Physical Sciences: Time: 100 Minutes Questions 1-77

02 MCAT FL Test2 06/26/2003 06:05 PM Page 1
Physical Sciences
Time: 100 Minutes
Questions 1–77
DO NOT BEGIN THIS SECTION UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

PHYSICAL SCIENCES
DIRECTIONS: Most of the questions in the Physical

Sciences test are organized into groups, with a
descriptive passage preceding each group of ques-
tions. Study the passage, then select the single best
answer to each question in the group. Some of the
questions are not based on a descriptive passage; you
must also select the best answer to these questions. If
you are unsure of the best answer, eliminate the
choices that you know are incorrect, then select an
answer from the choices that remain. Indicate your
selection by blackening the corresponding circle on
your answer sheet. A periodic table is provided below
for your use with the questions.
PERIODIC TABLE OF THE ELEMENTS
1 2
H He
1.0 4.0
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be B C N O F Ne
6.9 9.0 10.8 12.0 14.0 16.0 19.0 20.2
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
23.0 24.3 27.0 28.1 31.0 32.1 35.5 39.9
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
39.1 40.1 45.0 47.9 50.9 52.0 54.9 55.8 58.9 58.7 63.5 65.4 69.7 72.6 74.9 79.0 79.9 83.8
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
85.5 87.6 88.9 91.2 92.9 95.9 (98) 101.1 102.9 106.4 107.9 112.4 114.8 118.7 121.8 127.6 126.9 131.3
55 56 57 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
Cs Ba La * Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
132.9 137.3 138.9 178.5 180.9 183.9 186.2 190.2 192.2 195.1 197.0 200.6 204.4 207.2 209.0 (209) (210) (222)
87 88 89 104 105 106 107 108 109
Fr Ra Ac † Rf Ha Unh Uns Uno Une
(223) 226.0 227.0 (261) (262) (263) (262) (265) (267)
58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
* Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
140.1 140.9 144.2 (145) 150.4 152.0 157.3 158.9 162.5 164.9 167.3 168.9 173.0 175.0
90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
† Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
232.0 (231) 238.0 (237) (244) (243) (247) (247) (251) (252) (257) (258) (259) (260)
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

2
Passage I (Questions 1–5) 3. The energy absorbed by a hydrogen atom as its elec-
tron undergoes a transition from the n = 1 energy
A continuous spectrum of light, sometimes called state to the n = ∞ state is: (Note: The n = 1 energy
blackbody radiation, is emitted from a region of the Sun state is the ground state of hydrogen.)
called the photosphere. Although the continuous spectrum
A. infinite.
contains light of all wavelengths, the intensity of the emit-
ted light is much greater at some wavelengths than at oth- B. equal to the binding energy of the electron.
ers. The relationship between the most intense wavelength C. equal to the energy of a zero-frequency photon.
of blackbody radiation and the temperature of the emitting D. smaller than the energy absorbed in the n = 2 to
body is given by Wien’s law, λ = 2.9 106/T, where λ is n = ∞ transition.
the wavelength in nanometers and T is the temperature in
kelvins.
4. At the center of the visible spectrum is light with a
As the blackbody radiation from the Sun passes through wavelength of 550 nm. What is the frequency of this
the cooler gases in the Sun’s atmosphere, some of the pho- light?
tons are absorbed by the atoms in these gases. A photon will
be absorbed if it has just enough energy to excite an elec- A. 9.0 108 Hz
tron from a lower energy state to a higher one. The B. 1.8 1012 Hz
absorbed photon will have an energy equal to the energy C. 5.4 1014 Hz
difference between these two states. The energy of a pho- D. 1.8 1016 Hz
ton is given by E = hf = hc/λ where h = 6.63 10–34 J•s,
Planck’s constant, and c = 3 108 m/s, the speed of light
in a vacuum. 5. If a star suddenly doubles in size but remains at the
same temperature, how does its continuous spectrum
The Sun is composed primarily of hydrogen. Electron
change?
transitions in the hydrogen atom from energy state n = 2 to
higher energy states are listed below along with the energy A. The peak intensity occurs at the same wave-
of the absorbed photon: length.
B. The peak intensity occurs at a longer wave-
Final Energy State Energy ( 10–19 J)
length.
n=3 3.02 C. The peak intensity occurs at a shorter wave-
n=4 4.08 length.
n=5 4.57
D. The intensity peak narrows.
n=6 4.84
n=∞ 5.44
1. If the temperature of the Sun’s photosphere is 5800 K,

what wavelength of radiation does the Sun emit with
the greatest intensity?
A. 2 nm
B. 50 nm
C. 500 nm
D. 4,500 nm
2. Based on the data in the table, what is the approximate

wavelength of a photon emitted in the electron transi-
tion from energy state n = 4 to energy state n = 3?
A. 5 nm
B. 30 nm
C. 100 nm
D. 2,000 nm
3
Passage II (Questions 6–12) D. The second half-reaction, proceeding to the right
The lead-acid battery, also called a lead storage battery,

is the battery of choice for starting automobiles. It contains 8. Where does oxidation occur in the lead storage battery?
6 cells connected in series, each composed of a lead oxide
A. At the lead oxide cathodes
cathode “sandwiched” between 2 lead anodes. Insulating
separators are placed between the electrodes to prevent B. At the lead oxide anodes
internal short-circuits. Aqueous sulfuric acid is the elec- C. At the lead cathodes
trolyte. D. At the lead anodes
When the battery is being discharged, the following

reaction takes place: 9. Which of the following occurs as the battery is being
recharged?
Pb(s) + PbO2(s) + 2H2SO4(aq) → 2PbSO4(s) + 2H2O
A. An increase in the concentration of H+ ions
Reaction 1 B. An increase in the concentrations of PbSO4 and
Pb
The electrode reactions, both written as reductions, are
C. An increase in the concentration of H2O
shown in Table 1.
D. A decrease in the amount of PbO2
Table 1
Half-reaction E°(V) 10. The graph below shows the change in potential ver-
PbO2(s) + SO42– (aq) + 4H+ (aq) + 2e– → sus time of a 12-V lead storage battery during dis-
PbSO4 (s) + 2H2O 1.69 charge.
B
PbSO4 (s) + 2e– → Pb (s) + SO42– (aq) –0.36 12
As a car operates, the battery is recharged by electric- A

ity produced by the car’s alternator, an AC generator
V
whose ultimate power source is the car’s internal combus-
tion engine. In spite of this, batteries eventually lose their
power. The battery is said to be “dead” when Reaction 1
has proceeded completely to the right.
0
t (hr)
6. How many cells would be required to produce a 20- Which of the following is true?
volt lead-acid battery of the type described in the pas- A. The electrolyte density at point A is greater than
sage? it is at point B.
A. 5 B. The electrolyte density at point A is less than it
B. 10 is at point B.
C. 15 C. The electrolyte density at point A is the same as
it is at point B.
D. 20
D. The electrolyte density at points A and B cannot
be compared without more information.
7. Which reaction takes place at the anode as the battery
is discharging?
A. The first half-reaction, proceeding to the left
B. The first half-reaction, proceeding to the right
C. The second half-reaction, proceeding to the left

4
11. Currents as small as 0.1 A can be fatal to humans. If

the typical resistance of the human body is 10 kΩ,
what is the minimum voltage that could be fatal?
A. 0.1 V
B. 1V
C. 100 V
D. 1,000 V
12. Often in cold weather the battery goes “dead.” Ther-

modynamic data confirms that the voltage of most
electrochemical cells decreases with decreasing tem-
perature. If the battery is warmed to room tempera-
ture, it often recovers its ability to deliver normal
power. The battery appeared “dead” because:
I. the resistance of the electrolyte had
decreased.
II. the viscosity of the electrolyte had
increased.
III. the viscosity of the electrolyte had
decreased.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only

5
Passage III (Questions 13–17) 13. The variable voltage source in the circuit in Figure 1
is replaced by a battery connected in series with the
The resistance of a resistor is defined as the ratio of the resistor and ammeter. The battery has a small internal
voltage drop across it to the current passing through it. The resistance. How will the circuit be affected?
resistance of a resistor can be measured using the circuit
A. The current measured by the ammeter at a spe-
illustrated in Figure 1.
cific voltage will be greater in the circuit with
the battery than in the old circuit.
B. The current measured by the ammeter at a spe-
V
cific voltage will be smaller in the circuit with
the battery than in the old circuit.
C. The resistance of the resistor at a specific volt-
age will be greater in the circuit with the battery
than in the old circuit.
A D. The resistance of the resistor at a specific voltage
will be smaller in the circuit with the battery than
in the old circuit.
+ –
14. In which direction do the electrons travel, and in

Figure 1
which direction does the current flow, in the circuit in
In the above circuit, a variable voltage source with neg- Figure 1?
ligible internal resistance is connected to a resistor. The volt-
A. The electrons travel clockwise, and the current
age across the resistor is measured by a voltmeter and the
flows counterclockwise.
current through the resistor is measured by an ammeter.
B. The electrons travel clockwise, and the current
flows clockwise.
Additional resistors may be added to the circuit. The
total resistance can be calculated as follows: If R1 and R2 C. The electrons travel counterclockwise, and the
current flows clockwise.
are two resistances of two resistors, then the total resis-
tance is given by Rtotal = R1 + R2 when the resistors are D. The electrons travel counterclockwise, and the
current flows counterclockwise.
connected in series, and by 1/Rtotal = 1/R1 + 1/R2 when the
resistors are connected in parallel.
15. In order for the ammeter to have a very small effect
Circuits similar to the one above are used in the com- on the current flowing through the resistor, the
mon household appliance known as the toaster. The rate by ammeter should:
which energy in the form of heat is dissipated by the resis-
tor equals I2R, where I is the current that passes through A. be connected to the resistor with insulated wire.
the resistor and R is the resistance of the resistor. Energy is B. be connected as close as possible to the positive
dissipated in a resistor because moving electrons collide terminal of the voltage source.
with atoms in the resistor, causing the atoms to vibrate. C. have a very low resistance.
D. be sensitive to currents flowing in either direc-
tion around the circuit.

6
16. As current passes through a resistor, the temperature

of the resistor will increase. Which of the following
accounts for the temperature increases?
A. The average kinetic energy of the atoms in the
resistor increases as a result of the collisions
with the electrons in the current.
B. The average potential energy of the atoms in the
resistor increases as a result of the collisions
with the electrons in the current.
C. The average kinetic energy of the electrons in
the current increases as a result of the collisions
with the atoms in the resistor.
D. The average potential energy of the electrons in
the current increases as a result of the collisions
with the atoms in the resistor.
17. What is the energy delivered to a piece of toast in

one second when it is inside a toaster in which a
4 10–3-A current passes through a 10-kΩ resistor?
A. 0.04 J
B. 0.16 J
C. 2.5 J
D. 40 J

7
Passage IV (Questions 18–23) 18. If the pH of blood were to increase to 7.6, what
would be the likely outcome?
It is critical for the human body blood to maintain its pH
A. An increase in carbonic anhydrase activity
at approximately 7.4. Decreased or increased blood pH are
called acidosis and alkalosis respectively; both are serious B. A decrease in carbonic anhydrase activity
metabolic problems that can cause death. The table below C. An increase in the rate of CO2 exhalation
lists the major buffers found in the blood and/or kidneys. D. A decrease in the rate of CO2 exhalation
Table 1
19. The equilibrium as shown in Reaction 1 is most
Buffer pKa of a typical likely to proceed through which of the following
conjugate acid:* intermediates?
HCO3– CO2 + H2O 6.1
A. H2CO3
Histidine side chains 6.3
B. 2H+ and CO32–
HPO42– H2PO4– 6.8
C. CO2 and H3O2
Organic phosphates 7.0
D. CO2 and H2
N-terminal amino groups 8.0
NH3 NH4+ 9.2
20. What would be the order of conjugate acid strength
*For buffers in many of these categories, there is a in the following buffers?
range of actual pKa values. A. Histidine side chains = organic phosphates >
NH4+
The relationship between blood pH and the pKa of any
B. NH4+ > organic phosphates > histidine side
buffer can be described by the Henderson-Hasselbalch
chains
equation:
C. Histidine side chains > organic phosphates >
pH = pKa + log([conjugate base]/[conjugate acid]) NH4+
D. NH4+ > organic phosphates = histidine side
Equation 1 chains
Bicarbonate, the most important buffer in the plasma,
enters the blood in the form of carbon dioxide, a byprod-
uct of metabolism, and leaves in two forms: exhaled CO2
and excreted bicarbonate. Blood pH can be adjusted
rapidly by changes in the rate of CO2 exhalation. The reac-
tion given below, which is catalyzed by carbonic anhy-
drase in the erythrocytes, describes how bicarbonate and
CO2 interact in the blood.
CO2 + H2O H+ + HCO3–
Reaction 1

8
21. The following graph shows the titration of 0.01 M 23. What would be the nature of the compensatory
H3PO4 with 10 M NaOH. Within which region of the change that would take place in the respiratory sys-
titration curve will the concentration of H2PO4– tem response to acidosis caused by organic acids?
become equal to that of HPO42–?
A. Breathing rate would increase and total blood
CO2/HCO3– concentration would increase
B. Breathing rate would increase and total blood
I II III IV V
CO2/HCO3– concentration would decrease
C. Breathing rate would decrease and total blood
CO2/HCO3– concentration would increase
pH
D. Breathing rate would decrease and total blood
CO2/HCO3– concentration would decrease
Base Added
A. II
B. III
C. IV
D. V
22. How does the titration of a weak monoprotic acid

with a strong base differ from the titration of a strong
monoprotic acid with a strong base?
A. The equivalence point will occur at a higher pH.
B. The equivalence point will occur at a lower pH.
C. The equivalence point will occur at the same
pH.
D. Whether the equivalence point is higher or
lower depends on the particular monoprotic
acids used.

9
27. In the figure below, aqueous solutions A and B are

Questions 24 through 28 are NOT based on separated by a semipermeable membrane. Which of
a descriptive passage. the following will occur?
24. The mouthpiece of a telephone handset has a mass of

100 g, and the earpiece has a mass of 150 g. To bal-
ance the handset on one finger, that finger must be:
(Note: Assume the bridge connecting the mouthpiece
and the earpiece has a negligible mass.)
A. one and one half times farther from the earpiece 5% 1%
than from the mouthpiece. glucose glucose
B. two times farther from the earpiece than from
the mouthpiece. A B
C. one and one half times farther from the mouth-
piece than from the earpiece. A. Glucose molecules will move from side B to
D. two times farther from the mouthpiece than side A.
from the earpiece. B. Glucose molecules will move from side A to
side B.
C. Both water and glucose molecules will move
25. The reaction below is NOT spontaneous at any tem-
from side A to side B.
perature.
D. Water molecules will move from side B to side A.
2ICl(g) → I2(g) + Cl2(g)
Which of the following is true?
28. What is the normality of a solution containing 49 g of
A. ∆H > 0, ∆S > 0 H3PO4 (MW98 g/mol) in 2,000 mL of solution?
B. ∆H > 0, ∆S < 0
A. 0.25
C. ∆H < 0, ∆S > 0
B. 0.50
D. ∆H < 0, ∆S < 0
C. 0.75
D. 1.50
26. Which of the following is the reason that water boils at
a much higher temperature than does hydrogen sulfide?
A. The intramolecular O–H bonds are stronger
than the intramolecular S–H bonds.
B. The enthalpy of vaporization of water is less
than that of hydrogen sulfide.
C. The relative molecular mass of water is less than
that of hydrogen sulfide.
D. The intermolecular O–H bonds are stronger
than the intermolecular S–H bonds.

