U U
(3) 0.9 (4) 0.7
Answer ( 4 )
Deletion

Amount of CO2 released 5 3

Sol. Respiratory Quotient 
RQ  Amount of O2 consumed A A C A G C G C U A U U
No change in reading frame of m-RNA.
2(C51H98O6) + 145O2  102CO2 + 98H2O
24. Identify the cells whose secretion protects the
Tripalmitin + Energy lining of gastro-intestinal tract from various
enzymes.
102 CO2
RQ   0.7 (1) Oxyntic Cells (2) Duodenal Cells
145 O2
(3) Chief Cells (4) Goblet Cells
21. Which of the following statements is Answer ( 4 )
incorrect?
S o l . Goblet cells secrete mucus and bicarbonates
(1) Infective constituent in viruses is the present in the gastric juice which plays an
protein coat. important role in lubrication and protection of
the mucosal epithelium from excoriation by
(2) Prions consist of abnormally folded
the highly concentrated HCl.
proteins.
25. What is the site of perception of photoperiod
(3) Viroids lack a protein coat. necessary for induction of flowering in
(4) Viruses are obligate parasites. plants?
Answer ( 1 ) (1) Shoot apex (2) Leaves

S o l . Infective constituent in viruses is either DNA (3) Lateral buds (4) Pulvinus
or RNA, not protein. Answer ( 2 )

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 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-S2)

S o l . During flowering, photoperiodic stimulus is 29. Which of these following methods is the most
perceived by leaves of plants. suitable for disposal of nuclear waste?
(1) Dump the waste within rocks under deep
26. What would be the heart rate of a person if
ocean
the cardiac output is 5 L, blood volume in the
(2) Bury the waste within rocks deep below
ventricles at the end of diastole is 100 mL and
the Earth's surface
at the end of ventricular systole is 50 mL?
(3) Shoot the waste into space
(1) 100 beats per minute (4) Bury the waste under Antarctic ice-cover
(2) 125 beats per minute Answer ( 2 )
(3) 50 beats per minute S o l . Storage of nuclear waste should be done in
suitably shielded containers and buried within
(4) 75 beats per minute rocks deep below the earth's surface (500 m
Answer ( 1 ) deep)
30. Which of the following statements is
S o l . Cardiac output = stroke volume × Heart rate
incorrect?
 Cardiac output = 5L or 5000 ml (1) Conidia are produced exogenously and
 Blood volume in ventricles at the end of ascospores endogenously.
diastole = 100 ml (2) Yeasts have filamentous bodies with long
thread-like hyphae.
 Blood volume in ventricles at the end of
(3) Morels and truffles are edible delicacies.
systole = 50 ml
(4) Claviceps is a source of many alkaloids
Stroke volume = 100 – 50 and LSD.
= 50 ml. Answer ( 2 )
So, S o l . Yeast is an unicellular sac fungus. It lacks
filamentous structure or hyphae.
5000 ml = 50 ml × Heart rate 31. Which one of the following equipments is
So, Heart rate = 100 beats per minute. essentially required for growing microbes on
a large scale, for industrial production of
27. Tidal Volume and Expiratory Reserve Volume
enzymes?
of an athlete is 500 mL and 1000 mL,
(1) Industrial oven (2) Bioreactor
respectively. What will be his Expiratory
(3) BOD incubator (4) Sludge digester
Capacity if the Residual Volume is 1200 mL?
Answer ( 2 )
(1) 2200 mL (2) 2700 mL
S o l . To produce enzyme in large quantity
(3) 1500 mL (4) 1700 mL equipment required are bioreactors. Large
scale production involves use of
Answer ( 3 )
bioreactors.
S o l . Tidal Volume = 500 ml 32. Match the following organisms with the
Expiratory Reserve Volume = 1000 ml products they produce
(a) Lactobacillus (i) Cheese
Expiratory Capacity = TV + ERV
(b) Saccharomyces (ii) Curd
= 500 + 1000 cerevisiae
= 1500 ml (c) Aspergillus niger (iii) Citric Acid
28. Placentation in which ovules develop on the (d) Acetobacter aceti (iv) Bread
inner wall of the ovary or in peripheral part, is (v) Acetic Acid
Select the correct option.
(1) Parietal (2) Free central
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) Basal (4) Axile
(1) (iii) (iv) (v) (i)
Answer ( 1 ) (2) (ii) (i) (iii) (v)
S o l . In parietal placentation the ovules develop on (3) (ii) (iv) (v) (iii)
the inner wall of ovary or in peripheral part. (4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (v)
eg. Mustard, Argemone etc. Answer ( 4 )

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NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-S2)

S o l . Microbes are used in production of several S o l . Growth rings are formed by the seasonal
household and industrial products – activity of cambium. In plants of temperate
Lactobacillus – Production of curd regions, cambium is more active in spring and
less active in autumn seasons. In temperate
Saccharomyces cerevisiae – Bread making
regions climatic conditions are not uniform
Aspergillus niger – Citric acid production throughout the year. However in tropics
Acetobacter aceti – Acetic acid climatic conditions are uniform throughout
33. Select the incorrect statement. the year.

(1) Inbreeding selects harmful recessive 36. Which of the following is true for Golden
genes that reduce fertility and productivity rice?

(2) Inbreeding helps in accumulation of (1) It is drought tolerant, developed using

superior genes and elimination of Agrobacterium vector
undesirable genes (2) It has yellow grains, because of a gene
(3) Inbreeding increases homozygosity introduced from a primitive variety of rice

(4) Inbreeding is essential to evolve purelines (3) It is Vitamin A enriched, with a gene from
in any animal. daffodil

Answer ( 1 ) (4) It is pest resistant, with a gene from

Bacillus thuringiensis
S o l . Inbreeding exposes harmful recessive genes
that are eliminated by selection. It also helps Answer ( 3 )
in accumulation of superior genes and S o l . Golden rice is vitamin A enriched rice, with a
elimination of less desirable genes. Therefore gene from daffodil and is rich in carotene.
this is selection at each step, increase the 37. What is the genetic disorder in which an
productivity of inbred population. Close and
individual has an overall masculine
continued inbreeding usually reduces fertility development gynaecomastia, and is sterile ?
and even productivity.
(1) Edward syndrome
34. Which of the following immune responses is
responsible for rejection of kidney graft? (2) Down's syndrome

(1) Inflammatory immune response (3) Turner's syndrome

(2) Cell-mediated immune response (4) Klinefelter's syndrome
(3) Auto-immune response Answer ( 4 )
(4) Humoral immune response S o l . Individuals with Klinefelter’s syndrome have
trisomy of sex chromosome as 44 + XXY (47).
Answer ( 2 )
They show overall masculine development,
S o l . The body is able to differentiate self and gynaecomastia and are sterile.
nonself and the cell-mediated response is
38. Which one of the following statements
responsible for graft rejection.
regarding post-fertilization development in
35. Which of the statements given below is not flowering plants is incorrect?
true about formation of Annual Rings in trees?
(1) Central cell develops into endosperm
(1) Activity of cambium depends upon
variation in climate. (2) Ovules develop into embryo sac

(2) Annual rings are not prominent in trees of (3) Ovary develops into fruit
temperate region. (4) Zygote develops into embryo
(3) Annual ring is a combination of spring Answer ( 2 )
wood and autumn wood produced in a S o l . Following are the post-fertilisation changes.
year
• Ovule  Seed
(4) Differential activity of cambium causes
light and dark bands of tissue - early and • Ovary  Fruit
late wood respectively. • Zygote  Embryo
Answer ( 2 ) • Central cell  Endosperm

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 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-S2)

39. Which of the following is the most important S o l . True segmentation is present in Annelida,
cause for animals and plants being driven to Arthropoda and Chordata. They also have
extinction? organ system level of organisation, bilateral
(1) Economic exploitation symmetry and are true coelomates
(2) Alien species invasion 42. Which of the following factors is responsible
(3) Habitat loss and fragmentation for the formation of concentrated urine?

(4) Drought and floods (1) Secretion of erythropoietin by

Juxtaglomerular complex
Answer ( 3 )
(2) Hydrostatic pressure during glomerular
S o l . Habitat loss and fragmentation is the most
filtration
important cause driving animals and plants to
extinction. (3) Low levels of antidiuretic hormone
eg: Loss of tropical rainforest reducing the (4) Maintaining hyperosmolarity towards
forest cover from 14 % to 6 %. inner medullary interstitium in the kidneys.
40. Which of the following contraceptive methods Answer ( 4 )
do involve a role of hormone? S o l . The proximity between loop of henle and vasa
(1) CuT, Pills, Emergency contraceptives. recta as well as counter current in them help
(2) Pills, Emergency contraceptives, Barrier in maintaining an increasing osmolalrity
methods. towards the inner medullary interstitium. This
(3) Lactational amenorrhea, Pills Emergency mechanism help to maintain a concentration
contraceptives. gradient in medullary interstitium so human
urine is nearly four times concentrated than
(4) Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea,
initial filtrate formed.
Pills.
43. Match the following organisms with their
Answer ( 3 )
respective characteristics :
S o l .  In lactational amenorrhoea, due to high
(a) Pila (i) Flame cells
prolactin level, gonadotropin level
decreases. (b) Bombyx (ii) Comb plates
 Oral pills are either progestogens or (c) Pleurobrachia (iii) Radula
progestogen-estrogen combinations used (d) Taenia (iv) Malpighian tubules
by the females.
Select the correct option from the following :
 Emergency contraceptives includes the
administration of progestogens or (a) (b) (c) (d)
progestogen-estrogen combination or (1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
IUDs within 72 hour of coitus. (2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
So, lactational amenorrhoea, oral pills and (3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
emergency contraceptives involve a role of
hormone. (4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

