Marine Engineering

National Maritime Center
Providing Credentials to Mariners
U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam
Third Assistant Engineer
Q534 Engineering Safety and Environmental Protection
(Sample Examination)
9/10/2018 Page 1 of 22
Illustrations: 6
Choose the best answer to the following Multiple Choice Questions.
1. Wooden shoring, with a cross-sectional dimension of 4" X 4" should not be longer than __________.
o (A) 8 feet
• (B) 10 feet
o (C) 16 feet
o (D) 20 feet
If choice B is selected set score to 1.
2. Your ship has run aground and it is necessary to determine whether or not a compartment has
flooded. Therefore, you should __________.
o (A) open the watertight door and take a quick look

o (B) open the hatch dogs on the side away from the hinges
• (C) tap the bulkhead with a hammer to check for a water level
o (D) feel the bulkhead to see if it is hot
If choice C is selected set score to 1.
3. An acceptable method of temporarily sealing a crack formed in the hull of a vessel is to __________.
o (A) tack weld a doubler plate over the crack

o (B) shore up the crack with welded braces
o (C) drill holes at each end
• (D) apply a patch of sheet packing backed by a strongback or shoring
If choice D is selected set score to 1.
4. Which of the methods shown in the illustration is the correct way to fit shoring? Illustration SF-0016
• (A) A
o (B) B
o (C) C
o (D) D
If choice A is selected set score to 1.
5. Which type of respiratory protection is preferable for the repair/investigation personnel in a hydrogen
sulfide (H2S) environment?
o (A) U.S. Navy Oxygen Breathing Apparatus (OBA)

o (B) Self-Contained Demand-Type Breathing Apparatus (SCDBA)
• (C) Positive Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA)
o (D) Emergency Escape Breathing Apparatus (EEBA)
9/10/2018 Page 2 of 22
Illustrations: 6
6. Which of the following conditions represents a particular advantage of using a positive pressure type
self-contained breathing apparatus in an atmosphere that is immediately dangerous to life or health?
• (A) The positive pressure in the facepiece prevents contaminated air from entering the facepiece.
o (B) The equipment used is lightweight and easy to wear by reducing physical strain on the
wearer.
o (C) The equipment is compact and the wearer can work in confined spaces without difficulty.
o (D) The average operating time for most air cylinders is over an hour.
7. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning life jackets?
o (A) Buoyant vests may be substituted for life jackets.

• (B) Life jackets are designed to turn an unconscious person's face clear of the water.
o (C) Life jackets must always be worn with the same side facing outwards to float properly.
o (D) Lightly stained or faded life jackets will fail in the water and should not be used.
8. The external flotation bladder on an immersion suit should be inflated __________.
o (A) before you enter the water

• (B) after you enter the water
o (C) after one hour in the water
o (D) after you notice that your suit is losing buoyancy
9. In the illustration shown, the sea painter is identified as item number _____. Illustration SF-0043
o (A) 3
o (B) 6
• (C) 7
o (D) 9
10. Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which of the following statements is correct
should the boat be enveloped in flames?
o (A) The ventilators will automatically close by the action of fusible links.
o (B) The diesel engine will take its air supply from outside the lifeboat to prevent asphyxiation of
the crew.
o (C) A water spray system to cool the outside of the boat is operated by a high-volume manual
pump.
• (D) A pressurized air tank will provide approximately ten minutes of air for the survivors and the
diesel engine.
9/10/2018 Page 3 of 22
Illustrations: 6
11. When collecting condensation for drinking water, __________.
• (A) a sponge used to mop up and store condensation must be kept salt free
o (B) only condensation on the bottom of the canopy should be collected
o (C) it should be strained through a finely woven cloth
o (D) chlorine tablets should be used to make it drinkable
12. When inspecting a survival craft, you should check to make sure that the __________.
o (A) sea anchor is deployed

o (B) hydraulic starting system has been drained
• (C) hydraulic pressure is within the specified range
o (D) steering controls are locked
13. The canopy of your life raft should __________.
• (A) go into place as the raft is inflated

o (B) be put up after everyone is aboard
o (C) be put up only in severe weather
o (D) be used as a sail if the wind is blowing
14. The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon as possible after entering a life
raft is to __________.
o (A) assist in sleeping

o (B) reduce appetite by decreasing nausea
• (C) prevent loss of body moisture by vomiting
o (D) prevent impaired judgment due to motion-induced deliriousness
15. Which of the following conditions represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares and
rockets?
o (A) Immediately upon abandoning the vessel.

