Soal Faa Powerplant

Version: 013
2/21/2002
Bank: (Powerplant - Aviation Mechanic)
Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank
The FAA computer-assisted testing system is supported by a series of

supplement publications. These publications, available through several
aviation publishers, include the graphics, legends, and maps that are
needed to successfully respond to certain test items. Please download
the file Supplements.pdf at the Internet address of
http://afs600.faa.gov/ for a complete list of the associated supplement
books.
Please Note:
Subject matter codes appear above each item.
1. A01 AMP
Which statement is true regarding bearings used in high powered
reciprocating aircraft engines?
A. The outer race of a single row, self aligning ball bearing will
always have a radius equal to the radius of the balls.
B. There is less rolling friction when ball bearings are used than
when roller bearings are employed.
C. Crankshaft bearings are generally of the ball-type due to their
ability to withstand extreme loads without overheating.
2. A01 AMP
A condition that can occur in radial engines but is unlikely to occur in
horizontally opposed engines is
A. zero valve clearance.
B. hydraulic lock.
C. valve overlap.
3. A01 AMP
Which condition would be the least likely to be caused by failed or
failing engine bearings?
A. Low oil temperatures.
B. High oil temperatures.
C. Excessive oil consumption.
4. A01 AMP
What is the principal advantage of using propeller reduction gears?
A. To enable the propeller RPM to be increased without an accompanying
increase in engine RPM.
B. To enable the engine RPM to be increased with an accompanying
increase in power and allow the propeller to remain at a lower, more
efficient RPM.
C. To enable the engine RPM to be increased with an accompanying
increase in propeller RPM.
5. A01 AMP
Which of the following will decrease volumetric efficiency in a
reciprocating engine?
1. Full throttle operation.
2. Low cylinder head temperatures.
3. Improper valve timing.
4. Sharp bends in the induction system.
5. High carburetor air temperatures.
A. 2, 4, and 5.
B. 3, 4, and 5.
C. 1, 2, 3, and 4.
6. A01 AMP
Which of the following is a characteristic of a thrust bearing used in
most radial engines?
A. Tapered roller.
B. Deep groove ball.
C. Double row ball.
7. A01 AMP
Which bearing is least likely to be a roller or ball bearing?
A. Master rod bearing (radial engine).
B. Rocker arm bearing (overhead valve engine).
C. Crankshaft main bearing (radial engine).
8. A01 AMP
The operating temperature valve clearance of a radial engine as compared
to cold valve clearance is
A. less.
B. greater.
C. the same.
9. A01 AMP
A nine cylinder engine with a bore of 5.5 inches and a stroke of 6
inches will have a total piston displacement of
A. 1,425 cubic inches.
B. 1,283 cubic inches.
C. 740 cubic inches.
10. A01 AMP

The five events of a four stroke cycle engine in the order of their
occurrence are
A. intake, ignition, compression, power, exhaust.
B. intake, compression, ignition, power, exhaust.
C. intake, power, compression, ignition, exhaust.
11. A02 AMP

The primary concern in establishing the firing order for an opposed
engine is to
A. keep power impulses on adjacent cylinders as far apart as possible
in order to obtain the greatest mechanical efficiency.
B. provide for balance and eliminate vibration to the greatest extent
possible.
C. keep the power impulses on adjacent cylinders as close as possible
in order to obtain the greatest mechanical efficiency.
12. A02 AMP

If fuel/air ratio is proper and ignition timing is correct, the
combustion process should be completed
A. when the exhaust valve opens at the end of the power stroke.
B. just after top center at the beginning of the power stroke.
C. 20 to 30° before top center at the end of the compression stroke.
13. A02 AMP

Grinding the valves of a reciprocating engine to a feather edge is
likely to result in
A. normal operation and long life.
B. excessive valve clearance.
C. preignition and burned valves.
14. A02 AMP

Which statement is correct regarding engine crankshafts?
A. Moveable counterweights are designed to resonate at the natural
frequency of the crankshaft.
B. Moveable counterweights serve to reduce the dynamic vibrations in
an aircraft reciprocating engine.
C. Moveable counterweights serve to reduce the torsional vibrations in
an aircraft reciprocating engine.
15. A02 AMP

