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    DGCA Regulations - Altimeter, TCAS RA, GPWS Question Bank

    Uploaded by

    Ritvik Singh
    This document contains questions and answers related to altimeter settings and transitioning between altitude and flight levels. Some key points covered include: - The minimum transition altitude is 1500 ft. - The transition level is the first available flight level above the transition altitude. - When approaching an aerodrome, the reported aerodrome altimeter setting should be set when passing the transition altitude. - Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice versa, occurs at the transition altitude during climbs and at the transition level during descents.

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    DGCA Regulations - Altimeter, TCAS RA, GPWS Question Bank

    Uploaded by

    Ritvik Singh
    714 views6 pages
    This document contains questions and answers related to altimeter settings and transitioning between altitude and flight levels. Some key points covered include: - The minimum transition altitude is 1500 ft. - The transition level is the first available flight level above the transition altitude. - When approaching an aerodrome, the reported aerodrome altimeter setting should be set when passing the transition altitude. - Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice versa, occurs at the transition altitude during climbs and at the transition level during descents.

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    Question Bank on specific topic of DGCA Regulations Paper

    Original Title

    DGCA Regulations- Altimeter,TCAS RA, GPWS Question Bank

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    This document contains questions and answers related to altimeter settings and transitioning between altitude and flight levels. Some key points covered include: - The minimum transition altitude is 1500 ft. - The transition level is the first available flight level above the transition altitude. - When approaching an aerodrome, the reported aerodrome altimeter setting should be set when passing the transition altitude. - Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice versa, occurs at the transition altitude during climbs and at the transition level during descents.

    Copyright:

    © All Rights Reserved
    Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online from Scribd
    Download as docx, pdf, or txt
    714 views6 pages

    DGCA Regulations - Altimeter, TCAS RA, GPWS Question Bank

    Uploaded by

    Ritvik Singh
    This document contains questions and answers related to altimeter settings and transitioning between altitude and flight levels. Some key points covered include: - The minimum transition altitude is 1500 ft. - The transition level is the first available flight level above the transition altitude. - When approaching an aerodrome, the reported aerodrome altimeter setting should be set when passing the transition altitude. - Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice versa, occurs at the transition altitude during climbs and at the transition level during descents.

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    ALTIMETER SETTING

    1. What should be the minimum transition altitude?


    a. 3000 ft.
    b. 1000 ft.
    c. 1500 ft.
    d. 2000 ft.

    2. Determination of the Transition Level is the responsibility of:


    a. the Authority of the State.
    b. the ATC Authority.
    c. Approach Control office or the aerodrome Control Tower/ ATS.
    d. Area Control.

    3. What is the transition level?


    a. The first available flight level above the transition altitude.
    b. The highest flight level available below the transition altitude.
    c. The top of the ATZ.
    d. The level at which 1013 is set.

    4. When during the approach should the reported aerodrome altimeter setting
    be set?
    a. When passing 3000 ft AMSL or 1000 ft AGL.
    b. When passing the transition level.
    c. When passing the transition altitude.
    d. Within the transition layer.

    5 . In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft, the


    vertical position of the aircraft shall be expressed as:
    a. flight level at or below the transition level.
    b. flight level at or below the transition altitude.
    c. altitude above sea level at or below the transition altitude.
    d. altitude above sea level at or above the transition altitude.

    6. Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa, is done:


    a. at transition level during the climbs and at transition altitude in the descent.
    b. only at transition altitude.
    c. only at transition level.
    d. at transition altitude during the climbs and at transition level in the
    descent.

    7. During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft
    should be reported as:
    a. altitude above mean sea level during the climb.
    b. flight level during descent.
    c. either altitude above mean sea level or flight level during the climb.
    d. altitude above mean sea level during descent.

    8. What are the two main objectives of altimeter setting?


    a. To read height and barometric pressure
    b. QNH to be set in the vicinity of the aerodrome and QFE en route
    c. To provide adequate terrain clearance and vertical separation
    d. To provide altimeter reference to MSL above the transition altitude and to
    aerodrome
    level below.

    9. Which of the following correctly defines flight level?


    a. Vertical position with reference to MSL
    b. Vertical position with reference to aerodrome elevation c. Vertical position with
    reference to touchdown
    d. Vertical position with reference to the standard pressure level

    10. At what point in a flight is the QNH communicated to the pilot by ATC?
    a. On engine start
    b. In the taxi clearance
    c. In the ATC clearance
    d. With the take-off clearance

    11. You are approaching an aerodrome to land and call the approach controller at
    10nm from the edge of the ATZ. Your flight conditions are VMC and you are flying
    VFR. When would you expect to be advised to set the aerodrome QNH?
    a. On initial contact the app controller will pass QNH and tell you what altitude to fly
    at
    b. On clearance to enter the traffic pattern established for a visual join to land
    c. When descending below the transition altitude
    d. On handover from approach to tower

    12. You are carrying out an instrument approach to land at Birmingham International.
    You are IMC at FL 70. The radar controller tells you set the Birmingham QNH 1007
    and descend to and maintain 4500 ft. On the approach plate it tells you that the
    transition level is FL50. What do you do?
    a. Set 1007 immediately and advise leaving 7000 ft for 4500 ft
    b. Leave 1013 set until at FL50 then set 1007 and descend to 4500 ft
    c. Tell the radar controller that you cannot accept his clearance as you are above the
    transition level.
    d. Assume that the radar controller knows what he is doing but make sure that you
    report the matter when you land

