CS 601 Quiz Topic Wise Data Communication

In which kind of computer networks connections, more than two devices can share a single link.
a. Point-to-point
b. Primary
c. Multipoint
d. Secondary
Answer (c): Multipoint
Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves transmission

a. Full-duplex b. Half-duplex c. Simplex d. Automatic answer (c): Simplex
In a network with 25 computers, which topology would require the most extensive cabling?
a. Star b. Mesh c. Bus d. Ring answer (b): Mesh
4. Which topology requires a central controller or hub?

a. Star b. Mesh c. Bus d. Ring answer (a): Star
5. The is the physical path over which a message travels.

a. Protocol b. Medium c. Signal d. All of the above answer (b): Medium
6. Which organization has authority over interstate and international commerce in the
communications field?
a. ITU-T b. IEEE c. ISO d. FCC answer (d): FCC
7. The information to be communicated in a data communications system is the

a. Medium b. Protocol c. Transmission d. Message answer (d): Message
8. Frequency of failure and network recovery time after a failure are measures of the of a network.
a. Performance b. Security c. Reliability d. Feasibility answer (c): Reliability
9. In transmission, the channel capacity is shared by both communicating devices at all times.
a. Full-duplex b. Simplex c. Half-duplex d. Half-Simplex answer (a): Full-duplex
10. An unauthorized user is a network issue.

a. Performance b. Reliability c. Security d. All of the above answer (c): Security
11. Which topology requires a multipoint connection?

a. Mesh b. Star c. Ring d. Bus answer (d): Bus
12. A television broadcast is an example of transmission.

a. Half-duplex b. Full-duplex c. Simplex d. Automatic answer (c): Simplex
13. A connection provides a dedicated link between two devices.

a. Multipoint b. Point-to-Point c. Primary d. Secondary answer (b): Point-to-Point
14. A cable break in a topology stops all transmission.

a. Mesh b. Star c. Primary d. Bus answer (d): Bus
Chapter 2: Network Models
15. The layer changes bits into electromagnetic signals.

a. Physical b. Transport c. None of the above d. Data link answer (a): Physical
16. The physical layer is concerned with the transmission of over the physical medium.
a. Programs b. Protocols c. Bits d. Dialogs The correct answer is c
17. Mail services are available to network users through the layer.
a. Data link b. Physical c. Application d. Transport The correct answer is c
18. As the data packet moves from the lower to the upper layers, headers are .
a. Added b. Rearranged c. Modified d. Subtracted The correct answer is d Your answer is b
19. As the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers, headers are .
a. Removed b. Added c. Rearranged d. Modified The correct answer is b
20. The layer lies between the network layer and the application layer.
a. Data link b. Physical c. Transport d. None of the above The correct answer is c
21. Layer 2 lies between the physical layer and the layer.
a. Data link b. Network c. Transport d. None of the above The correct answer is b Your answer is b
22. When data are transmitted from device A to device B, the header from A's layer 4 is read by B's
layer.
a. Application b. Physical c. Transport d. None of the above The correct answer is c Your answer is a
23. Which layer functions as a liaison between user support layers and network support layers?
a. Network layer b. Transport layer c. Physical layer d. Application layer The correct answer is b
24. What is the main function of the transport layer?

a. Process-to-process delivery b. Node-to-node delivery c. Synchronization d. Updating and maintenance
of routing tables The correct answer is a
25. Which of the following is an application layer service?

a. Remote log-in b. File transfer and access c. Mail service d. All the above The correct answer is d
26. The Internet model consists of layers.

a. Three b. Five c. Seven d. Eight The correct answer is b
27. The process-to-process delivery of the entire message is the responsibility of the layer.
a. Physical b. Network c. Transport d. Application The correct answer is c
28. The layer is the layer closest to the transmission medium.

a. Network b. Physical c. Data link d. Transport The correct answer is b
Chapter 3: Signals
29. Before data can be transmitted, they must be transformed to .

a. Electromagnetic signals b. Periodic signals c. Aperiodic signals d. Low-frequency sine waves The
correct answer is a
30. When one of the components of a signal has a frequency of zero, the average amplitude of the signal
. a. Is less than zero b. Is greater than zero c. Is zero d. (a) or (b) The correct answer is b
31. A periodic signal can always be decomposed into .

a. Exactly an odd number of sine waves b. A set of sine waves, one of which must have a phase of 0° c. A
set of sine waves d. None of the above The correct answer is c
32. A periodic signal completes one cycle in 0.001 s. What is the frequency?
a. 1 Hz b. 100 Hz c. 1 KHz d. 1 MHz The correct answer is c
33. In a frequency-domain plot, the horizontal axis measures the .

a. Frequency b. Peak amplitude c. Phase d. Slope The correct answer is a
34. In a time-domain plot, the vertical axis is a measure of _.

a. Frequency b. Phase c. Amplitude d. Time The correct answer is c
35. In a time-domain plot, the horizontal axis is a measure of .

a. Signal amplitude b. Time c. Frequency d. Phase The correct answer is b
36. If the bandwidth of a signal is 5 KHz and the lowest frequency is 52 KHz, what is the highest
frequency?
a. 5 KHz b. 10 KHz c. 47 KHz d. 57 KHz The correct answer is d Your answer is a
38. What is the bandwidth of a signal that ranges from 40 KHz to 4 MHz?
a. 3.96 MHz b. 36 MHz c. 360 KHz d. 396 KHz The correct answer is a
39. As frequency increases, the period _.

a. Decreases b. Increases c. Remains the same d. Doubles The correct answer is a
40. When propagation speed is multiplied by propagation time, we get the .

a. Throughput b. Wavelength of the signal c. Distance a signal or bit has traveled d. Distortion factor The
correct answer is c
41. Propagation time is _ _ proportional to distance and proportional to propagation speed.

a. Inversely; directly b. Inversely; inversely c. Directly; inversely d. Directly; directly The correct answer is
c
42. Wavelength is proportional to propagation speed and proportional to period.

a. Directly; directly b. Inversely; directly c. Directly; inversely d. Inversely; inversely The correct answer is
a
43. Which of the following can be determined from a frequency-domain graph of a signal? a. Phase b.
Power c. Frequency d. All the above The correct answer is c
44. Which of the following can be determined from a frequency-domain graph of a signal?
a. Phase b. Bandwidth c. Power d. All the above The correct answer is b
45. In a frequency-domain plot, the vertical axis measures the .

a. Frequency b. Peak amplitude c. Phase d. Slope The correct answer is b
46. Given two sine waves A and B, if the frequency of A is twice that of B, then the period of B is that of
A.
a. One-half b. Twice c. The same as d. Indeterminate from The correct answer is b
47. The wavelength of green light in air is the wavelength of green light in fiber-optic cable.
a. Greater than b. Less than c. Equal to d. None of the above The correct answer is b
48. Using the Shannon formula to calculate the data rate for a given channel, if C = B, then .
a. The signal is equal to the noise b. The signal is less than the noise c. The signal is greater than the
noise d. Not enough information is given to answer the question The correct answer is a
49. A sine wave is .

a. Aperiodic and continuous b. Periodic and discrete c. Aperiodic and discrete d. Periodic and continuous
The correct answer is d
50. If the maximum amplitude of a sine wave is 2 V, the minimum amplitude is _ V.

a. 2 b. 1 c. -2 d. Between -2 and 2 The correct answer is c
51. A signal is measured at two different points. The power is P1 at the first point and P2 at the second
point. The dB is 0. This means .
a. P2 is zero b. P2 equals P1 c. P2 is much larger than P1 d. P2 is much smaller than P1 The correct
answer is b
52. is a type of transmission impairment in which the signal loses strength due to the resistance of the
transmission medium.
a. Distortion b. Noise c. Decibel d. Attenuation The correct answer is d
53. is a type of transmission impairment in which the signal loses strength due to the different
propagation speeds of each frequency that makes up the signal.
a. Attenuation b. Noise c. Distortion d. Decibel The correct answer is c
54. is a type of transmission impairment in which an outside source such as crosstalk corrupts a signal.
a. Attenuation b. Noise c. Distortion d. Decibel The correct answer is b
55. The has units of meters/second or kilometers/second.

a. Throughput b. Propagation time c. Propagation speed d. (b) and (c) The correct answer is c
56. has units of bits/second.

a. Throughput b. Propagation speed c. Propagation time d. (b) and (c) The correct answer is a
57. The has units of seconds.

a. Throughput b. Propagation time c. Propagation speed d. (a) and (b) The correct answer is b
58. The wavelength of a signal depends on the .

a. Frequencies of the signal b. Medium c. Phase of the signal d. (a) and (b) The correct answer is d
Chapter 4: Encoding and Modulation
59. Which encoding technique attempts to solve the loss of synchronization due to long strings of 0s?
a. NRZ b. BnZS c. AMI d. (a) and (b) The correct answer is b
60. Block coding can help in at the receiver.

a. Synchronization b. Error detection c. Attenuation d. (a) and (b) The correct answer is d
61. In transmission, bits are transmitted simultaneously, each across its own wire.
a. Parallel b. Asynchronous serial c. Synchronous serial d. (a) and (b) The correct answer is a
62. Unipolar, bipolar, and polar encoding are types of encoding.

a. Block b. Line c. NRZ d. Manchester The correct answer is b
63. _ encoding has a transition at the middle of each bit.

a. RZ b. Manchester c. Differential Manchester d. All the above The correct answer is d
64. _ encoding has a transition at the beginning of each 0 bit.

a. Differential Manchester b. RZ c. Manchester d. All the above The correct answer is a
65. PCM is an example of conversion.

a. Analog-to-analog b. Analog-to-digital c. Digital-to-digital d. Digital-to-analog The correct answer is b
66. If the frequency spectrum of a signal has a bandwidth of 500 Hz with the highest frequency at 600
Hz, what should be the sampling rate, according to the Nyquist theorem?
a. 500 samples/s b. 1000 samples/s c. 200 samples/s d. 1200 samples/s The correct answer is d
67. One factor in the accuracy of a reconstructed PCM signal is the .

a. Number of bits used for quantization b. Signal bandwidth c. Carrier frequency d. Baud rate The correct
answer is a
68. In asynchronous transmission, the gap time between bytes is _.

a. Fixed b. A function of the data rate c. Variable d. Zero The correct answer is c
69. Synchronous transmission does not have .

a. A start bit b. A stop bit c. Gaps between bytes d. All the above
70. Which encoding type always has a nonzero average amplitude?

a. Polar b. Bipolar c. Unipolar d. All the above The correct answer is c
71. Which of the following encoding methods does not provide for synchronization?
a. Manchester b. NRZ-L c. RZ d. NRZ-I The correct answer is b
72. Which encoding method uses alternating positive and negative values for 1s?
a. Manchester b. AMI c. NRZ-I d. RZ The correct answer is b
73. In PCM, an analog-to- conversion occurs.
a. Analog b. Digital c. QAM d. Differential The correct answer is b
74. If the maximum value of a PCM signal is 31 and the minimum value is -31, how many bits were used
for coding?
a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7 The correct answer is c
75. RZ encoding involves signal levels.

a. Five b. Four c. Three d. Two The correct answer is c
76. Which quantization level results in a more faithful reproduction of the signal?
a. 2 b. 8 c. 16 d. 32 The correct answer is d
77. In transmission, bits are transmitted over a single wire, one at a time.
a. Asynchronous serial b. Synchronous serial c. Parallel d. (a) and (b) The correct answer is d
78. In transmission, a start bit and a stop bit frame a character byte.
a. Synchronous serial b. Asynchronous serial c. Parallel d. (a) and (b) The correct answer is b
79. If a symbol is composed of 3 bits, there are _ data levels.

