HR Mcqs

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The two objectives of attempting the test papers mentioned in the passage are to practice questions that could appear in the exam and to build speed to complete 60 questions within 40-45 minutes.

The two offerings provided by Human Peritus according to the passage are study material that covers the entire syllabus concisely and a test series of most probable questions with detailed explanations for each question.

B-Paper-1

1. These test papers are not just for practice. There are two objectives, which
you must keep in mind.
2. First, you will find many questions appearing in exam from these test
papers. Make sure that you spend good quality time in analyzing
Answers and Detailed Explanations. Spend at least 2-3 hours in
analyzing, after each test. Every question is important and has high
probability of appearing in actual exam. Keep Learning Concepts,
while analyzing.
3. Second, we expect you to build speed to a level where you can
complete 60 Questions in around 40-45 minutes. This is Very
Important.
4. This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions.
5. There will be penalty for wrong answers. Every wrong answer will carry a
deduction of one‐fourth of the marks assigned to that question. If no
answer is marked for a question, there will be no penalty for that question.
6. Start attempting Test Papers in Same Order, starting from Paper 1, Paper
2, Paper 3 and so on.
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papers, question by question, prepared two offerings:

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B-Ques-1
1. The Second National Commission on Labour suggested (1) Turnover analysis
for an integrated adjudicatory system to deal with labour (2) Work study technique
matters comprising of (3) Group Brainstorming
(1) Labour Courts, Industrial Tribunals and Industrial (4) Expert opinion
Relations Commissions.
(2) Labour Courts, Lok Adalats and Labour Relations 7. An organisation engaged in manufacturing jute has
Commissions. employed fifty employees. What is the amount of
(3) Industrial Tribunals, Lok Adalats and Industrial contribution the employer has to pay towards an employee
Relations Commissions. drawing wages amounting to Rs 22,000 per month under
(4) Industrial Tribunals, National Tribunals and Labour the Employees’ Provident Fund and Misc. Provisions Act,
Relations Commissions. 1952?
(1) Rs 2,200
2. The interview which attempts to strip off the (2) Rs 2,640
psychological defences of a candidate is called (3) Rs 1,500
(1) Depth Interview (4) Rs 1,800
(2) Structured Interview
(3) Stress Interview 8. Which of the following is true relating to the constitution
(4) Comprehensive Interview of the child labour technical advisory committee under the
Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986?
3. Which of the following is a quantitative job analysis (1) It is constituted by the central government.
technique? (2) It is constituted by the central government and state
(1) Structured interview method. governments, for the Centre and
(2) Observation method. State respectively.
(3) Position analysis questionnaire. (3) It is constituted by the State Governments only.
(4) Participant diary/logs. (4) It is constituted by the central government for each state
in consultation with the respective state governments.
4. Which of the following statements relating to the Board
of Conciliation is not correct? 9. Which of the following National Trade Union
(1) The Board is a tripartite body. Federations claims that, ‘it is not controlled by any
(2) The Board is a permanent body. political party, employers or government’?
(3) Conciliation proceedings before the Board are similar (1) AITUC
to those that take place before the Conciliation Officer. (2) CITU
(4) The board shall submit its report within two months of (3) UTUC
the date on which the dispute was referred to it. (4) NFITU

5. What is ‘wild-cat’ strike? 10. Match List – A with List – B :


(1) Strike called by non-unionized workers, even if notice List – A
is given to the employer. a. Nominal wage
(2) Strike called by the union without giving any notice to b. Real wage
the employer. c. Living wage
(3) Strike called by the union without resorting to ‘strike d. Minimum wage
ballot’. List – B
(4) Strike called by a group of workers at the spur of the i. Wage given for protection against ill health and
moment without any formal notice to the employer and requirement of essential social needs.
consent from the union. ii. Wage which is sufficient to sustain and preserve the
efficiency of worker.
6. Which one of the following is a supply forecasting iii. Wage discounted by the cost of living index to denote
method for calculating requirement of human resource? the purchasing power of the wages.