10
Passage V (Questions 29–33)

Silicon containing Silicon containing
Band theory explains the conductivity of certain solids phosphorus boron
by stating that the atomic orbitals of the individual atoms
Negative Positive
in the solid merge to produce a series of atomic orbitals terminal terminal
comprising the entire solid. The closely-spaced energy lev-
els of the orbitals form bands. The band corresponding to
Battery
the outermost occupied subshell of the original atoms is
called the valence band. If partially full, as in metals, it
serves as a conduction band through which electrons can
move freely. If the valence band is full, then electrons must
be raised to a higher band for conduction to occur. The Figure 2
greater the band gap between the separate valence and con- 29. Why is iron a good conductor of electricity?
duction bands, the poorer the material’s conductivity. Fig-
ure 1 shows the valence and conduction bands of a A. Its 3d electrons only partially fill the valence
semiconductor, which is intermediate in conductivity band.
between conductors and insulators. B. The band gap is small.
C. The 4s and 3d orbitals form a filled valence
band.
D. The energy levels of the atomic orbitals are
closely separated.
30. How does heat increase the conductivity of a semi-

Conduction band
conductor?
I. By reducing collisions between moving
electrons
Band gap
II. By breaking covalent bonds
III. By raising electrons to a higher energy
Valence band (filled)
level
A. I only
Figure 1 B. III only
When silicon, a semiconductor with tetrahedral cova- C. I and III only
lent bonds, is heated, a few electrons escape into the con- D. II and III only
duction band. Doping the silicon with a few phosphorus
atoms provides unbonded electrons that escape more eas-
ily, increasing conductivity. Doping with boron produces 31. Why do phosphorus and boron atoms enhance the
holes in the bonding structure, which may be filled by conductivity of silicon?
movement of nearby electrons within the lattice. When a
semiconductor in an electric circuit has excess electrons on A. Their electronegativities differ from that of sili-
one side and holes on the other, electron flow occurs more con.
easily from the side with excess electrons to the side with B. They have different numbers of valence electrons.
holes than in the reverse direction. C. Their semimetallic nature makes them good
semiconductors.
D. They are better conductors than silicon even as
pure substances.

11
32. The energy of the band gap for pure silicon is about
1.1 electron volts. If a 1.5-volt electrical potential is
connected across a sample of silicon:
A. the electrons would jump to the conduction
band and the silicon would conduct.
B. the holes in the silicon lattice would move.
C. the energy of the band gap would be lowered.
D. the silicon would not conduct.
33. If the semiconductor orientation in Figure 2 were

reversed so that the boron-doped silicon were on the
left and the phosphorus-doped silicon on the right,
what could be said about the electron flow of the new
setup?
A. The electron flow is easier in the new direction
than in that of Figure 2.
B. The electron flow is the same in either direction.
C. The electron flow is more difficult in the new
direction than in that of Figure 2.
D. The electrons cannot flow in the new setup.

12
Passage VI (Questions 34–38) 34. What is the energy of the photon with wavelength
632.8 nm?
A helium-neon gas discharge laser as shown in Figure
A. 0.05 eV
1 below generates a coherent beam of monochromatic
light at a wavelength of 632.8 nm. B. 1.96 eV
C. 20.61 eV
He-Ne D. 20.66 eV
gas
mixture escaping photon
stimulated emission 35. A population inversion exists in the laser tube when:
laser beam A. the percentage of neon atoms with electrons in the
excited atom ground state is greater than the percentage of neon
atoms with electrons in higher energy levels.
mirror partly B. the percentage of neon atoms with electrons in a
voltage
transparent higher energy level is greater than the percent-
mirror age of neon atoms with electrons in lower
energy levels.
Figure 1 C. the percentage of neon atoms with electrons in a
higher energy level is equal to the percentage of
A discharge current of electrons is created in the tube neon atoms with electrons in the ground state.
by an applied voltage. When these electrons collide with
D. all the neon atoms have electrons in the ground
the helium atoms, they can excite ground-state helium
state only.
electrons to an energy level of 20.61 eV. The excited elec-
trons cannot decay back to the ground state by emitting a
photon because such a transition does not conserve angu-
36. A helium atom with an electron in the 20.61-eV
lar momentum. Instead, if the excited helium atom collides
energy level collides with a neon atom with an elec-
with a neon atom, a ground-state electron in the neon atom
tron in the ground state. The result is that the helium
can be excited to an energy level of 20.66 eV, and the
electron returns to the ground state, and the ground-
helium electron can return to its ground state.
state neon electron is excited to an energy level of
20.66 eV. What is the minimum kinetic energy lost
The above process occurs quite often in the tube until
by the helium atom?
the percentage of neon atoms with electrons in the 20.66-
eV energy level is greater than the percentage of neon A. 0.05 eV
atoms with electrons in lower levels. This condition is B. 1.96 eV
called a population inversion. An excited electron in one of C. 10.3 eV
the neon atoms can then spontaneously decay by emitting
D. 20.61 eV
a photon of wavelength 632.8 nm in a random direction.
The photon will stimulate the same transition in another
excited electron in a neon atom. The photon radiated by
this stimulated emission process travels in the same direc-
tion as the original photon. The resulting light is then
reflected back and forth inside the tube until it escapes
through the partially transparent mirror. (Note: A photon’s
energy in eV is given by E = 1240/λ, where λ is the pho-
ton’s wavelength in nm. The helium and neon ground-state
energies are both 0 eV.)

13
37. A laser produces light with a wavelength of 200 nm

at a power of 6.2 1015 eV/s. How many photons
per second does this laser deliver?
A. 1.0 1015
B. 2.0 1015
C. 4.0 1015
D. 10.0 1015
38. Why is stimulated emission of photons necessary in

order to produce a coherent beam of light instead of
spontaneous emission alone?
A. Stimulated emission produces photons of higher
energy than those produced by spontaneous
emission.
B. Stimulated emission produces photons that
travel in the same direction as the photon that
induces their emission.
C. Stimulated emission produces photons with
longer wavelengths than those produced by
spontaneous emission.
D. Either spontaneous or stimulated emission alone
would be sufficient to produce laser light.

14
Passage VII (Questions 39–44) 40. If the global production rate of 14C were to increase
to 10 kg per year:
One of the most common methods that scientists use to
determine the age of fossils is known as carbon dating. 14C A. the number of 14C atoms decaying per minute
is an unstable isotope of carbon that undergoes beta decay would increase.
with a half-life of approximately 5,730 years. Beta decay B. the number of 14C atoms decaying per minute
occurs when a neutron in the nucleus decays to form a pro- would decrease.
ton and an electron which is ejected from the nucleus. C. the weight of 14C on the Earth would increase
indefinitely.
14C is generated in the upper atmosphere when 14N, D. the amount of 14C ingested by living organisms
the most common isotope of nitrogen, is bombarded by would not change.
neutrons. This mechanism yields a global production rate
of 7.5 kg per year of 14C, which combines with oxygen in
the atmosphere to produce carbon dioxide. Both the pro- 41. The method of carbon dating used to determine age
duction and the decay of 14C occur simultaneously. This depends upon the assumption that:
process continues for many half-lives of 14C, until the total
amount of 14C approaches a constant. A. the half-life of 14C changes when it is ingested.
B. all ingested 14C is incorporated into the body.
A fixed fraction of the carbon ingested by all living C. the half-life of 14C depends on the type of
organisms will be 14C. Therefore, as long as an organism molecule in which it resides.
is alive, the ratio of 14C to 12C that it contains is constant. D. the half-life of 14C does not depend upon condi-
After the organism dies, no new 14C is ingested, and the tions external to the 14C nucleus.
amount of 14C contained in the organism will decrease by
beta decay. The amount of 14C that must have been present
in the organism when it died can be calculated from the 42. In determining the age of the galaxy, a technique sim-
amount of 12C present in a fossil. By comparing the ilar to carbon dating is used on stars with the radioac-
amount of 14C in the fossil to the calculated amount of 14C tive isotope 232Th, which has a half-life of 1010
that was present in the organism when it died, the age of years. 14C is less suitable for this application
the fossil can be determined. because:
A. its half-life is too long.
B. 14C is more abundant than 232Th is in stars.
C. 14C is unstable.
D. its half-life is too short.
39. The bones of a living human adult contain about 8

grams of 14C at any given time. If a prehistoric
human adult skeleton is found to contain 1 gram of
14C, what is the approximate age of the fossil?
A. 5,730 years
B. 17,190 years
C. 34,380 years
D. 45,840 years

15
43. In generating 14C in the upper atmosphere, a 14N

nucleus combines with a neutron to form a 14C
nucleus and:
A. a proton.
B. an electron.
C. a 4He nucleus.
D. a neutron.
44. After a 14C nucleus decays, the electron that is emit-

ted enters lead and is stopped. What percentage of its
kinetic energy does the electron transfer to lead?
A. 25%
B. 33%
C. 50%
D. 100%

16
Passage VIII (Questions 45–49) When the evolved arsine is ignited it decomposes into
its elements. The arsenic vapor is rapidly cooled when it
Arsenic is widely distributed in sulfide ores of many encounters the porcelain evaporating dish and deposits a
metals and is obtained as a byproduct of copper smelting. black mirror of arsenic on the bottom, indicating the pres-
The element, as well as many compounds of arsenic—for ence of arsenic in the original sample.
example arsine, AsH3—are extremely poisonous. Arsenic
compounds, as might be expected, have found use in herbi-
cides and pesticides, but have also been successful in some
pharmacological agents. The first useful antisyphilitic agent,
Salvarsan, or 3,3’-diamino-4,4’-dihydroxyarsenobenzene
dihydrochloride, is an arsenic compound. The element sub-
limes at 600°C, forming tetrahedral molecules, As4. Arsenic
is a metalloid, possessing properties characteristic of both
metals and non-metals. Arsenic is a gray-colored, metallic-
looking solid, but arsenic vapor is yellow in color, has a gar- 45. The phase diagram for arsenic is shown below. At
lic-like odor, and is very poisonous. If the arsenic vapor is what point does liquid arsenic exist?
cooled rapidly, an unstable, yellow crystalline allotrope con-
sisting of As4 molecules is produced.
223
The Marsh test, based on the instability of arsine, is a
very sensitive test for the presence of arsenic. This test is
Pressure bar I II
commonly employed in the detection of arsenic poison-
ing—either before or after death. The apparatus for the
Ptp
Marsh test is shown in Figure 1.
1.0 III
Black mirror
Acid added
Flame 873 Ttp Temp (K) 1673
A. 1.0 bar and 874 K

Porcelain B. 1.0 bar and 1673 K
evaporating
CaCl2 dish C. 223 bar and 1672 K
D. 223 bar and 873 K
Zn and
unknown
46. What is the most likely purpose of the calcium chlo-
ride in Figure 1?
A. To remove water from the evolved arsine gas
B. To remove HCl from the evolved arsine gas
Figure 1 C. To react with the zinc ion, making the reaction
go to completion
Typically, a sample, usually hair, is taken from a person D. To react with the evolved arsine gas
suspected of being the victim of arsenic poisoning. This sam-
ple is then treated in such a way so as to produce arsenic
oxide, As4O6. The oxide is then placed into the apparatus
shown in Figure 1 and reacted according to Reaction 1.
As4O6 + 12Zn(s) + 24H+(aq) →

4AsH3(g) + 12Zn2+(aq) + 6H2O
Reaction 1

17
47. If equal masses of gray arsenic and yellow arsenic

are allowed to completely react with oxygen at 298 K
and constant pressure to form As4O6, which would
produce more heat and why?
A. The yellow, because it is less stable than the
gray.
B. The gray, because it is more stable than the yel-
low.
C. Both would produce the same amount of heat
because they form the same product.
D. Both would produce the same amount of heat
because they are the same element.
48. The Marsh test takes advantage of the fact that arsine
is not very soluble in water. Since arsenic is below
nitrogen on the periodic table, it would be expected
that arsine, like ammonia, would be very soluble in
water. What is the most likely reason for this differ-
ence in solubility?
A. Arsine has a higher molecular weight than
ammonia does.
B. Arsine has a smaller dipole moment than
ammonia does.
C. Arsine is less basic than ammonia is.
D. Arsine is less stable than ammonia is.
49. A common ore of arsenic is called orpiment, As2S3.

What is the oxidation state of arsenic in orpiment?
A. –3
B. 0
C. +3
D. +6

18
53. Which of the following will halve the magnitude of

Questions 50 through 54 are NOT based the electrostatic force of attraction between two
on a descriptive passage. charged particles?
A. Doubling the distance between the particles
50. What is the shape of a molecule of NH3? B. Halving the charge on each particle
A. Trigonal planar C. Halving the charge on only one of the particles
B. Pyramidal D. Placing a positively charged particle midway
C. Tetrahedral between the particles
D. Trigonal bipyramidal
54. Which of the following is true when ice melts?
51. A deep-sea research module has a volume of 150 m3. A. The changes in both enthalpy and entropy are
If ocean water has an average density of 1,025 kg/m3, positive.
what will be the buoyant force on the module when it B. The changes in both enthalpy and entropy are
is completely submerged in the water? (Note: The negative.
acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/s2.)
C. The charge in enthalpy is positive; the change in
A. 9.8 N entropy is negative.
B. 60 N D. The change in enthalpy is negative; the change
C. 1 103 N in entropy is positive.
D. 1.5 106 N
52. If a spring is 64 cm long when it is unstretched and is

8% longer when a 0.5-kg mass hangs from it, how
long will it be with a 0.4-kg mass suspended from it?
A. 66 cm
B. 68 cm
C. 70 cm
D. 74 cm

19
Passage IX (Questions 55–59) 55. What physical quantity is NOT the same at Point C
as at Point A?
When softball players take batting practice, they often
A. The velocity of the softball
use a machine called an “automatic pitcher,” which is
essentially a cannon that uses air pressure to launch a pro- B. The speed of the softball
jectile. In a prototype automatic pitcher, a softball is C. The gravitational potential energy of the softball
loaded into the barrel of the cannon and rests against a flat D. The horizontal component of the velocity of the
disk. That disk is locked into place, and a high air pressure softball
is built up behind it. When the disk is released, the softball
is pushed along the barrel of the cannon and ejected at a
speed of v0. 56. What is the acceleration of the softball t seconds after
it exits the barrel?
Figure 1 shows the batter and automatic pitcher. The
A. –gj
angle of the barrel to the horizontal is . The unit vectors i
and j point in the horizontal and vertical directions respec- B. –v0/ti
tively. C. –v0/tj
D. –v0/ti – gj
57. How will v0 change if the impulse on the softball

remains the same but its mass is doubled?
θ A. It will decrease by a factor of 4.

j B. It will decrease by a factor of 2.
i C. It will not change.
D. It will increase by a factor of 2.
Figure 1
The height above the ground y of the softball as a func-
tion of time t is shown in Figure 2, where t = 0 at Point A,
t = tB at Point B, and t = tC at Point C. The softball is
ejected from the barrel of the cannon at Point A; it reaches
its maximum height at Point B; and the batter hits the soft-
ball at Point C. (Note: Assume that the effects of air resis-
tance are negligible unless otherwise stated.)
y
A C
Figure 2

20
58. What is the ratio of the horizontal distance traveled

by the softball at Point B to the horizontal distance
traveled at Point C?
A. 5:1
B. 4:1
C. 3:3
D. 1:2
59. How does the work done by the automatic pitcher

change as the angle of the barrel to the horizontal
increases?
A. The work done increases, because the softball’s
maximum height increases.
B. The work done decreases, because the softball
lands closer to the cannon.
C. The work done does not change, because the air
pressure behind the disk is unchanged.
D. The work done does not change, because grav-
ity is a conservative force.

21
Passage X (Questions 60–65) 61. Which of the following supports the particle theory
of light?
There are two opposing theories of light: the particle
A. The energy of light is quantitized.
theory and the wave theory. According to the particle the-
ory, light is composed of a stream of tiny particles that are B. Light exhibits interference.
subject to the same physical laws as other types of ele- C. Light is subject to the Doppler effect.
mentary particles. One consequence of this is that light D. No particle can have a speed greater than the
particles should travel in a straight line unless an external speed of light.
force acts on them. According to the wave theory, light is
a wave that shares the characteristics of other waves.
Among other things, this means that light waves should 62. A beam of electrons can also produce an interference
interfere with each other under certain conditions. pattern. Which one of the following expressions
gives a consistent definition of an electron’s “wave-
In support of the wave theory of light, Thomas Young’s length” if it has a total energy given by E? (Note:
double slit experiment proves that light does indeed h = 6.6 × 10–34 J•s is Planck’s constant and v is the
exhibit interference. Figure 1 shows the essential features speed of the electrons.)
of the experiment. Parallel rays of monochromatic light
pass through two narrow slits and are projected onto a A. hvE
screen. Constructive interference occurs at certain points B. hE/v
on the screen, producing bright areas of maximum light C. hv/E
intensity. Between these maxima, destructive interference D. E/hv
produces light intensity minima. The positions of the max-
ima are given by the equation dsin = nλ, where d is the
distance between the slits, is the angle shown in Figure 63. Which of the following is sufficient information to
1, the integer n specifies the particular maxima, and λ is determine the approximate speed of a ray of light in
the wavelength of the incident light. (Note: sin tan water?
for small angles.)
A. The angle of incidence and the angle of refrac-
screen tion of the light ray as it enters water from air
1m B. The wavelength in water and the wavelength in
air of the light ray as it enters water from air
C. The speed of light in a vacuum and the density
θ n 0 of water
D. The speed of light in a vacuum and the index of
refraction of water
d 0.5 mm
λ 500 nm
Figure 1
60. What is the angle for the third maximum (n = 3)?