o (B) At half-hour intervals.
o (C) At one hour intervals.
• (D) Only when there is a chance of them being seen by rescue vessels.
9/10/2018 Page 4 of 22
Illustrations: 6
16. The air flow depicted in figure 1 of the illustration is an example of which type of ventilation?
Illustration SF-0013
• (A) Combination.
o (B) Horizontal.
o (C) Parallel.
o (D) Vertical.
17. In figure 1 of the illustration, fire would spread to compartment "B" by __________. Illustration SF-
0013
o (A) impingement
o (B) convection
o (C) radiation
• (D) conduction
18. It is necessary to cool the bulkheads and decks surrounding a compartment where there is a fire in
order to __________.
o (A) cool the metal below its ignition temperature

o (B) form a dense coating of smothering steam
o (C) prevent oxygen from reaching the flames
• (D) prevent the fire from spreading by the conduction of heat
19. Which of the gases listed is the poisonous gas most likely to be found in a closed compartment
involved in a fire?
o (A) Nitrogen
o (B) Hydrogen
o (C) Carbon dioxide
• (D) Carbon monoxide
20. A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as a __________.
• (A) class "A"

o (B) class "B"
o (C) class "C"
o (D) class "D"
9/10/2018 Page 5 of 22
Illustrations: 6
21. The class of fire on which a blanketing effect is essential to extinguish the fire is __________.
o (A) class "A"

• (B) class "B"
o (C) class "C"
o (D) class "D"
22. Which of the listed classes of fire would most likely occur in the engine room of a vessel?
o (A) Classes "A" and "B"

• (B) Classes "B" and "C"
o (C) Classes "C" and "D"
o (D) Classes "A" and "D"
23. A magnesium fire would be classified as a __________.
o (A) class "A"

o (B) class "B"
o (C) class "C"
• (D) class "D"
24. Which of the following procedures reduces the possibility of an interior ventilation duct fire from
rapidly spreading?
o (A) Having a portable CO2 ready at each duct opening.

o (B) Keeping the duct exterior clean.
• (C) Keeping the duct interior clean.
o (D) Having a fire hose charged at each duct opening.
25. The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be __________.
o (A) in the amidships house

o (B) at the main deck manifold
o (C) at the vent header
• (D) in the pumproom
9/10/2018 Page 6 of 22
Illustrations: 6
26. The component shown in the illustration would be installed in which of the following types of fire
detection systems? Illustration SF-0004
o (A) Rate-of-rise
o (B) Line-type pneumatic
o (C) Combined fixed temperature and rate-of-rise
• (D) Fixed temperature
27. The advantage of using a dry chemical fire extinguishing agent is __________.
o (A) its excellent cooling ability

• (B) its good stability and non-toxicity
o (C) permanent extinguishment regardless of the reignition sources
o (D) all of the above
28. Annual servicing of a hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher includes __________.
o (A) hydrostatic testing of the cylinder

o (B) inspecting the pressure gauge to ensure the needle is within operating range
• (C) weighing the cylinder and recharging if weight loss exceeds 10% of the weight of the charge
o (D) discharging, cleaning inside, and recharging
29. Which of the following statements is true concerning Halon 1301 fire extinguishing equipment?
o (A) The agent cannot be used on electrical fires because it leaves a residue.
o (B) Halon extinguishes the fire by smothering action.
• (C) For portable extinguishers, the agent is only available in a 2-pound unit.
o (D) The agent is highly toxic at normal room temperature.
30. Fire hoses located at protected fire stations must always be __________.
o (A) capped on the ends for protection

o (B) supplied with a smooth bore nozzle
o (C) open to the air to prevent rot
• (D) connected to the fire hydrant
9/10/2018 Page 7 of 22
Illustrations: 6
31. A low velocity fog applicator is retained in an all-purpose nozzle by a bayonet joint. The applicator is
prevented from rotating in the joint by __________.
• (A) a spring-loaded catch

o (B) water pressure
o (C) a locknut
o (D) a keeper screw
32. On a cargo ship equipped with a combination fire detection/carbon dioxide extinguishing system, the
presence of fire is indicated at the cabinet simultaneously in two spaces: No.3 hold upper between
decks, containing bagged coffee beans; and No.4 lower hold containing fertilizer. To combat these
fires you should __________.
o (A) open the applicable three-way valve for No.3 hold and fight the fire in No.4 hold with water
• (B) open the applicable three-way valve for No.4 hold. After discharge, secure the valve; then
open the applicable valve for No.3 hold
o (C) open the three-way valves to each space simultaneously
o (D) activate the pilot CO2 cylinders, directing the discharge to No.3 hold, then to No.4 hold
through the three-way valve
33. What is the purpose of opening the doors and portholes in figure 2 of the illustration? Illustration SF-
0013
o (A) To keep the hose teams cool.