41. Consider following features Answer ( 4 )

(a) Organ system level of organisation S o l . (a) Pila is a Mollusc. The mouth contains a file
- like rasping organ for feeding called
(b) Bilateral symmetry
radula.
(c) True coelomates with segmentation of
body (b) Bombyx is an Arthropod. In Bombyx
excretion takes place through malpighan
Select the correct option of animal groups
tubules.
which possess all the above characteristics
(c) Pleurobrachia is Ctenophore. The body
(1) Arthropoda, Mollusca and Chordata
bears eight external rows of ciliated comb
(2) Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata plates, which help in locomotion.
(3) Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata
(d) Taenia is a platyhelminth specialised cells
(4) Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca called flame cells helps in osmoregulation
Answer ( 3 ) and excretion
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NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-S2)

44. Xylem translocates 48. Which of the following can be used as a biocontrol
agent in the treatment of plant disease?
(1) Water, mineral salts and some organic
nitrogen only (1) Anabaena (2) Lactobacillus

(2) Water, mineral salts, some organic (3) Trichoderma (4) Chlorella
nitrogen and hormones Answer ( 3 )
(3) Water only S o l . Fungus Trichoderma is a biological control
agent being developed for use in the
(4) Water and mineral salts only treatment of plant diseases.
Answer ( 2 ) 49. Which of the following glucose transporters is
S o l . Xylem is associated with tanslocation of insulin-dependent?
mainly water, mineral salts, some organic (1) GLUT III (2) GLUT IV
nitrogen and hormones. (3) GLUT I (4) GLUT II
45. What is the direction of movement of sugars Answer ( 2 )
in phloem? S o l . GLUT-IV is insulin dependent and is
(1) Downward responsible for majority of glucose transport
into muscle and adipose cells in anabolic
(2) Bi-directional
conditions. Whereas GLUT-I is insulin
(3) Non-multidirectional independent and is widely distributed in
(4) Upward different tissues.
50. Purines found both in DNA and RNA are
Answer ( 2 )
(1) Guanine and cytosine
S o l . The direction of movement of sugar in phloem
(2) Cytosine and thymine
is bi-directional as it depends on source-sink
relationship which is variable in plants. (3) Adenine and thymine
(4) Adenine and guanine
46. The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle
is Answer ( 4 )

(1) S  G1  G2  M S o l . Purines found both in DNA and RNA are

Adenine and guanine
(2) G1  S  G2  M
51. Drug called ‘Heroin’ is synthesized by
(3) M  G1  G2  S (1) glycosylation of morphine
(4) G1  G2  S  M (2) nitration of morphine
Answer ( 2 ) (3) methylation of morphine
S o l . The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle is (4) acetylation of morphine
G1  S  G2  M Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Heroin, commonly called smack and is
47. The shorter and longer arms of a
chemically diacetylmorphine which is
submetacentric chromosome are referred to
synthesized by acetylation of morphine.
as
52. Select the correct option.
(1) q-arm and p-arm respectively
(1) Each rib is a flat thin bone and all the ribs
(2) m-arm and n-arm respectively are connected dorsally to the thoracic
(3) s-arm and l-arm respectively vertebrae and ventrally to the sternum.

(4) p-arm and q-arm respectively (2) There are seven pairs of vertebrosternal,
three pairs of vertebrochondral and two
Answer ( 4 ) pairs of vertebral ribs.
S o l .  Sub metacentric chromosome is (3) 8th , 9 th and 10 th pairs of ribs articulate
Heterobrachial. directly with the sternum.
 Short arm designated as 'p' arm (4) 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are connected to
the sternum with the help of hyaline
(p = petite i.e. short)
cartilage.
 Long arm designated as 'q' arm Answer ( 2 )

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 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-S2)

Sol. • Vertebrosternal ribs are true ribs, dorsally S o l . In mitochondria, enzymes for electron
they are attached to the thoracic vertebrae transport are present in the inner membrane.
and ventrally connected to the sternum 55. Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by
with the help of hyaline cartilage. First Hugo de Vries are
seven pairs of ribs are called true ribs.
(1) small and directional
• 8 th , 9 th and 10 th pairs of ribs do not
articulate directly with the sternum but (2) small and directionless
join the seventh ribs with the help of (3) random and directional
hyaline cartilage. These are (4) random and directionless
vertebrochondral or false ribs.
Answer ( 4 )
• Last 2 pairs (11 & 12) of ribs are not
S o l . According to Hugo de Vries, mutations are
connected ventrally and are therefore,
random and directionless.
called floating ribs.
Devries believed mutation caused speciation
• Only first seven pairs of ribs are ventrally
and hence called saltation (single step large
connected to the sternum.
mutation).
53. A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the
frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then 56. Following statements describe the
what will be the frequency of homozygous characteristics of the enzyme Restriction
dominant, heterozygous and homozygous Endonuclease. Identify the incorrect
recessive individuals in the population? statement.

(1) 0.16(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.36(aa) (1) The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate
backbone at specific sites on each strand.
(2) 0.16(AA); 0.36(Aa); 0.48(aa)
(2) The enzyme recognizes a specific
(3) 0.36(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.16(aa)
palindromic nucleotide sequence in the
(4) 0.16(AA); 0.24(Aa); 0.36(aa) DNA.
Answer ( 1 ) (3) The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at
S o l . Frequency of dominant allele (say p) = 0.4 identified position within the DNA.
Frequency of recessive allele (say q) (4) The enzyme binds DNA at specific sites
= 1 – 0.4 = 0.6 and cuts only one of the two strands.

 Frequency of homozygous dominant Answer ( 4 )

individuals (AA) S o l . Restriction enzymes cut DNA molecules at a
= p2 = (0.4)2 = 0.16 particular point by recognising a specific
sequence. Each restriction endonuclease
Frequency of heterozygous individuals (Aa)
functions by inspecting the length of a DNA
= 2pq = 2(0.4)(0.6) = 0.48 sequence. Once it finds its specific
Frequency of homozygous recessive recognition sequence, it will bind to the DNA
individuals (aa) and cut each of the two strands of the double
helix at specific points in their sugar-
= q2 = (0.6)2 = 0.36
phosphate backbone.
54. Which of the following statements regarding
57. Which part of the brain is responsible for
mitochondria is incorrect?
thermoregulation?
(1) Inner membrane is convoluted with
infoldings. (1) Corpus callosum

(2) Mitochondrial matrix contains single (2) Medulla oblongata

circular DNA molecule and ribosomes. (3) Cerebrum
(3) Outer membrane is permeable to monomers (4) Hypothalamus
of carbohydrates, fats and proteins. Answer ( 4 )
(4) Enzymes of electron transport are S o l . Hypothalamus in the thermoregulatory centre
embedded in outer membrane. of our brain. It is responsible for maintaining
Answer ( 4 ) constant body temperature.

10
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-S2)
58. Use of an artificial kidney during hemodialysis S o l . To control the deleterious effect of the
may result in : stratospheric ozone depletion an
(a) Nitrogenous waste build-up in the body international treaty was signed at Montreal,
(b) Non-elimination of excess potassium ions Canada in 1987. It is popularly known as
Montreal protocol.
(c) Reduced absorption of calcium ions from
gastro-intestinal tract 61. Which of the following sexually transmitted
(d) Reduced RBC production diseases is not completely curable?
Which of the following options is the most (1) Genital herpes (2) Chlamydiasis
appropriate? (3) Gonorrhoea (4) Genital warts
(1) (c) and (d) are correct Answer ( 1 )
(2) (a) and (d) are correct
S o l . Genital herpes is caused by type-II-herpes
(3) (a) and (b) are correct simplex virus. At present there is no cure for
(4) (b) and (c) are correct type-II-herpes simplex virus and therefore the
Answer ( 1 ) disease caused, genital herpes. Other non-
S o l . (a) and (b) statements are incorrect because curable STIs are hepatitis-B and HIV.
dialysis eliminates urea and potassium from the 62. Thiobacillus is a group of bacteria helpful in
body whereas, c and d are correct. As phosphate carrying out
ions are eliminated during dialysis, along with
(1) Nitrification
that calcium ions are also eliminated. So, there
will be reduced absorption of calcium ions from (2) Denitrification
gastrointestinal tract. RBC production will be (3) Nitrogen fixation
reduced, due to reduced erythropoietin hormone.
(4) Chemoautotrophic fixation
59. What triggers activation of protoxin to active
Bt toxin of Bacillus thuringiensis in boll Answer ( 2 )
worm? S o l . Thiobacillus denitrificans cause denitrification
(1) Alkaline pH of gut i.e., conversion of oxides of nitrogen to free
(2) Acidic pH of stomach N2.
(3) Body temperature 63. In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), a red flower
(4) Moist surface of midgut was crossed with a white flower and in F 1
Answer ( 1 ) generation pink flowers were obtained. When
pink flowers were selfed, the F2 generation
S o l . Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals
showed white, red and pink flowers. Choose
during a particular phase of their growth.
the incorrect statement from the following :
These crystals contain a toxic insecticidal
protein. These protein exist as inactive 1 2 1
(1) Ratio of F 2 is (Red) : (Pink) :
protoxins but once an insect ingest the 4 4 4
inactive toxin, it is converted into an active (White)
form of toxin due to alkaline pH of the gut
(2) Law of Segregation does not apply in this
which solubilize the crystals. The activated
experiment
toxin binds to the surface of midgut epithelial
cells and create pores that cause cell (3) This experiment does not follow the
swelling and lysis and eventually cause death Principle of Dominance.
of insect. (4) Pink colour in F 1 is due to incomplete
60. Which of the following protocols did aim for dominance.
reducing emission of chlorofluorocarbons into
Answer ( 2 )
the atmosphere?
S o l . Genes for flower colour in snapdragon shows
(1) Gothenburg Protocol
incomplete dominance which is an exception
(2) Geneva Protocol
of Mendel's first principle i.e. Law of
(3) Montreal Protocol dominance.
(4) Kyoto Protocol
Whereas Law of segregation is universally
Answer ( 3 ) applicable.