80. The Nyquist theorem specifies the minimum sampling rate to be .

a. Twice the bandwidth of a signal b. Twice the highest frequency of a signal c. Equal to the lowest
frequency of a signal d. Equal to the highest frequency of a signal The correct answer is b
81. Pulse rate is always the bit rate.

a. Less than b. Less than or equal to c. Greater than d. Greater than or equal to The correct answer is b
Chapter 5: Multiplexing
82. AM and FM are examples of modulation. a. Analog-to-analog b. Analog-to-digital c. Digital-to-digital

d. Digital-to-analog The correct answer is a Your answer is a
83. In QAM, both phase and of a carrier frequency are varied.

a. Frequency b. Bit rate c. Amplitude d. Baud rate The correct answer is c
84. Which of the following is most affected by noise?

a. PSK b. FSK c. QAM d. ASK The correct answer is d
85. ASK, PSK, FSK, and QAM are examples of modulation.

a. Analog-to-analog b. Analog-to-digital c. Digital-to-digital d. Digital-to-analog The correct answer is d
86. If the baud rate is 400 for a 4-PSK signal, the bit rate is _ bps.
a. 1600 100 b. 800 c. 400 d. 100 The correct answer is b
87. If the bit rate for an ASK signal is 1200 bps, the baud rate is .
88. As the bit rate of an FSK signal increases, the bandwidth .

a. Remains the same b. Decreases c. Increases d. Doubles The correct answer is c
89. In 16-QAM, there are 16 .

a. Phases b. Combinations of phase and amplitude c. Amplitudes d. bps The correct answer is b
90. Which modulation technique involves tribits, eight different phase shifts, and one amplitude?
a. FSK b. ASK c. 4-PSK d. 8-PSK The correct answer is d
91. If the bit rate for an FSK signal is 1200 bps, the baud rate is .
92. If the bit rate for a QAM signal is 3000 bps and a signal unit is represented by a tribit, what is the
baud rate?
93. If the baud rate for a QAM signal is 3000 and a signal unit is represented by a tribit, what is the bit
rate?
94. If the baud rate for a QAM signal is 1800 and the bit rate is 9000, how many bits are there per signal
unit?
95. Given an AM radio signal with a bandwidth of 10 KHz and the highest-frequency component at 705
KHz, what is the frequency of the carrier signal?
a. 705 KHz b. 700 KHz c. 710 KHz d. Cannot be determined from given information The correct answer is
b
96. A modulated signal is formed by .
a. Changing the carrier wave by the modulating signal b. Quantization of the source data c. Changing the
modulating signal by the carrier wave d. Sampling at the Nyquist frequency The correct answer is a
97. If FCC regulations are followed, the carrier frequencies of adjacent AM radio stations are apart.
a. 5 KHz b. 10 KHz c. 200 KHz d. 530 KHz The correct answer is b
98. If FCC regulations are followed, potential FM stations are theoretically possible in a given area. a. 50
b. 100 c. 133 d. 150 The correct answer is a
99. When an ASK signal is decomposed, the result is _ . a. An infinite number of sine waves b. Always
one sine wave c. Always two sine waves d. None of the above The correct answer is a
100. The bandwidth of an FM signal requires 10 times the bandwidth of the signal. a. Bipolar b.
Sampling c. Carrier d. Modulating The correct answer is d
101. Modulation of an analog signal can be accomplished through changing the of the carrier signal. a.
Amplitude b. Frequency c. Phase d. Any of the above The correct answer is d
102. For a telephone line, the bandwidth for voice is usually the bandwidth for data. a. Less than b.
Greater than c. Twice d. Equivalent to The correct answer is b
103. For a given bit rate, the minimum bandwidth for ASK is the minimum bandwidth for FSK. a. Less
than b. Equivalent to c. Greater than d. Twice The correct answer is a
104. What is the object of trellis coding? a. To narrow the bandwidth

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b. To increase the data rate c. To reduce the error rate d. To simplify modulation The correct answer is c
105. A modulator converts a(n) signal to a(n) signal. a. Digital; analog b. Analog; digital c. PSK; FSK d.
FSK; PSK The correct answer is a
106. A 56K modem can download at a rate of Kbps and upload at a rate of Kbps. a. 56.6; 33.6 b. 56.6;
56.6 c. 33.6; 33.6 d. 33.6; 56.6 The correct answer is a
107. For FSK, as the difference between the two carrier frequencies increases, the bandwidth _. a.
Remains the same b. Decreases c. Increases d. Halves The correct answer is c
108. The bit rate always equals the baud rate in which type of signal? a. FSK b. QAM c. 4-PSK d. All the
above The correct answer is a
109. Which ITU-T modem standard uses trellis coding? a. V.32 b. V.33 c. V.34 d. (a) and (b) The correct
answer is a
110. In trellis coding the number of data bits is the number of transmitted bits.
a. Less than b. More than c. Equal to d. Double that of The correct answer is a
Chapter 6: Switching 111. Which multiplexing technique transmits digital signals? a. WDM b. FDM c.
TDM d. None of the above The correct answer is c
112. Which multiplexing technique shifts each signal to a different carrier frequency? a. TDM b. FDM c.
Both (a) and (b) d. None of the above
The correct answer is b
113. In TDM, for n signal sources of the same data rate, each frame contains slots. a. 0 to n b. n c. n + 1
d. n - 1 The correct answer is b
114. In TDM, the transmission rate of the multiplexed path is usually the sum of the transmission rates
of the signal sources. a. 1 less than b. Greater than c. Less than d. Equal to The correct answer is b
115. DS-1 through DS-4 are while T-1 through T-4 are . a. Services; signals b. Services; lines c. Services;
multiplexers d. Multiplexers; signals The correct answer is b
116. The sharing of a medium and its link by two or more devices is called _. a. Modulation b. Encoding
c. Multiplexing d. Line discipline The correct answer is c
117. In AT&T's FDM hierarchy, the bandwidth of each group type can be found by multiplying and
adding extr a bandwidth for guard bands. a. The sampling rate by 4000 Hz b. The number of voice
channels by 4000 Hz c. The number of voice channels by 8 bits/sample d. The sampling rate by 8
bits/sample The correct answer is b
118. Guard bands increase the bandwidth for . a. TDM b. FDM c. Both (a) and (b) d. None of the above
119. Which multiplexing technique transmits analog signals? a. FDM b. TDM c. WDM d. (a) and (c) The
correct answer is d
120. In a T-1 line, interleaving occurs. a. Bit b. Byte c. DS-0 d. Switch The correct answer is b
121. Which multiplexing technique involves signals composed of light beams? a. WDM
b. FDM c. TDM d. None of the above The correct answer is a
Chapter 7: Transmission Media 122. The VLF and LF bands use propagation for communications. a.
Space b. Ground c. Sky d. Line of sight The correct answer is b
123. Category 1 UTP cable is most often used in networks. a. Infrared b. Telephone c. Fast Ethernet d.
Traditional Ethernet The correct answer is b
124. BNC connectors are used by cables. a. Fiber-optic b. UTP c. STP d. Coaxial The correct answer is d
125. Which of the following is not a guided medium? a. Twisted-pair cable b. Fiber-optic cable c.
Atmosphere d. Coaxial cable The correct answer is c
126. In an environment with many high-voltage devices, the best transmission medium would be _. a.
Twisted-pair cable b. Coaxial cable c. The atmosphere d. Optical fiber The correct answer is d
127. cable consists of an inner copper core and a second conducting outer sheath. a. Coaxial b.
Twisted-pair c. Fiber-optic d. Shielded twisted-pair The correct answer is a
128. In fiber optics, the signal source is waves. a. Very low-frequency b. Light c. Radio d. Infrared The
correct answer is b
129. Smoke signals are an example of communication through . a. A guided medium b. A refractive
medium c. An unguided medium d. A small or large medium The correct answer is c
130. Which of the following primarily uses guided media? a. Cellular telephone system b. Satellite
communications c. Local telephone system d. Radio broadcasting The correct answer is c
131. What is the major factor that makes coaxial cable less susceptible to noise than twisted-pair cable?
a. Outer conductor b. Inner conductor c. Diameter of cable d. Insulating material The correct answer is a
132. The RG number gives us information about _. a. Optical fibers b. Twisted pairs c. Coaxial cables d.
All the above The correct answer is c
133. Transmission media are usually categorized as _. a. Guided or unguided b. Fixed or unfixed c.
Determinate or indeterminate d. Metallic or nonmetallic The correct answer is a
134. The is an association that sponsors the use of infrared waves. a. EIA b. IrDA c. FCC d. PUD The
correct answer is b
135. In an optical fiber, the inner core is the cladding. a. Less dense than b. Denser than c. The same
density as d. Another name for The correct answer is b
136. The inner core of an optical fiber is in composition. a. Copper b. Bimetallic c. Glass or plastic d.
Liquid The correct answer is c
137. When a beam of light travels through media of two different densities, if the angle of incidence is
greater than the cri tical angle, occurs. a. Refraction b. Reflection c. Incidence d. Criticism The correct
answer is b
138. In _ propagation, the beam of propagated light is almost horizontal, and the low-density core has
a small diameter compared to the cores of the other propagation modes. a. Single-mode b. Multimode
step-index
c. Multimode graded-index d. Multimode single-index The correct answer is a
139. is the propagation method subject to the greatest distortion. a. Single-mode b. Multimode step-
index c. Multimode graded-index d. Multimode single-index The correct answer is b
140. In _ propagation, the core is of varying densities. a. Single-mode b. Multimode step-index c.
Multimode graded-index d. Multimode single-index The correct answer is c
141. When we talk about unguided media, usually we are referring to . a. Metallic wires b. Nonmetallic
wires c. The air d. None of the above The correct answer is c
142. Transmission media are closest to the layer. a. Application b. Physical c. Network d. Transport The
correct answer is b
143. Radio wave and microwave frequencies range from . a. 3 to 300 KHz b. 300 KHz to 3 GHz c. 3 KHz
to 300 GHz d. 3 KHz to 3000 GHz The correct answer is c
144. Optical fibers, unlike wire media, are highly resistant to . a. High-frequency transmission b. Low-
frequency transmission c. Refraction d. Electromagnetic interference The correct answer is d
145. In _ propagation, low-frequency radio waves hug the earth. a. Space b. Ground c. Sky d. Line of
sight The correct answer is b
146. When the angle of incidence is the critical angle, the light beam bends along the interface. a. More
than b. Less than c. Equal to d. None of the above The correct answer is c
147. A parabolic dish antenna is a(n) antenna. a. Omnidirectional

b. Bidirectional c. Horn d. Unidirectional The correct answer is d
Chapter 8 : Telephone, Cable, and Satellite Networks 148. The telephone service handled between two
LATAs is called . a. An ILEC b. An IXC c. A CLEC d. A POP The correct answer is b
149. How many crosspoints are needed in a single-stage switch with 40 inputs and 50 outputs? a. 2000
b. 90 c. 50 d. 40 The correct answer is a
150. The is a device that connects n inputs to m outputs. a. Crossbar b. Crosspoint c. Modem d. RAM
The correct answer is a
151. The established telephone company that provided services in a LATA before 1966 and owns the
cabling system is called . a. A CLEC b. An IXC c. An ILEC d. A POP The correct answer is c
152. In a crossbar with 1000 crosspoints, approximately how many are in use at any time? a. 100 b. 250
c. 500 d. 1000 The correct answer is b
153. The of a TSI controls the order of delivery of slot values that are stored in RAM. a. Crossbar b.
Crosspoint c. Transceiver d. Control unit The correct answer is d
154. Which of the following is a time-division switch? a. TSI b. TDM bus c. Crosspoint d. (a) and (b) The
correct answer is d
155. In a time-division switch, a governs the destination of a packet stored in RAM. a. Control unit b.
TDM bus c. Crosspoint d. Crossbar
156. A telephone network is an example of a network. a. Circuit-switched b. Packet-switched c.

Message-switched d. None of the above The correct answer is a
157. The local loop has cable that connects the subscriber telephone to the nearest end office. a.
Coaxial b. Fiber-optic c. Twisted-pair d. (b) and (c) The correct answer is c
158. Trunks are transmission media such as that handle the telephone communication between offices.
a. Twisted-pair cable b. Fiber-optic cable c. Satellite links d. (b) and (c) The correct answer is d
159. A new telephone company that provides services in a LATA after 1966 is called _ . a. An ILEC b. An
IXC c. A POP d. A CLEC The correct answer is d
160. If the end office receives two bursts of analog signals with frequencies of 697 and 1477 Hz, then the
number has been punched. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 The correct answer is c
161. In _ circuit switching, delivery of data is delayed because data must be stored and retrieved from
RAM. a. Time-division b. Space-division c. Virtual d. Packet The correct answer is a
162. Data from a computer are ; the local loop handles signals. a. Digital; digital b. Digital; analog c.
Analog; analog d. Analog; digital The correct answer is b
163. To create a , combine crossbar switches in stages. a. TSI b. Multistage switch c. Crosspoint d.
Packet switch The correct answer is b
164. A traditional telephone line has a bandwidth of _. a. 2000 Hz b. 4000 Hz

