P160

INDIAN ASSOCIATION OF PHYSICS TEACHERS

NATIONAL STANDARD EXAMINATION IN PHYSICS 2018 -19

Date of Examination: 25TH November, 2018

Time: 0830 to 1030 Hrs

Q. Paper Code: P160

Write the question paper code mentioned above on YOUR answer sheet (in the
space provided), otherwise your answer sheet will NOT be assessed. Note that
the same Q. P. Code appears on each page of the question paper.
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Incomplete/ incorrect/carelessly filled information may disqualify your candidature.
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accessing performance report. Please take care while entering.
6. Question paper has two parts. In part A1 (Q. No. 1 to 60) each question has four alternatives, out
of which only one is correct. Choose the correct alternative and fill the appropriate bubble, as
shown.

In part A2 (Q. No. 61 to 70) each question has four alternatives out of which any number of
alternative (1, 2, 3 or 4) may be correct. You have to choose ALL correct alternatives and fill the
appropriate bubbles, as shown

7. For Part A1, each correct answer carries 3 marks whereas 1 mark will be deducted for each
wrong answer. In Part A2, you get 6 marks if all the correct alternatives are marked. No negative
marks in this part.
8. Any rough work should be done only in the space provided.
9. Use of non-programmable calculator is allowed.
10. No candidate should leave the examination hall before the completion of the examination.
11. After submitting your answer paper, take away the Candidate’s copy for your reference.

Please DO NOT make any mark other than filling the appropriate bubbles properly in the space
provided on the answer sheet.

Answer sheets are evaluated using machine, hence CHANGE OF ENTRY IS NOT ALLOWED.

Scratching or overwriting may result in a wrong score.

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DO NOT WRITE ON THE BACK SIDE OF THE ANSWER SHEET.

Instructions to Candidates (continued) –

Read the following instructions after submitting the answer sheet.

12. Comments regarding this question paper, if any, may be filled in Google forms only at
https://goo.gl/forms/9GP03NRgUVuhWJn52 till 28th November, 2017.
13. The answers/solutions to this question paper will be available on our website –
www.iapt.org.in by 2nd December, 2017.
14. CERTIFICATES and AWARDS –
Following certificates are awarded by the IAPT to students successful in NSEs

(i) “Centre Top 10%” that will be sent to NSE centre by post.
th
(ii) “Statewise Top 1%” that can be downloaded after Feb -15 , 2019 from iapt.org.in
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(iii) “National Top 1%”. Certificates can be downloaded after Feb -15 , 2019 iapt.org.in

15. Result sheets can be downloaded from our website in the month of February. The “Centre Top
10%” certificates will be dispatched to the Prof-in-charge of the centre by February, 2018.
16. List of students (with centre number and roll number only) having score above MAS will be
displayed on our website (www.iapt.org.in) by 22nd December, 2017. See the Eligibility Clause in
the Student’s brochure on our website.
17. Students eligible for the INO Examination on the basis of selection criteria mentioned in
Student’s brochure will be informed accordingly.

Physical constants you may need…

Magnitude of charge on electron e = 1.60 × 10-19 C Mass of electron me = 9.10 × 10-31 kg

Universal gas constant R = 8.31 J/mol K Planck constant h = 6.62 × 10-34 Js

Stefan constant σ = 5.67 × 10-8 W/m2K4 Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10-23 J/K

Mass of proton mp = 1.67 × 10-27 kg Faraday constant = 96,500 C/mol

Boiling point of nitrogen = 77.4 K Boiling point of oxygen = 90.19 K

Boiling point of hydrogen = 20.3 K Boiling point of helium = 4.2 K

Universal gravitational constant G = 6.67 × 10-11 Nm2/ Kg2 Permittivity of free space ε0 = 8.85 × 10-12 C2/Nm2

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INDIAN ASSOCIATION OF PHYSICS TEACHERS
NATIONAL STANDARD EXAMINATION IN PHYSICS 2018-19
Total Time : 120 minutes ( A-1 and A-2 )
A–1
ONLY ONE OUT OF FOUR OPTIONS IS CORRECT.

