SAP PO 7.

5
BIT500 (59)

Unit 1: SAP Process Integration Architecture

1. Which of the following tools are used to access the SAP Process Integration components?
a) SAP NetWeaver Developer Studio
b) Enterprise Services Builder
c) Integration Builder
d) Workflow Builder

2. What are the elements that determine the uniqueness of an object in the Enterprise
Service Repository?
a) The name of the object
b) The name of the software component with which the object is associated
c) The associated namespace
d) The number of objects

3. You can use _________ to bundle all the configuration objects that belong to a single
Interface scenario.
a) Configuration scenario
b) Advanced Adapter Engine (AAE)
c) Integration Engine (IE)

4. The Enterprise Services Repository (ESR) is in the Process Composer perspective.

a) True
b) False

5. Which of the following are potential uses of the Advanced Adapter Engine Extended
(AEX)?
a) Controlling the routing of message exchange between applications
b) Enabling major scenario shifts from dual stack PI to AAE
c) Monitoring the exchange of messages between the involved systems
d) Managing the various versions of the services provided by the ESB

Unit 2: The System Landscape Directory (SLD)

1. Product versions are software units that can be installed on your system and do not run
Independently of other software.
a) True
b) False

2. You choose _________ on the System Landscape Directory (SLD) initial screen to display
the products and software components along with their version.
a) Software Catalog
b) Technical Systems
c) Business Systems

3. The Enterprise Service Repository (ESR) within the software component version stores
detailed information about the _______ of a software component.
a) External interfaces
b) Internal interface
4. Which of the following technical system types can you enter in the SLD? Select all that
apply.
a) AS ABAP
b) AS JAVA
c) TREX
d) Third-party systems

5. The Java component SLD data supplier is deployed and started for the SAP NetWeaver AS
Java server.
a) True
b) False

6. The example technical system landscape used in this lesson consists of three third-party
type application systems and client 800 of the SAP Process Integration system.
a) True
b) False

7. Each time data is transferred between two systems, identify the ________ interface and
the ________ interface.
a) Sender outbound, receiver inbound
b) Receiver outbound, sender outbound
c) Receiver outbound, sender inbound
d) Receiver inbound, sender inbound

8. When using a single System Landscape Directory (SLD) for your entire system landscape,
define groups of ______________________ so that you can map and manage each part of
your system landscape independently.
a) Technical systems and transport targets
b) Business systems and transport targets
c) Communication channels and transport targets

Unit 3: Interface Objects in the Enterprise Service Repository (ESR)

1. Based on common usage of various user groups or roles, SAP delivers _______ predefined
usage profiles.
a) Two
b) Three
c) Five

2. You browse for services in the ___________.

a) Enterprise Services Workplace
b) Enterprise Services Repository
c) Enterprise Repository Widgets

3. SAP uses core data types and ________ data types to create the signature of enterprise
services.
a) Aggregated
b) Global
c) Freely modeled
4. A message type can be used for both _____________ and ________ service interfaces.
a) outbound, inbound
b) aggregated, total
c) outbound, external outbound mapping

5. The _________ acts as a central point of information for all interfaces.

a) Software component
b) Enterprise Services Repository (ESR)
c) Imported object

6. You can import interfaces with structures that have not been defined using Web Service
Description Language (WSDL), eXtensible Markup Language Schema Definition (XSD), or
Data Type Definition (DTD) into the Enterprise Services Repository (ESR).
a) True
b) False

7. Identify the basic interface patterns available.

a) Stateless and stateful communications
b) Stateful and Tentative Update & Confirm/Compensate (TUCC)
c) Stateless and Tentative Update & Confirm/Compensate (TUCC)

Unit 4: Object Mapping in the Enterprise Service Repository (ESR)

1. You can import external XML files into the message mapping as structure templates.
a) True
b) False

2. In a target field mapping, you create rules that define the source fields used to determine
the result value for each target field.
a) True
b) False

3. A(n) __________ defines how the fields of the inbound message are to be mapped to the
fields of a message that is sent to the receiver system.
a) structure mapping
b) value mapping
c) outbound interface
d) inbound interface

Unit 5: Configuration of Integration Directory (ID) Communication Objects

1. Which of the following tools are used for creating the configuration view for the integrated
configuration?
a) Central Advanced Adapter Engine (AAE)
b) Non-central AAE
c) Advanced Adapter Engine Extended (AEX)
d) System Landscape Directory (SLD)

2. There are ______ types of senders or receivers of a message in SAP Process Integration
(PI) JAVA.
a) Three
 b) Two
c) Five