    13. In selecting a flight level for a flight, which of the following should be taken into
    consideration?
    1. Adequate terrain clearance is ensured
    2. ATC requirements (Danger Areas, restricted airspace etc.. ) are complied with
    3. Minimum traffic separation is ensured
    4. Adequate separation from VFR traffic is ensured (differential flight levels applied)
    5. The appropriate flight level in accordance with the table of flight levels
    The level chosen complies with the table of cruising levels
    a. 1, 2 and 5
    b. All the above
    c. 1, 2, 3 and 5 d. 1, 3, 4 and 5

    14. If the QNH is 991 Mb where is FL 0? (Assume 1 Mb= 30 ft)


    a. Below sea level!
    b. 660 ft above mean sea level
    c. 660 ft above the transition level
    d. 660 ft below the transition altitude
    SSR

    1.When acknowledging mode/code setting instructions, pilots shall:


    a. read back only the code to be set.
    b. read back the mode and the code to be set.
    c. use only the word ROGER.
    d. use only the word WILCO.

    2. Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are used in
    conjunction with SSR?
    a. Distress 7700; Unlawful Interference 7600; Communications failure 7500
    b. Distress 7500; Unlawful Interference 7700; Communications failure 7600
    c. Distress 7600; Unlawful Interference 7500; Communications failure 7700
    d. Distress 7700; Unlawful Interference 7500; Communications failure
    7600

    3. When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot is to operate


    the transponder:
    a. only when the aircraft is flying within the airspace where SSR is used for
    ATC purposes.
    b. only when the aircraft is flying in CAS.
    c. only when direct by ATC.
    d. at all times during flight regardless of whether or not the aircraft is
    within or outside airspace where SSR is used for ATC purposes.

    4. Which of the following is not a valid SSR mode A squawk?


    a. A5555
    b. A5678
    c. A2345
    d. A7777

    5. In case of a SSR transponder failure occuring after departure of an IFR


    flight, the pilot shall:
    a.Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome for repair
    b. Squawk 7600
    c. Inform the competent ATC unit immediately
    d.Continue the flight in VMC

    6. When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot:


    a. Shall continuously operate this mode only when directed by ATC.
    b. Shall continuously operate this mode unless otherwise directed by
    ATC.
    c.
    d.
    controlled
    73 Shall
    Shall continuously
    continuouslyoperate
    airspace. thisthis
    operate mode regardless
    mode of ATCthe
    only when instructions.
    aircraft is within

    7. Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position indicator (IDENT) feature
    unless:
    a. Requested by ATC.
    b. They operate within controlled airspace.
    c. They operate a transponder with Mode C.
    d. They operate within non controlled airspace.

    8. Which one of the following switch positions should be used when


    selecting
    1.
    2. a code on the Transponder?
    a.IDENT (Identification)
    b. STBY (Standby)
    c. NORMAL
    d.OFF

    9.
    3.
    4. The selection of code 2000 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
    a.unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight
    b. an emergency
    c. transponder malfunction
    d. entry into airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been
    required

    10. An aeroplane has suffered an emergency in flight and squawked 7700. The
    crew dealt with the emergency during which they were asked by ATC to squawk 4121
    for London. Just as things settle down, the same emergency situation re-appears.
    What would you, the pilot, squawk now?
    a. 7700 without hesitation
    b. 7700 if you think it necessary, otherwise maintain 4121
    c. No need to squawk 7700 as you have already previously declared an emergency
    d. Ask the London A TC controller what should you squawk in this circumstance

    15. On a single SSR control box/selector system (ie no changeover switch), what is
    the correct procedure for changing squawk?
    a. Squawk 'standby'; then change the code; then squawk 'normal'.
    b. Squawk 'off; then change the code; then squawk 'normal'.
    c. Only change one digit at a time
    d. It doesn't matter because there is a delay built into the ground station

    ACAS

    1. On receipt of a TCAS RA your action is to:


    a. initiate the required manoeuvre immediately
    b. make a note of the details
    c. request a flight clearance deviation from ATC
    d. do nothing until a TA is received
    2. Which of the following statements concerning TCAS is correct:
    a. TCAS II provides avoidance instructions in the vertical and horizontal planes
    b. TCAS II cannot provide information on non-SSR equipped intruders
    c. TCAS II requires Mode S to be fitted to other aircraft
    d. TCAS II provides advice on which way to turn
    3. With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems. The difference between
    TCAS I and II is that:
    a. TCAS II can provide Traffic Advisories and Resolution Advisories whilst
    TCAS I can only provide Traffic Advisories
    b. TCAS II can only be fitted to large aircraft which carry more than 30 passengers
    whilst TCAS I can be fitted to any aircraft
    c. TCAS I can be fitted to aircraft which carry transponders with Mode A only whilst
    TCAS II can only be fitted to aircraft whose transponders include either Mode C or
    Mode S
    d. TCAS II can only be fitted to aircraft which are equipped with EFIS
    4. The aural messages provided by TCAS II are:
    a. Threat, Climb; Threat, Descend
    b. Climb left; Climb right; Descend left; Descend right
    c. Climb; Descend; Increase Climb; Increase Descent
    d. Turn Left, Turn Right, Increase Turn, Decrease Turn
    5. With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems:
    a. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially
    conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has the clearance
    confirmed by ATC
    b. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially
    conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has advised ATC of
    the other aircraft’s proximity
    c. RAs must never be disregarded
    d. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting
    traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

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