1) The SI unit of permeability of free space is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

2) A uniform solid drum of radius R and mass M rolls without slipping down a plane
inclined at an angle θ. Its acceleration along the plane is

(a) g sinθ (b) g sinθ (c) g sinθ (d) g sinθ

3) A particle moves according to the law x = at, y = at (1 t) where a and are positive
constants and t is time. The time instant at which velocity makes an angle with
acceleration is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

4) The potential energy of a particle of mass m in a conservative force field can be expressed
as U = where (x, y) denote the position coordinates of the body. The acceleration
of the body is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

5) A constant force F applied to the lower block of mass 15 kg makes it slide between the
upper block of mass 5 kg and the table below, as shown. The coefficients of static
and kinetic friction between the lower block and the table are 0.5 and 0.4
respectively and those between the two blocks are 0.3 and 0.1. The accelerations of the
upper and the lower blocks are respectively

5 kg

15 kg F

(a) 1.96 m/s2 and 1.96 m/s2 b) 1.96 m/s2 and 3.92 m/s2
(c) 0.98 m/s2 and 0.49 m/s2 d) 0.98 m/s2 and 1.96 m/s2
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6) Two bodies of equal masses moving with equal speeds make a perfectly inelastic
collision. If the speed after the collision is reduced to half, the angle between their
velocities of approach is

(a) 30o (b) 60o (c) 90o (d) 120o

7) A student performs an experiment with a simple pendulum and records the time for 20
oscillations. If he would have recorded time for 100 oscillations, the error in the
measurement of time period would have reduced by a factor of

(a) 80 (b) 20 (c) 10 (d) 5

8) A satellite is launched from a point close to the surface of the earth (radius R) with a
velocity v = v0 , where v0 is the velocity in a circular orbit. If the initial velocity
imparted to the satellite is horizontal, the maximum distance from the surface of the earth
during its revolution is

(a) R (b) 2R (c) 3R (d) 4R

9) The aperture diameter of a plano-convex lens is 6 cm and its thickness is 3 mm. If the
speed of light through its material is v = 2 108 m/s, the focal length of the lens is

(a) 40 cm. (b) 35 cm. (c) 30 cm. (d) 20 cm.

10) Under standard conditions of temperature and pressure a piece of ice melts completely on
heating it. Obviously the increase in internal energy of the system (ice and water) is

(a) equal to the heat given.

(b) more than the heat given.
(c) less than the heat given.
(d) zero.

11) Rocket fuel is capable of giving an exhaust velocity of vrel = 2.4 km/s in the absence of
any external forces. The fuel required per kg of the payload to provide an exhaust velocity
of 12 km/s to the rocket is

(a) 3670 kg (b) 8000 kg (c) 147.4 kg (d) 478.4 kg

12) A vertical spring of length l0 and force constant K is stretched by l when a mass m is
suspended from its lower end. By pulling the mass down a little the system is left off to
oscillate. The time period of oscillation is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

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13) Let R be the radius of the earth. In general, the loss of gravitational potential energy of a
body of mass m falling from a height h to the earth surface is

(a) mgh (b) mgh (c) mgh (d) mgh

14) The velocity of a projectile at the highest point of its trajectory is of its velocity at a
point at half its maximum height. The angle of projection is

(a) 30o (b) 45o (c) 60o (d) tan-1( )

15) The combination of a steel wire (length 80 cm, area of cross section 1 mm2) and an
aluminium wire (length 60 cm, area of cross section 3 mm2) joined end to end is stretched
by a tension of 160 N. If the densities of steel and aluminium are 7.8 g/cc and 2.6 g/cc
respectively then, the minimum frequency of a tuning fork which can produce standing
waves in the composite wire, with the joint as a node, is

(a) 179 Hz. (b) 358 Hz. (c) 88 Hz. (d) 118 Hz.

16) In a stationary wave

(a) all the medium particles vibrate in the same phase.

(b) all the particles between two consecutive nodes vibrate in the same phase.
(c) any two consecutive nodes vibrate in the same phase.
(d) all the particles between two consecutive antinodes vibrate in the same phase.

17) An empty earthen pitcher is kept under a water tap and starts filling with water as the tap
is opened. The pitch of the sound produced

(a) goes on decreasing.

(b) goes on increasing.
(c) first increases and then decreases after the pitcher is half filled.
(d) does not change.