c. 2000 MHz d. 4000 MHz The correct answer is b
Chapter 9 : Flow and Error Control 165. SONET is a standard for networks. a. Twisted-pair cable b.
Fiber-optic cable c. Coaxial cable d. Ethernet The correct answer is b
166. limit the bandwidth of the local loop to 4 KHz. a. Fiber nodes b. Repeaters c. Filters d. Hubs The
correct answer is c
167. The actual bit rate of ADSL downstream data is _ _. a. 6 to 30 Kbps b. 64 Kbps to 1 Mbps c. 500
Kbps to 8 Mbps d. 31 Kbps to 255 Mbps The correct answer is c
168. is a device at the telephone company site that can packetize data to be sent to the ISP server. a. A
filter b. A splitter c. A DSLAM d. An ADSL modem The correct answer is c
169. The standard for data transmission over an HFC network is called . a. DOCSIS b. CMTS c. MCNS d.
ADSL The correct answer is a
170. DMT is a modulation technique that combines elements of and . a. FDM; TDM b. QDM; QAM c.
PSK; FSK d. FDM; QAM The correct answer is d
171. The is an HFC network device installed inside the distribution hub that receives data from the
Internet and passes them to the combiner. a. DOCSIS b. MCNS c. CM d. CMTS The correct answer is d
172. HDSL encodes data using _. a. 6B/8T b. 4B/5B c. 2B1Q d. 1B2Q The correct answer is c
Your answer is a
173. encoded signal is more susceptible to attenuation than _ encoded signal. a. An AMI; a 2B1Q b. An
AMI; a 2B2Q c. A 2B1Q; an AMI d. None of the above The correct answer is a
174. Another name for the cable TV office is the . a. Fiber node b. Combiner c. Head end d. Splitter The
correct answer is c
175. A traditional cable TV network transmits signals _. a. Upstream and downstream b. Upstream c.
Downstream d. None of the above The correct answer is c
176. was designed as an alternative to the T-1 line. a. VDSL b. SDSL c. HDSL d. ADSL The correct answer
is c
177. The synchronous payload envelope of an STS-1 frame contains _ . a. Pointers b. User data c.
Overhead d. (b) and (c) The correct answer is d
178. has a higher transmission rate in the downstream direction than in the upstream direction. a.
VDSL b. ADSL c. SDSL d. (a) and (b) The correct answer is d
179. An HFC network uses as the medium from the switch to the fiber node. a. UTP b. STP c. Optical
fiber d. Coaxial cable The correct answer is c
180. In an HFC network, the distribution hub handles the of signals. a. Modulation b. Distribution c.
Splitting d. (a) and (b) The correct answer is d
181. A TV channel in an HFC network needs a -MHz bandwidth. a. 369 b. 6 c. 100
d. 250 The correct answer is b
182. data go from the subscriber to the Internet. a. Downstream b. Upstream c. Midstream d. None of
the above The correct answer is b
183. In an HFC network, the upstream data are modulated using the modulation technique. a. PCM b.
QAM c. QPSK d. ASK The correct answer is b
184. is suitable for businesses that require comparable upstream and downstream data rates. a. SDSL
b. VDSL c. ADSL d. (a) and (b) The correct answer is a
185. SONET is an acronym for Network. a. Standard Optical b. Symmetric Open c. Synchronous Optical
d. Standard Open The correct answer is c
186. The largest portion of the bandwidth for ADSL carries _ . a. Voice communication b. Downstream
data c. Upstream data d. Control data The correct answer is b
187. In a SONET system, __ can remove signals from a path. a. An add/drop multiplexer b. A repeater c.
An STS multiplier d. A regenerator The correct answer is a
Chapter 10 : Access Method 188. Which of the following best describes a single-bit error? a. A single bit
is inverted. b. A single bit is inverted per transmission. c. A single bit is inverted per data unit. d. Any of
the above The correct answer is c
189. Which error detection method uses ones complement arithmetic? a. Simple parity check b.
Checksum c. Two-dimensional parity check d. CRC The correct answer is b
190. Which error detection method consists of just one redundant bit per data unit?
a. Two-dimensional parity check b. CRC c. Simple parity check d. Checksum The correct answer is c
191. Which error detection method involves polynomials? a. CRC b. Simple parity check c. Two-
dimensional parity check d. Checksum The correct answer is a
192. If the ASCII character G is sent and the character D is received, what type of error is this? a. Single-
bit b. Multiple-bit c. Burst d. Recoverable The correct answer is c
193. If the ASCII character H is sent and the character I is received, what type of error is this? a. Burst b.
Recoverable c. Single-bit d. Multiple-bit The correct answer is c
194. In cyclic redundancy checking, what is the CRC? a. The remainder b. The divisor c. The quotient d.
The dividend The correct answer is a
195. Which error detection method involves the use of parity bits? a. Simple parity check b. Two-
dimensional parity check c. CRC d. (a) and (b) The correct answer is d
196. In cyclic redundancy checking, the divisor is _ the CRC. a. The same size as b. 1 bit more than c. 1
bit less than d. 2 bits more than The correct answer is b
197. If the data unit is 111111, the divisor 1010, and the remainder 110, what is the dividend at the
receiver? a. 111111011 b. 1010110 c. 111111110 d. 110111111 The correct answer is c
198. Which error detection method consists of a parity bit for each data unit as well as an entire data
unit of parity bit s? a. Simple parity check b. Checksum c. Two-dimensional parity check d. CRC The
correct answer is c
199. If the data unit is 111111 and the divisor 1010, what is the dividend at the transmitter? a.
1111110000 b. 111111000 c. 111111 d. 1111111010 The correct answer is b
200. If odd parity is used for ASCII error detection, the number of 0s per 8-bit symbol is . a.
Indeterminate b. 42 c. Even d. Odd The correct answer is d
201. In CRC there is no error if the remainder at the receiver is . a. Nonzero b. The quotient at the
sender c. Equal to the remainder at the sender d. Zero The correct answer is d
202. At the CRC generator, added to the data unit after the division process. a. 0s are b. 1s are c. The
CRC remainder is d. The polynomial is The correct answer is c
203. The sum of the checksum and data at the receiver is if there are no errors. a. -0 b. +0 c. The
complement of the checksum d. The complement of the data The correct answer is a
204. In CRC the quotient at the sender . a. Becomes the dividend at the receiver b. Becomes the divisor
at the receiver c. Is the remainder d. Is discarded The correct answer is d
205. The Hamming code is a method of . a. Error detection b. Error correction c. Error encapsulation d.
(a) and (b) The correct answer is d
206. At the CRC checker, means that the data unit is damaged. a. A string of alternating 1s and 0s b. A
nonzero remainder c. A string of 0s d. A string of 1s The correct answer is b
207. Which error detection method can detect a single-bit error? a. Simple parity check b. Two-
dimensional parity check c. CRC d. All the above The correct answer is d
208. Which error detection method can detect a burst error? a. The parity check b. Two-dimensional
parity check c. CRC d. (b) and (c) The correct answer is d
209. At the CRC generator, added to the data unit before the division process. a. A polynomial is b. A
CRC remainder is c. 0s are d. 1s are The correct answer is c
Chapter 11 : Wired Local Area Networks 210. HDLC is an acronym for . a. High-duplex line
communication b. Half-duplex digital link combination c. High-level data link control d. Host double-level
circuit The correct answer is c
211. Flow control is needed to prevent . a. Overflow of the sender buffer b. Overflow of the receiver
buffer c. Bit errors d. Collision between sender and receiver The correct answer is b
212. In a Go-Back-N ARQ, if the window size is 63, what is the range of sequence numbers? a. 1 to 63 b.
1 to 64 c. 0 to 63 d. 0 to 64 The correct answer is c
213. For a sliding window of size n - 1 (n sequence numbers), there can be a maximum of frames sent
but unacknowledged. a. 0 b. n c. n - 1 d. n + 1 The correct answer is b
214. When data and acknowledgment are sent on the same frame, this is called . a. Backpacking b.
Piggypacking c. Piggybacking d. A good idea The correct answer is c
215. In _ ARQ, if a NAK is received, only the specific damaged or lost frame is retransmitted. a. Go-Back-
N b. Stop-and-Wait c. Selective Repeat d. (a) and (b) The correct answer is a
216. ARQ stands for . a. Automatic repeat request

b. Automatic retransmission request c. Acknowledge repeat request d. Automatic repeat quantization
217. In Go-Back-N ARQ, if frames 4, 5, and 6 are received successfully, the receiver may send an ACK to
the sender. a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. Any of the above The correct answer is d
218. The shortest frame in HDLC protocol is usually the _ frame. a. Information b. Management c.
Supervisory d. None of the above The correct answer is c
219. The address field of a frame in HDLC protocol contains the address of the station. a. Primary b.
Secondary c. Tertiary d. (a) or (b) The correct answer is b
220. The HDLC field defines the beginning and end of a frame. a. Address b. Control c. Flag d. FCS The
correct answer is c
221. A timer is set when is (are) sent out. a. An ACK b. A NAK c. A data frame d. All the above The
correct answer is c
222. For Stop-and-Wait ARQ, for n data packets sent, acknowledgments are needed. a. n - 1 b. n + 1 c. n
d. 2n The correct answer is c
223. What is present in all HDLC control fields? a. N(R) b. N(S) c. Code bits d. P/F bit The correct answer
is d
Chapter 12 : Wireless Local Area Networks 224. According to the PPP transition state diagram, options
are negotiated in the state. a. Networking b. Terminating c. Establishing d. Authenticating The correct
answer is c
225. According to the PPP transition state diagram, verification of user identification occurs in the
state. a. Networking b. Terminating c. Establishing d. Authenticating The correct answer is d
226. PAP requires _ and from the user. a. A password; a calculated value b. Authentication
identification; a calculated value c. Authentication identification; a password d. A challenge value; a
password The correct answer is c
227. According to the PPP transition state diagram, the link is disconnected in the state. a. Networking
b. Terminating c. Establishing d. Authenticating The correct answer is b
228. In the PPP frame, the field defines the contents of the data field. a. FCS b. Flag c. Control d.
Protocol The correct answer is d
229. According to the PPP transition state diagram, exchange of user control and data packets occurs in
the state. a. Networking b. Terminating c. Establishing d. Authenticating The correct answer is a
230. , an (a) protocol, establishes and terminates a network layer connection for IP packets. a. CHAP;
NCP b. IPCP; NCP c. NCP; IPCP d. SLIP; PPP The correct answer is b
231. In the PPP frame, the field is similar to that of the U-frame in HDLC. a. Flag b. Protocol c. FCS d.
Control The correct answer is d
232. In the PPP frame, the field has a value of 11111111 to indicate the broadcast address of HDLC. a.
Protocol b. Address c. Control d. FCS The correct answer is b
233. What is the purpose of LCP packets? a. Configuration b. Termination c. Option negotiation d. All the
above
234. is a three-way handshake for user verification. a. PPP b. CHAP c. PAP d. (b) and (c) The correct
answer is b
235. A PAP packet and a CHAP packet can be distinguished by the value of the field of the PPP frame. a.
Protocol b. FCS c. Address d. Control The correct answer is d
236. In the PPP frame, the field is for error control. a. FCS b. Flag c. Control d. Protocol The correct
answer is a
237. CHAP authentication, the user takes the system's _ and its own to create a result that is then sent
to the system. a. Authentication identification; password b. Password; authentication identification c.
Challenge value; password d. Password; challenge value The correct answer is c
238. If an FDMA network has eight stations, the medium bandwidth has bands. a. 1 b. 2 c. 8 d. 16 The
correct answer is c
239. In the random-access method there is no collision. a. CSMA/CD b. CSMA/CA c. ALOHA d. Token-
passing The correct answer is b
240. In the 1-persistent approach, when a station finds an idle line, it . a. Sends immediately b. Waits
0.1 s before sending c. Waits 1 s before sending d. Waits a time equal to 1 - p before sending The correct
answer is a
241. requires one primary station and one or more secondary stations. a. Token ring b. Reservation c.
Polling d. CSMA The correct answer is c
242. In the p-persistent approach, when a station finds an idle line, it . a. Sends immediately b. Waits 1
s before sending
c. Sends with probability 1 - p d. Sends with probability p The correct answer is d
243. A network using the CSMA random-access method with p equal to 0.25 will send percent of the
time after accessing an idle line. a. 50 b. 75 c. 100 d. 25 The correct answer is d
244. The 1-persistent approach can be considered a special case of the p-persistent approach with p
equal to . a. 1.0 b. 2.0 c. 0.1 d. 0.5 The correct answer is a
245. is a random-access protocol. a. FDMA b. CDMA c. MA d. Polling The correct answer is c
246. In the reservation access method, if there are 10 stations on a network, then there are reservation
minislots in the reservation frame. a. 10 b. 11 c. 5 d. 9 The correct answer is a
247. A Walsh table for 16 stations has a chip sequence of chips. a. 16 b. 32 c. 4 d. 8 The correct answer
is a
248. is a controlled-access protocol. a. FDMA b. TDMA c. CSMA d. Reservation The correct answer is d
249. is (are) a channelization protocol. a. FDMA b. TDMA c. CDMA d. All the above The correct answer
is d
250. is the access protocol used by traditional Ethernet. a. Token ring b. CSMA c. CSMA/CD d. CSMA/CA
The correct answer is c
251. The most primitive random access method is . a. Channelization b. ALOHA c. CSMA d. Token
passing The correct answer is b
252. When a collision is detected in a network using CSMA/CD, . a. The frame is immediately resent b.
The backoff value is decremented by 1 c. A jam signal is sent by the station d. The backoff value is set to
0 The correct answer is c
253. In the random-access method, stations do not sense the medium. a. CSMA/CA b. ALOHA c.
CSMA/CD d. Ethernet The correct answer is b
254. When a primary device asks a secondary device if it has data to send, this is called . a. Backing off
b. Polling c. Selecting d. Reserving The correct answer is b
255. If a TDMA network has eight stations, the medium bandwidth has bands. a. 1 b. 2 c. 8 d. 16 The
correct answer is a
256. If a CDMA network has eight stations, the medium bandwidth has bands. a. 1 b. 2 c. 8 d. 16 The
correct answer is a
257. If an Ethernet destination address is 08-07-06-05-44-33, then this is a address. a. Broadcast b.