Unit 6: Configuration of Integration Directory Objects for Advanced

Adapter Engine Extended Processing

1. The _______ is a cost-saving option compared to a full installation of SAP Process

Integration (PI).
a) Advanced Adapter Engine (AAE)
b) Advanced Adapter Engine Extended (AEX)
c) System Landscape Directory (SLD)
d) Enterprise Service Repository (ESR)

2. When an integration flow is complete, it is deployed to the runtime, where the actual
execution of ______________ takes place.
a) a classic integration
b) a process integration
c) an integrated integration
d) an extended integration

Unit 7: SAP Process Integration Operations

1. Which of the following work areas are included in operation management?

a) Java Naming and Directory Interface (JNDI) browser
b) Data archiving cockpit
c) Java class loader viewer

2. SAP NetWeaver Administration (NWA) requires you to install software locally.

a) True
b) False

Unit 8- Connectivity Options for SAP Process Integration

1. The central Advanced Adapter Engine (AAE) is used because of large data volumes or for
load balancing.
a) True
b) False

2. The mail adapter enables you to connect e-mail servers to the Integration Engine (IE).
a) True
b) False

3. Which adapter is required for communication using proxy technology?

a) Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP) adapter
b) Exchange Infrastructure adapter
c) Mail adapter
Unit 9: HTTP Connectivity Options

1. Which of the following requests is used to select the process integration main message
payload and the process integration message attachments from a generic multipart
request?
a) URL parameter
b) Generic multipart request
c) Form-submit request
d) Form-based file upload

2. The sender uses the Uniform Resource Locator (URL) for the HyperText Transfer Protocol
(HTTP) request.
a) True
b) False

3. The Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP) receiver adapter requires the _________ for its
functioning.
a) Advanced Adapter Engine (AAE)
b) Communication channel
c) Integration Engine (IE)

4. For the Java development environment, the proxy objects are generated directly in the
ESR as a Java archive and this is then made available to the Java server.
a) True
b) False

5. A server method includes the creation of application logic that is executed for an inbound
message.
a) True
b) False

6. An inbound service interface corresponds to a client or consumer proxy.

a) True
b) False

7. Which of the following interface technologies use Web service technology?

a) Stateless interface pattern
b) Stateless (XI 3.0-compatible)
c) Abstract service interface

Unit 10: File Adapter Configuration

1. You can configure the receiver file/FTP adapter by using a ______________ in the
Integration Directory (ID).
a) communication component
b) communication channel
c) sender component

2. The sender __________ adapter can read files and send them to SAP Process Integration
(PI) message processing.
 a) HTTP
b) File/FTP
c) ABAP

Unit 11- Intermediate Document (IDoc) Connectivity Options

1. You can find details about Intermediate Document (IDoc) types in transaction code WE60.
a) True
b) False

2. Which of the following objects supports serialization?

a) Intermediate Documents (IDocs) received through a queued Remote Function Call
(qRFC) interface mapped to an Exactly Once In Order (EOIO) Quality of Service (QoS)
b) ALEAUD packages
c) IDoc packaging on receiver side to send multiple IDocs at once to the IDoc
outbound packaging

3. Which tab page contains the SET FLAT File conversion option?
a) RFC Parameters
b) Module
c) Optional Parameters
d) Advanced

4. As of SAP Process Integration (PI) 7.31, the default values can be overwritten by
configuring values in the corresponding receiver channel.
a) True
b) False
5. Application Resources shows the default source of metadata for the IDoc types.
a) True
b) False

Unit 12: Configuration of SAP Business Application Programming

Interfaces (BAPIs) Connectivity

1. How does an exception behave when the Remote-Enabled Function Module triggers it?
a) The exception displays a Fault message.
b) The exception displays a Success message.
c) The exception displays a XML message.

2. The COMMIT WORK statement is required in another function module to write data in the
database.
a) True
b) False

3. The RFC adapter is located on the Java Enterprise Edition (JEE) Engine
a) True
b) False
4. For processing a request, a _________ must be available on Process Integration (PI).
a) server routing
b) technical routing
c) sender agreement

Unit 13 - Other Connectivity Options

1. The SuccessFactors (SFSF) adapter supports which of the following message protocols?
a) Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP)
b) OData
c) Electronic Data Interchange (EDI)
d) Representational State Transfer (REST)

Unit 14 - Advanced Mapping Concepts

1. Which icon color signifies that an attribute or element is not assigned?

a) Red
b) White
c) Yellow
d) Green

2. You can use the SplitByValue() function to delete all context changes in a queue.
a) True
b) False

3. Which function can be used to insert an empty entry?

a) copyvalue()
b) exists()
c) RemoveContexts()
d) SplitByValue()