11
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-S2)
64. In a species, the weight of newborn ranges 67. Match the following genes of the Lac operon
from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the newborn with an with their respective products :
average weight between 3 to 3.3 kg survive (a) i gene (i) -galactosidase
whereas 99% of the infants born with weights
from 2 to 2.5 kg or 4.5 to 5 kg die. Which type (b) z gene (ii) Permease
of selection process is taking place? (c) a gene (iii) Repressor
(1) Disruptive Selection (d) y gene (iv) Transacetylase
(2) Cyclical Selection Select the correct option.
(3) Directional Selection (a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) Stabilizing Selection
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
Answer ( 4 )
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
S o l . The given data shows stabilising selection as
most of the newborn having average weight (3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
between 3 to 3.3 kg survive and babies with (4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
less and more weight have low survival rate. Answer ( 1 )
65. Concanavalin A is
S o l . In lac operon
(1) a lectin (2) a pigment
i gene Repressor
(3) an alkaloid (4) an essential oil
z gene -galactosidase
Answer ( 1 )
y gene Permease
S o l . Concanavalin A is a secondary metabolite e.g
is lectin, it has the property to agglutinates a gene  Transacetylase
RBCs. 68. Which of the following statements is not
66. Match the Column-I with Column-II correct?
Column-I Column-II (1) Lysosomes are membrane bound
(a) P - wave (i) Depolarisation of structures
ventricles (2) Lysosomes are formed by the process of
(b) QRS complex (ii) Repolarisation of packaging in the endoplasmic reticulum
ventricles (3) Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic
(c) T - wave (iii) Coronary ischemia enzymes
(d) Reduction in the (iv) Depolarisation of (4) The hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes are
size of T-wave atria active under acidic pH
(v) Repolarisation of Answer ( 2 )
atria S o l . Lysosomes bud off from trans face of Golgi
Select the correct option. bodies.
(a) (b) (c) (d) Precursor of lysosomal enzymes are
(1) (ii) (i) (v) (iii) synthesised by RER and then send to Golgi
(2) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv) bodies for further processing.
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) 69. In some plants, the female gamete develops
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (v) into embryo without fertilization. This
phenomenon is known as
Answer ( 3 )
(1) Syngamy (2) Parthenogenesis
S o l . In ECG P-wave represents depolarisation of
atria. QRS complex represents depolarisation (3) Autogamy (4) Parthenocarpy
of ventricles. T-wave represents Answer ( 2 )
repolarisation of ventricle i.e. return from
S o l . The phenomenon in which female gamete
excited to normal state. Reduction in the size
develops into embryo without getting fused
of T-wave i.e. if the T-wave represents
with male gamete (fertilisation) is called
insufficient supply of oxygen i.e. coronary
parthenogenesis.
ischaemia.

12
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-S2)
70. Match Column - I with Column - II 73. The ciliated epithelial cells are required to
Column - I Column - II move particles or mucus in a specific
(a) Saprophyte (i) Symbiotic association direction. In humans, these cells are mainly
of fungi with plant present in
roots (1) Eustachian tube and Salivary duct
(b) Parasite (ii) Decomposition of (2) Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes
dead organic (3) Bile duct and Bronchioles
materials (4) Fallopian tubes and Pancreatic duct
(c) Lichens (iii) Living on living Answer ( 2 )
plants or animals
S o l . Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes are lined with
(d) Mycorrhiza (iv) Symbiotic ciliated epithelium to move particles or mucus
association of algae in a specific direction.
and fungi
74. Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate,
Choose the correct answer from the options the first irreversible reaction of glycolysis, is
given below catalyzed by
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) Enolase
(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (2) Phosphofructokinase
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (3) Aldolase
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (4) Hexokinase
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 2 ) S o l . Hexokinase catalyse the conversion of
S o l . Saprophytes - Decomposition of dead Glucose to Glucose-6 phosphate. It is the first
organic materials step of activation phase of glycolysis.
Parasites - Grow on/in living plants and 75. Which one of the following is not a method of
animals in situ conservation of biodiversity?
Lichens - Symbiotic association of (1) Botanical Garden (2) Sacred Grove
algae and fungi (3) Biosphere Reserve(4) Wildlife Sanctuary
Mycorrhiza - Symbiotic association of fungi Answer ( 1 )
with plant roots
S o l . Botanical garden - ex - situ conservation (off-
71. Which of the following is a commercial blood
site conservation) i.e. living plants (flora) are
cholesterol lowering agent?
conserved in human managed system.
(1) Streptokinase (2) Lipases
76. The concept of “Omnis cellula-e cellula”
(3) Cyclosporin A (4) Statin regarding cell division was first proposed by
Answer ( 4 ) (1) Schleiden
Sol.  Statin is obtained from a yeast (Fungi) (2) Aristotle
called Monascus purpureus
(3) Rudolf Virchow
 It acts by competitively inhibiting the
(4) Theodor Schwann
enzyme responsible for synthesis of
cholesterol. Answer ( 3 )
72. Which of the following features of genetic S o l . Concept of “Omnis cellula-e cellula” regarding
code does allow bacteria to produce human cell division was proposed by Rudolf Virchow.
insulin by recombinant DNA technology? 77. Select the correct group of biocontrol
(1) Genetic code is nearly universal agents.
(2) Genetic code is specific (1) Oscillatoria, Rhizobium, Trichoderma
(3) Genetic code is not ambiguous (2) Nostoc, Azospirillium, Nucleopolyhedrovirus
(4) Genetic code is redundant (3) Bacillus thuringiensis, Tobacco mosaic
virus, Aphids
Answer ( 1 )
(4) Trichoderma, Baculovirus, Bacillus
S o l . In recombinant DNA technology bacteria is
thuringiensis
able to produce human insulin because
genetic code is nearly universal. Answer ( 4 )

13
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-S2)

S o l . Fungs Trichoderma, Baculoviruses (NPV) and S o l . The correct sequence of organs in the
Bacillus thuringiensis are used as biocontrol alimentary canal of cockroach starting from
agents. mouth is :
Rhizobium, Nostoc, Azospirillum and Pharynx  Oesophagus Crop  Gizzard 
Oscillatoria are used as biofertilisers, Ileum  Colon  Rectum
whereas TMV is a pathogen and aphids are 81. Colostrum the yellowish fluid, secreted by
pests that harm crop plants. mother during the initial days of lactation is
78. Identify the correct pair representing the very essential to impart immunity to the new
causative agent of typhoid fever and the born infants because it contains
confirmatory test for typhoid. (1) Macrophages (2) Immunoglobulin A
(1) Salmonella typhi / Anthrone test (3) Natural killer cells (4) Monocytes
(2) Salmonella typhi / Widal test Answer ( 2 )
(3) Plasmodium vivax / UTI test S o l . Colostrum, the yellowish fluid secreted by the
mother during initial days of lactation is very
(4) Streptococcus pneumoniae / Widal test
essential to impart immunity to the new born
Answer ( 2 ) infant because it contains Immunoglobulin A.
S o l . Salmonella typhi is the causative agent. It will impart naturally acquired passive
Confirmatory test = Widal test, it’s based on immunity to the newborn
antigen antibody reaction. 82. What is the fate of the male gametes
79. Select the incorrect statement. discharged in the synergid?
(1) In domesticated fowls, sex of progeny (1) One fuses with the egg, other(s) fuse(s)
depends on the type of sperm rather than with synergid nucleus.
egg (2) One fuses with the egg and other fuses
(2) Human males have one of their sex- with central cell nuclei.
chromosome much shorter than the other (3) One fuses with egg other(s) degenerate(s)
(3) Male fruit fly is heterogametic in the synergid.
(4) In male grasshoppers 50% of sperms have (4) All fuse with the egg.
no sex-chromosome Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 1 ) S o l . In flowering plants, out of the two male
gametes discharged in synergids, one fuses
S o l . In birds female heterogamety is found thus sex
with the egg and other fuses with the
of progeny depends on the types of egg rather
secondary or definitive nucleus present in
than the type of sperm.
central cell.
eg.
 sperm = A + Z type (100%) Egg (n) + 1st male gamete (n)  Zygote (2n)
Birds Secondary nucleus  2nd male gamete (n) 

(fowls) (2n)
A + Z (50%)
 eggs (central cell nuclei)

A + W (50%) PEN (3n)

80. Select the correct sequence of organs in the 83. What map unit (Centimorgan) is adopted in the
alimentary canal of cockroach starting from construction of genetic maps?
mouth (1) A unit of distance between genes on
(1) Pharynx  Oesophagus  Gizzard  chromosomes, representing 1% cross
Ileum  Crop  Colon  Rectum over.
(2) Pharynx  Oesophagus  Ileum  Crop (2) A unit of distance between genes on
 Gizzard  Colon  Rectum chromosomes, representing 50% cross
over.
(3) Pharynx  Oesophagus  Crop  Gizzard
(3) A unit of distance between two expressed
 Ileum  Colon  Rectum
genes representing 10% cross over.
(4) Pharynx  Oesophagus  Gizzard  Crop
(4) A unit of distance between two expressed
 Ileum  Colon  Rectum
genes representing 100% cross over.
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 1 )
14
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-S2)