A. 3 × 10–5 radians
B. 3 × 10–3 radians
C. 0.3 radians
D. 0.3 degrees

22
64. Light waves can be described in terms of frequency f

and wavelength λ or in terms of wave number k and
angular frequency ω. These quantities are related by
the following equations:
k = 2π/λ and ω = 2πf
Which equation below accurately describes the speed
of the wave v in terms of k and ω?
A. v = fλ
B. v=ω+k
C. v = ω /k
D. v = ωk
65. According to the modern theory of light, a beam of

light may be described either as a stream of particles
or as a wave, depending on the circumstances. Which
of the following correctly states a connection
between the two descriptions?
A. The number of light particles that pass by per
second is proportional to the frequency of the
light wave.
B. The mass of each particle of light is proportional
to the intensity of the light wave.
C. The size of each particle of light is proportional
to the wavelength of the light wave.
D. The energy of each particle of light is propor-
tional to the frequency of the light wave.

23
Passage XI (Questions 66–72) 67. What can be said about the value of ∆S° of the
reaction?
A researcher investigated the equilibrium between
A. It is positive.
CO2, C, and CO as a function of temperature. The equation
is given below: B. It is negative.
C. It is zero.
CO2(g) + C(s) 2 CO(g) D. It cannot be determined from the information
given.
Carbon dioxide, at 298 K and 1 atm, and an excess of
powdered carbon were introduced into a furnace, which
was then sealed so that pressure would increase as the 68. How many pi bonds are in the carbon dioxide
temperature rose. The furnace was heated to, and held con- molecule?
stant at, a predetermined temperature. The pressure within
A. 0
the furnace chamber was recorded after it had remained
unchanged for one hour. The table below shows the pres- B. 1
sures recorded for a series of temperatures together with C. 2
the pressures expected if no reaction had taken place. D. 3
Table 1
69. Which of the following is NOT necessarily true
T (K) Pr (P recorded after Pe (P expected without about the equilibrium reaction between CO2, C, and
reaction, in atm) reaction, in atm) CO?
900 3.4 3.0
A. The standard entropy change is positive.
950 3.8 3.2
B. A decrease in pressure at constant temperature
1,000 4.3 3.4 would shift the equilibrium to the right.
1,050 5.0 3.5 C. Addition of CO will shift the equilibrium to the
1,200 7.2 4.0 left.
D. The standard Gibbs’ free energy change is
negative.
66. When the system stabilized at 1,200 K, a sample of

helium was injected into the furnace. What should
happen to the amount of carbon dioxide in the system?
A. It should increase.
B. It should decrease.
C. It should be completely converted to carbon
monoxide.
D. It should remain the same.

24
70. Which of the following shows the correct Lewis

structure of carbon monoxide?
A. C.
C O C O
B. D.
C O C O
71. How are the values of Pe calculated?

A. (T/273)(1 atm)
B. (T/298)(1 atm)
C. [(T – 273)/273](1 atm)
D. [(T – 298)/298](1 atm)
72. If 0.6 g of elemental carbon are consumed during a

trial, how many grams of CO are produced?
A. 0.8
B. 1.4
C. 1.6
D. 2.8

25
76. If the reaction between Q and R is third order over-

Questions 73 through 77 are NOT based all, what is the value of x in the table below?
on a descriptive passage. Trial Concentration Concentration Initial rate
of Q (M) of R (M) (M/sec)
73. Light traveling from air into a new medium is 1 1.00 1.00 6 10–8
refracted away from the normal. This medium might
2 2.00 1.00 12 10–8
be:
3 2.00 x 48 10–8
A. glass.
B. water. A. 2.00
C. steel. B. 3.00
D. a vacuum. C. 4.00
D. 6.00
74. Which expression correctly expresses the Ksp of a
solution of XmYn?
77. When the temperature of an iron bar is raised, its
A. [Xm+]n[Yn–]m length expands. If the temperature of a second iron
B. [Xn+]m[Ym–]n bar, which is initially twice as long as the first bar, is
C. ([Xm+]n[Yn–]m)/ XmYn raised by twice as much, what is the ratio of the
change in length of the first bar to the change in
D. ([Xn+]m[Ym–]n/ XmYn
length of the second bar?
A. 1:1
75. Which of the following species exists as a resonance B. 1:2
hybrid? C. 1:4
A. HCN D. 2:1
B. H2CO3
C. NO2–
D. ClO–
STOP. IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED,
CHECK YOUR WORK. YOU MAY GO BACK TO ANY
QUESTION IN THIS SECTION ONLY.
26
Verbal Reasoning
Time: 85 Minutes
Questions 78–137

VERBAL REASONING
DIRECTIONS: There are nine passages in this Verbal

Reasoning Section. Each passage is followed by several
questions. After reading a passage, select the one best
answer to each question. If you are not certain of an
answer, eliminate the alternatives that you know to be
incorrect and then select an answer from the remaining
alternatives. Indicate your selection by blackening the
corresponding oval on your answer sheet.
Passage I (Questions 78–85) Novak’s interpretation points to the way these philo-
40 sophical and mystical traditions prepared the ground for
Although nihilism is commonly defined as a form of the political nihilism of the nineteenth and twentieth cen-
extremist political thought, the term has a broader mean- turies. The rejection of existing social institutions and their
ing. Nihilism is in fact a complex intellectual stance with claims to authority is in the most basic sense made possi-
venerable roots in the history of ideas, which forms the ble by Humean skepticism. The political nihilism of the
5 theoretical basis for many positive assertions of modern 45 Russian intelligentsia combined this radical skepticism
thought. Its essence is the systematic negation of all per- with a near mystical faith in the power of a new beginning.
ceptual orders and assumptions. A complete view must Hence, their desire to destroy becomes a revolutionary
account for the influence of two historical crosscurrents: affirmation; in the words of Stanley Rosen, “Nihilism is an
philosophical skepticism about the ultimacy of any truth, attempt to overcome or repudiate the past on behalf of an
10 and the mystical quest for that same pure truth. These are 50 unknown and unknowable, yet hoped-for, future.” This
united by their categorical rejection of the “known.” fusion of skepticism and mystical re-creation can be traced
in contemporary thought, for example as an element in the
The outstanding representative of the former current, counterculture of the 1960s.
David Hume (1711–1776), maintained that external reality
is unknowable, since sense impressions are actually part of
15 the contents of the mind. Their presumed correspondence
to external “things” cannot be verified, since it can be
checked only by other sense impressions. Hume further
asserts that all abstract conceptions turn out, on examina- 78. The author’s working definition of “nihilism,” as it
tion, to be generalizations from sense impressions. He con- functions in the passage, is:
20 cludes that even such an apparently objective phenomenon
A. systematic doubt of that which one takes for
as a cause-and-effect relationship between events may be
granted.
no more than a subjective fabrication of the observer. Stan-
ley Rosen notes: “Hume terminates in skepticism because B. a mystical quest for nothingness.
he finds nothing within the subject but individual impres- C. a form of extremist political thought.
25 sions and ideas.” D. rejection of all presently established institutions.
For mystics of every faith, the “experience of nothing-

79. The passage implies that the two strands of nihilist
ness” is the goal of spiritual practice. Buddhist meditation
thought:
techniques involve the systematic negation of all spiritual
and intellectual constructs to make way for the apprehension A. are combined in nineteenth and twentieth cen-
30 of pure truth. St. John of the Cross similarly rejected every tury political nihilism.
physical and mental symbolization of God as illusory. St. B. remained essentially separate after the eigh-
John’s spiritual legacy is, as Michael Novak puts it, “the con- teenth century.
stant return to inner solitude, an unbroken awareness of the C. are necessary prerequisites for any positive
emptiness at the heart of consciousness. It is a harsh refusal modern social thought.
35 to allow idols to be placed in the sanctuary. It requires also a
D. are derived from distinct Eastern and Western
scorching gaze upon all the bureaucracies, institutions,
philosophical traditions.
manipulators, and hucksters who employ technology and its
supposed realities to bewitch and bedazzle the psyche.”

28
80. In the passage, quotations from writers about 83. The author uses all of the following techniques in
nihilism are used in order to: developing the topic EXCEPT:
I. summarize specific points made in the A. discussion of individuals as representative of
course of the passage. intellectual trends.
II. contrast points of view on the subject under B. a contrast between a common definition and his
discussion. own.
III. make transitions between points in the dis- C. identification of the common elements in dis-
cussion. tinct intellectual traditions.
A. I only D. examination of the practical consequences of a
social doctrine.
B. I and II only
C. I and III only
D. II and III only 84. In the last paragraph, the author quotes Stanley
Rosen in order to make the point that modern
nihilism is:
81. Which of the following is a necessary assumption
underlying Hume’s conclusion that external reality is A. impractical because of its faith in an unknow-
unknowable, as discussed in the passage? able future.
B. more than just a movement to do away with
A. Nothing outside the mind exists. existing institutions.
B. The contents of the mind consist exclusively of C. a living doctrine rather than merely a part of the
sense impressions. history of political theory.
C. Causality is a subjective projection of the mind. D. based more on the tradition of philosophical
D. Sense impressions provide our only information skepticism than on that of mystical affirmation.
about external reality.
85. Which of the following provides the best continua-

82. Novak’s interpretation of St. John’s spiritual legacy tion for the final paragraph of the passage?
(lines 31–38) is important to the author’s argument
primarily because it: A. Thus, the negative effects of nihilism are still
being felt.
A. characterizes the essence of St. John’s mystical B. Classical nihilism has thus been superseded by a
doctrine. new and unrelated type.
B. gives insight into the historical antecedents of C. The revolutionaries of that time did, after all,
political nihilism. reject society and hope for something better.
C. draws a parallel between Christian mysticism D. The study of nihilism, then, belongs to the past
and the Humean tradition of philosophical skep- rather than to the present.
ticism.
D. suggests that St. John’s teachings are influential
mainly because of their sociopolitical implica-
tions.

29
Passage II (Questions 86–91) helpless at birth, but by its 12th day of life can assume a
50 defensive threat position by backing up on its hind legs. By
Agonistic behavior, or aggression, is exhibited by most the time it is one month old, the mouse begins to exhibit
of the more than three million species of animals on this the attack response. Nonetheless, copious evidence sug-
planet. Animal behaviorists still disagree on a comprehen- gests that animals learn and practice aggressive behavior;
sive definition of the term, but aggressive behavior can be one need look no further than the sight of a kitten playing
5 loosely described as any action that harms an adversary or 55 with a ball of string. All the elements of attack—stalking,
compels it to retreat. Aggression may serve many pur- pouncing, biting and shaking—are part of the game which
poses, such as food gathering, establishing territory, and prepares the kitten for more serious situations later in life.
enforcing social hierarchy. In a general Darwinian sense,
however, the purpose of aggressive behavior is to increase
10 the individual animal’s—and thus, the species’—chance of
survival.
Aggressive behavior may be directed at animals of

other species, or it may be conspecific—that is, directed at
members of an animal’s own species. One of the most 86. The passage asserts that animal social hierarchies are
15 common examples of conspecific aggression occurs in the generally stable because:
establishment and maintenance of social hierarchies. In a
A. the behavioral responses of the group are known
hierarchy, social dominance is usually established accord-
by all its members.
ing to physical superiority; the classic example is that of a
pecking order among domestic fowl. The dominance hier- B. the defensive threat posture quickly stops most
20 archy may be viewed as a means of social control that conflicts.
reduces the incidence of attack within a group. Once estab- C. inferior animals usually defer to their physical
lished, the hierarchy is rarely threatened by disputes superiors.
because the inferior animal immediately submits when D. the need for mutual protection from other
confronted by a superior. species inhibits conspecific aggression.
25 Two basic types of aggressive behavior are common to

most species: attack and defensive threat. Each type 87. According to the author, what is the most significant
involves a particular pattern of physiological and behav- physiological change undergone by a cat assuming
ioral responses, which tends not to vary regardless of the the defensive threat position?
stimulus that provokes it. For example, the pattern of
A. An increase in cardiovascular activity
30 attack behavior in cats involves a series of movements,
such as stalking, biting, seizing with the forepaws and B. A sudden narrowing of the eyes
scratching with the hind legs, that changes very little C. A contraction of the abdominal muscles
regardless of the stimulus—that is, regardless of who or D. The author does not say which change is most
what the cat is attacking. significant
35 The cat’s defensive threat response offers another set

of closely linked physiological and behavioral patterns. 88. Based on the information in the passage about ago-
The cardiovascular system begins to pump blood at a nistic behavior, it is reasonable to conclude that:
faster rate, in preparation for sudden physical activity. The I. the purpose of agonistic behavior is to help
eyes narrow and the ears flatten against the side of the cat’s insure the survival of the species.
40 head for protection, and other vulnerable areas of the body II. agonistic behavior is both innate and
such as the stomach and throat are similarly contracted. learned.
Growling or hissing noises and erect fur also signal defen-
III. conspecific aggression is more frequent
sive threat. As with the attack response, this pattern of
than interspecies aggression.
responses is generated with little variation regardless of
45 the nature of the stimulus. A. I only
B. II only
Are these aggressive patterns of attack and defensive C. I and II only
threat innate, genetically programmed, or are they learned?
D. I, II and III
The answer seems to be a combination of both. A mouse is
30
89. The author suggests that the question of whether ago- 91. Which of the following would be most in accord with
nistic behavior is genetically programmed or learned: the information presented in the passage?
A. still generates considerable controversy among A. The aggressive behavior of sharks is closely
animal behaviorists. linked to their need to remain in constant
B. was first investigated through experiments on motion.
mice. B. The inability of newborn mice to exhibit the
C. is outdated since most scientists now believe the attack response proves that aggressive behavior
genetic element to be most important. must be learned.
D. has been the subject of extensive clinical study. C. Most animal species that do not exhibit aggres-
sive behavior are prevented from doing so by
environmental factors.
90. Which of the following topics related to agonistic D. Members of a certain species of hawk use the
behavior is NOT explicitly addressed in the passage? same method to prey on both squirrels and
gophers.
A. The physiological changes that accompany
attack behavior in cats
B. The evolutionary purpose of aggression
C. Conspecific aggression that occurs in domi-
nance hierarchies
D. The relationship between play and aggression

31
Passage III (Questions 92–99) The topics of alternative fuels and alternative fuel
vehicles represent, by far, the most controversial issue in
The following passage was written in 1989. the Clean Air Act. President Bush has called alternative
fuels “bold and innovative” means to control pollution, but
At a recent meeting of the American Public Transit 50 according to many transportation experts, the Act’s pro-
Association, the Environmental Protection Agency posals on alternative fuel usage are unrealistic. The transit
unveiled stringent new standards for pollution control. The authorities recognize that concern for the environment and
transit authorities were particularly concerned about the health hazards like pollution are global issues. However,
5 implementation of a proposed “Clean Air Act.” They most transit officials concur that inventing and developing
believed the provisions of the Clean Air Act could severely 55 new ways to fuel mass transit will take at least 50 years to
affect basic services to their local communities. Many realize. They point out that the Act does not mention the
transit agencies were concerned that it would be difficult to political and social ramifications of usurping the role of
comply with the pollution and emissions control standards the petroleum industries. The Act does not mention if or
10 while continuing to operate within realistic budgets. how the thousands of people employed by the oil industry
60 will get retrained to produce and implement the use of
The aim of the Clean Air Act is to assure that by the “clean” fuel.
year 2000, there will be a reduction of at least 10 million
tons of sulfur dioxide from 1980 levels. The bill also calls No one disputes the fact that people need some form of
for a reduction in pollutants that contribute to the depletion transportation to get from place to place. Preserving the
15 of ozone. Strict regulations of toxic air emissions would environment should be a priority, yet we need to remem-
have to be established and enforced. Additionally, the 65 ber that even if toxic emissions are completely eliminated
Clean Air Act would establish specific acid-rain reduction sometime in the future, the challenge of moving mass
quotas and enforce severe penalties for transgressors of numbers of people where they want to go will still exist
any of the new clean air regulations. and must remain a priority. Transit authorities contend that
unless the Clean Air Act also acknowledges this, and
20 There is little doubt that mass-transit suppliers will be 70 develops a way to encourage mass transit over personal
considerably affected by this new legislation, just as the transportation, the problems of pollution might not be sig-
chemical and petroleum industries have already been nificantly altered. They suggest that there are many areas
affected by similar legislation. Transit authorities are chal- in this country that have little or no mass transit and that,
lenged to strike a difficult balance between complying if the Clean Air Act’s goal is to reduce pollution, perhaps
25 with the government’s new standards and developing an 75 the most practical and realistic means to achieve that goal
official concern for the environment, while continuing to is to encourage the development and maintenance of mass
fulfill the transportation needs of the general population. transit systems.
Among the areas addressed by the Clean Air Act, the

topic of mobile resources is of particular interest to mass
30 transit authorities. Provisions contained in the Act under
this title are aimed at encouraging the development and
practical use of alternative fuel sources, like solar energy
and methane fuel. The goal of this section of the Act is to
eradicate toxic fuel emissions in order to provide cleaner 92. In general, transit authorities feel that complying
35 air and a more favorable environment. The Act even goes with the provisions in the Clean Air Act will:
so far as to declare that in cities like New York, Los Ange-
A. be fairly easy as long as strict compliance is fol-
les and Houston—where air quality is particularly noxious
lowed by all agencies of mass transit.
and toxins exceed the limits of federal regulations—forms
of mass transit should run on so-called “clean-burning B. prove difficult because only wealthy private
40 fuels” by the year 2000. Such fuels include reformulated corporations can afford to drastically change
gasoline, propane, electricity, natural gas, ethanol, their methods of business.
methanol, or any similar type of low-emission fuel. In C. demand an increase in government funding for
addition, the Act proposes that, by 1994, all new urban mass transit.
buses in cities with populations exceeding one million D. be challenging because transit authorities must
45 must operate solely on clean-burning fuels. meet the public’s transportation needs while
adhering to the new provisions.