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B-Ques-1
iv. Actual wage that a labour/worker receives for the (4) John M. Storey model
productive work performed by them in terms of money
paid. 14. Which one of the following has recommended for the
Codes : constituted of ‘Industrial Relations Commission’ on a
abcd permanent basis?
(1) i iii iv ii (1) First National Commission on Labour
(2) ii i iii iv (2) Royal Commission on Labour
(3) iv iii i ii (3) Indian Labour Conference
(4) iii iv i ii (4) Standing Labour Committee

11. Which of the following statements relating to the 15. How many sets of principles does the Code of
amendment made in 2001 to the Trade Unions Act, 1926 Discipline contain?
is not correct? (1) 2
(1) The amendment requires the making of an application (2) 3
by at least 10 percent or 100 of the workmen (whichever is (3) 4
less) employed in an establishment or industry subject to (4) 5
the minimum of 7 workmen, for registration as workers’
trade union. 16. What is the current amount of maximum gratuity
(2) The amendment puts a limit on the proportion of payable under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972?
outsiders to 1/3rd of the total number of office-bearers or (1) Rs 20,00,000
5, whichever is less generally, and 50 percent in the (2) Rs 7,50,000
unorganised sector. (3) Rs 12,00,000
(3) The amendment says that the election of members of (4) Rs 9,00,000
executive and office-bearers shall be held at an interval of
not more than three years. 17. PAQ is related to Job analysis that focuses on employee
(4) According to the amendment an employee who has activities. Which one is correct for PAQ?
retired or has been retrenched shall be construed as an (1) Point Arc Questionnaire
outsider for the purpose of holding an office in a trade (2) Position Analysis Questionnaire
union. (3) Performance Analysis Questionnaire
(4) People Analysis Questionnaire
12. What is the time limit within which any claims arising
out of payment of less than the minimum wages are to be 18. As per the provisions of the Industrial Employment
made as per the Minimum Wages Act, 1948? (Standing orders) Act, 1946, for which of the following
(1) Within six months from the date on which the organisations the central government is the appropriate
minimum wages became payable. government?
(2) Within one year from the date on which the minimum (1) Major Ports
wages became payable. (2) Public Sectors Banks
(3) Within four months from the date on which the (3) Minor Ports
minimum wages became payable. (4) Air Transport Services
(4) Within three months from the date on which the
minimum wage become payable. 19. Assertion (A) : Labour is not a commodity.
Reason (R) : A seller of a commodity is least concerned
13. Which of the following HRM models take context as with what happens to the commodity after he has sold it.
well as content factors of Business strategy linking with But the labourer is very much concerned with the way the
the HRM strategy? employer uses the labour and under what terms and
(1) Harvard model conditions.
(2) Warwick model (1) (A) is right; but (R) is wrong.
(3) David Guest model (2) Both (A) and (R) are right; but (R) does not explain (A).

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B-Ques-1
(3) (A) is wrong and (R) in trying to explain a wrong (A) 25. ‘Actio personalis moritur cum persona’ is the latin
is wrong. term for which of the following doctrines which employers
(4) Both (A) and (R) are right; and (R) explains (A). used to follow to reject claims of compensation for
employment injury?
20. What is generally the minimum number of days a (1) Doctrine of contributory negligence.
woman employee actually should have worked in an (2) ‘The personal claim comes to an end with the death of
establishment in order to be entitled for maternity benefit either party’ doctrine.
under the provisions of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961? (3) Doctrine of unknown person’s responsibility.
(1) One hundred days (4) Doctrine of assumed risk.
(2) Ninety days
(3) Eighty days 26. Which of the following was the first to recommend, for
(4) Eighty four days constituting a statutory tripartite organisation in India to
deal with the labour matters?
21. The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, (1) Labour Investigation Committee
1946 has (2) First National Commission on Labour
(1) One schedule (3) Royal Commission on Labour
(2) Two schedules (4) Second National Commission on Labour
(3) Three schedules
(4) Four schedules 27. Kanter and associates gave ten steps to implementing
change. They are jumbled. Arranged them in the correct
22. The effect-cause ratio on which problems are charted order :
on Pareto Diagram is (a) Create a sense of urgency
(1) 60 : 40 (b) Separate from the past
(2) 65 : 35 (c) Analyse the organisation and its need for change
(3) 70 : 30 (d) Support a strong leader role
(4) 80 : 20 (e) Develop enabling structures
(f) Line up political sponsorship
23. The Constitution of India provides for distribution of (g) Communicate and involve people
legislative powers between central and state legislatures. (h) Craft an implementation plan
This provision is contained in (i) Create a shared vision and common direction
(1) Fifth Schedule (j) Reinforce and institutionalise change
(2) Seventh Schedule Codes :
(3) Fourth Schedule (1) (c), (g), (b), (a), (d), (f), (h), (e), (i), (j)
(4) Sixth Schedule (2) (b), (d), (c), (g), (a), (h), (f), (e), (i), (j)
(3) (c), (d), (a), (g), (h), (b), (e), (j), (i), (f)
24. Which of the following statements relating to the (4) (c), (i), (b), (a), (d), (f), (h), (e), (g), (j)
Model Grievance Procedure is/are correct?
(a) The procedure specifies the complaints that come under 28. Each labour legislation, which has been enacted is
its scope. based on certain underlying principles. Match the
(b) The procedure gives the details of the constitution of legislation with underlying principle :
Grievance Committee. List – I (Name of the Legislation)
(c) It was drafted by a tripartite sub-committee appointed a. Mines Act, 1952
by the Indian Labour Conference. b. Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970
(1) Only (a) is correct c. Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(2) Only (b) is correct d. Maternity Benefit Act, 1961
(3) Only (c) is correct List – II (Underlying Principle)
(4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct i. Principle of Regulation
ii. Principle of Protection