On which strokes are both valves on a four-stroke cycle reciprocating
aircraft engine open?
A. Exhaust and intake.
B. Power and exhaust.
C. Intake and compression.
16. A02 AMP

Master rod bearings are generally what type?
A. Roller.
B. Ball.
C. Plain.
17. A02 AMP

The actual power delivered to the propeller of an aircraft engine is
called
A. brake horsepower.
B. indicated horsepower.
C. friction horsepower.
18. A02 AMP

Cam ground pistons are installed in some aircraft engines to
A. provide a better fit at operating temperatures.
B. act as a compensating feature so that a compensated magneto is not
required.
C. equalize the wear on all pistons.
19. A02 AMP

Using the following information, determine how many degrees the
crankshaft will rotate with both the intake and exhaust valves seated.
Intake opens 15° BTDC.
Exhaust opens 70° BBDC.
Intake closes 45° ABDC.
Exhaust closes 10° ATDC.
A. 290°.
B. 25°.
C. 245°.
20. A02 AMP

Some aircraft engine manufacturers equip their product with choked or
taper-ground cylinders in order to
A. flex the rings slightly during operation and reduce the possibility
of the rings sticking in the grooves.
B. increase the compression pressure for starting purposes.
C. provide a straight cylinder bore at operating temperatures.
21. A02 AMP

An aircraft reciprocating engine using hydraulic valve lifters is
observed to have no clearance in its valve-operating mechanism after the
minimum inlet oil and cylinder head temperatures for takeoff have been
reached. When can this condition be expected?
A. When the lifters become deflated.
B. As a result of carbon and sludge becoming trapped in the lifter and
restricting its motion.
C. During normal operation.
22. A02 AMP

What tool is generally used to measure the crankshaft rotation in
degrees?
A. Prop Protractor.
B. Dial indicator.
C. Timing disk.
23. A02 AMP

If an engine with a stroke of 6 inches is operated at 2,000 RPM, the
piston movement within the cylinder will be
A. at maximum velocity around TDC.
B. constant during the entire 360° of crankshaft travel.
C. at maximum velocity 90° after TDC.
24. A02 AMP

If the intake valve is opened too early in the cycle of operation of a
four-stroke cycle engine, it may result in
A. engine kickback.
B. backfiring into the induction system.
C. improper scavenging of exhaust gases.
25. A02 AMP

Some cylinder barrels are hardened by
A. tempering.
B. nitriding.
C. shot peening.
26. A02 AMP

Which statement is correct regarding a four stroke cycle aircraft
engine?
A. The intake valve closes on the intake stroke.
B. The intake valve closes on the compression stroke.
C. The exhaust valve opens on the exhaust stroke.
27. A02 AMP

On which part of the cylinder walls of a normally operating engine will
the greatest amount of wear occur?
A. Near the top of the cylinder.
B. Near the center of the cylinder where piston velocity is greatest.
C. Wear is normally evenly distributed.
28. A02 AMP

During overhaul, reciprocating engine exhaust valves are checked for
stretch
A. with a suitable inside spring caliper.
B. with a contour or radius gauge.
C. by placing the valve on a surface plate and measuring its length
with a vernier height gauge.
29. A02 AMP

When is the fuel/air mixture ignited in a conventional reciprocating
engine?
A. When the piston reaches top dead center on the compression stroke.
B. When the piston has reached top dead center of the intake stroke.
C. Shortly before the piston reaches the top of the compression
stroke.
30. A02 AMP

Ignition occurs at 28° BTDC on a certain four-stroke cycle engine, and
the intake valve opens at 15° BTDC. How many degrees of crankshaft
travel after ignition does the intake valve open? (Consider one cylinder
only.)
A. 373°.
B. 347°.
C. 707°.
31. A02 AMP

What is the purpose of the safety circlet installed on some valve stems?
A. To hold the valve spring retaining washer in position.
B. To prevent valves from falling into the combustion chamber.
C. To hold the valve guide in position.
32. A02 AMP