32
93. According to transit authorities, unless the Clean Air 97. Which of the following statements about transit offi-
Act acknowledges the necessity for mass transit, and cials’ reactions to the Clean Air Act is LEAST sup-
encourages its use over that of personal transportation: ported by the passage?
A. the cost of mass transit will rise to a prohibitive A. Transit officials feel that they will have a great
level. deal of difficulty complying with the stringent
B. private automobile manufacturers will take pollution and emission standards while continu-
advantage of the loopholes in the Clean Air Act. ing to operate on a financially practical level.
C. pollution may continue unabated. B. Transit authorities believe that the Act’s propos-
D. the use of public transportation in rural areas als on alternative fuel usage are unrealistic.
will decrease. C. Transit officials argue that unless the Clean Air
Act recognizes the importance of mass transit,
pollution may not be fundamentally modified.
94. The majority of transit officials seem to agree that D. Mass transit authorities feel that it is impossible
developing new ways to power mass transit: to meet the Clean Air Act’s demand that all new
buses in cities with populations exceeding one
A. is an unrealistic goal, at least for the short term.
million must run solely on clean-burning fuel
B. must be preceded by governmental restrictions such as ethanol or propane.
on petroleum products.
C. should be subsidized at the state and federal
levels. 98. The main goal of the “Mobile Resources” section of
D. will increase the cost of transportation to con- the Clean Air Act is to:
sumers.
A. reduce toxic vehicle emissions for cleaner air
and a better environment.
95. According to the passage, the main goal of the Clear B. encourage the development and practical use of
Air Act was to: different forms of mass transportation.
C. convince the general public of the environmen-
A. make sure that pollution was completely eradi- tal benefits of mass transit over private trans-
cated by the year 2000. portation.
B. reduce the amount of sulfur dioxide levels in the D. force private oil industries to redevelop their
air by at least 10 million tons from 1980s levels. methods of production so there is less pollution.
C. eliminate all pollution.
D. enforce harsh penalties for transgressors of any
of the new clean air regulations. 99. Transit authorities feel that the Act errs in NOT:
A. sufficiently discussing the problems of lead
emissions in the atmosphere.
96. According to the passage, the major fear that trans-
portation officials have about the effects of the Clean B. adequately acknowledging the environmental
Air Act is: benefits of mass transportation.
C. offering financial incentives to induce private
A. that it may discourage the use of mass transit. automobile owners to use mass transit instead.
B. the difficulty they will encounter in attempting D. adequately emphasizing the role and responsi-
to conform to the Clean Air Act’s stringent pol- bility of private industry in the current global
lution-control requirements. warming crisis.
C. the high cost of switching to new sources of
energy.
D. the political and social ramifications of usurping
the role of the petroleum industries.

33
Passage IV (Questions 100–107) 50 boundaries of observation, a task necessary to beginning

any social investigation. Further, Braudel and other
The rich analyses of Fernand Braudel and his fellow Annales historians minimize the differences among the
Annales historians have made significant contributions to social sciences. Nevertheless, the many similarly-designed
historical theory and research. In a departure from tradi- studies aimed at both professional and popular audiences
tional historical approaches, the Annales historians, 55 indicate that Braudel asked significant questions which
5 assume (as do Marxists) that history cannot be limited to a traditional historians had overlooked.
simple recounting of conscious human actions, but must be
understood in the context of forces and material conditions
that underlie human behavior. Braudel was the first
Annales historian to gain widespread support of the idea
10 that history should synthesize data from various social sci-
ences, especially economics, in order to provide a broader
view of human societies over time (although Febvre and
Bloch, founders of the Annales school, had originated this
approach).
15 Braudel conceived of history as the dynamic interac-

tion of three temporalities. The first of these, the evene-
mentielle, involved short-lived dramatic “events,” such as
battles, revolutions and the actions of great men, which 100. The author refers to the work of Febvre and Bloch in
had preoccupied traditional historians like Carlyle. Con- order to:
20 jonctures was Braudel’s term for larger cyclical processes
A. illustrate the limitations of the Annales tradition
that might last up to half a century. The longue duree, a
of historical interpretation.
historical wave of great length, was for Braudel the most
fascinating of the three temporalities. Here he focused on B. suggest the relevance of economics to historical
those aspects of everyday life that might remain relatively investigation.
25 unchanged for centuries. What people ate, what they wore, C. debate the need for combining various sociolog-
their means and routes of travel—for Braudel these things ical approaches.
create “structures” which define the limits of potential D. show that previous Annales historians antici-
social change for hundreds of years at a time. pated Braudel’s focus on economics.
Braudel’s concept of the longue duree extended the

30 perspective of historical space as well as time. Until the 101. According to the passage, all of the following are
Annales school, historians had taken the juridical political aspects of Braudel’s approach to history EXCEPT
unit the nation-state, duchy, or whatever as their starting that he:
point. Yet, when such enormous timespans are considered,
A. attempted to draw on various social sciences.
geographical features may well have more significance for
35 human populations than national borders. In his doctoral B. studied social and economic activities that
thesis, a seminal work on the Mediterranean during the occurred across national boundaries.
reign of Philip II, Braudel treated the geohistory of the C. pointed out the link between increased eco-
entire region as a “structure” that had exerted myriad influ- nomic activity and the rise of nationalism.
ences on human lifeways since the first settlements on the D. examined seemingly unexciting aspects of
40 shores of the Mediterranean Sea. And so the reader is everyday life.
given such arcane information as the list of products that
came to Spanish shores from North Africa, the seasonal
routes followed by Mediterranean sheep and their shep- 102. In the third paragraph, the author is primarily con-
herds, and the cities where the best ship timber could be cerned with discussing:
bought.
A. Braudel’s fascination with obscure facts.
45
Braudel has been faulted for the imprecision of his B. Braudel’s depiction of the role of geography in
approach. With his Rabelaisian delight in concrete detail, human history.
Braudel vastly extended the realm of relevant phenomena; C. the geography of the Mediterranean region.
but this very achievement made it difficult to delimit the D. the irrelevance of national borders.
34
103. The passage suggests that, compared with traditional 106. The passage implies that Braudel would consider
historians, Annales historians are: which of the following as exemplifying the longue
duree?
A. more interested in other social sciences than in
history. I. The prominence of certain crops in the diet
B. critical of the achievements of famous historical of a region
figures. II. The annexation of a province by the victor
C. skeptical of the validity of most economic in a war
research. III. A reduction in the population of an area
D. more interested in the underlying context of following a disease epidemic
human behavior. A. I only
B. III only
104. Which of the following statements would be most C. I and II only
likely to follow the last sentence of the passage? D. II and III only
A. Few such studies, however, have been written

by trained economists. 107. Which of the following statements is most in keeping
B. It is time, perhaps, for a revival of the Carlylean with the principles of Braudel’s work as described in
emphasis on personalities. the passage?
C. Many historians believe that Braudel’s concep-
A. All written history is the history of social elites.
tion of three distinct “temporalities” is an over-
simplification. B. The most important task of historians is to
define the limits of potential social change.
D. Such diverse works as Gascon’s study of Lyon
and Barbara Tuchman’s A Distant Mirror testify C. Those who ignore history are doomed to repeat
to his relevance. it.
D. People’s historical actions are influenced by
many factors that they may be unaware of.
105. Some historians are critical of Braudel’s perspective
for which of the following reasons?
A. It seeks structures that underlie all forms of
social activity.
B. It assumes a greater similarity among the social
sciences than actually exists.
C. It fails to consider the relationship between
short-term events and long-term social activity.
D. It rigidly defines boundaries for social analysis.

35
Passage V (Questions 108–113) 50 A major alternative hypothesis, advanced by E.

Trinkaus and W.W. Howells, is that of localized evolution.
Although we know more about so-called Neanderthal Within a geographically concentrated population, free
men than about any other early population, their exact rela- interbreeding could have produced far more pronounced
tion to present-day human beings remains unclear. Long genetic effects within a shorter time. Thus modern human
considered sub-human, Neanderthals are now known to 55 could have evolved relatively quickly, either from Nean-
5 have been fully human. They walked erect, used fire, and derthals or from some other ancestral type, in isolation
made a variety of tools. They lived partly in the open and from the main Neanderthal population. These humans may
partly in caves. The Neanderthals are even thought to have have migrated throughout the Neanderthal areas, where
been the first humans to bury their dead, a practice which they displaced or absorbed the original inhabitants. One
has been interpreted as demonstrating the capacity for reli- 60 hypothesis suggests that these “modern” humans immi-
10 gious and abstract thought. grated to Europe from the Middle East.
The first monograph on Neanderthal anatomy, pub- No satisfactory explanation of why modern human
lished by Marcelling Boule in 1913, presented a somewhat beings replaced the Neanderthals has yet been found.
misleading picture. Boule took the Neanderthals’ low- Some have speculated that the modern humans wiped out
vaulted cranium and prominent brow ridges, their heavy 65 the Neanderthals in warfare; however, there exists no
15 musculature, and the apparent overdevelopment of certain archeological evidence of a hostile encounter. It has also
joints as evidence of a prehuman physical appearance. In been suggested that the Neanderthals failed to adapt to the
postulating for the Neanderthal such “primitive” charac- onset of the last Ice Age; yet their thick bodies should have
teristics as a stooping, bent-kneed posture, a rolling gait, been heat-conserving and thus well-adapted to extreme
and a forward-hanging head, Boule was a victim of the 70 cold. Finally, it is possible that the improved tools and
20 rudimentary state of anatomical science. Modern anthro- hunting implements of the late Neanderthal period made
pologists recognize the Neanderthal bone structure as that the powerful Neanderthal physique less of an advantage
of a creature whose bodily orientation and capacities were than it had been previously. At the same time, the Nean-
very similar to those of present-day human beings. The derthals’ need for a heavy diet to sustain this physique put
differences in the size and shape of the limbs, shoulder 75 them at a disadvantage compared to the less massive mod-
25 blades, and other body parts are simply adaptations which erns. If this was the case, then it was improvements in
were necessary to handle the Neanderthal’s far more mas- human culture—including some introduced by the Nean-
sive musculature. Current taxonomy considers the Nean- derthals themselves—that made the Neanderthal obsolete.
derthals to have been fully human and thus designates them
not as a separate species, Homo neanderthalensis, but as a
30 subspecies of Homo sapiens: Homo sapiens nean-
derthalensis.
108. Boule considered all of the following to be evidence
The rise of the Neanderthals occurred over some that Neanderthals were sub-human EXCEPT their:
100,000 years—a sufficient period to account for evolu-
A. posture.
tion of the specifically Neanderthal characteristics through
35 free interbreeding over a broad geographical range. Fossil B. bone structure.
evidence suggests that the Neanderthals inhabited a vast C. cranial structure.
area from Europe through the Middle East and into Central D. ability to use tools.
Asia from approximately 100,000 years ago until 35,000
years ago. Then, within a brief period of five to ten thou-
40 sand years, they disappeared. Modern human, not found in 109. The passage best supports which of the following
Europe prior to about 33,000 years ago, thenceforth conclusions?
became the sole inhabitants of the region. Anthropologists
A. Neanderthals were less intelligent than early
do not believe that the Neanderthals evolved into modern
modern humans.
human beings. Despite the similarities between Nean-
45 derthal and modern human anatomy, the differences are B. Neanderthals were poorly adapted for survival.
great enough that, among a population as broad-ranging as C. There was probably no contact between Nean-
the Neanderthals, such an evolution could not have taken derthals and early modern humans.
place in a period of only ten thousand years. Furthermore, D. Neanderthals may have had a capacity for reli-
no fossils of types intermediate between Neanderthals and gious and abstract thought.
moderns have been found.
36
110. According to the passage, the latest that any Nean- 112. All of the following are hypotheses about the disap-
derthal might have existed was: pearance of the Neanderthals EXCEPT:
A. 100,000 years ago. A. the Neanderthal physique became a handicap
B. 35,000 years ago. instead of an advantage.
C. 33,000 years ago. B. the Neanderthals failed to adapt to climatic
D. 25,000 years ago. changes.
C. the Neanderthals evolved into modern humans.
D. modern humans exterminated the Neanderthals.
111. By inference from the passage, the most important
evidence that Neanderthals did NOT evolve into
modern humans is the: 113. It can be inferred from the passage that the rate of
evolution is directly related to the:
A. major anatomical differences between Nean-
derthals and modern humans. A. concentration of the species population.
B. brief time in which Neanderthals disappeared. B. anatomical features of the species.
C. difference in the geographical ranges of Nean- C. rate of environmental change.
derthals and modern humans. D. adaptive capabilities of the species.
D. gap of many thousands of years between the age
of the latest Neanderthal fossils and that of the
earliest modern human fossils.