Unicast c. Multicast d. Any of the above The correct answer is b
258. What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the Ethernet address 01011010 00010001 01010101
00011000 10101010 00001111? a. 5A-11-55-18-AA-0F b. 5A-88-AA-18-55-F0 c. 5A-81-BA-81-AA-0F d.
5A-18-5A-18-55-0F The correct answer is a
259. Which of the following could not be an Ethernet source address? a. 8A-7B-6C-DE-10-00 b. 8B-32-
21-21-4D-34 c. EE-AA-C1-23-45-32 d. 46-56-21-1A-DE-F4
260. What is the efficiency of 4B/5B block encoding? a. 60 percent b. 80 percent c. 20 percent d. 40
percent The correct answer is b
261. Which of the following could not be an Ethernet unicast destination? a. 44-AA-C1-23-45-32 b. 46-
56-21-1A-DE-F4 c. 48-32-21-21-4D-34 d. 43-7B-6C-DE-10-00 The correct answer is d
262. What is the efficiency of 8B/10B encoding? a. 80 percent b. 20 percent c. 40 percent d. 60 percent
263. A 10-station Ethernet LAN uses a -port bridge if the effective average data rate for each station is
2 Mbps. a. 10 b. 1 c. 2 d. 5 The correct answer is d
264. A -station Ethernet LAN uses a four-port bridge. Each station has an effective average data rate of
1.25 Mbps. a. 160 b. 80 c. 40 d. 32 The correct answer is d
265. An 80-station traditional Ethernet is divided into four collision domains. This means that a
maximum of stations contend for medium access at any one time. a. 20 b. 76 c. 80 d. 320 The correct
answer is a
266. If an Ethernet destination address is 07-01-02-03-04-05, then this is a address. a. Unicast b.

Broadcast c. Multicast d. Any of the above The correct answer is c
267. What is the efficiency of a frame in half-duplex Gigabit Ethernet carrying 46 bytes of data? a. 97
percent b. 70 percent c. 56 percent d. 12 percent The correct answer is b
268. Which of the following could not be an Ethernet multicast destination? a. B7-7B-6C-DE-10-00 b. 7C-
56-21-1A-DE-F4
c. 7B-AA-C1-23-45-32 d. 83-32-21-21-4D-34 The correct answer is b
269. Which of the following is a four-wire Gigabit Ethernet implementation? a. 1000Base-SX b.

1000Base-LX c. 1000Base-T d. 1000Base-CX The correct answer is c
270. Forty stations are on an Ethernet LAN. A 10-port bridge segments the LAN. What is the effective
average data rate of each station? a. 1.0 Mbps b. 2.5 Mbps c. 2.0 Mbps d. 5.0 Mbps The correct answer
is b
271. A wireless LAN using FHSS hops 10 times per cycle. If the bandwidth of the original signal is 10 MHz
and 2 GHz is the lo west frequency, the highest frequency of the system is GHz. a. 1.0 b. 2.0 c. 2.1 d. 3.0
272. An FHSS wireless LAN has a spread spectrum of 1 GHz. The bandwidth of the original signal is 250
MHz, and there are hops per cycle. a. 4 b. 3 c. 2 d. 1 The correct answer is a
273. A wireless LAN using FHSS hops 10 times per cycle. If the bandwidth of the original signal is 10 MHz,
the spread spectru m is MHz. a. 1000 b. 10,000 c. 10 d. 100 The correct answer is d
274. A wireless LAN using DSSS with an 8-bit chip code needs MHz for sending data that originally
required a 10-MHz bandwidth. a. 20 b. 80 c. 2 d. 8 The correct answer is b
275. A wireless LAN using DSSS with -bit chip code needs 320 MHz for sending data that originally
required a 20-MHz bandwidth. a. A 2 b. A 16 c. A 32 d. An 8 The correct answer is b
276. A wireless LAN using DSSS with a 4-bit chip code needs 10 MHz for sending data that originally
required a _-MHz bandwidth. a. 20
b. 25 c. 40 d. 2.5 The correct answer is d
277. In an ESS the station is not mobile. a. BSS b. AP c. Server d. None of the above The correct answer
is b
278. In an ESS the stations are part of a wired LAN. a. BSS b. AP c. Server d. All the above The correct
answer is b
279. A station with mobility is either stationary or moving only inside a BSS. a. No-transition b. BSS c.
ESS d. (a) and (b) The correct answer is a
280. combine to form a scatternet. a. APs b. Piconets c. BSSs d. ESSs The correct answer is b
281. Bluetooth uses _ in the physical layer. a. DSSS b. DHSS c. FHSS d. OFDM The correct answer is c
282. A frame usually precedes a CTS frame. a. SIFS b. RTS c. DIFS d. Any of the above The correct
answer is b
283. A station with mobility can move from one BSS to another. a. No-transition b. ESS-transition c.
BSS-transition d. (b) and (c) The correct answer is c
284. A station with mobility can move from one ESS to another. a. No-transition b. ESS-transition c.
BSS-transition d. (b) and (c) The correct answer is b
285. A frame usually precedes an RTS frame.