Valve overlap is defined as the number of degrees of crankshaft travel
A. between the closing of the intake valve and the opening of the
exhaust valve.
B. during which both valves are off their seats.
C. during which both valves are on their seats.
33. A02 AMP

The valve clearance of an engine using hydraulic lifters, when the
lifters are completely flat, or empty, should not exceed
A. a specified amount below zero.
B. 0.00 inch.
C. a specified amount above zero.
34. A02 AMP

How many of the following are factors in establishing the maximum
compression ratio limitations of an aircraft engine?
1. Detonation characteristics of the fuel used.
2. Design limitations of the engine.
3. Degree of supercharging.
4. Spark plug reach.
A. Two.
B. Four.
C. Three.
35. A02 AMP

Full floating piston pins are those which allow motion between the pin
and
A. the piston.
B. both the piston and the small end of the connecting rod.
C. both the piston and the large end of the connecting rod.
36. A02 AMP

The primary purpose in setting proper valve timing and overlap is to
A. obtain the best volumetric efficiency and lower cylinder operating
temperatures.
B. permit the best possible charge of fuel/air mixture into the
cylinders.
C. gain more thorough exhaust gas scavenging.
37. A02 AMP

If the hot clearance is used to set the valves when the engine is cold,
what will occur during operation of the engine?
A. The valves will open early and close late.
B. The valves will open early and close early.
C. The valves will open late and close early.
38. A02 AMP
The purpose of two or more valve springs in aircraft engines is to
A. eliminate valve spring surge.
B. equalize side pressure on the valve stems.
C. equalize valve face loading.
39. A02 AMP

During overhaul, the disassembled parts of an engine are usually
degreased with some form of mineral spirits solvent rather than water
mixed degreasers primarily because
A. water-mixed degreasers cause corrosion.
B. solvent degreasers are much more effective.
C. water mixed degreaser residues may cause engine oil contamination
in the overhauled engine.
40. A02 AMP

Why does the smoothness of operation of an engine increase with a
greater number of cylinders?
A. The power impulses are spaced farther apart.
B. The power impulses are spaced closer together.
C. The engine has larger counterbalance weights.
41. A02 AMP

Compression ratio is the ratio between the
A. piston travel on the compression stroke and on the intake stroke.
B. cylinder volume with piston at bottom dead center and at top dead
center.
C. combustion chamber pressure on the combustion stroke and on the
exhaust stroke.
42. A02 AMP

If the crankshaft runout readings on the dial indicator are plus .002
inch and minus .003 inch, the runout is
A. plus .001 inch.
B. .005 inch.
C. minus .001 inch.
43. A02 AMP

(1) Cast iron piston rings may be used in chrome plated cylinders.
(2) Chrome plated rings may be used in plain steel cylinders.
Regarding the above statements,
A. only No. 1 is true.
B. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
C. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
44. A02 AMP

How is proper end-gap clearance on new piston rings assured during the
overhaul of an engine?
A. By accurately measuring and matching the outside diameter of the
rings with the inside diameter of the cylinders.
B. By using rings specified by the engine manufacturer.
C. By placing the rings in the cylinder and measuring the end-gap with
a feeler gauge.
45. A02 AMP

The volume of a cylinder equals 70 cubic inches when the piston is at
bottom center. When the piston is at the top of the cylinder, the volume
equals 10 cubic inches. What is the compression ratio?
A. 1:7.
B. 7:10.
C. 7:1.
46. A02 AMP

When cleaning aluminum and magnesium engine parts, it is inadvisable to
soak them in solutions containing soap because
A. some of the soap will become impregnated in the surface of the
material and subsequently cause engine oil contamination and foaming.
B. the parts can be destroyed by dissimilar metal electrolytic action
if they are placed together in the solution for more than a few minutes.
C. the soap can chemically alter the metals causing them to become
more susceptible to corrosion.
47. A03 AMP

What is the purpose of a power check on a reciprocating engine?
A. To determine satisfactory performance.
B. To check magneto drop.
C. To determine if the fuel/air mixture is adequate.
48. A03 AMP

What will be the likely result if the piston ring gaps happen to be
aligned when performing a differential pressure compression check on a
cylinder?
A. A worn or defective ring(s) indication.
B. Little or no effect.
C. The rings will not be seated.
49. A03 AMP