37
Passage VI (Question 114–119) First, in 1924–25, Stalin isolated Trotsky, allying for
this purpose with Grigori Zinoviev and Lev Kamenev,
The Russia which emerged from the terrible civil war Bolshevik leaders better known than Stalin himself, whom
after the 1917 Revolution was far from the Bolsheviks’ 50 Trotsky mistakenly considered his main rivals. Stalin
original ideal of a non-exploitative society governed by maneuvered Trotsky out of leadership of the Red Army, his
workers and peasants. By 1921, the regime was weakened main potential power base. Next, Stalin turned on
5 by widespread famine, persistent peasant revolts, a col- Zinoviev and Kamenev, using his powers as head of the
lapse of industrial production stemming from the civil war, Party organization to remove them from party leadership
and the consequent dispersal of the industrial working 55 in Leningrad and Moscow, their respective power bases.
class—the Bolsheviks’ original base of support. To buy Trotsky, Zinoviev, and Kamenev then belatedly formed the
time for recovery, the government in 1921 introduced the “Joint Opposition” (1926–27). With Bukharin’s help,
10 New Economic Policy, which allowed private trade in Stalin easily outmaneuvered the Opposition: Bukharin
farm products (previously banned) and relied on a fixed polemicized against Trotsky, while Stalin prevented the
grain tax instead of forced requisitions to provide food for 60 newspapers from printing Trotsky’s replies, organized
the cities. The value of the ruble was stabilized. Trade gangs of toughs to beat up his followers, and transferred
unions were again allowed to seek higher wages and ben- his supporters to administrative posts in remote regions. At
15 efits, and even to strike. However, the Bolsheviks main- the end of 1927, Stalin expelled Trotsky from the Bolshe-
tained a strict monopoly of power by refusing to legalize vik Party and exiled him. (Later, in 1940, he had him mur-
other parties. 65 dered.) Zinoviev and Kamenev, meanwhile, recanted their
views in order to remain within the Party.
After the death of the Revolution’s undisputed leader,
Lenin, in January 1924, disputes over the long-range direc- The final act now began. A move by kulaks to gain
20 tion of policy led to an open struggle among the main Bol- higher prices by holding grain off the market touched off a
shevik leaders. Since open debate was still possible within campaign against them by Stalin. Bukharin protested, but
the Bolshevik Party in this period, several groups with dif- 70 with the tradition of Party democracy now all but dead,
fering programs emerged in the course of this struggle. Stalin had little trouble silencing Bukharin. Meanwhile, he
began a campaign to force all peasants—not just kulaks—
The program supported by Nikolai Bukharin—a major onto state-controlled “collective farms,” and initiated a
25 ideological leader of the Bolsheviks with no power base of crash industrialization program during which he deprived
his own—called for developing agriculture through good 75 the trade unions of all rights and cut real wages by 50%.
relations with wealthy peasants, or “kulaks.” Bukharin Out of the factional struggle in which he emerged by 1933
favored gradual industrial development, or “advancing as sole dictator of Russia, Stalin’s political program of
towards Socialism at a snail’s pace.” In foreign affairs, building up heavy industry on the backs of both worker
30 Bukharin’s policy was to ally with non-Socialist regimes and peasant emerged with full clarity.
and movements that were favorable to Russia.
A faction led by Leon Trotsky, head of the Red Army

and the most respected revolutionary leader after Lenin,
called for rapid industrialization and greater central plan-
35 ning of the economy, financed by a heavy tax on the
kulaks. Trotsky rejected the idea that a prosperous, human
Socialist society could be built in Russia alone (Stalin’s
slogan of “Socialism in One Country”), and therefore
called for continued efforts to promote working-class rev-
40 olutions abroad. As time went on, he became bitterly criti-
cal of the new privileged elite emerging within both the 114. All of the following were among the factors con-
Bolshevik Party and the Russian state. tributing to the weakness of the Bolshevik regime in
1921 EXCEPT:
Joseph Stalin, General Secretary of the Bolshevik
A. the aftereffects of the civil war.
Party, was initially considered a “center,” conciliating fig-
45 ure, not clearly part of a faction. Stalin’s eventual B. low industrial production.
supremacy was ensured by three successive struggles C. opposition by peasants.
within the party, and only during the last did his own pro- D. lack of democracy within the Party.
gram become clear.
38
115. The main feature of the New Economic Policy of 118. In his struggle with rival factions of the Bolshevik
1921 was: Party, Stalin was apparently most helped by:
A. a strict economic centralization. A. his control of the party organization.
B. stimulation of the economy through deliberate B. his control of the army.
inflation. C. Trotsky’s misjudgment of threats to his position.
C. a limitation of trade union activity. D. the appearance of standing above factional
D. a relaxation of economic controls. politics.
116. An important feature of Bukharin’s program was: 119. The passage supports the idea that struggles within
the Bolshevik Party were primarily:
A. a tax on the peasants.
B. avoiding confrontations with the trade unions. A. reflections of struggles among important groups
C. forming alliances with friendly foreign regimes. in the general population.
D. maintaining open debate within the Party. B. the result of differences over economic policy.
C. the result of misdirected loyalty on the part of
the Red Army.
117. According to the passage, a similarity between Stalin D. caused by Russian social elites outside the
and Trotsky was their attitude and policy toward: Party.
A. the elite of the Bolshevik Party.
B. the importance of industrialization.
C. democracy within the party.
D. trade unions.

39
Passage VII (Questions 120–125) These results suggest obvious areas for further
50 research. For example, observational data should be
One of the basic principles of ecology is that popula- reviewed to see whether the periodic population explo-
tion size is to some extent a function of available food sions among the prolific lemming (like the vole and the
resources. Recent field experiments demonstrate that the snowshoe hare, a small rodent in a marginal northern envi-
interrelationship may be far more complex than hitherto ronment) occur during years in which there is an early
5 imagined. Specifically, the browsing of certain rodents 55 onset of vegetative growth; if so, a triggering mechanism
appears to trigger biochemical reactions in the plants they similar to that found in the vole may be involved.
feed on that help regulate the size of the rodent popula-
tions. Two such examples of phytochemical regulation
(regulation involving plant chemistry) have been reported
10 so far.
Patricia Berger and her colleagues at the University

of Utah have demonstrated that instrumentality of 6-
methoxybenzoxazolinone (6-MBOA) in triggering repro-
ductive behavior in the mountain vole (Microtus
15 montanus), a small rodent resembling the field mouse. 6-
MBOA forms in young mountain grasses in response to
browsing by predators such as voles. The experimenters
fed rolled oats coated with 6-MBOA to non-breeding win-
ter populations of Microtus. After three weeks, the sample
20 populations revealed a high incidence of pregnancy among
the females and pronounced swelling of the testicles
among the males. Control populations receiving no 6-
MBOA revealed no such signs. Since the timing of repro- 120. The author describes the effect of 6-MBOA on voles
ductive effort is crucial to the short-lived vole in an as a “significant biological adaptation” (lines 27–28)
25 environment in which the onset of vegetative growth can because it:
vary by as much as two months, the phytochemical trig-
A. limits reproductive behavior in times of food
gering of copulatory behavior in Microtus represents a sig-
scarcity.
nificant biological adaptation.
B. leads the vole population to seek available food
A distinct example is reported by John Bryant of the resources.
30 University of Alaska. In this case, plants seem to have C. tends to ensure the survival of the species in a
adopted a form of phytochemical self-defense against the situation of fluctuating food supply.
depredations of the snowshoe hare (Lepus americanus) of D. maximizes the survival prospects of individual
Canada and Alaska. Every ten years or so, for reasons that voles.
are not entirely understood, the Lepus population swells
35 dramatically. The result is intense overbrowsing of early
and mid-successional deciduous trees and shrubs. Bryant 121. It can be inferred that the study of lemmings pro-
has shown that, as if in response, four common boreal for- posed by the author would probably:
est trees favored by Lepus produce adventitious shoots
A. fully explain the interrelationship between food
high in terpene and phenolic resins which effectively dis-
supply and reproductive behavior in northern
40 courage hare browsing. He treated mature, non-resinous
rodent populations.
willow twigs with resinous extracts from the adventitious
shoots of other plants and placed treated and untreated B. disprove the conclusions of Berger and her col-
bundles at hare feeding stations, weighing them at the end leagues.
of each day. Bryant found that bundles containing only C. be irrelevant to the findings of Berger and her
45 half the resin concentration of natural twigs were left colleagues.
untouched. The avoidance of these unpalatable resins, he D. provide evidence indicating whether the conclu-
concludes, may play a significant role in the subsequent sions of Berger and her colleagues can be gen-
decline in the Lepus population to its normal level. eralized.

40
122. The statement: “The interrelationship may be far 124. Bryant’s interpretation of the results of his experi-
more complex than hitherto imagined” (lines 4–5) ment (lines 46–48) depends on which of the follow-
suggests that scientists previously believed that: ing assumptions?
A. the amount of food available is the only food- A. The response of Lepus to resinous substances in
based factor that affects population size. nature may be different from its response under
B. reproductive behavior is independent of envi- experimental conditions.
ronmental factors. B. The decennial rise in the Lepus population is
C. food resources biochemically affect reproduc- triggered by an unknown phytochemical
tion and the lifespan of some species. response.
D. population size is not influenced by available C. Many Lepus will starve to death rather than eat
food resources. resinous shoots or change their diet.
D. Lepus learns to search for alternative food
sources once resinous shoots are encountered.
123. The experiments described in the passage involved
all of the following EXCEPT:
125. The experiments performed by Berger and Bryant
A. measuring physiological changes in reproduc-
both study:
tive organs after a specific compound was
ingested. I. the effect of diet on reproduction in rodents
B. testing whether breeding behavior could be II. the relationship between food source and
induced in normally non-breeding animals by a population size.
change in diet. III. phytochemical phenomena in northern
C. measuring an animal’s consumption of treated environments.
and untreated foods.
A. II only
D. measuring changes in the growth cycle 6-MBOA-
B. III only
producing mountain grasses.
C. I and II only
D. II and III only

41
Passage VIII (Questions 126–130) peasant, raised by coarse, ignorant people imbued with all
sorts of common prejudices. But, as de Beauvoir notes,
In examining “myths of women” in literature, Simone 50 “she clears from her path all moral barriers once she under-
de Beauvoir found the images put forward by Stendhal stands the full meaning of the little words: ‘that’s silly.’ It
romantic, yet feministic. Stendhal’s ideal woman was the is her freedom of mind that allows her to see through the
one best able to reveal him to himself. For Stendhal, such meaninglessness and superficiality of so much social rit-
5 a task required an equal. Women’s emancipation was ual, so that she may act in the world in her own fashion,
required, then, not simply in the name of liberty, but— 55 responding fully to the impulses of her own curiosity and
more importantly—for the sake of individual happiness ambition, and shaping a destiny worthy of herself in a
and fulfillment. mediocre world.”
De Beauvoir wrote: “Stendhal wants his mistress intel- In this, Lamiel conveys Stendhal’s ultimate message to
10 ligent, cultivated, free in spirit and behavior: an equal.” his readers: there is no comfortable place for great souls in
Love, in Stendhal’s scheme, will be more true if woman, 60 society as it exists. It is in this sense that his men and
being man’s equal, is able to understand him more com- women are the same: equals. Together, two who may have
pletely. the chance to know each other in love, man and woman,
defy time and universe—and come into absolute harmony
De Beauvoir found it rather refreshing—a kind of with it. Such a couple is sufficient unto itself and realizes
15 relief—that in Stendhal, at least, we can find a man who 65 the absolute.
lived among women of flesh and blood. He rejected the
mystification of women: his women were “not fury,
nymph, morning star, nor siren, but human.” Humanity
sufficed for Stendhal, and no dream or myth could have
20 been more entrancing.
126. According to the passage, Stendhal believed that in
Stendhal believes that the human, living souls of order to experience self-realization, an individual
women, having rejected “the heavy sleep in which human- requires the presence of:
ity is mired,” may rise through passion to heroism, if they
A. a muse.
can find an objective worthy of them—an objective wor-
25 thy of their spiritual and creative powers, their energies, B. God.
and the ferocity and purity of total dedication. Certainly C. an equal.
Stendhal believes such an objective exists for woman, and D. family.
it is man. It is in this belief that Stendhal becomes ulti-
mately unsatisfying to de Beauvoir. While Stendhal does
30 grant women emotions, aspirations, and some sense of 127. The author suggests de Beauvoir considered Stend-
self, the only way he believes they can fully realize and hal’s portrait of Lamiel “somewhat speculative”
fulfill their own selves is through man. It is in loving a man (line 44) because Stendhal:
that the ennui of these truly living souls is driven away.
A. bases his story upon myths.
Any boredom—any lack of focus, in essence, the lack of
35 men—represents also a lack of any reason for living or B. sensationalizes his plot.
dying, absolute stagnation. Meanwhile, passion—the love C. takes on the identity of woman.
of a man—has an aim and that is enough justification for D. exaggerates the aspirations of his female char-
woman’s life. acters.
Yet de Beauvoir is still compelled by Stendhal. She

40 finds him unique—or, at least, distinct—in going to the 128. The passage mentions that de Beauvoir saw the mys-
point of projecting himself into a female character. He tification of women in all of the following forms
does not “hover over” Lamiel, but assumes her destiny. On EXCEPT:
account of that, de Beauvoir notes, “Lamiel’s outline
A. nymph.
remains somewhat speculative,” but also singularly signif-
45 icant. B. morning star.
C. fury.
Lamiel is typical of Stendhal’s women. Her creator has D. mistress.
raised every imaginable obstacle before her: she is a poor
42
129. It can be inferred from the passage that Stendhal’s 130. The author states that de Beauvoir found Stendhal
notion of love between a man and woman both “ultimately unsatisfying” (lines 28–29) in that
includes and requires: Stendhal:
A. faithfulness in the relationship. A. stifles the lively spirits of women.
B. the mystification of woman. B. reduces women to mere flesh and blood.
C. understanding of each other. C. defines the fulfillment of women as dependent
D. the blessing of the union before God. on men.
D. refuses to acknowledge the aspirations of
women.

43
Passage IX (Questions 131–137) nation’s economy in the areas of Social Security and health
care. A recent government survey showed that 77% of
The following passage was written in 1994. elderly Americans have annual incomes of less than
50 $20,000; only 3% earn more than $50,000. As their earning
The population of the United States is growing older power declines and their need for health care increases,
and will continue to do so until well into the next century. most elderly Americans come to depend heavily on federal
For the first time in American history, elders outnumber and state subsidies. With the advent of Social Security in
teenagers. The U.S. Census Bureau projects that 39 million 1935, and Medicaid/Medicare in 1965, the size of those
5 Americans will be 65 or older by the year 2010, 51 million 55 subsidies has grown steadily until by 1990, spending on the
by 2020, and 65 million by 2030. This demographic trend elderly accounted for 30% of the annual federal budget.
is due mainly to two factors: increased life expectancy, and
the occurrence of a “baby boom” in the generation born Considering these figures, and the fact that the elderly
immediately after World War II. People are living well population will double within the next 40 years, it’s clear
10 beyond the average life expectancy in greater numbers that major government policy decisions lie ahead. In the
than ever before, too. In fact, the number of U.S. citizens 60 first 50 years of its existence, for example, the Social Secu-
85 years old and older is growing six times as fast as the rity fund has received $55 billion more in
rest of the population. employee/employer contributions than it has paid out in
benefits to the elderly. Yet time and again the federal gov-
The “graying” of the United States is due in large mea- ernment has “borrowed” this surplus without repaying it in
15 sure to the aging of the generation born after World War II, 65 order to pay interest on the national debt.
the “baby boomers.” The baby boom peaked in 1957, with
over 4.3 million births that year. More than 75 million Similarly, the Medicaid/Medicare system is threatened
Americans were born between 1946 and 1964, the largest by the continuous upward spiral of medical costs. The cost
generation in U.S. history. Today, millions of “boomers” of caring for disabled elderly Americans is expected to
20 are already moving into middle age; in less than two double in the next decade alone. And millions of Ameri-
decades, they will join the ranks of America’s elderly. 70 cans of all ages are currently unable to afford private
health insurance. In fact, the United States is practically
What will be the social, economic and political conse- unique among developed nations in lacking a national
quences of the aging of America? One likely development health care system. Its advocates say such a system would
will involve a gradual restructuring of the family unit, be far less expensive than the present state of affairs, but
25 moving away from the traditional nuclear family and 75 the medical establishment and various special interest
towards an extended, multigenerational family dominated groups have so far blocked legislation aimed at creating it.
by elders, not by their adult children. Nonetheless, within the next few decades, an aging U.S.
population may well demand that such a program be
The aging of the U.S. population is also likely to have implemented.
far-reaching effects on the nation’s workforce. In 1989
30 there were approximately 3.5 workers for every person 65
and older; by the year 2030, there’ll be only 2 workers for
every person 65 and older. As the number of available
younger workers shrinks, elderly people will become more
attractive as prospective employees. Many will simply
35 retain their existing jobs beyond the now-mandatory
retirement age. In fact, the phenomenon of early retire-
ment, which has transformed the U.S. workforce over the 131. Based on the information contained in the passage,
past four decades, will probably become a thing of the which of the following statements about the U.S.
past. In 1950, about 50% of all 65-year-old men still elderly population is true?
40 worked; today, only 15% of them do. The median retire-
A. It is largely responsible for the nation’s current
ment age is currently 61. Yet recent surveys show that
housing shortage.
almost half of today’s retirees would prefer to be working,
and in decades to come, their counterparts will be doing B. It is expected to double within the next 40 years.
just that. C. It is the wealthiest segment of the U.S. population.
D. It represents almost 30% of the U.S. population.
45 Finally, the great proportional increase in the number of
older Americans will have significant effects on the
44
132. The author concludes that the majority of elderly 135. The author speculates that, in future decades, the typ-
people living in the U.S. at the time the passage was ical U.S. family will probably be:
written:
A. youth-oriented.
A. were earning less than $20,000 per year. B. subsidized by Social Security.
B. will suffer some sort of disability between the C. multigenerational.
ages of 65 and 75. D. wealthier than today’s family.
C. were unable to purchase their own homes.
D. continued to work at least 20 hours per week.
136. The passage suggests that, at the time the author
wrote, many elderly people had over the prior 3
133. The fact that health care costs for disabled elderly decades:
Americans were expected to double in the next ten
A. supplemented their incomes by working past the
years indicates that:
age of retirement.
A. the federal government will be unable to finance B. lost their Social Security benefits.
a national health care system. C. have experienced a doubling in their cost of liv-
B. the Medicaid/Medicare system will probably ing.
become even more expensive to maintain in the D. have come to depend heavily on government
future. subsidies.
C. money will have to be borrowed from the Social
Security fund in order to finance the Medi-
caid/Medicare system. 137. According to the author, the federal government had
D. “baby boomers” will be unable to receive fed- not yet instituted a program mandating health care
eral health benefits as they grow older. for all U.S. citizens because:
A. the federal deficit must first be eliminated.
134. According to the U.S. Census Bureau, the elderly B. such a program would be too expensive.
population at the time the author wrote was: C. legislative lobbies have prevented it.
D. Medicaid and Medicare have made it unneces-
A. larger than the population of teenagers.
sary.
B. larger than the population of “boomers.”
C. smaller than the number of elderly people in
1950.
D. smaller than the number of elderly people in STOP. IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED,
1970. CHECK YOUR WORK. YOU MAY GO BACK TO ANY
45
Writing Sample
Time: 60 Minutes
2 WS Items, Separately Timed
30 Minutes Each