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B-Ques-1
iii. Principle of Social Justice 32. The major objective of I.L.O. is creation of
iv. Principle of Social Security international standards of labour and in the process adopts
abcd conventions and recommendations. The conventions are to
(1) ii iii i iv be ratified by the member country. If the convention is
(2) i ii iii iv ratified by the member country, then the member country
(3) iii i ii iv has to inform the same to I.L.O. The member country
(4) iv i iii ii informs to the
(1) International Labour Conference.
29. What is yellow dog contract? (2) Governing Body.
(1) A contract where a union agrees to inform the employer (3) Chairman, Governing Body.
about the possible direct action of rival union. (4) Director General, International Labour Office.
(2) An unwritten contract with employer where a faction
of the union acts as a whistle blower. 33. Examine the following statements on selection and
(3) When the management demands and secures an identify the ones which are true and false:
agreement from the workman that he would not join a (a) Selection is a process of rejection.
union during the course of his employment; and if violates (b) Predictor-criterion model is the foundation for setting
would be susceptible to lose the employment. out selection norms.
(4) The contract signed by every employee to join a (c) Thematic Apperception Tests are not meant for
management promoted union. cognitive measurement.
(d) Graphology is a scientific selection method.
30. ‘Volenti non fit injuria’ is the latin term for which of (1) (a) and (b) are true, and (c) and (d) are false.
the following doctrines which employers used to follow to (2) (a), (b) and (c) are true; (d) is false.
reject claims of compensation for employment injury? (3) only (a) is true; (b), (c) and (d) are false.
(1) Doctrine of Assumed Risk. (4) (b) and (c) are true; (a) and (d) are false.
(2) Doctrine of contributory Negligence.
(3) Doctrine of common employment and fellow servants’ 34. Match the following :
responsibility. List – I (Approaches of Trade Unionism)
(4) Doctrine of unknown person’s responsibility. a. Unionism will continue until the complete control of
industry by workers.
31. Match the following contributors (List – I) with the b. Mutually agreed rules and industrial jurisprudence can
concepts which they have propounded (List – II) : be promoted by unionism
List – I c. Machines weakened the workers’ power, thereby
a. Chris Argyris strengthening unionism
b. Hammer & Champy d. Market forces weakened the unionism
c. Kaplan & Norton List – II (Advocates)
d. Hammel & Prahallad i. S.H. Slitcher
List – II ii. Selig Pearlman
i. Business Process Re-engineering iii. G.D.H. Cole
ii. Balanced Score Card iv. Frank Tanenbaum
iii. Single & Double Loop Learning abcd
iv. Core Competence (1) ii i iii iv
Codes : (2) iii i iv ii
abcd (3) iv i iii ii
(1) ii i iii iv (4) iii iv i ii
(2) iii ii i iv
(3) iii i ii iv 35. Match the terminologies of Disciplinary action (List –
(4) iv iii i ii I) with their meaning (List – II):
List – I