S o l . 1 map unit represent 1 % cross over. S o l . Alfred Sturtevant explained chromosomal

Map unit is used to measure genetic distance. mapping on the basis of recombination
This genetic distance is based on average frequency which is directly proportional to
number of cross over frequency. distance between two genes on same
chromosome
84. Select the hormone-releasing Intra-Uterine
Devices. 88. Which of the following statements is
(1) Progestasert, LNG-20 correct?
(2) Lippes Loop, Multiload 375 (1) Cornea is convex, transparent layer which
(3) Vaults, LNG-20 is highly vascularised.
(4) Multiload 375, Progestasert (2) Cornea consists of dense matrix of
Answer ( 1 ) collagen and is the most sensitive portion
the eye.
S o l . Progestasert and LNG-20 are hormone
releasing IUDs which make the uterus (3) Cornea is an external, transparent and
unsuitable for implantation and the cervix protective proteinacious covering of the
hostile to sperms. eye-ball.
85. Select the correctly written scientific name of (4) Cornea consists of dense connective
Mango which was first described by Carolus tissue of elastin and can repair itself.
Linnaeus
Answer ( 2 )
(1) Mangifera indica
S o l . Cornea consists of dense matrix of collagen
(2) Mangifera Indica
and corneal epithelium. It is the most
(3) Mangifera indica Car. Linn. sensitive part of eye.
(4) Mangifera indica Linn.
89. Which of the following muscular disorders is
Answer ( 4 ) inherited?
S o l . According to rules of binomial nomenclature,
(1) Myasthenia gravis
correctly written scientific name of mango is
Mangifera indica Linn. (2) Botulism
86. Which of the following pairs of gases is mainly (3) Tetany
responsible for green house effect? (4) Muscular dystrophy
(1) Nitrogen and Sulphur dioxide
Answer ( 4 )
(2) Carbon dioxide and Methane
S o l . Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle
(3) Ozone and Ammonia
mostly due to genetic disorder is muscular
(4) Oxygen and Nitrogen dystrophy where as tetany is muscular spasm
Answer ( 2 ) due to low calcium in body fluid. Myasthenia
S o l . Relative contribution of various greenhouse gravis is an anto immume disorder leading to
gases to total global warming is paralysis of skeletal muscles. Botulism is rare
 CO2 = 60% and dangerous type of food poisoning caused
by bacterium Clostridium Botulinum.
 CH4 = 20%
 CFC = 14% 90. Polyblend, a fine powder of recycled modified
plastic, has proved to be a good material for
 N2O = 6%
 Therefore CO 2 and CH 4 are the major (1) Construction of roads
greenhouse gases (2) Making tubes and pipes
87. The frequency of recombination between (3) Making plastic sacks
gene pairs on the same chromosome as a
measure of the distance between genes was (4) Use as a fertilizer
explained by : Answer ( 1 )
(1) Alfred Sturtevant (2) Sutton Boveri S o l . Polyblend is a fine powder of recycled
(3) T.H. Morgan (4) Gregor J. Mendel modified plastic waste. The mixture is mixed
Answer ( 1 ) with bitumen that is used to lay roads.
15
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-S2)

91. Average velocity of a particle executing SHM in 

93. A particle moving with velocity V is acted by
one complete vibration is :
three forces shown by the vector triangle PQR.
A2 The velocity of the particle will :
(1) (2) Zero
2 P
A
(3) (4) A
2
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . In one complete vibration, displacement is
zero. So, average velocity in one complete
R Q
vibration
(1) Remain constant
Displacement y f  yi
  0 (2) Change according to the smallest force
Time interval T 
QR
92. Two similar thin equi-convex lenses, of focal
length f each, are kept coaxially in contact (3) Increase
with each other such that the focal length of (4) Decrease
the combination is F 1 . When the space
Answer ( 1 )
between the two lenses is filled with
glycerine (which has the same refractive index Sol. P
( = 1.5) as that of glass) then the equivalent
focal length is F2. The ratio F1 : F2 will be :
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 4
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2
Answer ( 4 ) R Q
Sol. As forces are forming closed loop in same
order

So, Fnet  0

dv
 m 0
dt

 v  cons tant
94. Ionized hydrogen atoms and -particles with
same momenta enters perpendicular to a
constant magnetic field, B. The ratio of their
radii of their paths rH : r will be :
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 4
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2
Answer ( 3 )

1 1 1 2 p
Equivalent focal length in air    S o l . rH 
F1 f f f eB
When glycerin is filled inside, glycerin lens p
behaves like a diverging lens of focal length (–f) r 
2eB
1 1 1 1
   p
F2 f f f rH
 eB
1 r p

f 2eB
F1 1 rH 2
 
F2 2 r 1

16
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-S2)

95. Body A of mass 4m moving with speed u 97. In the circuits shown below, the readings of
collides with another body B of mass 2m, at voltmeters and the ammeters will be
rest. The collision is head on and elastic in
nature. After the collision the fraction of 10  i1
energy lost by the colliding body A is :
4 5
(1) (2) V1 A1
9 9
1 8
(3) (4)
9 9
Answer ( 4 )
10 V
S o l . Fractional loss of KE of ccolliding body
Circuit 1
KE 4  m1m2 
 10  i2
KE  m  m 2
1 2

4  4m  2m 10 

 4m  2m 2 V2 A2
32m2 8
 2

36m 9
96. The speed of a swimmer in still water is
10 V
20 m/s. The speed of river water is 10 m/s and
is flowing due east. If he is standing on the Circuit 2
south bank and wishes to cross the river along
(1) V1 = V2 and i1 = i2 (2) V2 > V1 and i1 > i2
the shortest path the angle at which he should
make his strokes w.r.t. north is given by : (3) V2 > V1 and i1 = i2 (4) V1 = V2 and i1 > i2
(1) 60° west (2) 45° west
Answer ( 1 )
(3) 30° west (4) 0°
S o l . For ideal voltmeter, resistance is infinite and
Answer ( 3 ) for the ideal ammeter, resistance is zero.
S o l . VSR  20 m/s 10
V1  i1  10   10  10 volt
VRG  10 m/s 10

N 10
V RG V2  i2  10   10  10 volt
10
V SG V1 = V2
W E
V SR 
10 V
i1  i2  1 A
10 
S 98. A 800 turn coil of effective area 0.05 m2 is kept
  
VSG  VSR  VRG perpendicular to a magnetic field 5 × 10–5 T. When
 the plane of the coil is rotated by 90° around
VRG any of its coplanar axis in 0.1 s, the emf
sin   
VSR induced in the coil will be:
(1) 2 × 10–3 V (2) 0.02 V
10
sin   (3) 2 V (4) 0.2 V
20
Answer ( 2 )
1 S o l . Magnetic field B = 5 × 10–5 T
sin  
2
Number of turns in coil N = 800
 = 30° west Area of coil A = 0.05 m2
17
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-S2)

Time taken to rotate t = 0.1 s 101. The displacement of a particle executing

Initial angle 1 = 0° simple harmonic motion is given by
Final angle 2 = 90° y = A0 + Asint + Bcost
Change in magnetic flux  Then the amplitude of its oscillation is given
= NBAcos90° – BAcos0° by :
= – NBA (1) A20  (A  B)2
= – 800 × 5 × 10–5 × 0.05
(2) A + B
=–2× 10–3 weber
(3) A0  A2  B2
 ()2  103 Wb
e–   0.02 V
t 0.1 s (4) A 2  B2
99. At a point A on the earth’s surface the angle Answer ( 4 )
of dip,  = +25°. At a point B on the earth’s
surface the angle of dip,  = –25°. We can Sol. B
A 2 B 2
interpret that:
(1) A is located in the northern hemisphere
and B is located in the southern
hemisphere. A

(2) A and B are both located in the southern y = A0 + Asint + Bsint

hemisphere.
Equate SHM
(3) A and B are both located in the northern
hemisphere. y = y – A0 = Asint + Bcost

(4) A is located in the southern hemisphere Resultant amplitude

and B is located in the northern
R  A2  B2  2ABcos90
hemisphere.
Answer ( 1 )  A 2  B2
S o l . Angle of dip is the angle between earth's
102. -particle consists of :
resultant magnetic field from horizontal. Dip
is zero at equator and positive in northern (1) 2 electrons and 4 protons only
hemisphere. (2) 2 protons only
BH
BV B (3) 2 protons and 2 neutrons only
 = (+) ve
(4) 2 electrons, 2 protons and 2 neutrons
Answer ( 3 )
B  = (–) ve
BH S o l . -particle is nucleus of Helium which has two
BV protons and two neutrons.
In southern hemisphere dip angle is 103. A hollow metal sphere of radius R is uniformly
considered as negative. charged. The electric field due to the sphere
100. An electron is accelerated through a potential at a distance r from the centre
dif ference of 10,000 V. Its de Broglie (1) Zero as r increases for r < R, increases as
wavelength is, (nearly) : (me = 9 × 10–31 kg) r increases for r > R
(1) 12.2 × 10–14 m (2) 12.2 nm (2) Decreases as r increases for r < R and for
(3) 12.2 × 10–13 m (4) 12.2 × 10–12 m r>R
Answer ( 4 ) (3) Increases as r increases for r < R and for
S o l . For an electron accelerated through a r>R
potential V (4) Zero as r increases for r < R, decreases as
r increases for r > R
12.27 12.27  1010
 Å  12.27  1012 m Answer ( 4 )
V 10000