4. Target structures are created by the mapping program only during the execution of the
mapping.
a) True
b) False

5. The context of a queue can contain multiple values if the source structure contains more
than one instance of the same elements?
a) True
b) False

6. To debug message mappings, it is not necessary to display the queue.

a) True
b) False

7. Which tabs of the data-flow editor can you use to delete or edit user-defined functions?
a) Functions
b) Definition
c) Signature Variables
d) Function Library
8. Arrange the process for defining a global user-defined function in the correct sequence.
(1) Define user-defined functions in the function library. (2) Create a function library. (3)
Use (global) user-defined functions from the function library in the message mapping. (4)
Include the function library in the message mapping.
a) (4),(1),(3),(2)
b) (2),(1),(4),(3)
c) (3),(4),(2),(1)
d) (1),(4),(3),(2)

9. You create user-defined functions in the Functions tab of the mapping editor.
a) True
b) False

10. Which multi-mapping option can you use to combine multiple messages into one
message?
a) n:1
b) 1:n
c) n:m

11. Messages created in the message split contain the original message attachments.
a) True
b) False

12. The operation mapping used in the interface determination must reference an n:m multimapping.
a) True
b) False

13. A mapping template serves as a basic, predefined unit that you can load into and use in
other message mappings.

a) True
b) False

BIT800 (49)
Unit 1: Introduction to Process Orchestration

1. What are the three Business Process Management components?

Choose the correct answers.
a) Process Composer
b) Process Context
c) Process Desk
d) Process Server

2. Which of the following elements is the base of the process controlled solutions?
Choose the correct answer.
a) Non-technically oriented applications supporting end-to-end business processes
b) Reuse of existing technical capabilities
c) Methods used for defining an organization’s workflows
d) Reuse of interfaces associated with the process
Unit 2: Business Process Overview and Development Steps

1. After the users are activated in the Portal, the SAP NetWeaver Administrator, and the Web
Services Navigator, you have to add a system and define one system as the default
system.
a) True
b) False

2. Which of the following BPMN 2.0 elements belong to the Flow Objects?
Choose the correct answers.
a) Activities
b) Data Objects
c) Events

3. Which of the following BPMN 2.0 elements belong to the Gateways?

Choose the correct answers.
a) Parallel Join
b) Exclusive Choice
c) Inclusive Choice

4. Which of the following perspectives are the Process Composer perspectives?

a) Process Desk perspective
b) Process Development Perspective
c) Process Modeling perspective
d) Process Server perspective

5. Input masks are commonly used in technical processes in the business layer and are
created using various technologies. Which of the following is a valid technology used in
SAPBPM to create input masks?
a) Visual Forms
b) Web Dynpro
c) Adobe Composer

6. On which of the following are process controlled solutions based?

a) Nontechnically oriented applications supporting end-to-end business processes.
b) Reuse of existing technical capabilities.
c) Methods used for defining an organization's workflows.
d) Reuse of interfaces associated with the process.

7. A business process is created in a pool.

a) True
b) False

8. Where can a sequence flow go?

a) It must stay in its own lane.
b) It can cross lanes within its own pool, but it cannot cross the boundary of its pool.
c) It can cross lanes within its own pool and can cross pool boundaries.

9. What does a lane represent?

a) An activity
b) A process model
 c) A process participant
d) A process role

10. What does a pool represent?

a) An activity
b) A process model
c) A process participant
d) A process role

Unit 3: A BPMN Process

1. What is an intermediate event message used for?

a) Sending out notifications
b) Triggering a start event
c) Placing a pause in a business process
d) Handling message exceptions

2. A Web Service Description Language (WSDL) file is an XML file used to describe service
interfaces.
a) True
b) False

3. Which of the following basic atomic data types is not provided in the XML schema for
context objects in a BPM process?
a) xs:string
b) xs:decimal
c) xs:join
d) xs:float

4. A data type can only be created in the Enterprise Service Repository perspective.
a) True
b) False

5. Which process components can task owners be assigned to?

a) Automated activities
b) Human activities
c) Lanes
d) Tasks

6. What is a referenced subprocess used for?

a) To reference another dependent process by the parent process
b) To reference another independent process by the parent process
c) To reference another dependent process by a child process
d) To reference another independent process by a child process

7. What is a mapping activity used for?

a) To find the active event in the business process
b) To map input and output data
c) To convert complex data into simple data
d) To provide instructions on how to complete an activity
Unit 4: Connectivity with the Advanced Adapter Engine Extended (AEX)