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B-Ques-1
a. Nemo debet esse judex in propriya causa (3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
b. Ex-Parte (4) (a), (b) and (d) only
c. Audi alteram partem
d. De-Novo 39. Which of the following is not true relating to the Rajiv
List – II Gandhi Shramik Kalyan Yojna (Unemployment
i. A new or fresh trial. Allowance) provided under the Employees’ State
ii. Hear the other side. Insurance Scheme?
iii. Proceedings in the absence of the other party. (1) Unemployment allowance is paid equal to 50% of
iv. No one should be a judge in his own case. wages.
abcd (2) Medical care for self and family from ESI Hospitals
(1) iii ii iv i during the period the insured person receives
(2) ii iii i iv unemployment allowance.
(3) iv ii iii i (3) Expenditure on fee and travelling allowance is to be
(4) iv iii ii i borne by the Employees’ State Insurance Corporation for
providing vocational training for upgrading skills.
36. With regard to the provision of canteen under the (4) The daily rate of unemployment allowance is equal to
Factories Act, 1948, for which of the following, the State the standard benefit rate, based on average daily wages
Government may make rules? during the last two contribution periods.
(a) The date by which such canteen shall be provided
(b) The standard in respect of construction of the canteen 40. The source of conflict where cause for conflict exists
(c) The price of foodstuffs to be served in the canteen in an incipient form, but it need not necessarily lead to
(d) The constitution of the managing committee for the actual conflict. This may be described as:
canteen (1) Behavioural view of conflict
(e) Number of employees to be engaged in running the (2) Conflict stimulation
canteen (3) Antecedent conditions
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (4) Inter-group conflict
(2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (c), (d) and (e) 41. Fatigue is a byproduct of various factors, either
(4) (b), (c), (d) and (e) combined together or some of them or even any one of
them. Some of the causative factors are mentioned below.
37. Which of the following core conventions of ILO was Indicate, which among them are not the causative factors
ratified by India? of fatigue:
(1) Convention No. 87 (Freedom of Association and Right (a) Muscular work
to Organize) (b) Need of individual
(2) Convention No. 98 (Right to Collective Bargaining) (c) Length of work period
(3) Convention No. 105 (Abolition of Forced Labour) (d) Speed of work
(4) Convention No. 138 (Minimum Age Convention) (e) Repetitive nature of work
(f) Tension accompanying the task
38. Performance Appraisal is an objective assessment of an (1) (a) and (b)
individual’s performance against well defined (2) (c) and (d)
benchmarks. Performance Appraisal serves which of the (3) (b) and (e)
following organisational objectives : (4) (e) and (f)
(a) Developmental
(b) Administrative/Decisions 42. An establishment belonging to the manufacturing
(c) Organisational maintenance sector has employed fifty workers. Identify, which of the
(d) Documentation following legislations shall be applicable to it:
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only (a) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(2) (b), (c) and (d) only (b) Industrial Employment (Standing Oders) Act, 1946

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B-Ques-1
(c) Factories Act, 1948 (4) One first aid box for every one hundred workers
(d) Payment of Wages Act, 1936 employed at any one time.
(e) Payment of Bonus Act, 1965
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) only 46. Life position comprises certain deeply ingrained
(2) (a), (b), (d) and (e) only convictions about worth of the self and others. The
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (e) only conviction about himself or herself may either be I’am OK
(4) (a), (c), (d) and (e) only or I’m not OK. Similarly he or she may look at others and
think you’re OK or you’re not OK. Match the life positions
43. Henry Mintzberg proposed three phases of decision in Column – A with their nature in Column – B.
making in organisations. Match the phases given in List – Column – A (Life Positions)
A, with the activities involved during these phases in List a. I’m OK, you’re OK
–B: b. I’m OK, you’re not OK
List – A (Phases) c. I’m not OK, you’re OK
a. Identification phase d. I’m not OK, you’re not OK
b. Development phase Column – B (Nature)
c. Selection i. This is the depressive position
List – B (Activities) ii. This is the paranoid position
i. Designing a tailor made solution iii. This is the Schizoid position or futility position.
ii. Analysis of alternatives iv. This is the healthy position.
iii. Bargaining with decision makers abcd
iv. Recognition of problem (1) i ii iii iv
v. Diagnosis (2) iii ii i iv
vi. Search for existing standards (3) iv i ii iii
Codes : (4) iv ii i iii
a b c
(1) ii & iii iv & v i & vi 47. Who among the following is the ex-officio chairman of
(2) i & ii iii & iv v & vi the Medical Benefit Council constituted under the
(3) iv & v i & vi ii & iii Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948?
(4) i & iii ii & iv v & vi (1) Director General, The E.S.I. Corporation
(2) Director General, Health Services
44. Calculate the amount of compensation that is to be paid (3) Medical Commissioner of the Corporation
to the dependents of an employee where death results from (4) Chairman, Medical Council of India
an injury under the provisions of the Employee’s
Compensation Act, 1923. (Monthly wage of the employee 48. Match the following committees (List – I) with the area
was Rs 7,500 and the relevant factor is 207.98. of coverage (List – II) :
(1) Rs 1,20,000 List – I
(2) Rs 7,79,925 a. Malviya Committee
(3) Rs 9,35,910 b. Shiv Rao Committee
(4) Rs 8,31,920 c. Adarkar Committee
d. Gurupada Swamy Committee
45. Which of the following statements is true relating the List – II
provision of first aid box under the Factories Act, 1948? i. Employment Exchange
(1) One first aid box for every one hundred and fifty ii. Child Labour
workers in a factory employing five hundred or more iii. Labour Welfare
workers. iv. Social Security
(2) One first aid box for every two hundred fifty workers. Codes :
(3) One first aid box for every one hundred and fifty abcd
workers employed at any one time. (1) iii iv ii i