Which of the following will be caused by excessive valve clearance of a
cylinder on a reciprocating aircraft engine?
A. Reduced valve overlap period.
B. A power increase by shortening the exhaust event.
C. Intake and exhaust valves will open early and close late.
50. A03 AMP

Which of the following would indicate a general weak engine condition
when operated with a fixed pitch propeller or test club?
A. Lower than normal static RPM, full throttle operation.
B. Lower than normal manifold pressure for any given RPM.
C. Manifold pressure lower at idle RPM than at static RPM.
51. A03 AMP
What is required by 14 CFR Part 43 Appendix D when performing an annual/
100-hour inspection on a reciprocating engine aircraft?
A. Cylinder compression check.
B. Magneto timing check.
C. Valve clearance check.
52. A03 AMP

After spark plugs from an opposed engine have been serviced, in what
position should they be reinstalled?
A. Next in firing order to the one from which they were removed.
B. Next in firing order to the one from which they were removed and
swapped bottom to top.
C. Swapped bottom to top.
53. A03 AMP

As the pressure is applied during a reciprocating engine compression
check using a differential pressure tester, what would a movement of the
propeller in the direction of engine rotation indicate?
A. The piston was on compression stroke.
B. The piston was on exhaust stroke.
C. The piston was positioned past top dead center.
54. A03 AMP

Excessive valve clearance results in the valves opening
A. late and closing early.
B. late and closing late.
C. early and closing late.
55. A03 AMP

During routine inspection of a reciprocating engine, a deposit of small,
bright, metallic particles which do not cling to the magnetic drain plug
is discovered in the oil sump and on the surface of the oil filter. This
condition
A. is normal in engines utilizing plain type bearings and aluminum
pistons and is not cause for alarm.
B. may be a result of abnormal plain type bearing wear and is cause
for further investigation.
C. is probably a result of ring and cylinder wall wear and is cause
for engine removal and/or overhaul.
56. A03 AMP

A characteristic of dyna focal engine mounts as applied to aircraft
reciprocating engines is that the
A. shock mounts point toward the engine's center of gravity.
B. shock mounts eliminate the torsional flexing of the powerplant.
C. engine attaches to the shock mounts at the engine's center of
gravity.
57. A03 AMP
If metallic particles are found in the oil filter during an inspection,
A. the cause should be identified and corrected before the aircraft is
released for flight.
B. it is an indication of normal engine wear unless the particles are
nonferrous.
C. it is an indication of normal engine wear unless the deposit
exceeds a specified amount.
58. A03 AMP

If the oil pressure gauge fluctuates over a wide range from zero to
normal operating pressure, the most likely cause is
A. low oil supply.
B. broken or weak pressure relief valve spring.
C. air lock in the scavenge pump intake.
59. A03 AMP

What special procedure must be followed when adjusting the valves of an
engine equipped with a floating cam ring?
A. Adjust valves when the engine is hot.
B. Eliminate cam bearing clearance when making valve adjustment.
C. Adjust all exhaust valves before intake valves.
60. A03 AMP

Excessive valve clearances will cause the duration of valve opening to
A. decrease for both intake and exhaust valves.
B. decrease for intake valves and increase for exhaust valves.
C. increase for both intake and exhaust valves.
61. A03 AMP

What does valve overlap promote?
A. A backflow of gases across the cylinder.
B. Lower intake manifold pressure and temperatures.
C. Better scavenging and cooling characteristics.
62. A03 AMP

At what speed must a crankshaft turn if each cylinder of a four stroke
cycle engine is to be fired 200 times a minute?
A. 800 RPM.
B. 400 RPM.
C. 1,600 RPM.
63. A03 AMP

Engine crankshaft runout is usually checked
1. during engine overhaul.
2. during annual inspection.
3. after a "prop strike" or sudden engine stoppage.
4. during 100-hour inspection.
A. 1, 2 and 3.
B. 1, 3, and 4.
C. 1 and 3.
64. A03 AMP
Before attempting to start a radial engine that has been shut down for
more than 30 minutes,
A. turn the ignition switch on before energizing the starter.
B. turn the propeller by hand three to four revolutions in the normal
direction of rotation to check for liquid lock.
C. turn the propeller by hand three or four revolutions in the
opposite direction of normal rotation to check for liquid lock.
65. A03 AMP