WRITING SAMPLE
DIRECTIONS: This section is a test of your writing skills. The

section contains two parts. You will have 30 minutes to complete
each part.
Your responses to the prompts given in the Writing Sample will

be written in the ANSWER DOCUMENT. Your response to Part 1
must be written only on the answer sheets marked “1,” and your
response to Part 2 must be written only on the answer sheets
marked “2.” You may work only on Part 1 during the first 30 min-
utes of the test and only on Part 2 during the second 30 minutes.
If you finish writing on Part 1 before the time is up, you may
review your work on that part, but do not begin writing on Part 2.
If you finish writing on Part 2 before the time is up, you may
review your work only on Part 2.
Use your time efficiently. Before you begin writing a response,

read the assignment carefully and make sure you understand
exactly what you are being asked to do. You may use the space
below each writing assignment to make notes in planning your
responses.
Because this is a test of your writing skills, your response to each

part should be an essay composed of complete sentences and
paragraphs, as well organized and clearly written as you can
make it in the allotted time. You may make corrections or addi-
tions neatly between the lines of your responses, but do not write
in the margins of the answer booklet.
There are six pages in your answer booklet to write your

responses, three pages for each part of the test. You are not
required to use all of the pages, but to be sure that you have
enough space for each essay, do not skip lines.
Essays that are illegible cannot be scored. In addition, essays

that are not written in English will not be scored.
48
Part 1
Consider the following statement:
Citizens who enjoy a country’s benefits during peacetime have a responsibility to support their
nation in times of war.
Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above
statement means. Describe a specific situation in which citizens might justifiably not support their nation
in time of war. Discuss what you think determines whether or not citizens should support their nation in
time of war.
49
Part 2
Consider the following statement:
In business, competition is superior to cooperation.
Write a unified essay in which you perform the following tasks. Explain what you think the above
statement means. Describe a specific situation in which cooperation might be superior to competition.
Discuss what you think determines when competition is superior to cooperation in business and when it
is inferior.
50
Biological Sciences
Time: 100 Minutes
Questions 138–214

BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES
DIRECTIONS: Most of the questions in the following
Biological Sciences test are organized into groups,
with a descriptive passage preceding each group of
questions. Study the passage, then select the single
best answer to each question in the group. Some of the
questions are not based on a descriptive passage; you
must also select the best answer to these questions. If
you are unsure of the best answer, eliminate the
choices that you know are incorrect, then select an
answer from the choices that remain. Indicate your
selection by blackening the corresponding circle on
your answer sheet. A periodic table is provided below
for your use with the questions.
PERIODIC TABLE OF THE ELEMENTS
1 2
H He
1.0 4.0
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Li Be B C N O F Ne
6.9 9.0 10.8 12.0 14.0 16.0 19.0 20.2
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
23.0 24.3 27.0 28.1 31.0 32.1 35.5 39.9
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
39.1 40.1 45.0 47.9 50.9 52.0 54.9 55.8 58.9 58.7 63.5 65.4 69.7 72.6 74.9 79.0 79.9 83.8
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
85.5 87.6 88.9 91.2 92.9 95.9 (98) 101.1 102.9 106.4 107.9 112.4 114.8 118.7 121.8 127.6 126.9 131.3
55 56 57 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
Cs Ba La * Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
132.9 137.3 138.9 178.5 180.9 183.9 186.2 190.2 192.2 195.1 197.0 200.6 204.4 207.2 209.0 (209) (210) (222)
87 88 89 104 105 106 107 108 109
Fr Ra Ac † Rf Ha Unh Uns Uno Une
(223) 226.0 227.0 (261) (262) (263) (262) (265) (267)
58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
* Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
140.1 140.9 144.2 (145) 150.4 152.0 157.3 158.9 162.5 164.9 167.3 168.9 173.0 175.0
90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
† Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
232.0 (231) 238.0 (237) (244) (243) (247) (247) (251) (252) (257) (258) (259) (260)

52
Passage I (Questions 138–143) In liver cells, the most important regulator of phospho-
fructokinase activity is fructose 2,6-biphosphate (F-2,
Glycolysis is the sequence of reactions in the cytosol 6-BP). F-2,6-BP is formed by the phosphorylation of fruc-
that converts one molecule of glucose into two molecules tose 6-phosphate in a reaction catalyzed by phosphofruc-
of pyruvate with the concomitant generation of 2 ATP and tokinase 2 (PFK2). When blood glucose is low, a
2 NADH. Under anaerobic conditions, NAD+ is regener- glucagon-triggered cascade leads to the phosphorylation of
ated from NADH by the reduction of pyruvate to either PFK2 and inhibition of phosphofructokinase. The control
lactate or ethanol. Alternatively, under aerobic conditions, of the synthesis and degradation of F-2,6-BP is shown in
NAD+ is regenerated by the transfer of electrons from Figure 2.
NADH to O2 through the electron transport chain. Glycol-
ysis serves two main functions: it generates ATP and it pro- High [glucose]
vides carbon skeletons for biosynthesis. +
Phosphofructokinase, which is the enzyme that cat- PFK2 (dephosphorylated FBPase2)

alyzes the committed step in glycolysis, is the most impor- +
tant control site. A high concentration of ATP inhibits
phosphofructokinase. This inhibitory effect is enhanced by
+
citrate and reversed by AMP. Thus, the rate of glycolysis
depends on the cell’s need for ATP, as signaled by the F-6-P F-6-P F-2,6-BP
ATP/AMP ratio, and in the need for building blocks, as
– +
signaled by the concentration of citrate. These relation-
ships are shown in Figure 1.
+ PFK
I II FBPase2 (phosphorylated PFK2)
+
at low [ATP]
+
at high [AMP]
reaction velocity
reaction velocity
Low [glucose] Glycolysis

at high [ATP]
at low [AMP]
+ = stimulation – = inhibition
time time
Figure 2
III
at low [citrate] 138. In an experiment with glycolytic enzymes, 10 mol of

glucose produced 2 mol of ATP. This result fails to
reaction velocity
at high [citrate]
conform to the theoretical yield from 10 mol of glu-
cose, which should produce:
A. 1 mol of ATP.
time
B. 5 mol of ATP.
C. 10 mol of ATP.
D. 20 mol of ATP.
Figure 1

53
139. One of the reactions of aerobic respiration is the 142. A high fructose-6-phosphate concentration will lead
addition of water to fumarate, which is shown below. to all of the following EXCEPT:
This reaction is catalyzed by the enzyme fumarase,
A. increased F-2,6-BP synthesis.
and occurs stereospecifically with water approaching
on only one side of the molecule. B. decreased F-2,6-BP degradation.
C. stimulation of phosphofructokinase.
H H COO - D. decreased ATP/AMP ratio.
O + C
H
C
- OOC H
143. Two bacterial colonies, A and B, are grown anaerobi-
cally on separate petri plates containing a glucose-
fumarase rich medium and are found to be of equal size. The
two plates are then incubated for 72 hours in an O2-
rich atmosphere. After incubation, Colony A exhib-
X ited growth, and an assay of the medium revealed
that most of the glucose in the plate had been con-
The product of the reaction, X, is: sumed; Colony B had nearly disappeared. These
A. a racemic mixture. results suggest that Colony A and Colony B most
likely contain:
B. an optically active molecule.
C. a molecule with two chiral centers. A. facultative aerobes and obligate aerobes, respec-
D. an achiral molecule. tively.
B. facultative aerobes and obligate anaerobes,
respectively.
140. It can be inferred from the passage that glucagon: C. obligate aerobes and obligate anaerobes, respec-
tively.
A. stimulates the phosphorylation of fructose 6-
phosphate. D. obligate anaerobes and facultative aerobes,
respectively.
B. stimulates F-2,6-BP synthesis.
C. inhibits phosphorylation of PFK2.
D. inhibits glycolysis.
141. Which of the following conditions would most

enhance the rate of glycolysis?
A. Low concentration of F-2,6-BP
B. High ATP/AMP ratio
C. High concentration of AMP
D. High concentration of citrate

54
Passage II (Questions 144–149) 144. A researcher wanting to study the process by which
viral mRNA is transcribed in an HIV-infected CD4+
There are four phases of the human immunodeficiency T-cell would add all of the following reagents to her
virus (HIV) life cycle. In binding and entry, the virus binds cell culture EXCEPT:
to the CD4 receptor on CD4+ T-cells via the viral gluyco-
A. radiolabeled thymine.
protein, gp120. The binding results in the fusion of the
viral and cellular membranes, followed by the entrance of B. radiolabeled guanine.
the viral core into the cell. After entry, synthesis and inte- C. radiolabeled uracil.
gration occurs, during which viral RNA is transcribed into D. radiolabeled adenine.
double-stranded DNA by reverse transcriptase. Viral DNA
enters the nucleus and integrates into the host genome.
Following integration, expression of viral genes occurs. 145. If Hypothesis 1 were true, which of the following
Finally, during assembly and release, viral structural pro- pairs of processes would HIV have to undergo before
teins are synthesized and assemble into particles contain- a toxic factor could be produced?
ing the viral enzymes and two copies of the viral RNA.
A. Binding and entry; synthesis and integration
The particles bud from the cell.
B. Reverse transcription and host cell death
One of the most puzzling cytopathic effects of HIV is C. Binding and entry
the depletion of T-cells, despite the fact that relatively few D. Reverse transcription; synthesis and integration
cells are actually infected. Four models that attempt to
account for this effect are summarized below:
146. Which of the following supports Hypothesis 3?
Hypothesis 1
A. Some CD4+ T-cell lines do not form syncytia,
but are susceptible to the cytopathic effects of
HIV particles that fail to integrate into the CD4+ T-cell
HIV.
genome produce a toxic factor that functionally impairs T-
cells and eventually leads to cell death. B. Syncytia formation is transient in some CD4+ T-
cell lines.
Hypothesis 2 C. gp120 and gp41 bind almost irreversibly to CD4
receptor molecules in vitro.
HIV integration promotes the synthesis of terminal D. Syncytia formation does not lead to cell death in
maturation factors in CD4+ T-cells, increasing their sus- some CD4+ T-cell lines.
ceptibility to the body’s normal cell-destruction process.
Hypothesis 3
Viral glycoproteins (gp120 and gp41) expressed on the

surface of HIV-infected T-cells fuse with CD4 receptors on
healthy cells, forming a non-functional cell mass (syncytia
formation).
Hypothesis 4
gp120 molecules are released into circulation by

infected T-cells and bind to the CD4 receptors on healthy
T-cells, making the latter subject to an autoimmune attack
by anti-gp120 antibodies.

55
147. Hypothesis 4 is based on the assumption that:

A. healthy CD4+ T-cells are not normally subject to
autoimmune attacks.
B. healthy CD4+ T-cells will produce anti-gp120
cells in response to exposure to the HIV virus.
C. healthy CD4+ T-cells normally synthesize
gp120.
D. proteins travel through the body by way of the
immune system.
148. If Hypothesis 3 were true, which of the following

cellular organelles would be responsible for directing
the newly synthesized gp120 and gp41 molecules
toward the plasma membrane, on which they would
eventually be expressed?
A. Centrioles
B. Golgi complex
C. Mitochondria
D. Lysosomes
149. HIV infection is detected by the presence of anti-HIV

antibodies in the blood. This indicates that during
infection:
A. helper T-cells are still able to activate cytotoxic
T-cell proliferation.
B. B-lymphocytes are still able to produce antibod-
ies in response to the foreign antigens of HIV.
C. anti-HIV antibodies are effective against the
virus.
D. HIV has not infected host macrophages.

56
Passage III (Questions 150–154)
A chemist investigated the reactivity of four organic

compounds; their melting and boiling points are given in
Table 1. The compounds were treated with an oxidizing
agent and a reducing agent. Their ability to react with Br2
and HBr was also investigated.
Table 2 records the molecular formulas of the reaction

products from these experiments.
Table 1
Compound I II III IV
CH3CH=CHCH3 CH3CH2CH=CH2 CH3C≡CCH3 CH3CH2C≡CH
Melting
point, °C –106/–139 –195 –24 –122
Boiling
point, °C +1/+4 –6 +27 +9
Table 2
Compound I II III IV
H2/Pd C4H10 C4H10 C4H10 C4H10
Br2 C4H8Br2 C4H8Br2 C4H6Br2 C4H6Br2
HBr C4H9Br C4H9Br C4H8Br2 C4H8Br2
Cold, dilute
KMnO4 C4H10O2 C4H10O2
Hot, basic
KMnO4/H+ 2C2H4O2 C3H6O2 + CO2

57
150. Compound I has two melting points because it can 153. Hydrogenation and bromination of Compound I
exist as either of two: occur, respectively, via the mechanisms of:
A. anomers. A. syn addition and anti addition.
B. enantiomers. B. anti addition and syn addition.
C. conformational isomers. C. nucleophilic addition and electrophilic addition.
D. geometric isomers. D. electrophilic addition and nucleophilic addition.
151. What is the name of the product formed when Com- 154. Why do Compound I and Compound II form the
pound I is reacted with hot, basic KMnO4? same product in the reaction with HBr?
A. Acetic acid A. Both have equally stable double bonds
B. 2,3-Butanediol B. Both have equally reactive double bonds
C. Ethanal C. Both obey Markovnikov’s rule
D. Ethylene glycol D. Neither obeys Markovnikov’s rule
152. The reaction of Compound IV with HBr primarily

differs from that of Compound II in that it proceeds
through which of the following intermediates?
A. A secondary carbocation
B. A vinylic anion
C. A vinylic cation
D. A tertiary carbocation

58
Passage IV (Questions 155–160)

Microbe Q Microbe T
An epidemiologist was called in to investigate an out- X X
break of illness following a sewage leak into a city’s water
supply. Blood tests of the affected individuals revealed the Y
presence of an unknown infectious agent, which the epi- Z Y Z
demiologist determined to be either viral or bacterial. Fur-
ther examination determined that the infectious agent was
bacterial, and when the results were more closely ana-
lyzed, it appeared that more than one strain of bacteria was Figure 1
infecting the patients. Four different strains of bacteria,
155. Which of the following techniques would have been
labeled Microbe Q, Microbe R, Microbe S, and Microbe T,
most effective in helping the epidemiologist deter-
were eventually isolated.
mine that the infectious agent was bacterial?
Four different types of nutrient plates were prepared, A. Hybridize the infectious agent with radiolabeled
each containing only four amino acids, and the microbes probes specific for the genes encoding viral
were inoculated onto the plates to determine the essential structural proteins; only viral genes would
amino acids of each strain. Those amino acids that an hybridize.
organism cannot synthesize are said to be essential to that B. Analyze a patient’s serum in a spectrophotome-
organism. ter to measure its absorption wavelength; the
photosynthetic pigments found in all bacteria
Plate 1: cysteine, phenylalanine, serine, threonine would distinguish them from viruses, which
Plate 2: cysteine, phenylalanine, proline, lack such pigments.
tryptophan C. Stain the infectious agent for the presence of
Plate 3: cysteine, proline, threonine, tryptophan RNA; only bacteria would stain positive.
Plate 4: phenylalanine, serine, threonine, tryptophan D. Stain the infectious agent for the presence of
protein; only bacteria would stain positive.
The results are shown below in Table 1.
Table 1 156. Which of the following structures would NOT have

Microbe been detected when the epidemiologist determined
Microbe R’s structural composition?
Q R S T
A. Nuclear membrane
Plate 1 + + – +
B. DNA
Plate 2 – + + +
C. Cell wall
Plate 3 + – – –
D. Ribosomes
Plate 4 – – – +
+ = growth; – = no growth
After the microbes were isolated, it was determined

that Microbe R and Microbe S were not pathogenic. Poten-
tial antibiotics against Microbe Q and Microbe T were then
selected, and the microbes were inoculated onto their
respective growth media. Antibiotic discs X, Y, and Z were
then placed on each nutrient plate. After 24 hours of incu-
bation (enough time to allow growth), the plates were re-
examined. The shaded areas of Figure 1 represent regions
of good bacterial growth.