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B-Ques-1
(2) iv ii iii i abcd
(3) iii i iv ii (1) i ii iii iv
(4) iii ii iv i (2) ii i iv iii
(3) ii iii i iv
49. Which of the following principles of organisation is/are (4) i iii ii iv
false?
(a) Longer hierarchy in organisations create wider span of 53. Which of the following provisions are covered under
control. the Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act,
(b) The authority, command and control in organisations 1970?
flow in a descending order (a) Registration of principal employers
(c) As authority can be delegated and authority generates (b) Licensing of contractors
responsibility; responsibility also can be delegated. (c) Prohibition of employment of contract labour
(d) Functional foremanship advocated by Frederick (d) Regularisation of employment of contract labour
Winslow Taylor is against the principle of unity of (1) (a), (b) and (c)
command. (2) (a), (b) and (d)
(1) only (a) is wrong (3) (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a) and (c) are wrong (4) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) are wrong
(4) (a) and (d) are wrong 54. Which of the following is not a factor for calculation
of compensation payable to an employee under the
50. Who have developed the Behavioural Theory of Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923?
Labour Negotiations? (1) Monthly wage/salary of the employee.
(1) Richard Walton and Robert McKersie. (2) Years of service rendered by the employee.
(2) Sidney and Beatrice Webb. (3) Age of the employee.
(3) N.W. Chamberlain and J.W. Kuhn. (4) Nature of injury sustained by the employee.
(4) John Henry Richardson.
55. Hofstede (1991) distinguished four different layers of
51. What is the time limit within which the commissioner culture, ranging from more visible and superficial
has to dispose of the matter relating to compensation from manifestations of culture to deeper and less tangible
the date of reference under the Employee’s Compensation elements. Match the Culture (List – A) with their
Act, 1923? descriptions given in List – B :
(1) Six months List – A (Culture)
(2) Three months a. Symbols
(3) One year b. Heroes
(4) Two months c. Rituals
d. Values
52. Match the following : List – B (Descriptions)
Committee/Commission i. represents collective beliefs, assumptions, and feelings,
a. Sachar Committee on workers’ Participation about what is good, normal, rationale, valuable and so on.
b. Verma committee on workers’ participation in Industry ii. refer to the social rules and norms that need to be
c. Study group of workers’ participation in Management followed in a certain environment
d. Second National Commission on Labour iii. refers to persons alive or dead, real or imaginary, who
Year of Appointment embody characteristics that are highly prized in a society.
i. 1977 (September) iv. are words, gestures and objects that carry a particular
ii. 1977 (June) meaning for the members of a society.
iii. 1999 Codes :
iv. 1956 abcd
Codes : (1) iv iii ii i

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B-Ques-1
(2) i ii iii iv (4) Team building
(3) iii ii iv i
(4) ii iv iii i

56. Which of the following statements are true/false with


respect to Perlmutter’s (1969) work on top management’s
attitude towards internationalisation and its impact on
organizational structure, line of communication,
information and approach to HRM activities etc?
(a) Ethnocentric personnel management focuses to a great
extent on recruiting and training parent country nationals
for key positions, regardless of location.
(b) Polycentric personnel management is based largely on
the view that values, norms, and customs differ from
country to country and local markets can therefore best be
reached by local managers (host country nationals)
(c) Geocentric approach is to utilize the best managers
throughout the worlds, regardless of their nationality.
Codes :
(1) (a) is true, (b) and (c) are not true.
(2) (a) and (b) are true, (c) is not true.
(3) (a), (b) and (c) are true.
(4) (b) and (c) are true, (a) is not true.

57. Which of the following is not a theory of organization?


(1) Balance theory by Herbert Simon
(2) Fusion process theory by Wight Bakke
(3) Role theory and group theory by Rensis Likert
(4) Kurt Lewin’s field theory

58. The three different types of interdependence among


groups was primarily suggested by whom?
(1) Likert
(2) Kurt Lewin
(3) Thompson
(4) Gordon Lippit

59. As per the Vroom’s theory of motivation, what is the


term coined for the extent of attraction of a result/outcome
to the recipient of the award?
(1) Expectancy
(2) Instrumentality
(3) Valence
(4) Force

60. Which of the following is the concept of organizational


development which stresses effective use of the existing
methods used by employees?
(1) Process consultation
(2) Sensitivity training
(3) Job enrichment

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