a. DIFS b. CIFS c. CTS d. None of the above The correct answer is d
286. Wireless transmission is prone to error than/as wired transmission. a. Less b. More c. Half as d.
None of the above The correct answer is b
287. Which MAC sublayer does IEEE 802.11 define? a. LLC b. PCF c. DCF d. (b) and (c) The correct answer
is d
288. What is the basic access method for wireless LANs as defined by IEEE 802.11? a. LLC b. PCF c. DCF d.
BFD The correct answer is c
289. The access method for wireless LANs as defined by IEEE 802.11 is based on . a. Token passing b.
CSMA c. CSMA/CD d. CSMA/CA The correct answer is d
290. FHSS, DSSS, and OFDM are layer specifications. a. Data link b. Network c. Physical d. Transport The
correct answer is c
291. Stations do not sense the medium during time. a. SIFS b. NAV c. RTS d. CTS The correct answer is b
292. A Bluetooth frame needs µs for hopping and control mechanisms. a. 3 b. 625 c. 259 d. A multiple
of 259 The correct answer is c
293. In the method, the sender hops from frequency to frequency in a specific order. a. DSSS b. FHSS c.
OFDM d. HR-DSSS The correct answer is b
294. A wireless LAN uses _ _ frames for acknowledgment. a. Management b. Data c. Control d. None of
295. A wireless LAN uses _ _ frames for the initial communication between stations and the access
points. a. Control b. Data c. Management d. None of the above The correct answer is c
296. A Bluetooth network can have _ master(s). a. One b. Two c. Three d. Eight The correct answer is a
297. A bridge forwards or filters a frame by comparing the information in its address table to the frame's
. a. Source node's physical address b. Layer 2 destination address c. Layer 2 source address d. Layer 3
destination address The correct answer is b
298. Repeaters function in the layer(s). a. Network b. Physical (MAC) c. Data link d. (a) and (b) The
correct answer is b
299. A is actually a multiport repeater. a. Hub b. Bridge c. Router d. VLAN The correct answer is a
300. A repeater takes a weakened or corrupted signal and it. a. Resamples b. Reroutes c. Amplifies d.
Regenerates The correct answer is d
301. A bridge has access to the _ address of a station on the same network. a. Network b. Service
access point c. Physical (MAC) d. All the above The correct answer is c
302. The bridge with the least-cost path between the LAN and the root bridge is called the bridge. a.
Forwarding b. Designated c. Blocking d. (a) and (b) The correct answer is b
303. A system with redundant bridges might have a problem with in the system. a. Filters b. Spanning
trees c. Loops d. All the above The correct answer is c
304. Bridges function in the layer(s). a. Physical (MAC) b. Data link c. Network d. (a) and (b) The correct
answer is d
305. In a VLAN, stations are separated into groups by . a. Software methods b. Location c. Physical
methods d. Switches The correct answer is a
306. A bridge can . a. Filter a frame b. Forward a frame c. Extend a LAN d. Do all the above The correct
answer is d
307. A bridge has the smallest ID. a. Designated b. Forwarding c. Blocking d. Root The correct answer is
d
308. A bridge never forwards frames out of the port. a. Root b. Designated c. Blocking d. Forwarding
309. Which type of bridge builds and updates its tables from address information on frames? a.
Transparent b. Simple c. (a) and (b) d. None of the above The correct answer is a
310. VLAN technology divides a LAN into groups. a. Multiplexed b. Framed c. Physical d. Logical The
correct answer is d
311. Which of the following is a connecting device? a. Bridge b. Repeater c. Hub d. All the above
312. Which station characteristic can be used to group stations into a VLAN? a. Port numbers b. MAC
addresses c. IP addresses d. All the above The correct answer is d
313. is a first-generation cellular phone system. a. GSM b. IS-95 c. AMPS d. D-AMPS The correct answer
is c
314. AMPS uses _ for modulation. a. FM b. FSK c. PM d. (a) and (b) The correct answer is d
315. separates the AMPS voice channels. a. CDMA b. TDMA c. FDMA d. (b) and (c) The correct answer is
c
316. is a cellular telephone system popular in Europe. a. GSM b. D-AMPS c. IS-95 d. AMPS The correct
answer is a
317. D-AMPS uses for multiplexing. a. CDMA b. TDMA c. FDMA d. (b) and (c) The correct answer is d
318. GSM uses _ for multiplexing. a. CDMA b. TDMA c. FDMA d. (b) and (c) The correct answer is d
319. DSSS is used by the cellular phone system. a. AMPS b. IS-95 c. D-AMPS d. GSM The correct answer
is b
320. base stations use GPS for synchronization. a. GSM b. IS-95 c. AMPS
d. D-AMPS The correct answer is b
321. will have 288 satellites in 12 polar orbits. a. Teledesic b. Globalstar c. Iridium d. GPS The correct
answer is a
322. IS-95 has a frequency reuse factor of . a. 7 b. 95 c. 1 d. 5 The correct answer is c
323. The path that a satellite makes around the world is called . a. An orbit b. A period c. A footprint d.
An uplink The correct answer is a
324. A GEO satellite has orbit. a. A polar b. An inclined c. An equilateral d. An equatorial The correct
answer is d
325. Which orbit has the highest altitude? a. LEO b. GEO c. MEO d. HEO The correct answer is b
326. is a second-generation cellular phone system. a. D-AMPS b. GSM c. IS-95 d. All the above The
correct answer is d
327. A is a computerized center that is responsible for connecting calls, recording call information, and
billing. a. Cell b. Mobile station c. Base station d. Mobile switching center The correct answer is d
328. has 48 satellites in six polar orbits. a. Iridium b. Teledesic c. Globalstar d. GPS The correct answer is
c
329. The signal from a satellite is aimed at a specific area called the . a. Orbit b. Period
c. Footprint d. Uplink The correct answer is c
330. In _, a mobile station always communicates with just one base station. a. Roaming b. A roaming
handoff c. A hard handoff d. A soft handoff The correct answer is c
331. MEO satellites orbit Van Allen belts. a. In the b. Above both c. Below both d. Between the The
correct answer is d
332. is often used for navigation purposes. a. GPS b. AMPS c. IS-95 d. Iridium The correct answer is a
333. An LEO satellite has _ orbit. a. An equatorial b. A polar c. An inclined d. All the above The correct
answer is b
334. Teledesic is a LEO satellite system. a. Passband b. Broadband c. Little d. Big The correct answer is b
335. has 66 satellites in six LEOs. a. Globalstar b. Teledesic c. GPS d. Iridium The correct answer is d
336. Transmission from the Earth to the satellite is called the . a. Downlink b. Uplink c. Footlink d. Up
print The correct answer is b
337. The is not used for voice communication. a. GPS b. Iridium system c. IS-95 system d. Globalstar
system The correct answer is a
338. is a Frame Relay option that transmits voice through the network. a. LMI
b. FRAD c. VOFR d. DLCI The correct answer is c
339. Frame Relay provides _ connections. a. PVC b. SVC c. (a) and (b) d. None of the above The correct
answer is c
340. Routing and switching in Frame Relay are performed by the layer. a. Physical b. Network c. Data
link d. (b) and (c) The correct answer is c
341. Frame Relay is unsuitable for due to possible delays in transmission resulting from variable frame
sizes. a. File transfers b. Real-time video c. Fixed-rate data communication d. All the above The correct
answer is b
342. The Frame Relay address field is _ in length. a. 4 bytes b. 2 bytes c. 3 bytes d. Any of the above The
correct answer is d
343. Because ATM , which means that cells follow the same path, the cells do not usually arrive out of
order. a. Is asynchronous b. Uses virtual circuit routing c. Is multiplexed d. Is a network The correct
answer is b
344. is a protocol to control and manage interfaces in Frame Relay networks. a. FRAD b. DLCI c. LMI d.
VOFR The correct answer is c
345. Frame Relay operates in the _. a. Physical and data link layers b. Physical, data link, and network
layers c. Physical layer d. Data link layer The correct answer is a
346. In the data link layer, Frame Relay uses . a. A simplified HDLC protocol b. LAPB c. BSC protocol d.
Any ANSI standard protocol The correct answer is a
347. The VPI of an NNI is bits in length.
348. In data communications, ATM is an acronym for _ . a. Automated Teller Machine b. Automatic
Transmission Model c. Asynchronous Transfer Mode d. Asynchronous Telecommunication Method The
correct answer is c
349. Which AAL type is designed to support SEAL? a. AAL1 b. AAL2 c. AAL3/4 d. AAL5 The correct answer
is d
350. Which layer in ATM protocol reformats the data received from other networks? a. Physical b.
Application adaptation c. Data adaptation d. ATM The correct answer is b
351. Which layer in ATM protocol has a 53-byte cell as an end product? a. ATM b. Application adaptation
c. Physical d. Cell transformation The correct answer is a
352. Which AAL type is designed to support a data stream that has a constant bit rate? a. AAL1 b. AAL2
c. AAL3/4 d. AAL5 The correct answer is a
353. The VPI of a UNI is bits in length. a. 12 b. 16 c. 24 d. 8 The correct answer is d
354. In an ATM network, all cells belonging to a single message follow the same and remain in their
original order un til they reach their destination. a. Virtual circuit b. Transmission path c. Virtual path d.
None of the above The correct answer is a
355. A device called a(n) allows frames from an ATM network to be transmitted across a Frame Relay
network. a. FRAD b. LMI c. VOFR d. DLCI The correct answer is a
356. A provides a connection or a set of connections between switches. a. Transmission path b. Virtual
circuit c. Virtual path d. None of the above The correct answer is b
357. A _ is the physical connection between an endpoint and a switch or between two switches. a.
Virtual path b. Transmission path c. Virtual circuit d. None of the above The correct answer is b
358. On a network that uses NAT, the has a translation table. a. Router b. Switch c. Server d. None of
the above The correct answer is a
359. Identify the class of IP address 229.1.2.3. a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D The correct
answer is d
360. On a network that uses NAT, initiates the communication. a. An internal host b. An external host c.
The router d. (a) or (b) The correct answer is a
361. A subnet mask in class B can have _ 1s with the remaining bits 0s. a. Nine b. Seventeen c. Three d.
Fourteen The correct answer is b
362. A subnet mask in class C can have 1s with the remaining bits 0s. a. Twenty-five b. Twelve c. Seven
d. Ten The correct answer is a
363. Identify the class of IP address 4.5.6.7. a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D The correct answer is
a
364. Identify the class of IP address 191.1.2.3. a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class D
365. A subnet mask in class A can have 1s with the remaining bits 0s. a. Nine b. Four c. Thirty-three d.
Three The correct answer is a
366. Class _ has the greatest number of hosts per given network address. a. A b. B c. C d. D The correct
answer is a
367. A subnet mask in class B has nineteen 1s. How many subnets does it define? a. 128 b. 8 c. 32 d. 64
368. In _ routing, the full IP address of a destination is given in the routing table. a. Next-hop b. Host-
specific c. Network-specific d. Default The correct answer is b
369. A subnet mask in class C has twenty-five 1s. How many subnets does it define? a. 0 b. 2 c. 8 d. 16
370. Given the IP address 180.25.21.172 and the subnet mask 255.255.192.0, what is the subnet
address? a. 180.25.21.0 b. 180.25.8.0 c. 180.25.0.0 d. 180.0.0.0 The correct answer is c
371. Given the IP address 18.250.31.14 and the subnet mask 255.240.0.0, what is the subnet address? a.
18.9.0.14 b. 18.0.0.14 c. 18.31.0.14 d. 18.240.0.0 The correct answer is d
372. is a client-server program that provides an IP address, subnet mask, IP address of a router, and IP
address of a name server to a computer. a. NAT b. DHCP c. CIDR d. ISP The correct answer is b
373. In _, each packet of a message need not follow the same path from sender to receiver. a. The
virtual approach to packet switching b. The datagram approach to packet switching
c. Message switching d. None of the above The correct answer is b
374. An IP address consists of _ bits. a. 8 b. 32 c. 4 d. Any of the above The correct answer is b
375. On a network that uses NAT, the router can use global address(es). a. A pool of b. One c. Two d.
376. In _ routing, the mask and destination addresses are both 0.0.0.0 in the routing table. a. Default b.
Next-hop c. Network-specific d. Host-specific The correct answer is a
377. A subnet mask in class A has fourteen 1s. How many subnets does it define? a. 64 b. 128 c. 32 d. 8
378. In which type of switching do all the packets of a message follow the same channels of a path? a.
Virtual circuit packet switching b. Message switching c. Datagram packet switching d. None of the above
379. In _ routing, the destination address is a network address in the routing table. a. Network-specific
b. Host-specific c. Next-hop d. Default The correct answer is a
380. Given the IP address 201.14.78.65 and the subnet mask 255.255.255.224, what is the subnet
address? a. 201.14.78.64 b. 201.14.78.32 c. 201.14.78.65 d. 201.14.78.12 The correct answer is a
381. In error reporting the encapsulated ICMP packet goes to . a. The receiver b. A router c. The sender
d. Any of the above The correct answer is c
382. When the hop-count field reaches zero and the destination has not been reached, a error message
is sent. a. Destination-unreachable
b. Redirection c. Time-exceeded d. Parameter-problem The correct answer is c
383. An ARP request is to . a. Multicast; one host b. Unicast; all hosts c. Broadcast; all hosts d. Unicast;
one host The correct answer is c
384. What is the maximum size of the data portion of the IP datagram? a. 65,515 bytes b. 65,535 bytes
c. 65,475 bytes d. 65,460 bytes The correct answer is a
385. A best-effort delivery service such as IP does not include . a. Error correction b. Error checking c.
Datagram acknowledgment d. All the above The correct answer is d
386. An HLEN value of decimal 10 means . a. There is 10 bytes of options b. There is 40 bytes in the
header c. There is 40 bytes of options d. There is 10 bytes in the header The correct answer is b
387. In IPv4, what is the value of the total length field in bytes if the header is 28 bytes and the data field
is 400 bytes? a. 407 b. 107 c. 428 d. 427 The correct answer is c
388. If the fragment offset has a value of 100, it means that . a. The first byte of the datagram is byte
800 b. The datagram has not been fragmented c. The datagram is 100 bytes in size d. The first byte of
the datagram is byte 100 The correct answer is a
389. What is needed to determine the number of the last byte of a fragment? a. Identification number
b. Offset number c. Total length d. (b) and (c) The correct answer is d
390. The IP header size . a. Depends on the MTU b. Is 20 to 60 bytes long c. Is 20 bytes long d. Is 60
bytes long The correct answer is b
391. If a host needs to synchronize its clock with another host, it sends a _ message.
a. Time-exceeded b. Time-stamp-request c. Source-quench d. Router-advertisement The correct answer
is b
392. Which of the following is a necessary part of the IPv6 datagram? a. Base header b. Extension
header c. Data packet from the upper layer d. (a) and (c) The correct answer is d
393. is a dynamic mapping protocol in which a physical address is found for a given IP address. a. RARP
b. ICMP c. ARP d. None of the above The correct answer is c
394. A router reads the address on a packet to determine the next hop. a. MAC b. Source c. IP d. ARP
395. The target hardware address on an Ethernet is _ in an ARP request. a. Variable b. Class-dependent
c. 0x000000000000 d. 0.0.0.0 The correct answer is c
396. When not all fragments of a message have been received within the designated amount of time, a
error message is sent. a. Time-exceeded b. Parameter-problem c. Source-quench d. Time-stamp-request
397. A can learn about network by sending out a router-solicitation packet. a. Router; routers b.
Router; hosts c. Host; routers d. Host; hosts The correct answer is c
398. Which of the following types of ICMP messages needs to be encapsulated into an IP datagram? a.
Time-exceeded b. Multicasting c. Echo reply d. All the above The correct answer is d
399. The purpose of echo request and echo reply is to . a. Report errors b. Check packet lifetime c.
Check node-to-node communication d. Find IP addresses The correct answer is c
400. An ARP reply is to . a. Unicast; one host b. Broadcast; all hosts c. Multicast; one host d. Unicast;
all hosts The correct answer is a
401. One method to alert a source host of congestion is the message. a. Source-quench b. Redirection
c. Echo-request d. Destination-unreachable The correct answer is a
402. A time-exceeded message is generated if . a. The round-trip time between hosts is close to zero b.
The time-to-live field has a zero value c. Fragments of a message do not arrive within a set time d. (b)
and (c) The correct answer is d
403. To determine whether a node is reachable, message can be sent. a. An echo-request b. An echo-
reply c. A redirection d. A source-quench The correct answer is a
404. In IPv6, the field in the base header restricts the lifetime of a datagram. a. Version b. Hop limit c.
Priority d. Next-header The correct answer is b
405. In IPv4, what is the length of the data field given an HLEN value of 12 and total length value of
40,000? a. 39,952 b. 39,988 c. 40,012 d. 40,048 The correct answer is a
406. A datagram is fragmented into three smaller datagrams. Which of the following is true? a. The do
not fragment bit is set to 1 for all three datagrams. b. The identification field is the same for all three
datagrams. c. The more fragment bit is set to 0 for all three datagrams. d. The offset field is the same for
all three datagrams. The correct answer is b
407. Errors in the header or option fields of an IP datagram require a error message. a. Source-quench
b. Parameter-problem c. Router-solicitation d. Redirection The correct answer is b
408. The cost field of a router's first table from itself always has a value of .
a. Some positive integer b. 0 c. 1
d. Infinity The correct answer is b
409. A routing table contains . a. The destination network ID b. The hop count to reach the network c.
The router ID of the next hop d. All the above The correct answer is d
410. Router B receives an update from router A that indicates Net1 is two hops away. The next update
from A says Net1 is five hops away. What value is entered in B's routing table for Net1? Assume the
basic RIP is being used. a. 6 b. 7 c. 2 d. 3 The correct answer is a
411. If the routing table contains four new entries, how many update messages must the router send to
its one neighbor router ? a. 3 b. 4 c. 1 d. 2 The correct answer is c
412. An area border router can be connected to . a. Only another router b. Only another network c.
Only another area border router d. Another router or another network The correct answer is d
413. Which of the following usually has the least number of connections to other areas? a. A transient
link b. A stub link c. An area d. An autonomous system The correct answer is b
414. is used in a dense multicast environment while is used in a sparse multicast environment. a. PIM-
SM; PIM-DM b. PIM; PIM-DM c. PIM; PIM-SM d. PIM-DM; PIM-SM The correct answer is d
415. When a multicast router is not directly connected to another multicast router, a can be formed to
connect the two. a. Logical core b. Spanning tree c. Physical tunnel d. Logical tunnel The correct answer
is d
416. Which type of network using the OSPF protocol can have five routers attached to it? a. Transient b.
Stub c. Point-to-point d. All the above The correct answer is a
417. A WAN using the OSPF protocol that connects two routers is an example of a type of OSPF
network. a. Stub
b. Point-to-point c. Transient d. Virtual The correct answer is b
418. If four hosts on a network belong to the same group, a total of sent in a. One membership report
is b. Two membership reports are c. Three membership reports are d. Four membership reports are The
correct answer is b
419. A one-to-all communication between a source and all hosts on a network is classified as a
communication. a. Unicast b. Multicast c. Broadcast d. (a) and (b) The correct answer is c
420. Which type of BGP message announces a route to a new destination? a. Update b. Open c. Keep-
alive d. Notification The correct answer is a
421. Which layer produces the OSPF message? a. Data link b. Transport c. Application d. Network The
correct answer is d
422. Which of the following is an exterior routing protocol? a. RIP b. OSPF c. BGP d. (a) and (b) The
correct answer is c
423. An area is . a. Composed of at least two ASs b. Another term for an internet c. Part of an AS d. A
collection of stub areas The correct answer is c
424. In an autonomous system with n areas, how many areas are connected to the backbone? a. 1 b. n
c. n – 1 d. n + 1 The correct answer is c
425. Which of the following is an interior routing protocol? a. RIP b. OSPF c. BGP d. (a) and (b) The
correct answer is d
426. OSPF is based on .