1. Enterprise Integration Patterns (EIP) are design patterns that help in solving recurring
problems faced in the integration of enterprise applications.
a) True
b) False

2. The aggregator pattern is a stateful filter that is used in cases where subsequent message
processing is contingent upon the successful processing of multiple input messages.
a) True
b) False

3. Which messages are displayed within the Business Logs?

a) WS messages (SOAP is the message protocol)
b) XI messages (XI-Message protocol 3.x is the message protocol)
c) RFC messages (RFC Specific Message Protocol is the message protocol)

4. Which of the following logs contains information about BPM processes and tasks?
a) Business log
b) Connection log
c) J2EE Engine log
d) Process log

Unit 5: Data Flows

1. What is process context?

a) It provides additional information to the process model.
b) It attaches notes to elements in a process model.
c) It defines the sequence of the process flow.
d) It stores data from events and activities.

2. Which statements about process context are true?

a) It is modeled in the business process.
b) It includes information from events and activities.
c) It includes information about roles.
d) An XSD file adds functionality and is optional.

3. What is data mapping used for?

a) Transforming process context to a source context
b) Transforming target context to a source context
c) Transforming business context to a target context
d) Transforming source context to a target context

4. Values and parameterized mappings are supported during the mapping import.
a) True
b) False

Unit 6: Other Objects

1. Principal propagation is transferred from what objects?

 a) Human activities
b) Intermediate message events
c) Offline forms
d) Start events

2. What is assigned to an automated activity?

a) Operations
b) Roles
c) Service definitions
d) Tasks

3. The SAPUI5 runtime is a server-side HTML5 rendering library with a rich set of standard
and extension controls.
a) True
b) False

Unit 7: Deployment and Testing of a Process

1. What kind of data model does a Web Dynpro use?

a) Context data
b) Data mapping
c) Metadata
d) Process data

Unit 8: Process Tasks and Monitors

1. What provides detailed information about tasks?

a) Process Management
b) Process Repository
c) Process Visualization
d) Task Management

2. What does the Universal Worklist provide potential owners?

a) A list of available tasks.
b) A list of claimed tasks.
c) A list of potential owners.
d) The status of claimed tasks.

3. What does the Process List View show?

a) All process instances available in a process.
b) All process instances running in a process.
c) All process instances relevant to you.
d) All process instances that are completed.

4. What is NetWeaver Administrator used for?

a) Assigning roles
b) BPM processes
c) Composite Environment projects
d) Manage the proces flows
5. BPMN processes are always initiated by a WS call at the endpoint of start message events.
The start message event acts as a web service provider. Which of the following methods is
valid for starting the web service?
a) Over any WS client
b) The Process Repository in SAP NetWeaver Administrator
c) Using the Web Service Navigator as a WS client

6. What provides detailed information about available processes?

a) Process Management
b) Process Repository
c) Process Visualization
d) Task Management

7. Which messages are displayed in the PIMON Monitor?

a) WS messages (SOAP is the message protocol)
b) XI messages (XI-Message protocol 3.x is the message protocol)
c) RFC messages (RFC Specific Message Protocol is the message protocol)

Unit 9: The Complete Integration Process

1. Which of the following logs provides information about execution times, process
outcomes, and individual step?
a) Business log
b) Connection log
c) J2EE Engine log
d) Process log

2. Which of the following log helps analyze problems with Web services and RFC calls?
Choose the correct answer.
a) Business log
b) Connection log
c) J2EE Engine log
d) Process log

Unit 10: Business Rules Management (BRM)

1. Input masks are commonly used in technical processes in the business layer and are
created using various technologies. Which of the following technologies is used in SAP
BPM to create input masks?
a) Visual Forms
b) Web Dynpro
c) Adobe Composer

2. What is Visual Composer used for?

a) Configuring events
b) Creating applications
c) Creating a business process
d) Viewing process context graphically
3. What do business rules describe?
a) Constraints
b) Definitions
c) Operations
d) Process flows

4. What do application rules define?

a) A set application tasks and sequencing.
b) A set of restrictions placed on the process model.
c) A set of conditions with associated actions.
d) A set of standard practices and policies.

5. What do business rules define?

a) A set application tasks and sequencing.
b) A set of restrictions placed on the process model.
c) A set of conditions with associated actions.
d) A set of standard practices and policies.