59
157. According to Table 1, which of the following amino 160. Which of the following would be the easiest method
acids is essential to Microbe Q? to isolate Microbe Q from Microbe T when they
coexist in the same patient?
A. Serine
B. Threonine A. Centrifuge a serum sample from a patient
C. Phenylalanine infected with both bacteria; the two strains
should layer at different levels and could thus be
D. Proline
isolated.
B. Take a blood sample from a patient infected
158. According to Table 1, which of the four nutrient with both bacteria. Put some blood on a nutrient
media could the epidemiologist have used when plate containing only phenylalanine, and some
determining the effectiveness of the antibiotic discs on another plate containing only cysteine. Incu-
against the pathogenic microbes? bate and isolate what grows.
C. Take a blood sample from a patient infected
A. The medium from Plate 1 with both bacteria. Put some blood on a nutrient
B. The medium from Plate 2 plate with all the amino acids except cysteine,
C. The medium from Plate 3 and some on another plate with all the amino
D. The medium from Plate 4 acids except phenylalanine. Incubate and isolate
what grows.
D. There is no way to isolate the two bacteria, since
159. Based on the information in Figure 1, which of the all bacteria are similar in their structure and
following antibiotics would be most effective in nutritional requirements.
treating patients infected with both Microbe Q and
Microbe T?
A. Antibiotic X
B. Antibiotic Y
C. Antibiotic Z
D. Antibiotic Y and Antibiotic Z are equally effective

60
164. Transfusion with which of the following blood types

Questions 161 through 165 are NOT based would cause severe agglutination in a patient with
on a descriptive passage. type B blood, Rh positive?
A. Type B blood, Rh negative
161. The hormone calcitonin acts as a regulator of serum B. Type A blood, Rh positive
Ca2+ levels by promoting the incorporation of Ca2+
C. Type O blood, Rh positive
into bone. Which of the following hormones is antag-
onistic to calcitonin? D. Type O blood, Rh negative
A. Parathyroid hormone
B. Prolactin 165. The graph below plots the transmembrane diffusion
C. ACTH rates for Compound A and Compound B as a function
D. Thyroxine of their extracellular concentrations. Given that both
compounds are approximately the same size, and
there are no facilitated diffusion sites, it can most
162. In a healthy individual, which of the following blood likely be inferred that:
vessels has the highest partial pressure of carbon
dioxide?
transmembrane diffusion rate

A. Pulmonary arteries A
B. Pulmonary veins
C. Aorta
D. Coronary arteries
B
163. Which of the following structures is NOT derived
from embryonic ectoderm?
A. Eye lens extracellular concentration
B. Pituitary gland
C. Digestive tract A. Compound A is polar and Compound B is non-
D. Adrenal medulla polar.
B. Compound A is nonpolar and Compound B is
polar.
C. Compound A is polar and Compound B is polar.
D. Compound A is nonpolar and Compound B is
nonpolar.

61
Passage V (Questions 166–170) 166. Calcium ions stimulate muscle contraction by:
A. binding to the sarcolemma.
A student working in a laboratory accidentally touches
a hot plate with his right hand. An involuntary (reflex) B. binding to troponin.
action that operates through a polysynaptic reflex arc C. causing the formation of permanent actin-
involving two synapses causes him to immediately with- myosin cross-bridges.
draw his hand. This withdrawal is mediated by the follow- D. binding to actin.
ing sequence of events:
1) skin receptors sense “hot” pain 167. Which of the following provides the most plausible
2) stimulation of these receptors leads to the transduc- explanation for the presence of numerous mitochon-
tion of an impulse along a sensory neuron dria in the nerve terminals?
3) the sensory neuron synapses with an interneuron in A. All cells have mitochondria.
the dorsal horn of the spinal cord B. Neurons are aerobic cells.
4) the interneuron synapses with a motor neuron in the C. The diffusion of acetylcholine across a synapse
ventral horn of the spinal cord requires ATP.
5) the motor neuron relays the impulse to the muscles in D. The exocytosis of synaptic vesicles requires
his right arm ATP.
6) the arm muscles react in antagonistic pairs: the
biceps (flexor muscle) contract and the triceps
(extensor muscle) relax 168. If the student’s receptors for the sensation of “hot”
The sensation of pain is also conveyed to the sensory pain had been severed, then the student would have:
cortex; however, this is slower than conduction to the A. felt no pain, and his hand would have remained
motor neuron because the impulse must travel along thin on the hot plate.
myelinated fibers and cross several synapses. B. felt no pain, but would have immediately
removed his hand from the hot plate.
Research has elucidated the chemical and molecular
C. felt pain, but would have been unable to remove
events that produce a reflex contraction. The link between
his hand from the hot plate.
a nerve terminal and the sarcolemma of a muscle fiber is
known as a neuromuscular junction; the space between the D. felt pain, but would have slowly removed his
two is a synapse. The nerve terminal is characterized by hand from the hot plate.
the presence of numerous mitochondria and synaptic vesi-
cles containing the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. Trans-
mission of an impulse to the terminal triggers the release
of acetylcholine into the synapse via exocytosis. The
acetylcholine diffuses across the synapse and then binds to
receptors on the muscle sarcolemma. These receptors form
the extracellular part of ligand-gated ion channels. Recep-
tor binding causes a change in the conformation of the
channels, causing them to open, allowing a rapid influx of
Na+ into the sarcoplasm. This produces an action potential.
The action potential is conducted along the sarcolemma
and the T system into the muscle fiber, triggering the
release of Ca2+ into the sarcoplasm and thereby stimulat-
ing muscle contraction.

62
169. Which of the following best explains why the with-

drawal of a limb from a burning hot plate occurs
faster than the withdrawal of a limb from an uncom-
fortably warm tub of water?
A. Intense heat causes a greater amount of acetyl-
choline to be released into the neuromuscular
junction, producing an action potential of
greater magnitude.
B. Intense heat directly stimulates the sensory
areas of the brain that respond to temperature,
allowing the information to be processed more
rapidly.
C. Intense heat stimulates the secretion of
epinephrine from the neuromuscular junction,
triggering the “fight-or-flight” responses and
decreasing reaction time.
D. Intense heat stimulates a simple reflex involving
only two synapses, allowing the information to
be processed more rapidly.
170. When a strong stimulus such as burning heat is

applied to a limb, the limb’s withdrawal is accompa-
nied by a concomitant extension of the opposite limb;
this is known as the crossed extensor reflex. This
implies that as the student withdraws his right hand
from the hot plate:
A. his right biceps relax and his right triceps con-
tract.
B. his right biceps contract and his right triceps
contract.
C. his left biceps relax and his left triceps contract.
D. his left biceps contract and his right biceps
relax.

63
Passage VI (Questions 171–175) 172. Reaction of alkanes containing equal numbers of pri-
mary and tertiary hydrogens with fluorine produces
Alkanes, in the presence of light, react with halogens approximately equal amounts of each possible prod-
to produce alkyl halides. The reactions result in the substi- uct. By contrast, reaction with bromine produces five
tution of halogen atoms for hydrogen atoms on the carbon times as much tertiary product as primary. Which of
skeleton. The reactions involve free radical intermediates the following statements is most strongly supported
as illustrated in this general mechanism: by these facts and the passage?
A. The reactivity of the halogens is inversely
related to their selectivity between hydrogens in
Initiation: X2 light 2X• (1) free-radical substitutions.
Propagation: RH + X• R• + HX (2) B. Bromine is a more efficient halogenating
reagent for all classes of alkanes than fluorine
X2 + R• RX + X• (3)
is.
(R = alkyl chain, X = F, Cl, Br, I) C. Flourine is less reactive with respect to substitu-
The reactivity of an alkane depends on the types of tion of tertiary hydrogens in alkanes than
hydrogens that are available to be substituted. Differences bromine is.
in the bond strengths, and in the energies of the transition D. Fluorine forms stronger bonds to primary car-
states, make tertiary hydrogens most reactive, followed by bons than bromine does.
secondary and then primary hydrogens. For instance, in
substitution by bromine, tertiary hydrogens are five times
more reactive than primary ones. 173. Light of low intensity is sufficient to cause the alka-
nes and halogens to react because:
The order of reactivity of the halogens is: A. the reactions have low activation energies.
F > Cl > Br > I B. only a small, catalytic amount of X radicals
must be produced in the initiation step.
C. the bonds in the halogen molecules are weak.
171. The chlorination of butane is accompanied by which D. alkanes are very reactive molecules.
of the following?
I. The formation of chiral products
II. No observed change in optical rotation 174. Which of the following represents a chain termina-
tion step?
III. The formation of achiral products
A. Br• + Br2 Br2 + Br•
A. I only
B. Br• + R• RBr
B. III only
C. RH + Br2 RBr + HBr
C. II and III only
D. Br2 + R• RBr + Br•
D. I, II, and III

64
175. What is the IUPAC name of the product formed

when the most reactive hydrogen of 2-methylpropane
is substituted by a bromine atom?
A. 2-bromomethylpropane
B. 2-bromobutane
C. 1-bromo-2-methylpropane
D. 2-bromo-2-methylpropane

65
Passage VII (Questions 176–181) 176. Which of the following activities would you expect
to increase in a tumorigenic cell?
Current theories of carcinogenesis are based on the
I. mRNA synthesis
concept of cellular and viral oncogenes. It is believed that
the genome of any eukaryotic cell contains DNA seg- II. Ribosomal assembly
ments, called proto-oncogenes, that normally code for cell III. Cell division
growth-related proteins such as transcription factors, A. I only
growth factors, growth-factor receptors, and tyrosine
B. I and II only
kinases (enzymes thought to regulate cell division). These
cellular proto-oncogenes can be transformed into tumori- C. II and III only
genic oncogenes (c-onc) by a number of mechanisms. D. I, II, and III
A common mechanism by which a cellular proto-onco-

gene is transformed into a c-onc is point mutation, which 177. A c-onc activated by point mutation differs from the
leads to formation of a defective protein. For example, one proto-oncogene from which it was derived by:
well-studied cellular proto-oncogene codes for the ras pro- A. a single base-pair.
tein. Ras proteins have GTPase activity, and their activity
B. two base-pairs.
is regulated by the presence of GTP or GDP. In the wild-
type protein, growth-factor receptors with tyrosine kinase C. a triplet insertion.
activity stimulate ras to exchange GDP with GTP through D. a triplet deletion.
an indirect process involving intermediate proteins. Ras
then activates the cytosolic kinase (also an oncogene) c-
raf. c-raf then activates MAP kinase-kinase, which in turn 178. Based on the information in the passage, cellular
activates MAP-kinase. MAP-kinase appears capable of proto-oncogenes can become tumorigenic oncogenes
phosphorylating transcription factors in the nucleus. After by all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT:
the appropriate genes have been transcribed, ras GTPase A. a mutation that results in the synthesis of a
activity hydrolyzes GTP, converting ras to its inactive faulty protein.
form. Mutant ras proteins are unable to hydrolyze GTP,
B. a chromosomal translocation that produces an
and therefore remain in the active GTP-bound form.
excess of a protein.
Alternatively, a proto-oncogene may become an onco- C. binding of complementary nucleic acid
gene through a mutation that causes it to produce an excess sequences to proto-oncogene transcripts.
of a normal protein. Such a mutation may place the gene D. a mutation that causes gene amplification of the
under the control of a stronger promoter via either chro- proto-oncogene.
mosomal translocation, or by the integration of a provirus
with a strong promoter in the immediate proximity of the
proto-oncogene. An excess of a normal protein may also
be caused by gene amplification of the proto-oncogene.
Another mechanism of carcinogenesis that also

depends on oncogenes is viral carcinogenesis, which is
caused by transforming viruses. Transforming viruses,
which occur widely in the avian and animal kingdoms, are
retroviruses whose genomes contain oncogenes (called
viral oncogenes, or v-onc) derived from their former
eukaryotic hosts. Such viruses can later cause other host
cells to become tumorigenic.

66
179. Comparison of a v-onc sequence with a correspond-

ing c-onc sequence reveals that the organization of
the viral gene corresponds to the mRNA of the c-onc
gene, rather than to its own genomic organization.
Which of the following best accounts for this obser-
vation?
A. The v-onc gene contains only c-onc introns.
B. The v-onc gene has a greater level of expression
than the corresponding c-onc gene.
C. The v-onc gene was captured from a host cell in
the form of RNA during a retroviral infection.
D. Since retroviral DNA is incorporated into the
cellular genome, the alternating exons and
introns in the v-onc gene are spliced by cellular
enzymes.
180. Which of the following processes function in an anal-

ogous way to ras activity?
A. Formation of antibody-antigen complexes dur-
ing an immune response
B. Sodium-potassium pump in neurons
C. Krebs cycle in mitochondria
D. Second messenger system involving cAMP
181. The incorporation of a strong promoter near a proto-

oncogene may lead to cancer because the stronger
promoter most likely:
A. increases the rate of translation.
B. increases the rate of transcription.
C. increases the rate of translocation.
D. increases the rate of point mutations.

67
Passage VIII (Questions 182–187) 182. According to the passage, an antibody to a particular
human hormone is prepared by immunizing labora-
Radioimmunoassay (RIA) is a technique used for mea- tory animals with an extract of the human hormone.
suring hormone concentrations in blood serum based on Which of the following best explains why this tech-
highly specific antigen-antibody interactions. To carry out nique works?
an RIA for a particular human hormone, an antibody to
A. The lab animal’s immune system recognizes the
that hormone is prepared by immunizing mice or rabbits
human hormone as “foreign,” or antigenic, and
with an extract from the human endocrine gland that pro-
produces antibodies in response to its presence.
duces the hormone. A measured quantity of this antibody
is then mixed with a known concentration of isotopically- B. Human gland cells must first be injected into a
labeled hormone and the blood sample to be assayed, host organism, such as a mouse or rabbit, before
which contains an unknown concentration of unlabeled they can produce the antibodies.
hormone. RIA is based on the principle that as long as C. Human hormones will elicit antibody produc-
there is too little antibody to bind both the labeled hormone tion in mice and rabbits, but not in other ani-
and unlabeled hormone completely, then the unlabeled and mals, such as rats and chimpanzees.
the labeled hormone will compete for antibody-binding D. Immunization with human hormone, prior to
sites. Thus, as the concentration of unlabeled hormone in actual exposure to the hormone, protects the lab
the sample increases, the percentage of antibody-bound animal from infection upon second exposure to
radiolabeled hormone decreases. the hormone.
Hormone concentrations can be calculated by compar-

ing the radioactivity counts obtained from the original RIA 183. An RIA for antidiuretic hormone (ADH) performed
to a standard curve, such as the one shown in Figure 1. To on a healthy person yielded a concentration of 3
generate a standard curve for a particular hormone, RIAs pg/mL. If an RIA were performed on a patient suf-
are performed on a series of solutions containing different fering from severe blood loss, which of the following
known concentrations of unlabeled hormone. After the ADH concentrations would the RIA most likely
radioactivity of each solution is measured, these concen- yield?
trations are then plotted against the percentage of anti-
A. 0.5 pg/mL
body-bound radiolabeled hormone.
B. 2 pg/mL
C. 3 pg/mL
100
A D. 5 pg/mL
radiolabeled hormone
% Antibody-bound
75
B 184. If Figure 1 were the standard curve for FSH, which
50 point on the graph would most likely represent FSH
C concentration in a woman before pregnancy and in
25 her 16th week of pregnancy, respectively?
D
A. Point A and Point D
0 B. Point B and Point D
Hormone concentration
C. Point C and Point D
D. Point B and Point A
Figure 1
For most hormones, the form that circulates in the
blood (the active form) is different from that extracted
from the tissues and used to prepare the antibodies and
standard curve used for RIAs (the precursor form), though
typically, the two forms are very similar in structure and
chemistry.