a. Distance vector routing b. Path vector routing c. Link state routing d. (a) and (b) The correct answer is
c
427. BGP is based on . a. Distance vector routing b. Link state routing c. Path vector routing d. (a) and
(b) The correct answer is c
428. Which type of BGP message creates a relationship between two routers? a. Keep-alive b. Open c.
Update d. Notification The correct answer is b
429. Which type of network using the OSPF protocol always consists of just two connected routers? a.
Transient b. Stub c. Point-to-point d. Virtual The correct answer is c
430. Which type of network using the OSPF protocol is the result of a break in a link between two
routers? a. Virtual b. Point-to-point c. Transient d. Stub The correct answer is a
431. Which type of BGP message is sent by a router to close a connection? a. Open b. Update c.
Notification d. Keep-alive The correct answer is c
432. An IGMP query is sent from a to a . a. Router; host or router b. Host; host c. Host; router d.
Router; router The correct answer is a
433. Which type of BGP message is sent by a system to notify another router of the sender's existence?
a. Keep-alive b. Notification c. Open d. Update The correct answer is a
434. An Ethernet LAN using the OSPF protocol with five attached routers can be called a network. a.
Point-to-point b. Stub c. Transient d. Virtual The correct answer is c
435. In distance vector routing each router receives information directly from . a. Its neighbors only b.
Every router on the network c. Every router less than two units away d. A table stored by the network
hosts The correct answer is a
436. A system uses group-shared trees for multicasting. If there are 100 sources and 5 groups, there is a
maximum of different trees. a. 20 b. 100 c. 5 d. 500 The correct answer is c
437. is a multicast routing protocol using source-based trees. a. DVRMP b. MOSPF c. CBT d. (a) and (b)
438. Pruning and grafting are strategies used in . a. RPM b. RPF c. RPB d. All the above The correct
answer is a
439. In distance vector routing a router sends out information . a. Only when there is a change in its
table b. Only when a new host is added c. At regularly scheduled intervals d. Only when a new network
is added The correct answer is c
440. The field of the IGMP message is all zeros in a query message. a. Version b. Type c. Group address
d. Checksum The correct answer is c
441. The field of the IGMP message is 0x11 for a query message. a. Version b. Type c. Checksum d. d.
(a) and (b) The correct answer is d
442. A one-to-many communication between a source and a specific group of hosts is classified as a
communication. a. Multicast b. Unicast c. Broadcast d. (a) and (b) The correct answer is a
443. A one-to-one communication between a source and one destination is classified as a communicati
on. a. Unicast b. Multicast c. Broadcast d. d. (a) and (b)
444. is a multicasting application. a. Teleconferencing b. Distance learning c. Information dissemination

d. All the above The correct answer is d
445. A is a data structure with nodes and edges and a hierarchical structure. a. Graph b. Leaf c. Tree d.
Root The correct answer is c
446. A system uses source-based trees for multicasting. If there are 100 sources and 5 groups, there is a
maximum of different trees. a. 5 b. 20 c. 100 d. 500 The correct answer is d
447. In a tree approach to multicasting, the combination of source and group determines the tree. a.
Shortest-group b. Source-based c. Spanning-source d. Group-shared The correct answer is b
448. In a tree approach to multicasting, the group determines the tree. a. Group-shared b. Spanning-
source c. Shortest-group d. Source-based The correct answer is a
449. is a multicast routing protocol using group-shared trees. a. DVRMP b. MOSPF c. CBT d. (a) and (b)
450. In _ a network can receive a multicast packet from a particular source only through a designated
parent router. a. RPF b. RPM c. RPB d. All the above The correct answer is c
451. Dijkstra's algorithm is used to . a. Create LSAs b. Flood an internet with information c. Create a link
state database d. Calculate the routing tables The correct answer is d
452. A message tells an upstream router to stop sending multicast messages for a specific group
through a specific router. a. Graft
b. Prune c. Weed d. Plum The correct answer is b
453. The is used by a router in response to a received-leave report. a. Special query message b. General
query message c. Membership report d. Leave report The correct answer is a
454. RIP is based on . a. Link state routing b. Dijkstra's algorithm c. Path vector routing d. Distance
vector routing The correct answer is d
455. A message tells an upstream router to start sending multicast messages for a specific group
through a specific router. a. Weed b. Prune c. Plum d. Graft The correct answer is d
456. uses multicast link state routing concepts to create source-based trees. a. DVMRP b. CBT c. BVD d.
MOSPF The correct answer is d
457. In the protocol, a multicast packet is encapsulated inside a unicast packet with the core router as
the destinat ion. a. DVMRP b. CBT c. MOSPF d. BVD The correct answer is b
458. The is an IGMP message. a. Query message b. Membership report c. Leave report d. All the above
459. The defines the client program. a. Well-known port number b. Ephemeral port number c. IP
address d. Physical address The correct answer is b
460. The timer is used in the termination phase. a. Retransmission b. Time-waited c. Persistence d.
Keep-alive The correct answer is b
461. Which is a legal port address? a. 0 b. 513 c. 65,535 d. All the above The correct answer is d
462. The definition of reliable delivery includes . a. Error-free delivery b. Receipt of the complete
message c. In-order delivery d. All the above The correct answer is d
463. Which of the following does UDP guarantee? a. Acknowledgments to the sender b. Flow control c.
Sequence numbers on each user datagram d. None of the above The correct answer is d
464. The source port address on the UDP user datagram header defines . a. The sending computer b.
The receiving computer c. The application program on the receiving computer d. The application
program on the sending computer The correct answer is d
465. A host can be identified by while a program running on the host can be identified by . a. A port
number; an IP address b. An IP address; a port number c. An IP address; a host address d. An IP address;
a well-known port The correct answer is b
466. Which of the following is not part of the UDP user datagram header? a. Source port address b.
Checksum c. Length of header d. Destination port address The correct answer is c
467. The defines the server program. a. IP address b. Well-known port number c. Ephemeral port
number d. Physical address The correct answer is b
468. IP is responsible for communication while TCP is responsible for _ communication. a. Process-to-
process; node-to-node b. Host-to-host; process-to-process c. Process-to-process; host-to-host d. Node-
to-node; process-to-process The correct answer is b
469. The timer is needed to handle the zero window-size advertisement. a. Persistence b. Keep-alive c.
Retransmission d. Time-waited The correct answer is a
470. Connection establishment involves a handshake. a. Three-way b. One-way c. Two-way d. None of

the above The correct answer is a
471. A special segment called a probe is sent by a sending TCP when the timer goes off. a. Persistence
b. Transmission c. Keep-alive d. Time-waited The correct answer is a
472. The address uniquely identifies a running application program. a. IP address b. NIC c. Socket d.
Host The correct answer is c
473. The field is used to order packets of a message. a. Sequence number b. Acknowledgment number
c. Urgent pointer d. Checksum The correct answer is a
474. The field is used for error detection. a. Sequence number b. Acknowledgment number c. Urgent
pointer d. Checksum The correct answer is d
475. Multiply the header length field by to find the total number of bytes in the TCP header. a. 4 b. 6 c.
8 d. 2 The correct answer is a
476. Urgent data require the urgent pointer field as well as the URG bit in the field. a. Sequence
number b. Control c. Offset d. Reserved The correct answer is b
477. In , data are sent or processed at a very inefficient rate, such as 1 byte at a time. a. Silly window
syndrome b. Sliding window syndrome c. Nagle's syndrome d. Delayed acknowledgment The correct
answer is a
478. The timer keeps track of the time between the sending of a segment and the receipt of an
acknowledgment. a. Time-waited b. Retransmission c. Persistence d. Keep-alive
479. To prevent silly window syndrome created by a receiver that processes data at a very slow rate,
can be used. a. Clark's solution b. Nagle's algorithm c. Delayed acknowledgment d. (a) or (c) The correct
answer is d
480. To prevent silly window syndrome created by a sender that sends data at a very slow rate, can be
used. a. Nagle's algorithm b. Clark's solution c. Delayed acknowledgment d. (a) or (c) The correct answer
is a
481. An ACK number of 1000 always means that . a. 999 bytes has been successfully received b. 1000
bytes has been successfully received c. 1001 bytes has been successfully received d. None of the above
482. The timer prevents a long idle connection between two TCPs. a. Keep-alive b. Time-waited c.
Retransmission d. Persistence The correct answer is a
483. UDP and TCP are both _ layer protocols. a. Physical b. Data link c. Network d. Transport The
correct answer is d
484. Which of the following functions does UDP perform? a. End-to-end reliable data delivery b.
Process-to-process communication c. Host-to-host communication d. All the above The correct answer is
b
485. UDP needs the address to deliver the user datagram to the correct application program. a.
Application b. Internet c. Physical d. Port The correct answer is d
486. Karn's algorithm is used in calculations by the timer. a. a. Time-waited b. Retransmission c.

Persistence d. Keep-alive The correct answer is b
487. Slow start is used in conjunction with as a TCP congestion control strategy. a. Multiplicative
increase b. Multiplicative decrease
c. Additive increase d. Additive decrease The correct answer is c
488. The maximum length of time that traffic is generated at the peak rate is called the . a. Effective
bandwidth b. Average data rate c. Maximum burst size d. Constant bit rate The correct answer is c
489. For a system using TCP, the sender window size is determined by the window size. a. Receiver b.
Sender c. Congestion d. (a) and (c) The correct answer is d
490. traffic features sudden data rate changes in very short periods of time. a. Constant-bit-rate b.
Bursty c. Variable-bit-rate d. Peak-bit-rate The correct answer is b
491. When the load is greater than the capacity, the delay . a. Decreases b. Goes to infinity c. Increases
linearly d. Goes to zero The correct answer is b
492. is a closed-loop mechanism to alleviate congestion. a. A choke point b. Implicit signaling c. Explicit
signaling d. All the above The correct answer is d
493. The FECN informs the of congestion while the BECN informs the _ of congestion. a. Sender;
destination b. Interface; sender c. Destination; interface d. Destination; sender The correct answer is d
494. The is the maximum data rate of the traffic. a. Average data rate b. Maximum burst size c.
Effective bandwidth d. Peak data rate The correct answer is d
495. is a flow characteristic in which the delay varies for packets belonging to the same flow. a. Choke
point b. Additive increase c. Jitter d. Throughput The correct answer is b
496. In _ queuing the first packet into the queue is the first packet out of the queue. a. Priority
b. Weighted fair c. FIFO d. LIFO The correct answer is c
497. In Frame Relay the transmission rate can never exceed . a. Bc b. The access rate c. Be d. CIR The
correct answer is b
498. measures the variation in cell transmission time. a. SCR b. CVDT c. PCR d. MCR The correct answer
is b
499. If the SCR is 60,000, the PCR is 70,000, and the MCR is 55,000, what is the minimum number of cells
that can be sent per second? a. 60,000 b. 70,000 c. 55,000 d. 5000 The correct answer is c
500. The traffic shaping method gives a host credit for its idle time. a. Leaky bucket b. Traffic bucket c.
Token bucket d. Bursty bucket The correct answer is c
501. A flow-based QoS model designed for IP is called . a. RSVP b. Integrated Services c. Differentiated
Services d. Multicast trees The correct answer is b
502. A signaling protocol that helps IP create a flow is called . a. RSVP b. Integrated Services c.
Differentiated Services d. Multicast trees The correct answer is a
503. RSVP uses _ messages. a. Path b. Resv c. Resource d. (a) and (b) The correct answer is d
504. In an RSVP reservation style called filter, the router creates a single reservation that can be shared
by a set of flows. a. Fixed b. Shared explicit c. Wild card d. All the above The correct answer is b
505. Differentiated Services was designed to handle the problem associated with Integrated Services. a.
Stability b. Reservation c. Scalability d. All the above The correct answer is c
506. A is a Differentiated Services traffic conditioner. a. Meter b. Marker c. Shaper The correct answer
is c
507. What is the relationship between the access rate and the CIR? a. CIR plus Be is equal to the access
rate. b. CIR is always equal to the access rate. c. CIR is greater than the access rate. d. CIR is less than the
access rate. The correct answer is d
508. If the maximum CTD is 10 µs and the minimum CTD is 1 µs, the _ is 9 µs. a. CDV b. CLR c. CTD d.
CER The correct answer is a
509. A Frame Relay network is committed to transfer bps without discarding any frames. a. Be b. Bc c.
CIR d. (a) and (b) The correct answer is b
510. The effective bandwidth is based on . a. Average data rate b. Peak data rate c. Maximum burst size
511. The cell is the difference between the CTD maximum and minimum. a. Delay variation b. Error
ratio c. Loss ratio d. Transfer delay The correct answer is a
512. The cell is the ratio of lost cells to cells sent. a. Delay variation b. Error ratio c. Loss ratio d.
Transfer delay The correct answer is c
513. The service class is particularly suitable for applications with bursty data. a. CBR b. ABR c. VBR d.
UBR The correct answer is b
514. The service class is suitable for customers who need real-time video transmission without
compression. a. ABR b. CBR c. VBR d. UBR The correct answer is b
515. The is greater than the SCR. a. MCR b. CVDT c. PCR d. All the above The correct answer is c
516. The is the fraction of the cells delivered in error. a. CLR b. CER c. CTD d. CDV The correct answer is
b
517. When added to Be, Bc should be less than the . a. CIR b. Committed burst size c. Access rate d. (a)
and (b) The correct answer is c
518. A connectionless iterative server uses _ ports. a. Well-known b. Ephemeral c. Active d. (a) and (b)
519. The socket is used with a protocol that directly uses the services of IP. a. Raw b. Stream c.
Datagram d. Remote The correct answer is a
520. A server serves multiple clients, handling one request at a time. a. Connectionless iterative b.
Connectionless concurrent c. Connection-oriented iterative d. Connection-oriented concurrent The
correct answer is a
521. A client issues _ when it needs service from a server. a. An active request b. A finite open c. An
active open d. A passive open The correct answer is c
522. A server serves multiple clients simultaneously. a. Connectionless iterative b. Connectionless
concurrent c. Connection-oriented iterative d. Connection-oriented concurrent
523. The server program is _ because it is always available, waiting for a client request. a. Finite b.
Infinite c. Active d. Passive The correct answer is b
524. A connection-oriented concurrent server uses _ ports. a. Well-known b. Ephemeral c. Active d. (a)
and (b) The correct answer is d
525. Machine A requests service X from machine B. Machine B requests service Y from machine A. What
is the total number of application programs required? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four The correct answer
is d
526. A server program, once it issues , waits for clients to request its service. a. An active request b. A
finite open c. An active open d. A passive open The correct answer is d
527. can request a service. a. A socket interface b. A client c. A port d. A server The correct answer is b
528. can provide a service. a. An iterative server b. A concurrent server c. A client d. (a) and (b) The
correct answer is d
529. The client program is because it terminates after it has been served. a. Finite b. Infinite c. Active d.
Passive The correct answer is a
530. processes requests one at a time. a. An iterative server b. A concurrent client c. An iterative client
d. A concurrent server The correct answer is a
531. The socket is used with a connectionless protocol. a. Raw b. Stream