o (B) To allow water used to fight the fire to flow out of the superstructure.
• (C) To allow venting of combustion products from the fire to the atmosphere.
o (D) To provide air flow around the compartment in order to contain the fire.
34. During cargo operations, a deck fire has occurred due to a leaking cargo line. You should FIRST
__________.
o (A) apply CO2 on the burning fuel at its source

o (B) blanket the cargo spill with foam
• (C) stop the transfer of cargo
o (D) prevent the spread of fire with a foam dam
9/10/2018 Page 8 of 22
Illustrations: 6
35. The most effective method of extinguishing a class "A" fire is by __________.
o (A) using non-conducting extinguishers

• (B) quenching and cooling
o (C) using a sodium based dry chemical
o (D) blanketing and smothering
36. The fire extinguishing equipment shown in the illustration is a large __________. Illustration SF-0009
o (A) light water hose reel system

o (B) Halon 1301 hose reel system
o (C) CO2 hose reel system
• (D) dry chemical hose reel system
37. In the event of an exhaust duct fire, most dry chemical and carbon dioxide galley range fixed
extinguishing systems are automatically activated through the action of a stainless steel cable,
spring and a __________.
• (A) fusible link

o (B) stack switch
o (C) thermostat
o (D) pyrostat
38. The most important characteristic of a fire extinguishing agent to be used on electrical fires is for the
agent to be __________.
o (A) flame resistant

• (B) non-conducting
o (C) wet
o (D) easily removable
39. If a fire ignites in the engine room as a result of a high-pressure fuel oil leak, you should FIRST
__________.
o (A) secure the ventilation

• (B) shut off the fuel oil supply
o (C) find a soda acid extinguisher
o (D) secure the generator
9/10/2018 Page 9 of 22
Illustrations: 6
40. The airborne concentrations of substances (such as hydrogen sulfide) under which nearly all
workers may be repeatedly exposed without adverse effects are called __________.
o (A) exposure limits

o (B) concentration limits
• (C) threshold limit values
o (D) substance limit values
41. Which of the following statements is true regarding oxygen indicators?
o (A) A cotton filter placed in the end of the sampling tube prevents damaging the instrument when
exposed to strongly acidic gases.
o (B) The instrument is capable of providing an immediate accurate reading of any space with no
delay.
• (C) Prolonged exposure to gases such as CO2 may affect the accuracy of the indicator.
o (D) All of the above.
42. An oxygen indicator will detect __________.
o (A) the presence of harmful amounts of carbon monoxide

• (B) an oxygen deficiency in a space
o (C) concentrations of explosive gas
o (D) all of the above
43. The explosive range of methane is 5% to 15% by volume in air. This means a vapor/air mixture of
__________.
o (A) 3 percent methane by volume is too rich to burn

• (B) 5 percent methane by volume will give a reading of 100 percent LEL on a combustible gas
indicator
o (C) 10 percent methane by volume is too rich to burn
o (D) 20 percent methane by volume is too lean to burn
44. The vapors given off by heated fuel oil are flammable, explosive, and __________.
o (A) lighter than air

o (B) odorless
• (C) heavier than air
o (D) non-toxic
9/10/2018 Page 10 of 22
Illustrations: 6
45. Which of the following hazards is associated with the handling of petroleum products?
o (A) Explosion
o (B) Asphyxiation
o (C) Fire
• (D) All of the above
46. Tankers carrying cryogenic cargoes, such as LNG, are fitted with gas detector systems which are
designed to activate an alarm at 30% of the lower explosive limit. If an LNG gas detector alarm
sounds, this means __________.
o (A) the detector is sampling a space in which 30 percent of the atmosphere is explosive
o (B) the detector sensor is sampling a space where the cargo vapor concentration is 30 percent by
volume
o (C) an explosion is about to take place
• (D) a flammable vapor concentration exists at the sample point, but it is too lean to burn
47. Individuals who have consumed alcohol within 24 hours of exposure to H2S can tolerate
__________.
o (A) unusually large concentrations of H2S