18) The molar specific heat of an ideal gas in a certain thermodynamic process is where is
a constant. If the adiabatic exponent is , the work done in heating the gas from T0 to
nT0 is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

19) An aircraft flies at a speed v from city A to city B and back in time t0. City B is to the east
of city A at a distance d. The aircraft takes time t1 for the round trip if wind blows with
speed w along AB and time t2 if the wind blows with the same speed perpendicular to AB.
Then,

(a) t1 = t2 = t0 (b) t1 > t2 > t0 (c) t1 < t2 < t0 (d) t1 > t0 > t2
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20) The Hubble telescope in orbit above the earth has a 2.4 m circular aperture. The telescope
has equipment for detecting ultraviolet light. The minimum angular separation between
two objects that the telescope can resolve in ultraviolet light of wavelength 95 nm is
(a) 4.83 10-8 rad (b) 4.03 10-8 rad (c) 2.41 10-8 rad (d) 2.00 10-8 rad

21) A projectile is fired from ground with velocity u at an angle with the horizontal. It
would be moving perpendicular to its initial direction of projection after a time t equal to

(a) (b) (c) (d)

22) The critical angle for light passing from glass to air is minimum for the light of
wavelength

(a) 0.7 m (b) 0.6 m (c) 0.5 m (d) 0.4 m

23) A thin hollow equiconvex lens, silvered at the back, converges a beam of light parallel to
the principal axis at a distance 0.2 m. When filled with water ( ), the same beam will
be converged at a distance of
(a) 0.40 m. (b) 0.20 m. (c) 0.12 m. (d) none of the above

24) An air bubble is situated at a distance 2.0 cm from the centre of a spherical glass paper-
weight of radius 5.0 cm and refractive index 1.5. The bubble is seen through the nearest
surface. It appears at a distance v from the centre. Therefore, v is

(a) 3.75 cm. (b) 3.25 cm. (c) 2.50 cm. (d) 3.80 cm.

25) A student while performing experiment with a sonometer with bridges separated by a
distance of 80 cm, missed out some of the observations. However, he claimed that the
three resonant frequencies for a given tuning fork were 84, 140 and 224 Hz. The speed of
transverse waves on the wire is
(a) 33.30 m/s. (b) 330.0 m/s. (c) 44.80 m/s. (d) 448.0 m/s.

26) Which of the following curves represents spectral distribution of energy of black body
radiation?

E E

λ λ
(a) (b)

E E

λ λ
r1( 6 (d)
c)
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27) A sphere and a cube having equal surface area are made of the same material. The two are
heated to the same temperature and kept in identical surrounding. The ratio of their initial
rates of cooling is

(a) 1 : 1 (b) :1 (c) :1 (d) :1

28) Consider the diffraction pattern due to a single slit. The first maximum for a certain
monochromatic light coincides with the first minimum for red light of wavelength 660
nm. The wavelength of the monochromatic light is

(a) 660 nm. (b) 550 nm. (c) 440 nm. (d) 330 nm.

29) A concave lens of focal length f produces an image (1/n) times the size of the object. The
distance of the object from the lens is
(a) (n + 1) f (b) (c) (d) (n 1) f

30) The Sun having radius R and surface temperature T, emits radiation as a perfect emitter.
The distance of the earth from the sun is r and the radius of the earth is Re. The total
radiant power incident on the earth is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

31) A cylinder containing water (refractive index 4/3) is covered by an equiconvex glass
(refractive index 3/2) lens of focal length 25 cm. At the mid-day when the sun is just
overhead, the image of the sun will be seen at a distance of
(a) 100 cm. (b) 50 cm. (c) 37.5 cm. (d) 25 cm.

32) A rectangular loop carrying a current is placed in a uniform magnetic field. The net force
acting on the loop
(a) depends on the direction and magnitude of the current.
(b) depends on the direction and magnitude of the magnetic field.
(c) depends on the area of the loop.
(d) is zero.