6. In which of the following applications can business rules be created?

a) Process Composer
b) Rules Composer
c) Visual Composer
d) Web Dynpro

7. What rules-based actions can you define?

a) HTML reporting
b) Integrating rules with Microsoft Excel
c) Generating Web services for rulesets
d) Testing XML rulesets

8. Which of the following are BRM components?

a) Rules Composer
b) Rules Engine
c) Rules Server
d) Rules Manager

9. What is Rules Manager used for?

a) Creating rules
b) Modeling business processes
c) Storing rules
d) Testing rules

Outside Book: (47)

1. Which of the following objects is required for executing the sender Remote Function Call adapter
scenario?
a) Enterprise Service Builder
b) Logical routine
c) Mapping
2. A message mapping uses value mapping for conversion. How can you maintain the values for value
mapping? (Choose two)
a) Maintain the values in a mapping lookup.
b) Maintain a value mapping group in the Integration Directory.
c) Maintain the values outside Process Integration and use value-mapping replication.
d) Maintain the values for value mapping in transaction SXMB_ADM.

3. Which of the following tasks can you perform in the Runtime Workbench? (Choose two)
a) Stop certain communication channels.
b) Monitor the ccBPM integration process.
c) Configure the Integration Engine.
d) Configure a user-defined message search.
e) Check the Alert Inbox.

4. You want to import a business system from the System Landscape Directory (SLD) to the Integration
Directory to use it for configuration. What is one purpose of the assignment of a software component
to a technical system in the SLD?
a) To define the software component hierarchy in Enterprise Services Repository
b) To block any change to the technical system details in SLD
c) To allow developers to access the technical system description of the imported business system
object directly in the Integration Directory
d) To see the sender/receiver interfaces related to the particular technical system in the imported
business systems.

5. You create your configuration using the configuration directory of the Integration Builder. The receiver
of an XML message is determined in the logical and technical routing during ________. Choose the
correct answer.
a) outbound processing
b) receiver agreement
c) interface determination
d) inbound processing

6. A single Enterprise Services Repository can be leveraged for _______ process integration domain(s).
Choose the correct answer.
a) a single
b) multiple

7. You want to use standard functions in your message mapping. In addition to "true", which value is
interpreted as true by standard functions that require Boolean input? (Choose two)
a) "X"
b) "1"
c) "TRUE"
d) No other value

8. Which message protocol is used in communication between a local Integration Engine and the SAP
NetWeaver PI system (central Integration Engine)?
a) SOAP message protocol
b) RFC protocol
c) HTTP-XI protocol
d) XI message protocol
9. Which of the following is the central component of enterprise service-oriented architecture? Choose
the correct answer.
a) Enterprise Services Repository
b) Integration Engine
c) Business Process Engine.

10. What is the purpose of the standard function "exists" when used for a source element in message
mapping?
a) To check whether the element exists in the source message
b) To check whether the element in the source message has a value
c) To check whether the same element exists in the target structure
d) To check whether the element is mandatory in the source structure

11. You can create the sender Remote Function Call destination of type T using a ________ parameter.
Choose the correct answer.
a) technical
b) logon
c) gateway host

12. Which of the following adapters is used for configuration and runtime? Choose the correct answer.
a) Remote function call adapter
b) Mail adapter
c) Chemical Industry Data Exchange adapter.

13. Which of the following is an application that accesses the Web service? Choose the correct answer.
a) Service requester
b) Service provider
c) Services Registry

14. The products and software components are assigned at the system level because __________. Choose
the correct answer.
a) development objects in SAP systems are not client-specific
b) development objects in SAP systems are client-specific
c) training objects in SAP systems are not client-specific

15. Which of the following tools for creating processes enables the design of new applications that can
communicate with back-end systems? Choose the correct answer.
a) Business Workflow
b) SAP NetWeaver Business Process Management
c) Cross-component Business Process Management

16. Which SAP NetWeaver Process Integration component belongs to the design-time area? (Choose two)
a) Enterprise Services Repository
b) SAP NetWeaver Developer Studio
c) SAP NetWeaver Administrator
d) Business Process Engine

17. Where do you create a communication channel template?

a) In Enterprise Services Repository
b) In the Integration Directory
c) In the System Landscape Directory
 d) In the Runtime Workbench

18. Which of the following standard monitoring types are provided in SAP NetWeaver Process Integration?
(2 answers)
a) System monitoring using the Computing Center Management System (CCMS)
b) Process monitoring with Process Monitoring Infrastructure (PMI)
c) System monitoring using the Application Interface Framework (AIF)
d) Functional Business Process Monitoring using Enterprise JavaBeans (EJB) modules

19. Which monitor is used to display the aggregated and detailed information about processes and process
instances? Choose the correct answer.
a) End-to-end monitor
b) Background job monitor
c) Integration process monitor