18
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-S2)

Sol. + Q S o l . Given
+ +
R 1
r
+ + A2B 2
C x 1
C 3 D3
+ +
+
x A 1 B
Charge Q will be distributed over the surface % error,  100  2  100  
x A 2 B
of hollow metal sphere.
(i) For r < R (inside) 1 c D
100   100  3  100
  q 3 c D
By Gauss law,  in · dS  en0  0
E
1 1
 2  1%   2%   3%  3  4%
 Ein = 0 (∵ qen  0) 2 3
(ii) For r > R (outside)  2%  1%  1%  12%

+ = 16%
+ +
r 105. A force F = 20 + 10 y acts on a particle in y-
+ + direction where F is in newton and y in meter.
+ + Work done by this force to move the particle
+ from y = 0 to y = 1 m is
E (1) 25 J (2) 20 J
(3) 30 J (4) 5 J
1
E0  Answer ( 1 )
r2
S o l . Work done by variable force is
Ein = 0
r
O R yf

  q
W  Fdy
 E0 · dS  en0 yi

Here, yi = 0, yf = 1 m
Here, qen = Q (∵ qen  Q)
1 1
 10y2 
Q  W   (20  10y)dy  20y   = 25 J
 E0 4 r 2  0
 2 0
0
106. In which of the following processes, heat is
1
 E0  neither absorbed nor released by a system?
r2
(1) Isobaric (2) Isochoric
104. In an experiment, the percentage of error (3) Isothermal (4) Adiabatic
occurred in the measurement of physical
quantities A, B, C and D are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% Answer ( 4 )
respectively. Then the maximum percentage of S o l . In adiabatic process, there is no exchange of
1
heat.
A2B 2
error in the measurement X, where X  1
, 107. In which of the following devices, the eddy
C 3D3 current effect is not used?
will be
(1) Electromagnet
(1) – 10% (2) 10% (2) Electric heater
 3  (3) Induction furnace
(3)  % (4) 16%
 13  (4) Magnetic braking in train
Answer ( 4 ) Answer ( 2 )

19
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-S2)

S o l . Electric heater does not involve Eddy 110. Two parallel infinite line charges with linear
currents. It uses Joule's heating effect. charge densities + C/m and – C/m are
placed at a distance of 2R in free space. What
108. The unit of thermal conductivity is : is the electric field mid-way between the two
(1) W m K–1 (2) W m–1 K–1 line charges?

(3) J m K–1 (4) J m–1 K–1  

(1) N/C (2) N/C
 0R 20R
Answer ( 2 )
2
S o l . The heat current related to difference of (3) Zero (4) N/C
 0R
temperature across the length l of a
conductor of area A is Answer ( 1 )

Sol. (2) (1)

dH KA – –
 T (K = coefficient of thermal + +
–
dt  +
+ E1 –
conductivity) –
+ E2 –
+ R –
 dH –
+
 K –
A dt T + –
+ –

Unit of K = Wm–1 K–1

–X X
109. A body weighs 200 N on the surface of the
earth. How much will it weigh half way down
to the centre of the earth ? Electric field due to line charge (1)
(1) 250 N (2) 100 N
  ˆ
(3) 150 N (4) 200 N E1  i N/C
2  0R
Answer ( 2 )
Electric field due to line charge (2)
Sol. g
  ˆ
R d E2  i N/C
2 0R
g
  
C Enet  E1  E2

 ˆ  ˆ
= i i
2  0R 2 0R
Acceleration due to gravity at a depth d from
surface of earth 
= î N / C
 0R
 d
g  g  1   ...(1)
 R 111. A mass m is attached to a thin wire and
whirled in a vertical circle. The wire is most
Where g = acceleration due to gravity at
likely to break when:
earth's surface
(1) the mass is at the lowest point
Multiplying by mass 'm' on both sides of (1)
(2) inclined at an angle of 60° from vertical
 d  R
mg  mg  1   d  
 R   2 (3) the mass is at the highest point

 R  200 (4) the wire is horizontal

 200  1    2  100 N
 2R Answer ( 1 )

20
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-S2)
Sol. 113. A block of mass 10 kg is in contact against the
inner wall of a hollow cylindrical drum of
radius 1 m. The coefficient of friction between
the block and the inner wall of the cylinder is
T 0.1. The minimum angular velocity needed for
u the cylinder to keep the block stationary when
the cylinder is vertical and rotating about its
mg
axis, will be : (g  10 m/s2 )
mu2
T  mg  (1) 10 rad/s (2) 10rad/s
l
10
mu2 (3) 10 rad/s (4) rad/s
T  mg  2
l
Answer ( 1 )
The tension is maximum at the lowest
position of mass, so the chance of breaking is Sol.
maximum.
fL
+6 V 2
N mr
112. 0 R
mg
A 1
LED (Y)
R For equilibrium of the block limiting friction
0
fL  mg
B 1
 N  mg
The correct Boolean operation represented by  mr2  mg
the circuit diagram drawn is :
g
(1) NAND 
r
(2) NOR
g
(3) AND min 
r
(4) OR
10
min  = 10 rad/s
Answer ( 1 ) 0.1 1
S o l . From the given logic circuit LED will glow, 114. A small hole of area of cross-section 2 mm2 is
when voltage across LED is high. present near the bottom of a fully filled open
tank of height 2 m. Taking g = 10 m/s2, the rate
+6 V
of flow of water through the open hole would
R
be nearly
A
(1) 2.23 × 10–6 m3/s
(2) 6.4 × 10–6 m3/s
(3) 12.6 × 10–6 m3/s
B
(4) 8.9 × 10–6 m3/s
Truth Table Answer ( 3 )
A B Y
Sol.
0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1 2m

1 1 0
a = 2 mm2
This is out put of NAND gate. Rate of flow liquid

21
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-S2)

Q  au  a 2gh Sol.
6 2
 2  10 m  2  10  2 m/s
= 2 × 2 × 3.14 × 10–6 m3/s d

= 12.56 × 10–6 m3/s

= 12.6 × 10–6 m3/s
115. When an object is shot from the bottom of a
long smooth inclined plane kept at an angle 60° B
with horizontal, it can travel a distance x 1
along the plane. But when the inclination is
decreased to 30° and the same object is shot O R d
with the same velocity, it can travel x2 distance. Inside (d < R)
Then x1 : x2 will be: Magnetic field inside conductor
(1) 1: 3 (2) 1: 2 3 0 i
B d
2  R2
(3) 1: 2 (4) 2:1
or B = Kd ...(i)
Answer ( 1 ) Straight line passing through origin
Sol. At surface (d = R)

0 i
B ...(ii)
u 2 R
60° Maximum at surface
g sin60° Outside (d > R)

0 i
B
u 2 d
30°
1
g sin30° or B  (Hyperbolic)
d
u2 117. A soap bubble, having radius of 1 mm, is blown
(Stopping distance) x1 
2gsin60 from a detergent solution having a surface
tension of 2.5 × 10–2 N/m. The pressure inside
u2 the bubble equals at a point Z 0 below the
(Stopping distance) x2 
2gsin30 free surface of water in a container. Taking
g = 10 m/s2, density of water = 103 kg/m3, the
x1 sin30 1 2 value of Z0 is :
    1: 3
x2 sin60 2  3 (1) 1 cm (2) 0.5 cm
116. A cylindrical conductor of radius R is carrying (3) 100 cm (4) 10 cm
a constant current. The plot of the magnitude Answer ( 1 )
of the magnetic field. B with the distance d
from the centre of the conductor, is correctly 4T
S o l . Excess pressure = , Gauge pressure
represented by the figure : R
= gZ0
B B
4T
(1) (2) P0   P0  gZ0
R
R d R d 4T
Z0 
B B R  g
(3) (4) 4  2.5  102
Z0  m
R d R d 103  1000  10
Answer ( 1 ) Z0 = 1 cm

22
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-S2)

118. The work done to raise a mass m from the

surface of the earth to a height h, which is
Sol. rB
equal to the radius of the earth, is:

1 3 rA
(1) mgR (2) mgR
2 2

(3) mgR (4) 2mgR

Answer ( 1 )
TA = TB = T
Sol.
2
M R A 
TA
h=R

2
B 
Initial potential energy at earths surface is TB
GMm
Ui 
R  A TB T
  1
B TA T
Final potential energy at height h = R
121. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 20 F
GMm is being charged by a voltage source whose
Uf 
2R potential is changing at the rate of 3 V/s. The
conduction current through the connecting
As work done = Change in PE wires, and the displacement current through
the plates of the capacitor, would be,
 W = Uf – Ui respectively.