33) The capacitor in the circuit shown

12 V
below carries a charge of 30 C at a
certain time instant. The rate at which
energy is being dissipated in the 3kΩ
resistor at that instant is 3kΩ

(a) 4 mW (b) 9 mW
(c) 27 mW (d) 48 mW 10 μF

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34) A hollow conducting sphere of radius 15 cm has a uniform surface charge density
+3.2 C/m2. When a point charge q is placed at the centre of the sphere, the electric field
at 25 cm from the centre just reverses its direction keeping the magnitude the same.
Therefore, q is

(a) + 0.91 C (b) 0.91 C (c) + 1.81 C (d) 1.81 C

35) An electron (e) and a proton (p) are situated on the straight line as shown below. The
directions of the electric field at the points 1, 2 and 3 respectively, are shown as

1 p 2 e 3

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

36) In the circuit shown R1 R2. The

reading in the galvanometer is the same R3
R1
with switch S open or closed. Then,

I1
(a) I1 = IG (b) I2 = IG S
I2
(c) I3 = IG (d) I4 = IG

R2 IG G

I
4

37) A thin wire of length 1 m is placed perpendicular to the XY plane. If it is moved with
velocity m/s in the region of magnetic induction Wb/m2. The
potential difference developed between the ends of the wire is

(a) zero. (b) 3 V. (c) 15 V. (d) 17 V.

38) A steel cooking pan has copper coating at its bottom. The thickness of copper coating is
half the thickness of steel bottom. The conductivity of copper is three times that of steel.
If the temperature of blue flame is 119 oC and that of the interior of the cooking pan is
91oC, then the temperature at the interface between the steel bottom and the copper
coating in the steady state is

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(a) 98oC (b) 103oC (c) 115oc (d) 108oC

39) The total capacitance between points A and B in the arrangement shown below is

3 µF
(a) 28 F
(b) F A
(c) 23 F 2 µF 5 µF

(d) F

1 µF 4 µF 6 µF 7 µF

40) A fiber sheet of thickness 1 mm and a mica sheet of thickness 2 mm are introduced
between two metallic parallel plates to form a capacitor. Given that the dielectric strength
of fiber is 6400 kV/m and the dielectric constants of fiber and mica are 2.5 and 8
respectively, the electric field inside the mica sheet just at the breakdown of fiber will be

(a) 2000 kV/m (b) 2048 kV/m (c) 3200 kV/m (d) 6400 kV/m

41) The position vector of a point mass is expressed as The trajectory of the
particle is

(a) a straight line. (b) a parabola. (c) a hyperbola. (d) none of the above.

42) In a series LCR circuit fed with an alternating emf E = E0 sin ωt,

(a) the voltage across L is in phase with the applied emf E.

(b) the voltage across C is in phase with the applied emf E.
(c) the voltage across R is in phase with the applied emf E.
(d) the voltages across L, C and R are all in phase with the applied emf E.

43) A conducting wire is bent in the form of a n sided regular polygon enclosed by a circle of
radius R. The magnetic field produced at its centre by a current i flowing through the wire
is

(a) (b) (c) (d)

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44) The effective resistance between points A and B in the circuit arrangement shown below
is

A
10 Ω 10 Ω
(a) 14 Ω.
(b) 15 Ω.
(c) 30 Ω. 10 Ω 10 Ω 10 Ω
(d) none of the above.
10 Ω 10 Ω
B

45) The magnetic dipole moment of an electron in the S state of hydrogen atom revolving in a
circular orbit of radius 0.0527 nm with a speed 2.2 106 m/s is

(a) 4.64 10-24 Am2 (b) 9.28 10-24 Am2 (c) 18.56 10-24 Am2 (d) 2.32 10-24 Am2

46) A steel cable hanging vertically can support a maximum load W. The cable is cut to
exactly half of its original length, the maximum load that it can support now is

(a) W. (b) . (c) 2W. (d) more than but less than W.

47) The strings AB and AC each of length 40 cm, connect a ball of mass 200 g to a vertical
shaft as shown. When the shaft rotates at a constant angular speed ω, the ball travels in a
horizontal circle with the strings inclined at γ = 30o to the shaft. If the tension in the string
AC is 4 N, that in the string AB and the angular speed ω respectively, are

B
(a) 6.26 N and 11.32 rad/s
(b) 7.92 N and 14.32 rad/s
(c) 7.92 N and 11.32 rad/s
(d) 6.26 N and 14.32 rad/s A

48) A tightly wound long solenoid carries a current 5 A. An electron shot perpendicular to the
solenoid axis inside it revolves at a frequency 108 rev/s. The number of turns per meter
length of the solenoid is

(a) 57 (b) 176 (c) 569 (d) 352

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49) The same alternating voltage v = V0 sin(ωt) is applied in both the LCR circuits shown
below. The current through the resistance R at resonance is

~v ~v
Fig 1 Fig 2

(a) maximum in Fig. (1) and maximum in Fig. (2).