An engine misses in both the right and left positions of the magneto
switch. The quickest method for locating the trouble is to
A. perform a compression check.
B. check for one or more cold cylinders.
C. check each spark plug.
66. A03 AMP

A hissing sound from the exhaust stacks when the propeller is being
pulled through manually indicates
A. exhaust valve blow by.
B. a cracked exhaust stack.
C. worn piston rings.
67. A03 AMP

If the oil pressure of a cold engine is higher than at normal operating
temperatures, the
A. engine's lubrication system is probably operating normally.
B. oil system relief valve should be readjusted.
C. oil dilution system should be turned on immediately.
68. A03 AMP

Which fuel/air mixture will result in the highest engine temperature
(all other factors remaining constant)?
A. A mixture leaner than a rich best power mixture of .085.
B. A mixture leaner than a manual lean mixture of .060.
C. A mixture richer than a full rich mixture of .087.
69. A03 AMP

If an engine cylinder is to be removed, at what position in the cylinder
should the piston be?
A. Top dead center.
B. Bottom dead center.
C. Halfway between top and bottom dead center.
70. A03 AMP

The horsepower developed in the cylinders of a reciprocating engine is
known as the
A. shaft horsepower.
B. brake horsepower.
C. indicated horsepower.
71. A03 AMP

Engine operating flexibility is the ability of the engine to
A. deliver maximum horsepower at a specific altitude.
B. run smoothly and give the desired performance at all speeds.
C. meet exacting requirements of efficiency and low weight per
horsepower ratio.
72. A03 AMP

Standard aircraft cylinder oversizes usually range from 0.010 inch to
0.030 inch. Oversize on automobile engine cylinders may range up to
0.100 inch. This is because aircraft engine cylinders
A. have relatively thin walls and may be nitrided.
B. have more limited cooling capacity.
C. operate at high temperatures.
73. A03 AMP

If the ignition switch is moved from BOTH to either LEFT or RIGHT during
an engine ground check, normal operation is usually indicated by a
A. slight drop in RPM.
B. momentary interruption of both ignition systems.
C. large drop in RPM.
74. A03 AMP

During ground check an engine is found to be rough running, the magneto
drop is normal, and the manifold pressure is higher than normal for any
given RPM. The trouble may be caused by
A. a dead cylinder.
B. several spark plugs fouled on different cylinders.
C. a leak in the intake manifold.
75. A03 AMP

What is the best indication of worn valve guides?
A. High oil consumption.
B. Low compression.
C. Low oil pressure.
76. A03 AMP

By use of a differential pressure compression tester, it is determined
that the No. 3 cylinder of a nine cylinder radial engine will not hold
pressure after the crankshaft has been rotated 260° from top dead center
compression stroke No. 1 cylinder. How can this indication usually be
interpreted?
A. Exhaust valve blow by.
B. A damaged exhaust valve or insufficient exhaust valve clearance.
C. A normal indication.
77. A03 AMP

When does valve overlap occur in the operation of an aircraft
A. At the end of the power stroke and the beginning of the exhaust
stroke.
B. At the end of the compression stroke and the beginning of the power
stroke.
C. At the end of the exhaust stroke and the beginning of the intake
stroke.
78. A03 AMP

What is an advantage of using metallic-sodium filled exhaust valves in
aircraft reciprocating engines?
A. Greater resistance to deterioration at high valve temperatures.
B. Reduced valve operating temperatures.
C. Increased strength and resistance to cracking.
79. A03 AMP

Valve clearance changes on opposed type engines using hydraulic lifters
are accomplished by
A. push rod replacement.
B. rocker arm replacement.
C. rocker arm adjustment.
80. A03 AMP

What is likely to occur if a reciprocating engine is operated at high
power settings before it is properly warmed up?
A. Excessive thinning of the engine oil.
B. Accelerated oil breakdown and oxidation.
C. Oil starvation of bearings and other parts.
81. A04 AMP