(1) 60 A, zero

GMm gR2m mgR
   (∵ GM = gR2)
2R 2R 2 (2) Zero, zero

(3) Zero, 60 A
119. Which of the following acts as a circuit
protecting device? (4) 60 A, 60 A
(1) Switch (2) Fuse Answer ( 4 )

(3) Conductor (4) Inductor S o l . Capacitance of capacitor C = 20 F

Answer ( 2 ) = 20 × 10–6 F

S o l . Fuse wire has less melting point so when  dV 

excess current flows, due to heat produced Rate of change of potential    3 v/s
 dt 
in it, it melts.
q = CV
120. Two particles A and B are moving in uniform
circular motion in concentric circles of radii rA
dq dV
and rB with speed vA and vB respectively. Their C
dt dt
time period of rotation is the same. The ratio of
angular speed of A to that of B will be : ic = 20 × 10–6 × 3
(1) rB : rA (2) 1 : 1 = 60 × 10–6 A

(3) rA : rB (4) vA : vB = 60 A

Answer ( 2 ) As we know that id = ic = 60 A

23
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-S2)

122. The radius of circle, the period of revolution, S o l . In p-type semiconductor, an intrinsic
initial position and sense of revolution are semiconductor is doped with trivalent
indicated in the fig. impurities, that creates deficiencies of
valence electrons called holes which are
y
majority charge carriers.
P(t = 0) 124. Six similar bulbs are connected as shown in
T=4s the figure with a DC source of emf E and zero
internal resistance.
x The ratio of power consumption by the bulbs
3m when (i) all are glowing and (ii) in the situation
when two from section A and one from section
B are glowing, will be :
y - projection of the radius vector of rotating
particle P is : A B

 3t 
(1) y(t)  3cos   , where y in m
 2 

 t 
(2) y(t)  3cos   , where y in m
2
(3) y(t) = –3 cos2t, where y in m E
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
 t 
(4) y(t)  4 sin   , where y in m (3) 4 : 9 (4) 9 : 4
2
Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 4 )
S o l . At t = 0, y displacement is maximum, so S o l . (i) All bulbs are glowing
equation will be cosine function. R R

y R R
Pt=0
R R
T=4s

x
E
R R 2R
Req   
3 3 3
T=4s E2 3E2
i 
Power (P)  ...(1)
Req 2R
2 2 
   rad/s
T 4 2 (ii) Two from section A and one from section
y = a cost B are glowing.
R
 R
y  3cos t
2
R
123. For a p-type semiconductor, which of the
following statements is true ?
(1) Holes are the majority carriers and
E
pentavalent atoms are the dopants.
R 3R
(2) Electrons are the majority carriers and Req  R 
pentavalent atoms are the dopants. 2 2
(3) Electrons are the majority carriers and 2E2
Power (Pf )  ...(2)
trivalent atoms are the dopants. 3R
(4) Holes are the majority carriers and
Pi 3E 2 3R
trivalent atoms are the dopants.   9:4
Answer ( 4 )
Pf 2R 2E 2

24
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-S2)
125. Increase in temperature of a gas filled in a S o l . Red has the longest wavelength among the
container would lead to : given options.
(1) Decrease in its pressure 129. In total internal reflection when the angle of
(2) Decrease in intermolecular distance incidence is equal to the critical angle for the
pair of media in contact, what will be angle of
(3) Increase in its mass
refraction?
(4) Increase in its kinetic energy
(1) Equal to angle of incidence
Answer ( 4 )
(2) 90°
S o l . Increase in temperature would lead to the
increase in kinetic energy of gas (assuming (3) 180°
F (4) 0°
far as to be ideal) as U  nRT
2 Answer ( 2 )
126. In a double slit experiment, when light of
wavelength 400 nm was used, the angular Sol.
width of the first minima formed on a screen
placed 1 m away, was found to be 0.2°. What 90°
will be the angular width of the first minima, if
the entire experimental apparatus is immersed
iC
in water? (water = 4/3)
(1) 0.05° (2) 0.1°
(3) 0.266° (4) 0.15°
At i = i c , refracted ray grazes with the
Answer (4) surface.
 So angle of refraction is 90°.
S o l . In air angular fringe width 0 
D
130. A disc of radius 2 m and mass 100 kg rolls on
Angular fringe width in water a horizontal floor. Its centre of mass has speed
of 20 cm/s. How much work is needed to stop
 
w   0 it?
D 
(1) 2 J (2) 1 J
0.2 (3) 3 J (4) 30 kJ
 = 0.15°
4
3 Answer ( 3 )
 
S o l . Work required = change in kinetic energy
127. The total energy of an electron in an atom in
an orbit is –3.4 eV. Its kinetic and potential Final KE = 0
energies are, respectively:
1 1 3
(1) 3.4 eV, –6.8 eV (2) 3.4 eV, 3.4 eV Initial KE = mv2  I2  mv2
2 2 4
(3) –3.4 eV, –3.4 eV (4) –3.4 eV, –6.8 eV
Answer ( 1 ) 3
  100  (20  102 )2  3 J
S o l . In Bohr's model of H atom 4
|KE| = 3 J
U
 K.E.  TE 
2 131. When a block of mass M is suspended by a long
wire of length L, the length of the wire
 K.E. = 3.4 eV
becomes (L + l). The elastic potential energy
U = –6.8 eV stored in the extended wire is :
128. Which colour of the light has the longest
wavelength? 1 1
(1) Mgl (2) MgL
2 2
(1) Green (2) Violet
(3) Red (4) Blue (3) Mgl (4) MgL
Answer ( 3 ) Answer ( 1 )
25
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-S2)
Sol. If 25% of charge of A transferred to B then

L Q 3Q Q 3Q
qA  Q   and q B  Q  
4 4 4 4
qA qB
l r

kqA qB
F1 
Mg r2
1
U (work done by gravity) 2
2  3Q 
k 
U
1
Mgl F1   42 
2 r
132. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 4 cm
is rotating about its axis at the rate of 3 rpm. 9 kQ
F1 
The torque required to stop after 2 16 r 2
revolutions is
(1) 12 × 10–4 N m (2) 2 × 106 N m 9F
F1 
16
(3) 2 × 10–6 N m (4) 2 × 10–3 N m
Answer ( 3 ) 134. Pick the wrong answer in the context with
rainbow.
S o l . Work energy theorem.
(1) An observer can see a rainbow when his
1 2
W I(f  i2 )  = 2 revolution front is towards the sun
2
= 2 × 2 = 42 rad (2) Rainbow is a combined effect of dispersion
2 refraction and reflection of sunlight
Wi  3  rad / s
60 (3) When the light rays undergo two internal
1 1
 –    mr 2 (02  i2 ) reflections in a water drop, a secondary
2 2 rainbow is formed
2 (4) The order of colours is reversed in the
1 1  2 
  2  (4  10 2 )  3   secondary rainbow
 – 2 2  60 
4 2 Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Rainbow can't be observed when observer
   2  106 N m faces towards sun.
133. Two point charges A and B, having charges +Q 135. A copper rod of 88 cm and an aluminium rod of
and –Q respectively, are placed at certain unknown length have their increase
distance apart and force acting between them in length independent of increase in
is F. If 25% charge of A is transferred to B, then temperature. The length of aluminium rod is :
force between the charges becomes : (Cu = 1.7 × 10–5 K–1 and Al = 2.2 × 10–5 K–1)
16F 4F (1) 88 cm (2) 68 cm
(1) (2)
9 3
(3) 6.8 cm (4) 113.9 cm
9F
(3) F (4) Answer ( 2 )
16
Answer ( 4 ) S o l . CuLCu   AlL Al
A B
S o l . +Q –Q 1.7 × 10–5 × 88 cm = 2.2 × 10–5 × LAl
r
kQ 2 1.7  88
F LAl   68 cm
r 2 2.2

26
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-S2)

136. In which case change in entropy is negative? 139. Which of the following is incorrect statement?

(1) Sublimation of solid to gas (1) GeX4 (X = F, Cl, Br, I) is more stable than
GeX2
(2) 2H(g)  H2(g)
(2) SnF4 is ionic in nature
(3) Evaporation of water
(3) PbF4 is covalent in nature
(4) Expansion of a gas at constant
(4) SiCl4 is easily hydrolysed
temperature
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . PbF4 and SnF4 are ionic in nature.
Sol. •  H2 O  v  , S  0
H2 O     140. Under isothermal condition, a gas at 300 K
expands from 0.1 L to 0.25 L against a
• Expansion of gas at constant constant external pressure of 2 bar. The work
temperature, S > 0 done by the gas is
• Sublimation of solid to gas, S > 0 (Given that 1 L bar = 100 J)
(1) 25 J (2) 30 J
• 2H(g) 
 H2(g), S < 0 (∵ ng < 0)
(3) –30 J (4) 5 kJ
137. For the chemical reaction
Answer ( 3 )

 2NH3 (g)

N2 (g)  3H2 (g)  S o l .  Wirr = – Pext V
= – 2 bar × (0.25 – 0.1) L
The correct option is:
= – 2 × 0.15 L-bar
d[N2 ] 1 d[NH3 ] = – 0.30 L-bar
(1)  
dt 2 dt = – 0.30 × 100 J
d[H2 ] d[NH3 ] = – 30 J
(2) 3 2
dt dt 141. The compound that is most difficult to
protonate is :
1 d[H2 ] 1 d[NH3 ]
(3)  
3 dt 2 dt O
(1) H3C CH3
d[N2 ] d[NH3 ]
(4)  2
O
dt dt
(2) Ph H
Answer ( 1 )
O
 2NH3
S o l . N2  3H2  (3) H H

Rate of reaction is given as O

(4) H3C H
d[N2 ] 1 d[H2 ] 1 d[NH3 ]
   Answer ( 2 )
dt 3 dt 2 dt

138. Which of the following diatomic molecular S o l . Due to involvement of lone pair of electrons in
species has only  bonds according to resonance in phenol, it will have positive
Molecular Orbital Theory? charge (partial), hence incoming proton will
not be able to attack easily.
(1) C2 (2) Be2
142. Which of the following is an amphoteric
(3) O2 (4) N2
hydroxide?
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . MO configuration C2 is: (1) Mg(OH)2 (2) Be(OH)2
2 2
1s2, *1s2, 2s2, *2s2, 2p x  2p y (3) Sr(OH)2 (4) Ca(OH)2