(b) minimum in Fig. (1) and maximum in Fig. (2).
(c) maximum in Fig. (1) and minimum in Fig. (2).
(d) minimum in Fig. (1) and minimum in Fig. (2).

50) The switch S in the circuit shown is closed for a long time and then opened at time t = 0.
The current in the 100 kΩ resistance at t = 3s is

(a) zero. 100 μF

(b) 48 µA.
(c) 35.5 µA. 100 kΩ
(d) 16 µA.

V 150 kΩ
51) In the network shown below the voltage V0 is nearly

(a) 10 volt. Si Ge
(b) 11 volt. 11 V V0
(c) 12 volt.
(d) zero volt. 5 kΩ

52) The energy of the characteristic X-ray photon in a Coolidge tube comes from

(a) the kinetic energy of striking electron.

(b) the kinetic energy of the free electrons of the target.
(c) the kinetic energy of the ions of the target.
(d) the electronic transition of the target atom.

53) The maximum wavelength that can ionize a hydrogen atom initially in the ground state is

(a) 660.0 nm. (b) 364.5 nm. (c) 121.9 nm. (d) 91.4 nm.

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54) The wavelength of the waves associated with a proton and a photon are the same.
Therefore, the two have equal

(a) mass. (b) velocity. (c) momentum. (d) kinetic energy.

55) Which of the following sources emits light having highest degree of coherence?

(a) Light Emitting Diode.

(b) LASER diode.
(c) Neon lamp.
(d) Incandescent lamp.

56) An alpha particle with kinetic energy K approaches a stationary nucleus having atomic
number Z. The distance of closest approach is b. Therefore the distance of closest
approach for a nucleus of atomic number 2Z is

(a) b/2. (b) b. (c) 2 b. (d) 4 b.

57) In a photodiode the reverse current increases when exposed to light of wavelength 620 nm
or less. The band gap of the semiconductor used is

(a) 0.67 eV. (b) 1.12 eV. (c) 2.00 eV. (d) 2.42 eV.

58) An electron in hydrogen atom jumps from a level n = 4 to n = 1. The momentum of the
recoiled atom is

(a) 6.8 10-27 kg-m/s (b) 12.75 10-19 kg-m/s (c) 13.6 10-19 kg-m/s (d) zero.

59) For the Boolean equation Y = AB + A(B + C) + B(B + C) + , which of the following
statements is correct?

(a) Y does not depend on A but depends on B.

(b) Y does not depend on B but depends on A.
(c) Y does not depend on B.
(d) Y depends only on C.

60) Refer to the common emitter amplifier circuit shown below, using a transistor with = 80
and VBE = 0.7 volt. The value of resistance RB is

RB 2.5 kΩ

VCE = 3 V
6V
4V

(a) 330 Ω. (b) 330 kΩ. (c) 220 Ω. (d) 220 kΩ.
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A2

61) A horizontal insulated cylinder of volume V is divided into four identical compartments
by stationary semi-permeable thin partitions as shown. The four compartments from left
are initially filled with 28 g helium, 160 g oxygen, 28 g nitrogen and 20 g hydrogen
respectively. The left partition lets through hydrogen, nitrogen and helium while the right
partition lets through hydrogen only.The middle partition lets through hydrogen and
nitrogen both. The temperature T inside the entire cylinder is maintained constant. After
the system is set in equilibrium,

He O N H2
2 2

(a) pressure of helium is .

(b) pressure of oxygen is .
(c) pressure of nitrogen is .
(d) pressure of hydrogen is .

62) After charging a capacitor C to a potential V, it is connected across an ideal inductor L.