• (B) smaller than normal concentrations of H2S
o (C) moderate concentrations of H2S without the usual reactions
o (D) longer exposure to H2S concentrations
48. What information can be obtained from a marine chemist's certificate on a tank barge?
• (A) The tanks which are safe to enter when the certificate was issued.
o (B) The number of fire extinguishers required onboard.
o (C) The barge's stability information.
o (D) The quality of the barge's cargo.
49. If the chemical material is a mixture, what must the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) identify?
• (A) The name of each hazardous ingredient.

o (B) Other similar mixtures of liquids, solids or gases.
o (C) Paints or coatings that are safe to use with it.
o (D) None of the above.
9/10/2018 Page 11 of 22
Illustrations: 6
50. Water ballast placed in a tank that has been crude oil washed, but not water rinsed, shall be
regarded as __________.
o (A) segregated ballast

• (B) dirty ballast
o (C) clean ballast
o (D) crude oil
51. Your vessel is taking on bunkers from a shoreside facility. If oil begins flowing from one tank vent,
which of the following actions should be taken FIRST?
o (A) Open the intake valve to an adjacent tank.

• (B) Signal the shore control point to shutdown.
o (C) Close the valve on the tank vent line.
o (D) Set out drip pans and sawdust and begin to mop up the spill.
52. Which of the precautions listed should be observed when taking on diesel fuel?
• (A) Prohibit smoking in the area.

o (B) Display a black triangle during daylight hours.
o (C) Secure all lighting to the main deck.
o (D) Provide a portable fan to blow away fumes.
53. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), which of the following is NOT required to be
provided as part of the appendixes of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?
o (A) A list of agencies or officials in regularly visited ports.

• (B) A list of personnel duty assignments.
o (C) A list which specifies who will be responsible for informing the parties listed and the priority in
which they must be notified.
o (D) A list of agencies or officials of Coastal State administrations responsible for receiving and
processing incident reports.
54. Small oil spills on deck can be prevented from contaminating any waters by __________.
• (A) plugging all scuppers and drains

o (B) thoroughly draining all bunkering hoses
o (C) regularly emptying all drip pans
o (D) placing floating booms around the ship
9/10/2018 Page 12 of 22
Illustrations: 6
55. Victual waste is __________.
o (A) the final discharge of sewage treatment plants

• (B) any garbage that comes from food or food provisions
o (C) the final waste product of a manufacturing process
o (D) the resultant sludge that is collected after water washing a boiler
56. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), each operation involving the transfer of oil or
oily mixture that requires an entry in the Oil Record Book shall be fully recorded __________.
• (A) without delay

o (B) within 12 hours of completion of the operation
o (C) within 24 hours of completion of the project
o (D) within 48 hours of completion of the operation
57. If the cause of severe list or trim of a vessel is due to off-center ballast, counter-flooding into empty
tanks will __________.
• (A) decrease list or trim

o (B) increase the righting arm
o (C) increase list or trim
o (D) increase the righting moment
58. Clogged limber holes can endanger a ship's stability by __________.
o (A) preventing the free surface effect

o (B) increasing water area on the keelson
• (C) preventing water from draining to the bilge well
o (D) decreasing off-center weight
59. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O, the term "discharge", as it applies to the pollution
regulations, means __________.
o (A) leaking
o (B) spilling
o (C) dumping
• (D) all of the above
9/10/2018 Page 13 of 22
Illustrations: 6
60. In accordance with 33 CFR Subchapter O (Pollution), the "Discharge of Oil Prohibited" placard is
required on which of the following vessels?
o (A) foreign vessels not in U.S. navigable waters

o (B) foreign vessels when engaged in noncommercial service
• (C) U.S. vessels 26 feet or more in length
o (D) U.S. vessels less than 26 feet in length
61. In accordance with MARPOL (33 CFR Subchapter O), the definition of oil does NOT include which of
the following?
o (A) crude oil

o (B) sludge
• (C) cooking oil
o (D) oil refuse
62. The symbol shown in the illustration used to represent displacement is __________. Illustrations SF-
0022
• (A) 1
o (B) 2
o (C) 3
o (D) 4
63. A vessel which is subjected to "hogging" __________.
o (A) has its bottom plating under compressive stress