An increase in manifold pressure with a constant RPM will cause the
bearing load in an engine to
A. decrease.
B. remain relatively constant.
C. increase.
82. A04 AMP

Direct mechanical push pull carburetor heat control linkages should
normally be adjusted so that the stop located on the diverter valve will
be contacted
A. before the stop at the control lever is reached in the HOT position
and after the stop at the control lever is reached in the COLD position.
B. after the stop at the control lever is reached in both HOT and COLD
positions.
C. before the stop at the control lever is reached in both HOT and
COLD positions.
83. A04 AMP

Reduced air density at high altitude has a decided effect on
carburetion, resulting in a reduction of engine power by
A. excessively enriching the fuel/air mixture.
B. reducing fuel vaporization.
C. excessively leaning the fuel/air mixture.
84. A04 AMP

Increased water vapor (higher relative humidity) in the incoming air to
a reciprocating engine will normally result in which of the following?
A. A leaning effect on engines which use non automatic carburetors.
B. Increased power output due to increased volumetric efficiency.
C. Decreased engine power at a constant RPM and manifold pressure.
85. A04 AMP

(1) Preignition is caused by improper ignition timing.
(2) Detonation occurs when an area of the combustion chamber becomes
incandescent and ignites the fuel/air mixture in advance of normal timed
ignition.
A. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
B. only No. 1 is true.
C. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
86. A04 AMP

Which of the following engine servicing operations generally requires
engine pre oiling prior to starting the engine?
A. Engine installation.
B. Replacement of oil lines.
C. Engine oil and filter change.
87. A04 AMP

During the inspection of an engine control system in which push pull
control rods are used, the threaded rod ends should
A. not be adjusted in length for rigging purposes because the rod ends
have been properly positioned and staked during manufacture.
B. be checked for thread engagement of at least two threads but not
more than four threads.
C. be checked for the amount of thread engagement by means of the
inspection holes.
88. A04 AMP

Which of the following conditions would most likely lead to detonation?
A. Late ignition timing.
B. Use of fuel with too low an octane rating.
C. Use of fuel with too high an octane rating.
89. A04 AMP

An unsupercharged aircraft reciprocating engine, operated at full
throttle from sea level, to 10,000 feet, provided the RPM is unchanged,
will
A. lose power due to the reduced volume of air drawn into the
cylinders.
B. lose power due to the reduced density of the air drawn into the
cylinders.
C. produce constant power due to the same volume of air drawn into the
cylinders.
90. A04 AMP

Which of the following would most likely cause a reciprocating engine to
backfire through the induction system at low RPM operation?
A. Clogged derichment valve.
B. Idle mixture too rich.
C. Lean mixture.
91. A04 AMP

How may it be determined that a reciprocating engine with a dry sump is
pre oiled sufficiently?
A. When the quantity of oil specified by the manufacturer has been
pumped into the engine.
B. Oil will flow from the engine return line or indicator port.
C. The engine oil pressure gauge will indicate normal oil pressure.
92. A04 AMP

What is the basic operational sequence for reducing the power output of
an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller?
A. Reduce the manifold pressure, then the RPM.
B. Reduce the RPM, then the manifold pressure.
C. Reduce the manifold pressure, then retard the throttle to obtain
the correct RPM.
93. A04 AMP

Which statement pertaining to fuel/air ratios is true?
A. The mixture ratio which gives the best power is richer than the
mixture ratio which gives maximum economy.
B. The mixture ratio which gives maximum economy may also be
designated as best power mixture.
C. A rich mixture is faster burning than a normal mixture.
94. A04 AMP

Which of these conditions will cause an engine to have an increased
tendency to detonate?
1. High manifold pressure.
2. High intake air temperature.
3. Engine overheated.
4. Late ignition timing.
A. 1, 4.
B. 1, 2, 3, 4.
C. 1, 2, 3.
95. A04 AMP

When will small induction system air leaks have the most noticeable
effect on engine operation?
A. At low RPM.
B. At maximum continuous and takeoff power settings.
C. At high RPM.
96. A04 AMP