The capacitor starts discharging simple harmonically at time t = 0. The charge on the
capacitor at a later time instant is q and the periodic time of simple harmonic oscillations
is T. Therefore,

(a) q = CV sin ( t) (b) q = CV cos ( t)

(c) T = 2 (d) T = 2

63) In the circuit arrangement shown I1 I3 E1

two cells supply a current I to a
load resistance R = 9 Ω. One cell
has an emf E1 = 9 V and internal I E rS
2 2 2
resistance r1 = 1 Ω and the other
cell has an emf E2 = 6 V and
internal resistance r2 = 3 Ω. The I
currents are as shown. Then, R12
(a) I1 = 0.9 A and I2 = 0.5 A.
(b) I 0.85 A.
(c) if the cell of emf E1 is removed, current I will be smaller.
(d) if the cell of emf E2 is removed, current I will be smaller.
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64) A transparent cylindrical rod of length l = 50 cm, radius R = 10 cm and refractive index
lies onto a horizontal plane surface. A ray of light moving perpendicular to its
length is incident on the rod horizontally at a height h above the plane surface such that
this ray emerges out of the rod at a height 10 cm above the plane surface. Therefore, h is

(a) 1.34 cm. (b) 1.73 cm. (c) 10.0 cm (d) 18.66 cm.

65) Two point charges +1 C and 1 C are placed at points (0, 0.1 m) and (0, +0.1 m)
respectively in XY plane. Then, choose the correct statement/s from the following.

(a) The electric field at all points on the Y axis has the same direction.
(b) The dipole moment is 0.2 C-m along + X axis direction.
(c) No work has to be done in bringing a test charge from infinity to the origin.
(d) Electric field at all points on the X axis is along + Y axis.

66) An inductance L, a resistance R and a battery B are connected in series with a switch S.
The voltages across L and R are VL and VR respectively. Just after closing the switch S,

(a) VL will be greater than VR.

(b) VL will be less than VR.
(c) VL will be the same as VR.
(d) VL will decrease while VR will increase as time progresses.

67) A string of length l, tied to the top of a pole, carries a ball at its other end as shown. On
giving the ball a single hand blow perpendicular to the string, it acquires an initial velocity
v0 in the horizontal plane and moves in a spiral of decreasing radius by curling itself
around the pole. Therefore,

(a) the instantaneous centre of revolution of the ball is the point of

contact of the string with the pole at that instant.
(b) the instantaneous centre of revolution of the ball will be fixed at the
point where the string was initially fixed.
(c) the angular momentum of the system will not be conserved.
(d) the angular momentum of the system will be conserved.

68) A circular loop of conducting wire of radius 1 cm is cut at a point A on its circumference.
It is then folded along a diameter through A such that the two semicircular loops lie in
two mutuially perpendicular planes. In this region a uniform magnetic field of
magnitude 100 mT is directed perpendicular to the diameter through A and makes angles
of 30o and 60o with the planes of the two semicircles. The magnetic field reduces at a
uniform rate from 100 mT to zero in a time interval of 4.28 ms. Therefore,

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(a) instantaneous emf in the two loops are in the ratio : 1.
(b) instantaneous emf in the two loops are in the ratio : 1.
(c) the total emf between free ends at point A is 5 mV.
(d) the total emf between free ends at point A is 1.4 mV.

69) A converging lens of focal length 40 cm is fixed at 40 cm in front of a screen. An object

placed 120 cm from the fixed lens is required to be focused on the screen by introducing
another identical lens in between. The second lens should be placed at a distance x from
the object where x is

(a) 40 cm. (b) 50 cm. (c) 140 cm. (d) 150 cm.

70) Mysteriously a charged particle moving with velocity entered the tube of
Thomson’s apparatus where the parallel metallic plates of length 5 cm along X axis are
separated by 2 cm. Under the influence of a magnetic field (4.57 10-2 ) T, the
particle is found to deflect by an angle of 5.7o. When a potential of 2000 volt is applied
between the two plates, the particle is found to move straight to the screen without any
deflection. Then,

(a) the velocity = 2.19 106 m/s.

(b) the charge to mass ratio of the particle is 9.58 107 C/kg.
(c) radius of the circular path in the magnetic field is 50 cm. .
(d) the particle is identified as a proton.

-x-x-x-x-x-x-

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ROUGH SHEET

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