27
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-S2)

Answer ( 2 ) Cl

S o l . Be(OH)2 amphoteric in nature, since it can

AlCl 3
react both with acid and base Sol. + Cl2 + HCl

Be(OH)2 + 2HCl  BeCl2 + 2H2O

Generation of electrophile:
Be(OH)2 + 2NaOH  Na2 [Be(OH)4] .. + –
Cl Cl
.. + AlCl3 Cl Cl AlCl3

..
143. The correct structure of tribromooctaoxide is
–
O O O
–
O O O
–
.. + –
(1) O – Br – Br – Br = O (2) O = Br – Br – Br – O – Cl
.. + AlCl4

..
– – Electrophile
O O O O O
– O
Cl H
O O O O O O
–
(3) O = Br – Br – Br = O (4) O = Br – Br – Br – O Cl+
+
–
O O O – O (i) etc
O O
Answer ( 3 )
Cl Cl
S o l . The correct structure is H
O O O +

O = Br – Br – Br = O (ii)

O O O
Tribromooctaoxide 146. Match the following :
144. The biodegradable polymer is: (a) Pure nitrogen (i) Chlorine
(1) Nylon-6 (2) Buna-S (b) Haber process (ii) Sulphuric acid
(3) Nylon-6,6 (4) Nylon-2-Nylon 6
(c) Contact process (iii) Ammonia
Answer ( 4 )
(d) Deacon’s process (iv) Sodium azide or
S o l . Nylon-2-Nylon 6
Barium azide
145. Among the following, the reaction that
Which of the following is the correct option?
proceeds through an electrophilic
substitution, is: (a) (b) (c) (d)
CI CI (1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
UV light
(1) + Cl2 CI CI (3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

CI
Answer ( 2 )
CI
S o l . (a) Pure nitrogen : Sodium azide or
heat Barium azide
(2) CH 2OH + HCl
(b) Haber process : Ammonia
CH 2Cl + H 2O (c) Contact process : Sulphuric acid
(d) Deacon’s process : Chlorine

+ Cu 2Cl2 147. The number of sigma () and pi () bonds in

–
(3) N 2CI CI + N 2 pent-2-en-4-yne is
(1) 11 bonds and 2 bonds

(4) + Cl2
AlCl 3
CI + HCl
(2) 13 bonds and no  bonds
(3) 10 bonds and 3 bonds
Answer ( 4 ) (4) 8 bonds and 5 bonds
28
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-S2)

Answer ( 3 ) 150. If the rate constant for a first order reaction

is k, the time (t) required for the completion
H H


of 99% of the reaction is given by:
 
 C – C 
S o l . H – C – C = C – H

  (1) t = 4.606/k (2) t = 2.303/k
H H
(3) t = 0.693/k (4) t = 6.909/k
Number of  bonds = 10
Answer ( 1 )
and number of  bonds = 3
S o l . First order rate constant is given as,
148. Enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate transfer
require an alkaline earth metal (M) as the 2.303 [A ]
k log 0
cofactor. M is : t [A]t
(1) Ca (2) Sr 99% completed reaction,
(3) Be (4) Mg 2.303 100
k log
Answer ( 4 ) t 1
S o l . All enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate 2.303
 log102
transfer require magnesium(Mg) as the t
co-factor. 2.303
k  2log10
149. Identify the incorrect statement related to t
PCl5 from the following: 2.303 4.606
t 2 
(1) Axial P–Cl bonds are longer than k k
equatorial P–Cl bonds 4.606
t
(2) PCl5 molecule is non-reactive k
151. The most suitable reagent for the following
(3) Three equatorial P–Cl bonds make an
conversion, is :
angle of 120° with each other
H3 C CH3
(4) Two axial P–Cl bonds make an angle of
H 3C C C CH3
180° with each other H H
cis-2-butene
Answer ( 2 )
(1) Zn/HCl (2) Hg2+/H+, H2O
Axial bond
Cl (3) Na/liquid NH3 (4) H2, Pd/C, quinoline
240 pm
Cl 90°
P Cl Equatorial bond Answer ( 4 )
Sol. 120°
Cl 202 pm H3C CH3
Cl H2, Pd/C,
S o l . H3C C C CH3 C C
quinoline
(1) True H H
cis-2-butene
Axial bond : 240 pm
152. The manganate and permanganate ions are
Equatorial bond : 202 pm tetrahedral, due to :
(2) False (1) The -bonding involves overlap of
p-orbitals of oxygen with p-orbitals of
Due to longer and hence weaker axial manganese
bonds, PCl5 is a reactive molecule.
(2) The -bonding involves overlap of
(3) True d-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of
manganese
Cl
(3) The -bonding involves overlap of
(4) True P 180° p-orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of
manganese
Cl (4) There is no -bonding
29
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-S2)

Answer ( 3 ) Thus Ksp = [Ca2+][OH–]2

O  105  5 2
=   (10 )
S o l . • Manganate (MnO42–) : Mn O  2 
–
O – = 0.5 × 10–15
O
155. For an ideal solution, the correct option is :
 -bonds are of d–p type
(1) mix H = 0 at constant T and P
O
(2) mix G = 0 at constant T and P
• Permanganate (MnO4–) : Mn O (3) mix S = 0 at constant T and P
O
(4) mix V  0 at constant T and P
–
O
 -bonds are of d–p type Answer ( 1 )
153. For a cell involving one electron E°cell = 0.59 V S o l . For ideal solution,
at 298 K, the equilibrium constant for the cell mixH = 0
reaction is :
mixS > 0
 2.303 RT  mixG < 0
Given that  0.059 V at T = 298 K 
F 
mixV = 0
(1) 1.0 × 1010 156. A gas at 350 K and 15 bar has molar volume
(2) 1.0 × 1030 20 percent smaller than that for an ideal gas
under the same conditions. The correct
(3) 1.0 × 102 option about the gas and its compressibility
(4) 1.0 × 105 factor (Z) is :

Answer ( 1 ) (1) Z < 1 and attractive forces are dominant

0.059 (2) Z < 1 and repulsive forces are dominant

S o l . Ecell = E°cell – log Q ...(i)
n
(3) Z > 1 and attractive forces are dominant
(At equilibrium, Q = Keq and Ecell = 0)
(4) Z > 1 and repulsive forces are dominant
0.059
0 = E°cell – log Keq (from equation (i)) Answer ( 1 )
1

E°cell 0.59 Vreal

log Keq = = = 10 Sol. • Compressibility factor(Z) =
0.059 0.059 Videal
Keq = 1010 = 1 × 1010
∵ Vreal < Videal; Hence Z < 1
154. pH of a saturated solution of Ca(OH)2 is 9. The
solubility product (Ksp) of Ca(OH)2 is: • If Z < 1, attractive forces are dominant
among gaseous molecules and
(1) 0.125 × 10–15 (2) 0.5 × 10–10 liquefaction of gas will be easy.
(3) 0.5 × 10–15 (4) 0.25 × 10–10
157. The correct order of the basic strength of
Answer ( 3 ) methyl substituted amines in aqueous solution
2  is :

S o l . Ca(OH)2  Ca  2OH
(1) (CH3)3N > (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2
pH = 9 Hence pOH = 14 – 9 = 5
(2) CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N
[OH–] = 10–5 M
(3) (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N
105
Hence [Ca2+] = (4) (CH3)3N > CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH
2
30
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-S2)

Answer ( 3 ) Answer ( 3 )

S o l . In aqueous solution, electron donating S o l . GΘ =  nF Ecell

Θ

inductive effect, solvation effect (H-bonding) = – 2 × 96500 × 0.24 J mol–1

and steric hindrance all together affect basic
strength of substituted amines = – 46320 J mol–1
= – 46.32 kJ mol–1
Basic character :
161. Which is the correct thermal stability order
(CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N
for H2E (E = O, S, Se, Te and Po)?
2° 1° 3°
(1) H2Po < H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O
158. For the second period elements the correct (2) H2Se < H2Te < H2Po < H2O < H2S
increasing order of first ionisation enthalpy is:
(3) H2S < H2O < H2Se < H2Te < H2Po
(1) Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F < Ne
(2) Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F < Ne (4) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te < H2Po
(3) Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F < Ne Answer ( 1 )
(4) Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne S o l . On going down the group thermal stability
Answer ( 4 ) order for H2E decreases because H–E bond
S o l . ‘Be’ and ‘N’ have comparatively more stable energy decreases
valence sub-shell than ‘B’ and ‘O’.
 Order of stability would be:-
 Correct order of first ionisation enthalpy
is: H2Po < H2Te < H2Se < H2S < H2O

Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne 162. The number of moles of hydrogen molecules
159. Which mixture of the solutions will lead to the required to produce 20 moles of ammonia
formation of negatively charged colloidal through Haber's process is :
[Agl]l– sol ?
(1) 30 (2) 40
(1) 50 mL of 2 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 1.5 M KI
(2) 50 mL of 0.1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 0.1 M KI (3) 10 (4) 20
(3) 50 mL of 1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 1.5 M KI Answer ( 1 )
(4) 50 mL of 1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 2 M KI
S o l . Haber's process
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Generally charge present on the colloid is due N2 (g)  3H2 (g)  2NH3 (g)
to adsorption of common ion from dispersion
medium. Millimole of KI is maximum in 20 moles need to be produced
option (2) (50 × 2 = 100) so act as solvent and
2 moles of NH3  3 moles of H2
anion I– is adsorbed by the colloid AgI formed
3  20
Hence 20 moles of NH3   30 moles of H2
2

163. Which of the following series of transitions in

160. For the cell reaction the spectrum of hydrogen atom fall in visible
region?
2Fe3 (aq)  2I (aq)  2Fe2 (aq)  I2 (aq)
(1) Paschen series (2) Brackett series
EΘ
cell  0.24 V at 298 K. The standard Gibbs
(3) Lyman series (4) Balmer series
energy (r GΘ ) of the cell reaction is :
[Given that Faraday constant F = 96500 C mol–1] Answer ( 4 )
(1) 46.32 kJ mol–1 (2) 23.16 kJ mol–1 S o l . In H-spectrum, Balmer series transitions fall
(3) – 46.32 kJ mol–1 (4) – 23.16 kJ mol–1 in visible region.