o (B) has its bottom plating under tensile stress
o (C) has its main deck plating under compressive stress
• (D) has its main deck plating under tensile stress
64. The distance between the bottom of the hull and the waterline is called __________.
• (A) draft
o (B) freeboard
o (C) tonnage
o (D) reserve buoyancy
9/10/2018 Page 14 of 22
Illustrations: 6
65. A gurgling noise is heard from within a cargo tank when discharging cargo, this would indicate that
the __________.
• (A) pump is sucking air

o (B) tank foot valve is partially clogged
o (C) tank liquid is too viscous
o (D) pump discharge pressure is excessive
66. With no environmental forces acting on the vessel, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is
vertically aligned with the __________.
o (A) longitudinal centerline

o (B) center of flotation
o (C) metacenter
• (D) original vertical centerline
67. When a vessel is inclined, the tendency for it to return to its original position is caused by the
__________.
o (A) increased free surface in the buoyant wedge

o (B) movement of the center of gravity
• (C) movement of the center of buoyancy toward the low side of the vessel
o (D) upward movement of the center of flotation
68. The tendency of a ship to resist a change in trim is __________.
o (A) the righting arm couple

o (B) metacentric height
o (C) transverse inclination
• (D) longitudinal stability
69. You may improve a vessel's stability by __________.
• (A) keeping the fuel tanks topped off

o (B) keeping at least one fuel tank empty for slops
o (C) increasing the free surface effect
o (D) keeping the fuel tanks at least half full
9/10/2018 Page 15 of 22
Illustrations: 6
70. The horizontal fore and aft movement of a vessel is called __________.
o (A) sway
o (B) heave
o (C) yaw
• (D) surge
9/10/2018 Page 16 of 22
SF-0004
Adapted for testing purposes only from Marine Fire Prevention, Firefighting and Fire Safety
U.S. Department of Transportation Maritime Administration
5/25/2016 Further reproduction prohibited without permission Page 17 of 22
SF-0009
Adapted for testing purposes only from AMEREX, Skid Unit Brochure
Amerex Corporation
SF-0013
Adapted for testing purposes only from Marine Fire Prevention, Firefighting and Fire Safety
U.S. Department of Transportation Maritime Administration
Further reproduction prohibited without permission
1/17/2017 Page 19 of 22
SF-0016
Adapted for testing purposes only from Damage Controlman

NAVEDTRA 14057
Further reproduction prohibited without permission
1/17/2017 Page 20 of 22
SF-0022
Vessel Dimensional
Data Symbols
Adapted for testing purposes only from Merchant Marine Deck Examination Reference
Material, Operating Manual for Deep Driller
Copyright © 1989 COMDTPUB P16721.29
SF-0043
Adapted for testing purposes only from MEURN, Survival Guide for the Mariner,
Second Edition
Copyright © 1993 Cornell Maritime Press, Inc.

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National Maritime Center

Providing Credentials to Mariners

U.S.C.G. Merchant Marine Exam

Third Assistant Engineer

Q534 Engineering Safety and Environmental Protection

Choose the best answer to the following Multiple Choice Questions.

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

o (A) open the watertight door and take a quick look

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

o (A) tack weld a doubler plate over the crack

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

o (A) U.S. Navy Oxygen Breathing Apparatus (OBA)

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

7. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning life jackets?

o (A) Buoyant vests may be substituted for life jackets.

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

8. The external flotation bladder on an immersion suit should be inflated __________.

o (A) before you enter the water

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

11. When collecting condensation for drinking water, __________.

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

o (A) sea anchor is deployed

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

13. The canopy of your life raft should __________.

• (A) go into place as the raft is inflated

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

o (A) assist in sleeping

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

o (A) Immediately upon abandoning the vessel.

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

o (A) cool the metal below its ignition temperature

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

20. A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as a __________.

• (A) class "A"

If choice A is selected set score to 1.

o (A) class "A"

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

o (A) Classes "A" and "B"

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

23. A magnesium fire would be classified as a __________.

o (A) class "A"

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

o (A) Having a portable CO2 ready at each duct opening.

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

o (A) in the amidships house

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

If choice D is selected set score to 1.

o (A) its excellent cooling ability

If choice B is selected set score to 1.

o (A) hydrostatic testing of the cylinder

If choice C is selected set score to 1.

If choice C is selected set score to 1.