c. Datagram d. Remote The correct answer is c
532. processes many requests simultaneously. a. An iterative server b. A concurrent client c. An

iterative client d. A concurrent server The correct answer is d
533. In a connection-oriented concurrent server, the is used for connection only. a. Well-known port b.
Infinite port c. Ephemeral port d. (b) and (c) The correct answer is a
534. A is an instance of a . a. Program; process b. Process; program c. Process; service d. Structure;

process The correct answer is b
535. The socket is used with a connection-oriented protocol. a. Raw b. Stream c. Datagram d. Remote
536. In the string 219.46.123.107.in-addr.arpa, what is the network address of the host we are looking
for? a. 107.123.46.0 b. 107.0.0.0 c. 219.46.123.0 d. 107.123.0.0 The correct answer is b
537. In _ resolution the client is in direct contact with at most one server. a. A cache b. A recursive c. An
iterative d. All the above The correct answer is b
538. In address-to-name resolution the _ domain is used. a. Reverse b. Generic c. Country d. Inverse
539. How is the lifetime of a name-to-address resolution in cache memory controlled? a. By the time-to-
live field set by the server b. By the time-to-live counter set by the server c. By the time-to-live field set
by the authoritative server d. (b) and (c) The correct answer is d
540. A DNS response is classified as _ if the information comes from a cache memory. a. Authoritative
b. Recursive c. Unauthoritative d. Iterative The correct answer is c
541. A host with the domain name pit.arc.nasa.gov. is on the level of the DNS hierarchical tree. (The
root is level 1.) a. Fourth b. Fifth c. Third d. Not enough information given The correct answer is b
542. A DNS server's zone is the entire DNS tree. a. Secondary b. Root c. Primary d. All the above The
correct answer is b
543. To find the IP address of a host when the domain name is known, the can be used. a. Inverse
domain b. Generic domains c. Country domains d. (b) or (c) The correct answer is a
544. A DNS server gets its data from another DNS server. a. Root b. Primary c. Secondary d. All the
above The correct answer is c
545. A DNS server creates, maintains, and updates the zone file. a. Root b. Primary c. Secondary d. All
the above The correct answer is b
546. A host with the domain name trinity.blue.vers.inc is on the level of the DNS hierarchical tree. (The
root is level 1.) a. Fourth b. Fifth c. Third d. Not enough information given The correct answer is d
547. In the domain name chal.atc.fhda.edu, is the least specific label. a. fhda b. edu c. chal d. atc The
correct answer is b
548. In the domain name chal.atc.fhda.edu, is the most specific label. a. Fhda b. chal c. atc d. edu The
correct answer is b
549. In _ resolution the client could directly contact more than one server.
a. An iterative b. A cache c. A recursive d. All the above The correct answer is a
550. Which of the following domain names would most likely use a country domain to resolve its IP
address? a. chal.atac.fhda.edu b. kenz.acct.sony.jp c. gsfc.nasa.gov d. mac.eng.sony.com The correct
answer is b
551. A resolver is the _. a. Host machine b. DNS client c. DNS server d. Root server The correct answer
is b
552. Which of the following is true? a. FTP allows systems with different directory structures to transfer
files. b. FTP allows a system using ASCII and a system using EBCDIC to transfer files. c. FTP allows a PC
and a SUN workstation to transfer files. d. All the above are true. The correct answer is d
553. An email contains a textual birthday greeting, a picture of a cake, and a song. The text must
precede the image. What is the content-type? a. Multipart/parallel b. Multipart/digest c.
Multipart/alternative d. Multipart/mixed The correct answer is d
554. During an FTP session the control connection is opened . a. As many times as necessary b. Exactly
once c. Exactly twice d. All the above The correct answer is b 555. The purpose of the MTA is . a.
Transferral of messages across the Internet b. Message preparation c. Envelope creation d. (a) and (b)
556. In anonymous FTP, the user can usually _. a. Store files b. Retrieve files c. Navigate through
directories d. Do all the above The correct answer is b
557. Which part of the mail created by the UA contains the sender and receiver names? a. Header b.
Body c. Envelope d. Address The correct answer is a
558. In the email address mackenzie@pit.arc.nasa.gov, what is the domain name? a. mackenzie b.
mackenzie@pit.arc.nasa.gov c. pit.arc.nasa.gov d. (a) and (b) The correct answer is c
559. The field in the MIME header uses text to describe the data in the body of the message. a.
Content-transfer-encoding b. Content-Id c. Content-type d. Content-description The correct answer is b
560. The field in the MIME header describes the method used to encode the data. a. Content-Id b.
Content-description c. Content-type d. Content-transfer-encoding The correct answer is d
561. The field in the MIME header has type and subtype subfields. a. Content-transfer-encoding b.
Content-type c. Content-Id d. Content-description The correct answer is b
562. A JPEG image is sent as email. What is the content-type? a. Multipart/mixed b. Multipart/image c.
Image/basic d. Image/JPEG The correct answer is d
563. The purpose of the UA is _. a. Message preparation b. Envelope creation c. Transferral of

messages across the Internet d. (a) and (b) The correct answer is d
564. The field in the MIME header is the type of data and the body of the message. a. Content-Id b.
Content-description c. Content-type d. Content-transfer-encoding The correct answer is c
565. A message is fragmented into three email messages. What is the content-type? a. Message/partial
b. Multipart/partial c. Multipart/mixed d. Message/RFC822 The correct answer is a
566. A client machine usually needs to send email. a. Only POP b. Both SMTP and POP c. Only SMTP d.
None of the above The correct answer is c
567. In FTP, what attributes must be defined by the client prior to transmission? a. Data type b. File
structure c. Transmission mode d. All the above The correct answer is d
568. In FTP, there are three types of : stream, block, and compressed. a. Data structures b.
Transmission modes c. Files d. All the above The correct answer is b
569. In FTP, ASCII, EBCDIC, and image define an attribute called . a. Data structure b. Transmission
mode c. File type d. All the above The correct answer is c
570. In FTP, when you , it is copied from the server to the client. a. Retrieve a file b. Store a file c.
Retrieve a list d. (a) and (c) The correct answer is d
571. In FTP, when you , it is copied from the client to the server. a. Retrieve a file b. Store a file c.
Retrieve a list d. (a) and (c) The correct answer is b
572. An email contains a textual birthday greeting, a picture of a cake, and a song. The order is not
important. What is the content-type? a. Multipart/digest b. Multipart/alternative c. Multipart/mixed d.
Multipart/parallel The correct answer is d
573. During an FTP session the data connection is opened . a. Exactly once b. Exactly twice c. As many
times as necessary d. All the above The correct answer is c
574. Which of the following is a retrieval method? a. HTTP b. FTP c. TELNET d. All the above The correct
answer is d
575. A request message always contains . a. A status line, a header, and a body b. A status line and a
header c. A header and a body
576. Which of the following is present in both a request line and a status line? a. URL b. Status code c.
HTTP version number d. Status phrase The correct answer is c
577. Which of the following is not a client program in WWW? a. FTP b. HTTP c. HTML d. TELNET The
correct answer is c
578. A user wants to replace a document with a newer version; the request line contains the method.
a. PUT b. GET c. POST d. COPY The correct answer is a
579. The header can specify the client configuration and the client's preferred document format. a.
Request b. Response c. General d. Entity The correct answer is a
580. The tags enclose binary code or byte code. a. Executable contents b. Image c. List d. Hyperlink The
correct answer is a
581. Which type of Web document is run at the client site? a. Dynamic b. Active c. Static d. All the above
582. HTTP has similarities to both _ and . a. FTP; MTV b. FTP; URL c. FTP; SNMP d. FTP; SMTP The
correct answer is d
583. A user needs to send the server some information. The request line method is . a. OPTION b. POST
c. PATCH d. MOVE The correct answer is b
584. A response message always contains . a. A header and a body b. A status line, a header, and a
body
d. A status line and a header The correct answer is c
585. The header supplies information about the body of a document. a. General b. Request c. Entity d.
Response The correct answer is c
586. The header can specify the server configuration or provide information about a request. a.
General b. Request c. Response d. Entity The correct answer is c
587. Hypertext documents are linked through _. a. TELNET b. Pointers c. DNS d. Homepages The correct
answer is b
588. Which of the following is an interpreter? a. CGI b. FTP c. HTTP d. HTML The correct answer is d
589. What are the components of a browser? a. Controller, client program, interpreter b. Retrieval
method, host computer, path name c. Hypertext, hypermedia, HTML d. All the above The correct answer
is a
590. A user needs to retrieve a document from the server; the request line contains the method. a. GET
b. HEAD c. POST d. PUT The correct answer is a
591. Which type of Web document is fixed-content and is created and stored at the server site? a.
Dynamic b. Active c. Static d. All the above The correct answer is c
592. The of a Web page contains the title and parameters used by the browser. a. Attributes b. Tags c.
Head d. Body The correct answer is c
593. Which type of Web document is created at the server site only when requested by a client? a.
Active
b. Static c. Dynamic d. All the above The correct answer is c
594. In < IMG SRC="Pictures/book1.gif" ALIGN=middle> ALIGN is . a. The head b. The body c. A tag
d. An attribute The correct answer is d
595. A user wants to copy a file to another location; the request line contains the method. a. PUT b.
PATCH c. COPY d. POST The correct answer is c
596. What does the URL need to access a document? a. Path name b. Host computer c. Retrieval
method d. All the above The correct answer is d
597. Which type of Web document is transported from the server to the client in binary form? a. Active
b. Static c. Dynamic d. All the above The correct answer is a
598. An ending tag is usually of the form a. <tagname> b. <tagname!> c. </tagname> The correct
answer is c
599. An applet is a small application program written in a. Shell script b. Java c. C d. C++ The correct
answer is b
600. Stock quotations are posted on the Web. This is probably a(n) document. a. Passive b. Dynamic c.
Active d. Static The correct answer is b
601. Updates for a satellite's coordinates can be obtained on the WWW. This is probably a(n)
document. a. Passive b. Dynamic c. Active d. Static The correct answer is b
602. A user needs to move a file to another location. The request line method is _. a. PATCH
b. MOVE c. PUT d. GET The correct answer is b
603. Which category of HTML tags allows the listing of documents? a. Image b. Hyperlink c. List d.
Executable contents The correct answer is c
604. A program can use to write a CGI program. a. Bourne shell script b. Perl c. C d. Any of the above
605. An unemployed actor has posted his resume on the Web. This is probably a(n) document. a.
Passive b. Dynamic c. Active d. Static The correct answer is d
606. The server receives input from a browser through . a. An attribute b. A form c. A tag d. Any of the
above The correct answer is b
607. Output from a CGI program is . a. Text b. Graphics c. Binary data d. Any of the above The correct
answer is d
608. is used to enable the use of active documents. a. CGI b. Java c. HTML d. All the above The correct
answer is c
609. Java is _. a. A programming language b. A run-time environment c. A class library d. All the above
610. An applet is document application program. a. An active b. A passive c. A static d. A dynamic The
correct answer is a
611. In a real-time video conference, data from the server are to the client sites.
a. Unicast b. Broadcast c. Multicast d. None of the above The correct answer is c
612. A adds signals from different sources to create a single signal. a. Mixer b. Translator c. Timestamp
d. Sequence number The correct answer is a
613. The RTCP message shuts down a stream. a. Application-specific b. Source description c. Bye d.
Farewell The correct answer is c
614. A standard that allows a telephone (connected to a public telephone network) to talk to a
computer connected to the Internet is _. a. SIP b. H.323 c. IEEE 802.3 d. V.90bis The correct answer is b
615. A changes the format of a high-bandwidth video signal to a lower-quality narrow-bandwidth

signal. a. Timestamp b. Sequence number c. Mixer d. Translator The correct answer is d
616. An RTP packet is encapsulated in a(n) . a. IP datagram b. RTCP packet c. UDP user datagram d. TCP
segment The correct answer is c
617. The last step in JPEG, , removes redundancies. a. Blocking b. Compression c. Quantization d.
Vectorization The correct answer is b
618. A shows when a packet was produced relative to the first or previous packet. a. Sequence number
b. Threshold c. Timestamp d. Playback buffer The correct answer is c
619. is a protocol to set up and terminate a connection between a computer on the Internet and a
telephone (connected to a public telephone network). a. H.245 b. H.225 c. H.323 d. Q.931
620. TCP is not suitable for real-time traffic because _. a. There is no provision for timestamping b.
There is no support for multicasting c. Missing packets are retransmitted d. All the above The correct
answer is d
621. JPEG encoding involves _, a process that reveals the redundancies in a block. a. Quantization b.
Vectorization c. Blocking d. The DCT The correct answer is d
622. The RTCP report informs the sender and other receivers about the quality of service. a. Sender b.
QoS c. Receiver d. Passive The correct answer is c
623. is an application layer protocol that establishes, maintains, and terminates a multimedia session.
a. DCT b. SIP c. RTCP d. JPEG The correct answer is b
624. For streaming stored audio/video, the holds information about the audio video file. a. Jitter b.
Alpha file c. Beta file d. Metafile The correct answer is d
625. is a control protocol that adds functionalities to the streaming process. a. TCP/IP b. RTSP c. HTTP
d. SIP The correct answer is b
626. The audio/video stream is sent by the media server to the . a. Media player b. Browser c. Web
server d. None of the above The correct answer is a
627. Voice over IP is a(n) audio/video application. a. Interactive b. Streaming stored c. Streaming live d.
628. is a SIP message type. a. INVITE b. CANCEL c. OPTIONS