31
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-S2)

164. A compound is formed by cation C and Sol.

anion A. The anions form hexagonal close
packed (hcp) lattice and the cations occupy
75% of octahedral voids. The formula of the
compound is :

(1) C3A4 (2) C4A3

(3) C2A3 (4) C3A2

Answer ( 1 )

Sol. • Anions(A) are in hcp, so number of anions

(A) = 6

Cations(C) are in 75% O.V., so number of

cations (C) 167. Which of the following species is not stable?
(1) [Sn(OH)6]2–
3
= 6×
4 (2) [SiCl6]2–

18 (3) [SiF6]2–
=
4 (4) [GeCl6]2–
9 Answer ( 2 )
=
2
S o l . • Due to presence of d-orbital in Si, Ge and
• So formula of compound will be Sn they form species like SiF62–, [GeCl6]2–,
[Sn(OH)6]2–
C 9 A6  C9 A12
2 • SiCl 62– does not exist because six large
chloride ions cannot be accommodated
C9A12  C3A4
around Si4+ due to limitation of its size.
165. The non-essential amino acid among the
following is: 168. Match the Xenon compounds in Column-I
with its structure in Column-II and assign the
(1) Alanine (2) Lysine correct code:
(3) Valine (4) Leucine Column-I Column-II
Answer ( 1 ) (a) XeF4 (i) Pyramidal
S o l . Alanine (b) XeF6 (ii) Square planar
166. An alkene "A" on reaction with O3 and Zn–H2O (c) XeOF4 (iii) Distorted octahedral
gives propanone and ethanal in equimolar (d) XeO3 (iv) Square pyramidal
ratio. Addition of HCl to alkene "A" gives "B"
Code:
as the major product. The structure of
product "B" is: (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
CH3 CH3
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(1) H3C–CH2–C–CH3 (2) H3C–CH–CH
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Cl Cl CH3
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
CH3 CH2Cl Answer ( 4 )
(3) Cl–CH2–CH2–CH (4) H3 C–CH2 –CH–CH3
F F
CH3 S o l . (a) XeF4 : Xe  Square planar
F F
Answer ( 1 )

32
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-S2)
F 171. The structure of intermediate A in the
following reaction, is
F F
 Distorted CH3
(b) XeF6 : Xe CH OH
octahedral CH3 O
F F O2 H
+

A + H3C CH3
H2 O
F
CH3 CH2 – O – O – H
F F
 Square O – O – CH HC
(c) XeOF4 : Xe CH3
F F pyramidal CH3
O (1) (2)

CH3 CH3
Xe O CH
(d) XeO3 : Pyramidal O – CH H3C – C – O – O – H
O 3

O
169. Among the following, the one that is not a (3) (4)
green house gas is Answer ( 4 )
(1) Ozone (2) Sulphur dioxide CH3
CH3
(3) Nitrous oxide (4) Methane CH H3C – C – O – O – H
CH3
Answer ( 2 ) O2 H
+

Sol.
S o l . Fact H 2O

SO2 (g) is not a greenhouse gas. Cumene (A)

Cumene
170. Which of the following reactions are hydroperoxide
disproportionation reaction? OH
O
(a) 2Cu 
 Cu2   Cu0
+ H3C – C –CH3
(b) 3MnO24  4H 
 2MnO4
  MnO2  2H2 O
 172. The mixture that forms maximum boiling
(c) 2KMnO 4   K2MnO 4  MnO2  O2
azeotrope is:
(d) 2MnO4  3Mn2   2H2 O 
 5MnO2  4H
(1) Acetone + Carbon disulphide
Select the correct option from the following
(2) Heptane + Octane
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a) and (d) only
(3) Water + Nitric acid
(3) (a) and (b) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) Ethanol + Water
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 3 )
1
1
S o l . (a) 2Cu 
 S o l . Solutions showing negative deviation from
2 0 Raoult's law form maximum boiling azeotrope
2(  )
Cu  Cu0 } Disproportionation
6 Water and Nitric acid  forms maximum
) ()
(b) 3MnO2(
4  4H 
 boiling azeotrope
7 4
2MnO4  MnO2  2H2 O} Disproportionation 173. What is the correct electronic configuration
7 6 of the central atom in K4[Fe(CN)6] based on

(c) 2KMnO42   K2MnO4  crystal field theory?
4 0
MnO2  O2 }  Not a disproportionation (1) e3 t 32 (2) e4 t 22
7 2
4 2 6 0
(d) 2MnO 4  3Mn2(  )  2H2 O 
 (3) t 2g e g (4) t 2g e g
4
5MnO2  4H } Answer ( 4 )
33
 NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-S2)

S o l . K4[Fe(CN)6] (2) HCl  NaOH  NaCl  H2O

Fe ground state: [Ar]3d64s2 Before 100 mL 100 mL
0
× 0.1 M × 0.1 M
Fe2+: 3d64s0
 10 mmol  10 mmol
eg After 0 0 10 mmol

 Neutral solution

Energy
In (3) CH3COOH  NaOH  CH3COONa  H2O
Spherical t2g Before 25 mL 50 mL
2+ field 0
Fe × 0.1 M × 0.1M
t 62g e0g In the presence of
–
= 2.5 mmol = 5 mmol
6CN strong field After 0 2.5 mmol 2.5 mmol
ii
174. Conjugate base for Br onsted acids H2O and
This is basic solution due to NaOH.
HF are :
This is not basic buffer.
(1) OH– and F–, respectively
(4)
(2) H3O+ and H2F+, respectively CH3COOH  NaOH  CH3COONa  H2O
(3) OH– and H2F+, respectively Before 100 mL 100 mL
0
× 0.1 M × 0.1 M
(4) H3O+ and F–, respectively
 10 mmol  10mmol
Answer ( 1 ) After 0 0 10 mmol
–
OH Conjugate base Hydrolysis of salt takes place.
S o l . H2O
+ This is not basic buffer.
H3O Conjugate acid

HF on loss of H + ion becomes F – is the 176. 4d, 5p, 5f and 6p orbitals are arranged in the
conjugate base of HF order of decreasing energy. The correct
option is
Example :
– + (1) 6p > 5f > 4d > 5p
HF + H2O F + H3O
Acid Base Conjugate Conjugate (2) 5f > 6p > 4d > 5p
base acid
(3) 5f > 6p > 5p > 4d
175. Which will make basic buffer?
(4) 6p > 5f > 5p > 4d
(1) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 200 mL of 0.1 M
NH4OH Answer ( 3 )

(2) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 100 mL of 0.1 M S o l . (n + l) values for, 4d = 4 + 2 = 6

NaOH 5p = 5 + 1 = 6
(3) 50 mL of 0.1 M NaOH + 25 mL of 0.1 M
5f = 5 + 3 = 8
CH3COOH
6p = 6 + 1 = 7
(4) 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH + 100 mL of 0.1 M
NaOH  Correct order of energy would be
Answer ( 1 ) 5f > 6p > 5p > 4d
Sol. 177. Among the following, the narrow spectrum
(1) HCl  NH4OH  NH4Cl  H2O antibiotic is :
Before 100 mL 200 mL (1) Amoxycillin (2) Chloramphenicol
0
× 0.1 M × 0.1 M
(3) Penicillin G (4) Ampicillin
 10 mmol  20 mmol
After 0 10 mmol 10 mmol Answer ( 3 )
This is basic buffer S o l . Penicillin G
34
NEET (UG)-2019 (Code-S2)

178. The major product of the following reaction 179. The method used to remove temporary
is:
hardness of water is :
COOH
strong heating
+ NH3 (1) Ion-exchange method

COOH (2) Synthetic resins method

COOH NH2
(1) (2) (3) Calgon's method

NH2 NH2
(4) Clark's method
O
COOH Answer ( 4 )
(3) (4) NH
S o l . Clark's method is used to remove temporary
CONH 2
O hardness of water, in which bicarbonates of
Answer ( 4 ) calcium and magnesium are reacted with
– + slaked lime Ca(OH)2
COOH COO NH4
Sol. + NH3 Ca(HCO3)2 + Ca(OH)2  2CaCO3 + 2H2O
– +
COOH COO NH 4
Mg(HCO3)2 + 2Ca(OH)2  2CaCO3  + Mg(OH)2 
– 2H2O 
+ 2H2O
CONH 2
180. Which one is malachite from the following?

CONH 2 (1) Fe3O4

– NH3 Strong heating (2) CuCO3.Cu(OH)2
O
(3) CuFeS2
C
NH (4) Cu(OH)2
C
Answer ( 2 )
O
Phthalimide S o l . Malachite : CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 (Green colour)

‰‰‰

35