20. You have selected the delivery mode Without Buffering for your integration process. What do you have
to consider in order to avoid the process type-specific queue going into a SYSFAIL state?
a) You have to use configurable parameters in order to specify the queue name
b) You have to enable correlation for the integration process
c) The process instance cannot use correlations to collect messages from different communication
components
d) The process instance must provide an open receive step when the message is handed over to the
Business Process Engine

21. On which design object are Mapping Templates based?

a) Message Type
b) Data Type
c) Context Object
d) Service Interface

22. __________ systems represent the sender and/or receiver systems of messages. Choose the correct
answer.
a) Business
b) Technical
c) ABAP

23. Which of the following working areas of the Runtime Workbench monitors provides a uniform interface
to monitor ABAP and Java components? Choose the correct answer .
a) Component monitoring
b) Message monitoring
c) End-to-end monitoring
d) Performance monitoring

24. A(n)_______________________ is required to convert the logical systems from the control record to the
SAP NetWeaver Process Integration business systems. Choose the correct answer.
a) Remote Function Call adapter
b) HTTP adapter
c) Sender Intermediate Document adapter
25. You have created a message mapping using drag and drop from the source to the target element. When
testing the mapping by entering a single value for the source element, you notice that the target
element has been created with 3 occurrences. Each target element occurrence is filled with the same
value as the source element. What could be the reason for this behavior?
a) The data type for the source element has the occurrence property maxOccurs=3
b) The data type for the source element has the occurrence property minOccurs=3
c) The data type for the target element has the occurrence property maxOccurs=3
d) The data type for the target element has the occurrence property minOccurs=3

26. Which of the following configuration objects can you use to activate XML validation of a message
payload in SAP NetWeaver Process Integration? (Choose three)
a) Integrated configuration
b) Interface determination
c) Receiver agreement
d) Receiver determination
e) Sender agreement

27. You connect the placeholders with a process component if the interaction is essential for understanding
the ______ . Choose the correct answer.
a) end-to-end scenario
b) business scenario
c) integration scenario

28. You use a _________to describe operations that you need for a subsequent implementation in the
application system, independently of a platform or programming language. Choose the correct answer.
a) service interface
b) message interface
c) material interface

29. Which of the following configuration tasks do you have to perform to set up the Process Integration
sender JDBC adapter to query a database table? (Choose two)
a) Insert the class of the vendor JDBC driver in the communication channel
b) Insert a query SQL statement in the communication channel
c) Set the HTTP POST statement in the communication channel
d) Specify the client of the Integration Server

30. The communication profile objects list the cross-scenario configuration objects, which include
___________________ and ______________. Choose the correct answer.
a) a receiver, an interface determination
b) a sender, a receiver agreement
c) communication components, channels

31. When should you refresh the runtime cache of the Integration Server and the Adapter Framework?
a) When starting transaction SXI_CACHE
b) When saving a configuration scenario in the Integration Directory
c) When refreshing the view in the CPA cache
d) When activating a change list in the Integration Directory
32. You want to assign a logical system name to a business system in the System Landscape Directory for an
IDoc scenario. Why do you use logical system names?
a) To enable the IDoc adapter to resolve the technical system name in the SOAP header without further
configuration
b) To allow the Integration Directory to automatically determine the corresponding receiver
c) Because it is required by the ALE distribution model in the sender system
d) To enable the resolution of a business system name into an ALE logical system name and vice-versa

33. The maximum total size of all messages in a package (in KB) is known as _____________. Choose the
correct answer.
a) Package size
b) Maximum transfer size
c) Maximum allowed message size.

34. Which of the following tasks does the Advanced Adapter Engine perform? Choose 2 correct answers.
a) Integrated processing
b) Routing
c) Integration Engine.

35. You use an asynchronous-to-synchronous bridge in your integration process. What happens to the
quality of the service descriptor in the SOAP header when a message is processed through the
Integration Engine?
a) It changes from Exactly Once (EO) to Best Effort (BE)
b) It changes from Exactly Once (EO) to Exactly Once In Order (EOIO)
c) It changes from Best Effort (BE) to Exactly Once (EO)
d) It changes from Best Effort (BE) to Exactly Once In Order (EOIO)

36. Name the four values that uniquely identify the receiver determination. Choose 4 correct answers.
a) Communication Party
b) Communication Component
c) Interface
d) Name
e) Namespace

37. Which of the following objects is used for the SAP back-end system with the current Intermediate
Document type? Choose the correct answer.
a) Remote Function Call destination
b) IDX1 port
c) IDX2 port