629. A is involved in an SIP mechanism to find the IP address of a callee. a. Proxy server b. Registrar
server c. Media server d. (a) and (b) The correct answer is d
630. are used to number the packets of a real-time transmission. a. Translators b. Timestamps c.
Playback buffers d. Sequence numbers The correct answer is d
631. In the the encryption of each 8-byte block is independent of the others. a. CVF b. CSM c. ECB
mode d. CBC mode The correct answer is c
632. In the public-key method of cryptography, which key is publicly known? a. Encryption key only b.
Decryption key only c. Both d. None of the above The correct answer is a
633. A cipher is _. a. An encryption algorithm b. A decryption algorithm c. A private key d. (a) or (b) The
correct answer is d
634. Before a message is encrypted, it is called . a. Ciphertext b. Cryptotext c. Cryptonite d. Plaintext

635. If 20 people need to communicate using symmetric-key cryptography, symmetric keys are needed.
a. 190 b. 200 c. 19 d. 20 The correct answer is a
636. The is an example of polyalphabetic substitution. a. P-box b. Vigenere cipher c. S-box d. Product
block The correct answer is b
637. In the symmetric-key method of cryptography, which key is publicly known? a. Encryption key only
b. Decryption key only
c. Both d. None of the above The correct answer is d
638. The RSA algorithm uses a cryptography method. a. Private-key b. Symmetric-key c.

Denominational d. Public-key The correct answer is d
639. The is a block cipher. a. P-box b. S-box c. Product block d. All the above The correct answer is d
640. We use an cryptography method in which the plaintext AAAAAA becomes the ciphertext BCDEFG.
This is probably . a. Monoalphabetic substitution b. Transposition c. Polyalphabetic substitution d.
None of the above The correct answer is c
641. One way to encrypt and decrypt long messages is through the use of the . a. ECB mode b. CBC
mode c. CFM d. All the above The correct answer is d
642. An initialization vector is needed in the . a. CSM b. CBC mode c. CVF d. (a) and (b) The correct
answer is d
643. In the public-key method of cryptography, only the receiver has possession of the . a. Public key b.
Both keys c. Private key d. None of the above The correct answer is c
644. After a message is decrypted, it is called . a. Ciphertext b. Cryptotext c. Cryptonite d. Plaintext The
correct answer is d
645. We use a cryptography method in which the character Z always substitutes for the character G. This
is probably . a. Polyalphabetic substitution b. Transpositional c. Monoalphabetic substitution d. None of
646. A protocol called describes the certificate issued by a CA in a structural way. a. KDC
b. X.509 c. CA level 1 d. Kerberos The correct answer is b
647. Windows 2000 uses an authentication protocol called . a. Otway-Rees b. Kerberos c. Diffie-
Hellman d. Needham-Schroeder The correct answer is b
648. In the digital signature technique, the sender of the message uses to create ciphertext. a. His or
her own public key b. His or her own private key c. His or her own symmetric key d. The receiver's
private key The correct answer is b
649. A is a trusted third party that solves the problem of symmetric-key distribution. a. TLS b. Firewall
c. CA d. KDC The correct answer is d
650. In a attack, a message captured by an intruder is illegally sent a second time. a. Return b. Replay c.
Man-in-the-middle d. Bucket brigade The correct answer is b
651. In the protocol, a nonce is decremented by 1 so that an intruder cannot send the exact same
message a second time. a. Needham-Schroeder b. Diffie-Hellman c. Otway-Rees d. Kerberos The correct
answer is a
652. If user A wants to send an encrypted message to user B, the plaintext is encrypted with the public
key of . a. The network b. User A c. User B d. (a) or (b) The correct answer is c
653. When symmetric-key encryption is combined with private-key encryption, the key is encrypted
with the public key. a. Skeleton b. Private c. Public d. Symmetric The correct answer is d
654. The issues tickets for the real server. a. Real server b. Data server c. AS d. TGS The correct answer
is c
655. In _-key cryptography, everyone has access to all the public keys. a. Private b. Certified c.
Symmetric d. Public The correct answer is c
656. In the digital signature technique, the receiver of the message uses to create plaintext. a. The
sender's public key b. Her or his own symmetric key c. Her or his own private key d. Her or his own
public key The correct answer is a
657. A _ is a large number used only once that helps distinguish a fresh authentication request from a
repeated one. a. Ticket b. Realm c. Nonce d. Public key The correct answer is c
658. A certifies the binding between a public key and its owner. a. KDC b. TLS c. CA d. Firewall The
correct answer is c
659. In an authentication using symmetric keys, if 10 people need to communicate, we need keys. a. 90
b. 10 c. 20 d. 45 The correct answer is d
660. In the protocol, the symmetric key is K = G<sup>xy</sup> mod N, where G and N are public
numbers. a. Needham-Schroeder b. Otway-Rees c. Diffie-Hellman d. Kerberos The correct answer is c
661. In a attack, an intruder comes between two communicating parties intercepting and replying to
their messages. a. Bucket-in-the-middle b. Replay c. Return d. Man-in-the-middle The correct answer is
d
662. A is a trusted third party that establishes a symmetric key between two parties who wish to
communicate. a. PKI b. TGS c. KDC
d. CA The correct answer is c
663. is an authentication protocol that needs an authentication server and a ticket- granting server. a.
Needham-Schroeder b. Diffie-Hellman c. Otway-Rees d. Kerberos The correct answer is d
664. The is the KDC in the Kerberos protocol. a. Real server b. Data server c. AS d. TGS The correct
answer is c
665. The field in the authentication header and the ESP header define the security method used in
creating the authentication data. a. Authentication data b. SPI c. Padding d. Sequence number The
correct answer is b
666. Tunneling is a technique in which the IP datagram is first and then . a. Encapsulated in another
datagram; encrypted b. Encrypted; encapsulated in another datagram c. Authenticated; encrypted d.
Encrypted; authenticated The correct answer is b
667. is an IP layer security protocol that only provides integrity and authentication. a. PGP b. ESP c.
IPSec d. AH The correct answer is d
668. An is a private network with no external access that uses the TCP/IP suite. a. Internet b. Intranet c.
internet d. Extranet The correct answer is b
669. IPSec requires a logical connection between two hosts using a signaling protocol called . a. PGP b.
TLS c. AH d. SA The correct answer is d
670. An is a private network with limited external access that uses the TCP/IP suite. a. Intranet b.
Extranet
c. Internet d. internet The correct answer is b
671. The handshake protocol and data exchange protocol are part of . a. TLS b. CA c. KDC d. SSH The
correct answer is a
672. is a collection of protocols that provide security at the IP layer level. a. TLS b. SSH c. IPSec d. PGP
673. A method to provide for the secure transport of email is called . a. TLS b. PGP c. SA d. IPSec The
correct answer is b
674. A VPN uses to guarantee privacy. a. IPSec b. Tunneling c. Both (a) and (b) d. None of the above The
correct answer is c
675. A can forward or block messages based on the information in the message itself. a. Message
digest b. Proxy firewall c. Packet-filter firewall d. Private key The correct answer is b
676. is an IP layer security protocol that provides privacy as well as integrity and authentication. a. AH
b. PGP c. IPSec d. ESP The correct answer is d
677. is a transport layer security protocol. a. PGP b. IPSec c. TLS d. AH The correct answer is c
678. An IP datagram carries an authentication header if the field of the IP header has a value of 51. a.
Protocol b. Security parameter index
c. Sequence number d. Next-header The correct answer is a
679. A network is totally isolated from the global Internet. a. Private b. Hybrid c. Virtual private d. Any
of the above The correct answer is a
680. A network can use a leased line for intraorganization communication and the Internet for
interorganization communication. a. Private b. Hybrid c. Virtual private d. Any of the above The correct
answer is b
681. In a VPN, encrypted. a. The inner datagram is b. Neither the inner nor the outer datagram is c. The
outer datagram is d. Both inner and outer datagrams are The correct answer is d
682. A can forward or block packets based on the information in the network layer and transport layer
headers. a. Proxy firewall b. Message digest c. Packet-filter firewall d. Private key The correct answer is c

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In which kind of computer networks connections, more than two devices can share a single link.

Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves transmission

4. Which topology requires a central controller or hub?

5. The is the physical path over which a message travels.

7. The information to be communicated in a data communications system is the

10. An unauthorized user is a network issue.

11. Which topology requires a multipoint connection?

12. A television broadcast is an example of transmission.

13. A connection provides a dedicated link between two devices.

14. A cable break in a topology stops all transmission.

15. The layer changes bits into electromagnetic signals.

24. What is the main function of the transport layer?

25. Which of the following is an application layer service?

26. The Internet model consists of layers.

28. The layer is the layer closest to the transmission medium.

29. Before data can be transmitted, they must be transformed to .

31. A periodic signal can always be decomposed into .

33. In a frequency-domain plot, the horizontal axis measures the .

34. In a time-domain plot, the vertical axis is a measure of _.

35. In a time-domain plot, the horizontal axis is a measure of .

39. As frequency increases, the period _.

40. When propagation speed is multiplied by propagation time, we get the .

41. Propagation time is _ _ proportional to distance and proportional to propagation speed.

42. Wavelength is proportional to propagation speed and proportional to period.

45. In a frequency-domain plot, the vertical axis measures the .

49. A sine wave is .

50. If the maximum amplitude of a sine wave is 2 V, the minimum amplitude is _ V.

55. The has units of meters/second or kilometers/second.

56. has units of bits/second.

57. The has units of seconds.

58. The wavelength of a signal depends on the .

60. Block coding can help in at the receiver.

62. Unipolar, bipolar, and polar encoding are types of encoding.

63. _ encoding has a transition at the middle of each bit.

64. _ encoding has a transition at the beginning of each 0 bit.

65. PCM is an example of conversion.

67. One factor in the accuracy of a reconstructed PCM signal is the .

68. In asynchronous transmission, the gap time between bytes is _.

69. Synchronous transmission does not have .

70. Which encoding type always has a nonzero average amplitude?

75. RZ encoding involves signal levels.

79. If a symbol is composed of 3 bits, there are _ data levels.

80. The Nyquist theorem specifies the minimum sampling rate to be .

81. Pulse rate is always the bit rate.

82. AM and FM are examples of modulation. a. Analog-to-analog b. Analog-to-digital c. Digital-to-digital

83. In QAM, both phase and of a carrier frequency are varied.

84. Which of the following is most affected by noise?

85. ASK, PSK, FSK, and QAM are examples of modulation.

88. As the bit rate of an FSK signal increases, the bandwidth .

89. In 16-QAM, there are 16 .

104. What is the object of trellis coding? a. To narrow the bandwidth

147. A parabolic dish antenna is a(n) antenna. a. Omnidirectional

156. A telephone network is an example of a network. a. Circuit-switched b. Packet-switched c.

164. A traditional telephone line has a bandwidth of _. a. 2000 Hz b. 4000 Hz

216. ARQ stands for . a. Automatic repeat request

245. is a random-access protocol. a. FDMA b. CDMA c. MA d. Polling The correct answer is c

257. If an Ethernet destination address is 08-07-06-05-44-33, then this is a address. a. Broadcast b.

266. If an Ethernet destination address is 07-01-02-03-04-05, then this is a address. a. Unicast b.

269. Which of the following is a four-wire Gigabit Ethernet implementation? a. 1000Base-SX b.