68
185. RIA is based on the principle that radiolabeled and 187. Suppose that a researcher who wanted to measure the
unlabeled hormone will compete for binding sites on concentration of a particular active hormone unwit-
the antibody. Which of the following conditions tingly used its structurally similar precursor form to
would NOT compromise the validity of an RIA? develop the antibodies and generate the standard
curve used for the RIA. If the researcher then per-
A. The antibody binds the radiolabeled hormone
formed an RIA on a sample of unlabeled active hor-
with a greater affinity than the unlabeled hor-
mone contaminated with unlabeled precursor
mone.
hormone, how would this affect the RIA?
B. The antibody binds the radiolabeled hormone
and the unlabeled hormone with equal affinity. A. The standard curve generated for the precursor
C. There is enough antibody in the solution to com- form would be inaccurate and therefore could
pletely bind with the radiolabeled and the unla- not be used to calculate unknown concentra-
beled hormone. tions of that form.
D. The radiolabeled hormone binds to a site on the B. The percentage of antibody-bound radiolabeled
antibody other than the antigen-binding site, hormone would be greater than normal, because
inducing a conformational change that inhibits there would be twice as much unlabeled hor-
the binding of unlabeled hormone. mone for the radiolabeled hormone to compete
with.
C. The calculated concentration of the active hor-
186. If Figure 1 were the standard curve for insulin, which mone would be greater than its actual concen-
points on the graph would most likely represent the tration, because the antibody would bind to both
serum insulin concentration calculated from the RIA the active hormone and its precursor form.
performed before and 1 hour after glucose infusion, D. The calculated concentration of the active hor-
respectively? mone would be less than its actual concentra-
tion, because the antibody would bind to both
A. Point B and Point A
the active hormone and its precursor form.
B. Point B and Point D
C. Point C and Point C
D. Point C and Point A

69
190. A double-stranded segment of DNA is found to con-

Questions 188 through 192 are NOT based on tain 14% cystosine. What percentage of adenine does
a descriptive passage. the strand contain?
A. 14%
188. Marine and freshwater fish have different problems B. 28%
in maintaining their internal salt and water balances.
C. 36%
Osmosis causes freshwater fish to gain water and
marine fish to lose water. Based on this information, D. 72%
which of the following must be true?
A. Marine fish live in an environment hypertonic 191. An amino acid is subjected to electrophoresis at pH
to their body fluids. 8.5 and is observed to migrate to the anode. The iso-
B. Marine fish live in an environment hypotonic to electric point of this amino acid:
their body fluids.
A. is less than 8.5.
C. Freshwater fish live in an environment hyper-
B. is more than 8.5.
tonic to their body fluids.
C. is equal to 8.5.
D. Freshwater fish live in an environment isotonic
to their body fluids. D. cannot be determined without more information.
189. Myoglobin, which is an oxygen-carrying protein 192. It is hypothesized that the binding of testosterone to
found in muscle tissue, consists of a single polypep- corticosteroid receptors in the hypothalamus of a
tide chain with an attached heme group. In contrast, developing male fetus accounts for the sexual differ-
hemoglobin consists of four heme-carrying polypep- entiation of the human brain. This binding causes the
tide subunits. Which of the following best accounts hypothalamus to switch from cyclic production of
for the difference in shape between the hemoglobin gonadotropin-releasing factors (which is characteris-
and myoglobin oxygen-dissociation curves? tic of females) to acyclic production. This switch,
therefore, is likely to affect the release patterns of:
myoglobin
A. LH.
100
Percent saturation with O2
B. FSH.
80 C. both LH and FSH.
D. neither LH nor FSH.
hemoglobin
60
40
20
0
0 40 80 120
PO (mmHg)
2
A. Bohr effect
B. Cooperative binding of oxygen to myoglobin
C. Difference in PO2 between blood and muscle
D. Cooperative binding of oxygen to hemoglobin

70
Passage IX (Questions 193–198) 194. According to the passage, pancreatic insufficiency in

CF patients can be effectively treated with enzyme
Cystic fibrosis (CF) is the most common autosomal supplementation. Which of the following substances
recessive disease in the Caucasian population. The disease is LEAST likely to be found in such a supplement?
affects 1 in 2500 newborns, and ranges in degree of sever-
A. Lipase
ity even within the same family. In some cases, individu-
als do not survive past the age of five, while in others, B. Trypsin
adults live full lives through careful management. C. Enterokinase
D. Chymotrypsinogen
It has been determined that CF is caused by a mutation
of chromosome 7. In 75% of all CF cases, the mutation
involves a deletion of three base pairs in a DNA sequence 195. What is the probability that a child of two carriers of
that codes for a transmembrane chloride channel. As a the CF gene will be affected with CF?
result of the deletion, the chloride channel is unable to
A. 0%
operate efficiently.
B. 25%
CF is characterized by sticky viscous, mucus secre- C. 50%
tions that impair the normal physiological functions of D. 66%
many organs, most especially the pancreas and lungs.
Patients usually suffer from diarrhea, pancreatic exocrine
insufficiency, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. 196. The discovery that the sweat of children with CF
Breathing is often difficult, and carbon dioxide tends to contained excessive salt led to the measurement of
remain in the blood of CF patients longer than in that of sodium and chloride in sweat as a means of diagnos-
healthy individuals. The diarrhea and pancreatic troubles ing CF. This suggests that, as compared to the trans-
are treated with enzyme supplementation; the respiratory membrane chloride channel coded for by the normal
ailments prove more trying in their treatment. Patients gene, the channel coded by the CF gene:
must undergo intense, daily respiratory therapy, and take
A. transports less chloride from surrounding
heavy doses of antibiotics in order to maintain adequate
epithelial cells into the sweat ducts.
ventilation. One such antibiotic is cephalosporin C, which
is effective against penicillin-resistant bacteria. Despite the B. transports less sodium from surrounding epithe-
rigorous treatments, individuals with CF usually die as a lial cells into the sweat ducts.
result of pneumonia or bacterial infections secondary to C. transports more sodium but less chloride from
the respiratory aspects of the disease. surrounding epithelial cells into the sweat ducts.
D. is unable to transport chloride out of the sweat
ducts and into surrounding epithelial cells.
193. One of the most common bacteria to infect patients

with CF is Staphylococcus. If a sample from a CF
patient were cultured, how would Staphylococcus
appear when stained and viewed under a microscope?
A. Helical
B. Sickle-shaped
C. Rod-like
D. Spherical

71
197. CF patients suffer from pancreatic exocrine insuffi-

ciency as a result of obstruction of the pancreatic
ducts leading into the small intestine. Which of the
following CF symptoms is most likely caused by this
insufficiency?
A. Pulmonary obstruction
B. Fat malabsorption
C. Carbohydrate malabsorption
D. Susceptibility to penicillin-resistant bacteria
198. Based on the information in the passage, compared to

healthy individuals, CF patients most likely have a
blood pH that:
A. is more acidic.
B. is more basic.
C. is the same.
D. fluctuates wildly.

72
Passage X (Questions 199–203) (1) O +

OH
fast
+
Ketones are known to readily react with halogens in H3C C CH3 + H3O H3C C CH3 + H2O
the presence of acid or base to form alpha-halogenated
products. The overall reaction is shown below: (2)
+
OH OH
slow
H+ or OH– H3C C CH3 + H2O H3C C CH2 + H3O+
C C R + X2 C C R + HX
H O X O
(3) OH +
OH
Ketone α-Halo ketone fast
H3C C CH2 + Br2 H3C C CH2Br + Br–
Reaction 1
(4)
+ O
In basic solution (Figure 1), the hydroxide ion removes OH
fast
a proton from the alpha carbon, yielding a carbanion inter- H3C C CH2Br + H2O H3C C CH2Br + H3O+
mediate (Step 1). Finally, the alpha-halogenated ketone is
formed by the addition of a positively polarized bromide to
the carbanion (Step 2):
O O Figure 2
slow
– –
H3C C CH3 + OH H3C C CH2 + H2O
199. What is the function of the hydrogen and hydroxide
ions in the acidic and basic solutions, respectively?
O O A. They both act as catalysts.
fast B. They are both reactants.
H3C C CH2– + Br2 H3C C CH2Br + Br–
C. The hydrogen ion is a reactant, while the
hydroxide ion acts as a catalyst.
D. The hydrogen ion acts as a catalyst, while the
hydroxide ion is a reactant.
Figure 1
Alpha halogenation under acidic conditions (Figure 2)
initially involves protonation of the carbonyl oxygen, 200. In Figure 2, the first two steps are characteristic of
resulting in the formation of an enol (Step 2). This isomerization between which of the following?
molecule then undergoes electrophilic addition to yield I. Tautometers
another intermediate that can then be deprotonated to form
II. Enantiomers
the α-halo ketone (Step 4).
III. Geometric isomers
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. I, II, and III

73
201. Alpha halogenation of acetone in basic solution usu-

ally results in multiple halogenations on the alpha
carbon (known as the Haloform reaction). This reac-
tion occurs because:
A. introduction of the first halogen makes the
remaining α-hydrogens more acidic and there-
fore easily removed by the base.
B. the base is very strong and will easily abstract
protons.
C. α-halo ketones are highly unstable and suscep-
tible to further reaction.
D. the first halogen stabilizes any carbocations that
are formed.
202. From the mechanism drawn in Figure 1, the overall

rate of reaction for alpha halogenation is dependent
on the concentration of which of the following?
I. CH3COCH3
II. Br2
III. OH–
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III only
D. I, II, and III
203. What would be the likely product if acetone was

reacted with methylmagnesium bromide and then
water?
A. Butanone
B. tert-Butyl alcohol
C. tert-Butyl bromide
D. Isopropyl methyl ether

74
Passage XI (Questions 204–209) The active site of ACE consists of two separate
regions. The binding region contains a carboxylate group,
Acetylcholine (AC), a vital neurotransmitter of the which is responsible for attachment to the quaternary
autonomic nervous system, is released by the presynaptic nitrogen atom of acetylcholine. The catalytic region,
knob of a neuron in response to an action potential. Once which is responsible for the esterase activity, contains ser-
acetylcholine has interacted with the receptors of the post- ine (Ser), histidine (His), and tyrosine (Tyr) residues.
synaptic membrane, it is quickly inactivated by acetyl-
cholinesterase (ACE), the principal enzymatic component Figures 1–8 show how the changes in the active site of
of the synaptic cleft. ACE are coupled with the breakdown of acetylcholine.
acetylcholine
1 CH2 2 CH2
H3C O
O
C O –
H3C
OH O C+ OH
OH
CH2
tyr tyr ser
ACE Catalytic Region ACE Catalytic Region

3 CH2 4
H+ OH
O – O choline O
OH
C C
O CH3 O CH3
CH2 CH2
acetylserine
tyr ser tyr ser
5 H 6
O OH–
OH O CH3 H O
+
C N C CH3 NH
O O
CH2 NH CH2 NH
tyr ser his ser his

75
7 OH acetic 8
acid
C
CH3
O
+
NH N
– OH
O
CH2 NH CH2 NH
ser his ser his
204. It can be inferred from the passage that ACE acts to: 207. In what way does protonation of AC by the tyrosine
residue enhance the activity of ACE?
A. prevent AC from being reabsorbed by the presy-
naptic knob. A. It makes choline a better leaving group, thereby
B. prevent AC from being released by the presy- making the reaction of AC with the serine
naptic knob. residue more complete.
C. restore the excitability of the postsynaptic mem- B. It makes AC more susceptible to nucleophilic
brane. attack, thereby making the reaction of AC with
D. restore the excitability of the presynaptic knob. the serine residue more complete.
C. It makes choline a better leaving group, thereby
increasing the rate of the reaction with the ser-
205. Assuming that the carboxylate group in the binding ine residue.
region of ACE is not protonated, what type of inter- D. It makes AC more susceptible to nucleophilic
action is likely to occur between this group and the attack, thereby increasing the rate of the reac-
quaternary nitrogen of acetylcholine? tion with the serine residue.
A. Hydrogen bonding
B. Electrostatic interaction 208. Based on the passage, which of the following is true?
C. Hydrophobic interaction
A. Acetylserine is the product of SN1.
D. London forces
B. Acetylserine is the product of SN2.
C. OH– is a better leaving group than CH3–.
206. In Figure 5, the nitrogen in the imidazole ring D. SerCH2O– is a better leaving group than
becomes protonated because it: choline–.
A. acts as a Lewis base by accepting a lone pair of
electrons
209. The process of acetic acid formation in Figures 6 and
B. acts as a Lewis acid by donating a lone pair of 7 is an example of which of the following reactions?
electrons
C. acts as a Lewis acid by accepting a lone pair of A. Basic hydrolysis of an ester
electrons B. Acidic cleavage of an ether
D. acts as a Lewis base by donating a lone pair of C. Oxidation of an alcohol
electrons D. Decarboxylation of a carboxylic acid

76
213. Which of the following graphs best corresponds to

Questions 210 through 214 are NOT based the optimal pH for pepsin activity?
on a descriptive passage. A. C.
210. Destruction of which of the following organelles
rate of reaction
rate of reaction
would most inhibit intracellular protein digestion?
A. Lysosomes
B. Peroxisomes
C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
D. Ribosomes 2 4 6 8 2 4 6 8
pH pH
211. A researcher is trying to determine the contents of a

B. D.
viral genome. Upon chemical analysis, the nucleic
acid is found to contain 27% cytosine, 27% adenine,
rate of reaction
rate of reaction
23% uracil, and 23% guanine. Based on this data, the
viral genome most likely consists of:
A. single-stranded DNA.
B. double-stranded DNA.
C. single-stranded RNA. 2 4 6 8 2 4 6 8
D. double-stranded RNA. pH pH
212. Which of the following would form the most stable 214. Mammalian fetal circulation is similar to amphibian
carbocation? adult circulation in that:
A. (CH3)2CHBr dissolved in toluene A. gas exchange occurs only in the lungs.
B. (CH3CH2)3COH dissolved in acetone B. gas exchange occurs only in the placenta.
C. (CH3)3COH dissolved in H2SO4 C. the heart has only three chambers prior to birth.
D. CH3CH2I dissolved in diethyl ether D. there is a mixing of oxygenated and deoxy-
genated blood within the heart.
STOP. IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED,

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What is Wien's law and how does it relate temperature to the most intense wavelength of blackbody radiation?

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What happens to photons from the Sun's blackbody radiation as they pass through the cooler gases in the Sun's atmosphere?

02 MCAT FL Test2 06/26/2003 06:05 PM Page 1

DO NOT BEGIN THIS SECTION UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

DIRECTIONS: Most of the questions in the Physical

PERIODIC TABLE OF THE ELEMENTS

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

1. If the temperature of the Sun’s photosphere is 5800 K,

2. Based on the data in the table, what is the approximate

Passage II (Questions 6–12) D. The second half-reaction, proceeding to the right

The lead-acid battery, also called a lead storage battery,

When the battery is being discharged, the following

As a car operates, the battery is recharged by electric- A

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11. Currents as small as 0.1 A can be fatal to humans. If

12. Often in cold weather the battery goes “dead.” Ther-

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14. In which direction do the electrons travel, and in

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16. As current passes through a resistor, the temperature

17. What is the energy delivered to a piece of toast in

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CO2 + H2O H+ + HCO3–

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22. How does the titration of a weak monoprotic acid

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27. In the figure below, aqueous solutions A and B are

24. The mouthpiece of a telephone handset has a mass of

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Passage V (Questions 29–33)

30. How does heat increase the conductivity of a semi-

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33. If the semiconductor orientation in Figure 2 were

GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.

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37. A laser produces light with a wavelength of 200 nm

38. Why is stimulated emission of photons necessary in

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D. its half-life is too short.

39. The bones of a living human adult contain about 8

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43. In generating 14C in the upper atmosphere, a 14N

44. After a 14C nucleus decays, the electron that is emit-

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A. 1.0 bar and 874 K

As4O6 + 12Zn(s) + 24H+(aq) →

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47. If equal masses of gray arsenic and yellow arsenic

49. A common ore of arsenic is called orpiment, As2S3.

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53. Which of the following will halve the magnitude of

52. If a spring is 64 cm long when it is unstretched and is

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57. How will v0 change if the impulse on the softball

θ A. It will decrease by a factor of 4.

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58. What is the ratio of the horizontal distance traveled