38. You want to build an integration process using a container operation. Which operations can you use in
the properties of the container operation? (Choose two)
a) Copy
b) Concatenate
c) Delete
d) Append
e) Assign

39. Which of the following is included in SAP development environments? Choose the correct answer.
a) Visual Composer
 b) Composite Application Framework
c) Web Dynpro for ABAP

40. The message-relevant steps are as follows:

a) Receive a message-Send a message-Transform a message (merge and split)-Determine receivers for
subsequent send steps in the process
b) Determine receivers for subsequent send steps in the process-Receive a message-Send a message-
Transform a message (merge and split)
c) Transform a message (merge and split)-Receive a message-Send a message-Determine receivers for
subsequent send steps in the process
d) Determine receivers for subsequent send steps in the process-Send a message-Receive a message-
Transform a message (merge and split)

41. You do not have to know the exact number of systems in a system landscape when you design a
scenario in the Enterprise Service Repository at ________ time.
a) design
b) implementation
c) execution
d) compile

42. Which area of the business process editor is used to define an interface for a message processing?
Choose the correct answer.
a) Graphical definition area
b) Property area
c) Container or object area

43. Monitoring takes place in the Runtime Workbench and in the Integration Engine using the transaction
code ____________. Choose the correct answer.
a) SXMS_IECONF
b) SXMB_MONI
c) SXI_MONITOR

44. After a message from the inbound queue has been read, __________ takes place and, if necessary, the
message is split. Choose the correct answer.
a) Concatenating
b) mapping
c) logical routing
d) technical routing

45. You want to implement exception handling for your ccBPM process. When an exception occurs, you
want to inform the administrator via alerts. Where do you assign recipients to the alert category?
a) In the Process Editor
b) In the exception handling step in the integration process
c) In transaction ALRTCATDEF
d) In the alert rules of the Runtime Workbench

46. Technical monitoring covers the ________ area. Choose the correct answer.
a) Runtime Workbench
b) Business Process Engine
c) Computing Center Management System.
47. Which of the following tools for creating processes uses user-system interaction? Choose the correct
answer.
a) Cross-component Business Process Management
b) SAP Business Workflow
c) SAP NetWeaver Business Process Management

48. If more than one receiver is determined by the receiver determination, the message is copied for each
receiver after the interface determination. This is known as _______________. Choose the correct
answer.
a) Message split
b) Message branching

49. Which statement is true regarding asynchronous communication?

a) Communication is based on just one message.
b) Communication comprises a request, a response, and a fault message.
c) Mapping can be done for up to three different areas.

50. Choose the correct sequence for developing an operation mapping: (a) Reference the
operation mapping in an Interface Determination in the Integration Directory (b) Create an
operation mapping in the Enterprise Services Builder (c) Assign sender and receiver
interfaces to the operation mapping. (d) Select mapping programs for the request (and
response) message, save and activate the object.
a) (a), (d), (b), (c)
b) (d), (a), (c), (b)
c) (b), (c), (d), (a)
d) (a), (c), (b), (d)

51. Which of the following can be imported into the mapping editor?
a) Message types developed in Enterprise Services Repository
b) The <xsd:include> tag generated from the data type editor
c) Imported external definitions
d) Imported SAP metadata

52. Source files can be transferred to the data-flow editor using the drag and
drop functionality.
a) True
b) False

53. You can use the mapping editor to import external definitions.
a) True
b) False

54. You can use the Text Preview pushbutton to display a mapping as text.
a) True
b) False

55. You can test the mapping either for the request, response, or fault message.
a) True
b) False

56. Which queue contains data from the fields of the source message?
a) Inbound queue
 b) Processing queue
c) Result queue
d) Outbound queue

57. Which trace level is 1 associated with?

a) Information
b) Warning
c) Debug

58. Standard functions that expect Boolean values interpret the value 1 as false.
a) True
b) False

59. Which function can be used to convert the results of arithmetic operations into the
required target format?
a) FormatNum
b) CopyValue
c) Constant
d) removeContexts

60. Boolean message-mapping functions evaluate conditions that return Boolean values.
a) True
b) False

61. The function createIf is a part of which function category?

a) Statistical functions
b) Constant functions
c) Boolean functions
d) Node functions

62. If casting is unsuccessful, the mapping runtime triggers a Java exception.

a) True
b) False

63. Which icon color signifies that an attribute or element is not assigned?
a) Red
b) White
c) Yellow
d) Green

64. You can use the SplitByValue() function to delete all context changes in a queue.
a) True
b) False

65. Which function can be used to insert an empty entry?

a) X A copyvalue()
b) X B exists()
c) X C RemoveContexts()
d) SplitByValue()

66. Target structures are created by the mapping program only during the execution of the
mapping.
a) True
b) False
67. The context of a queue can contain multiple values if the source structure contains more
than one instance of the same elements?
a) True
b) False

68. If an input value from a queue is missing, the mapping runtime uses the last value that was
read from the queue?
a) True
b) False

69. 7. A field cannot contain multiple contexts if the field exists in a series of structure levels in a
hierarchical manner.
a) True
b) False

70. Which tabs of the data-flow editor can you use to delete or edit user-defined functions?
a) Functions
b) Definition
c) Signature Variables
d) Function Library

71. Arrange the process for defining a global user-defined function in the correct sequence.
(1) Define user-defined functions in the function library. (2) Create a function library. (3)
Use (global) user-defined functions from the function library in the message mapping. (4)
Include the function library in the message mapping.
a) (4) (1) (3) (2)
b) (2) (1) (4) (3)
c) (3) (4) (2) (1)
d) (1) (4) (3) (2)

72. You create user-defined functions in the Functions tab of the mapping editor.
a) True
b) False

73. A function library must be located in the same software component version as the
message mappings you want to use.
a) True
b) False

74. You define functions in the function library by making an entry in ___________.
a) Functions and Java Areas
b) Enterprise Services Repository
c) Used Function Libraries
d) ResultList

75. In which of the execution types is the function executed only once internally?
a) All Values of Context
b) Single Values
c) All Values of Queue

76. Which of these functions appends the ResultList.CC constant?

a) addContextChange
b) addSuppress
c) addValue
 d) clear

77. Which of the following is the value for the MessageClass key?
a) ApplicationMessage
b) X B synchronous
c) X C http://demo.com./xi/example

78. Which method of the Container object is used to create a Map object?
a) void setParameter (String parName, Object obj);
b) GlobalContainer getGlobalContainer();
c) AbstractTrace getTrace();
d) java.util.Map getTransformationParameters();

79. The Container object can be used to create an AbstractTrace object as well as a Map
object.
a) True
b) False

80. External Java classes are uploaded as JAR files in the Enterprise Services Repository.
a) True
b) False

81. Arrange the parameter-definition process steps in the correct sequence. (1) Define
parameters in the operation mapping and bind them to the message-mapping
parameters. (2) Define parameters in the message mapping. (3) Set the mapping
parameters in the interface determination.
a) (3), (2), (1)
b) (3), (1), (2)
c) (2), (1), (3)
d) (1), (2), (3)

82. Parameters defined in the Signature tab page are always export parameters.
a) True
b) False

83. The standard function Value mapping contains fixed value pairs in Enterprise Services
Repository.
a) True
b) False

84. Which of the following service interfaces are implemented using Java?
a) ValueMappingReplication
b) X B ValueMappingReplicationOut
c) ValueMappingReplicationSynchronous
d) X D ValueMappingReplicationOutSynchronous

85. The lookup API provides the RFC, JDBC, and SOAP header methods for generic access to
application systems.
a) True
b) False

86. Which multi-mapping option can you use to combine multiple messages into one
message?
a) n:1
b) 1:n
 c) n:m

87. Messages created in the message split contain the original message attachments.
a) True
b) False

88. The operation mapping used in the interface determination must reference an n:m multimapping.
a) True
b) False

89. A mapping template serves as a basic, predefined unit that you can load into and use in
other message mappings.
a) True
b) False

90. If you modify a mapping template after it has been referenced in a message mapping, the
change is automatically transferred to the message mapping.
a) True
b) False

91. Which of the following XSLT tags allow you to import additional XSLT files?
a) <xsl:include>
b) <xsl:param>
c) <xsl:import>

92. Which runtime constant is associated with the sender interface name?
a) $SenderService
b) $Interface
c) $InterfaceNamespace
d) $ReceiverName

93. Which statement can you use to define warnings?

a) <xsl:otherwise>
b) <xsl:message>
c) <xsl:choose>
d) <xsl:when>

94. JDK executes XSLT programs more quickly than the SAP XML Toolkit.
a) True
b) False

95. To implement a Java mapping you need to extend the interface AbstractTransformation.
a) True
b) False

96. Which method should you use to access the parameters in an operation mapping?
a) getInputParameters()
b) getInputHeader()
c) getMessageID()

97. You can create entries in the mapping trace using the getTrace method of the class
AbstractTransformation.
a) True
b) False
98. SAP NetWeaver Process Integration acts as an Enterprise Service Bus at runtime to
facilitate the exchange of calls between various services.
a) True
b) False