To reduce the power output of an engine equipped with a constant speed
propeller and operating near maximum BMEP, the
A. RPM is reduced with the propeller control before the manifold
pressure is reduced with the throttle control.
B. manifold pressure is reduced with the propeller control before the
RPM is reduced with the throttle control.
C. manifold pressure is reduced with the throttle control before the
RPM is reduced with the propeller control.
97. A04 AMP

One of the best indicators of reciprocating engine combustion chamber
problems is
A. spark plug condition.
B. starting difficulties.
C. excessive engine vibration.
98. A04 AMP

What could cause excessive pressure buildup in the crankcase of a
A. Improper warmup operation.
B. Plugged crankcase breather.
C. An excessive quantity of oil.
99. A04 AMP

Excessive valve clearance in a piston engine
A. increases valve overlap.
B. increases valve opening time.
C. decreases valve overlap.
100. A04 AMP

To what altitude will a turbo charged engine maintain sea level
pressure?
A. Service ceiling.
B. Critical altitude.
C. Pressure altitude.
101. A04 AMP

If air is heard coming from the crankcase breather or oil filler during
a differential compression check, what is this an indication of?
A. Exhaust valve leakage.
B. Intake valve leakage.
C. Piston ring leakage.
102. A04 AMP

One cause of afterfiring in an aircraft engine is
A. sticking intake valves.
B. an excessively rich mixture.
C. an excessively lean mixture.
103. B01 AMP

At what point in an axial flow turbojet engine will the highest gas
pressures occur?
A. At the compressor outlet.
B. Within the burner section.
C. At the turbine entrance.
104. B01 AMP

One function of the nozzle diaphragm in a turbine engine is to?
A. Direct the flow of gases to strike the turbine blades at the
desired angle.
B. Center the fuel spray in the combustion chamber.
C. Decrease the velocity of exhaust gases.
105. B01 AMP

What is the profile of a turbine engine compressor blade?
A. The curvature of the blade root.
B. The leading edge of the blade.
C. A cutout that reduces blade tip thickness.
106. B01 AMP

The fan rotational speed of a dual axial compressor forward fan engine
is the same as the
A. high pressure compressor.
B. low pressure compressor.
C. forward turbine wheel.
107. B01 AMP

The abbreviation "P" with subscript t7 used in turbine engine
terminology means
A. the total inlet pressure.
B. pressure and temperature at station No. 7.
C. the total pressure at station No. 7.
108. B01 AMP

The blending of blades and vanes in a turbine engine
A. may sometimes be accomplished with the engine installed, ordinarily
using power tools.
B. is usually accomplished only at engine overhaul.
C. should be performed parallel to the length of the blade using
smooth contours to minimize stress points.
109. B01 AMP

What turbine engine section provides for proper mixing of the fuel and
air?
A. Combustion section.
B. Compressor section.
C. Diffuser section.
110. B01 AMP

In a gas turbine engine, combustion occurs at a constant
A. volume.
B. pressure.
C. density.
111. B01 AMP

Which statement is true regarding jet engines?
A. The thrust delivered per pound of air consumed is less at high
altitude than at low altitude.
B. At the higher engine speeds, thrust increases rapidly with small
increases in RPM.
C. At the lower engine speeds, thrust increases rapidly with small
increases in RPM.
112. B01 AMP

Some high volume turboprop and turbojet engines are equipped with two
spool or split compressors. When these engines are operated at high
altitudes, the
A. throttle must be retarded to prevent overspeeding of the high
pressure rotor due to the lower density air.
B. low pressure rotor will decrease in speed as the compressor load
decreases in the lower density air.
C. low pressure rotor will increase in speed as the compressor load
decreases in the lower density air.
113. B01 AMP

Turbine nozzle diaphragms located on the upstream side of each turbine
wheel, are used in the gas turbine engine to
A. decrease the velocity of the heated gases flowing past this point.
B. direct the flow of gases parallel to the vertical line of the
turbine blades.
C. increase the velocity of the heated gases flowing past this point.
114. B01 AMP

Where is the highest gas pressure in a turbojet engine?
A. In the entrance of the burner section.
B. At the outlet of the tailpipe section.
C. At the entrance of the turbine section.
115. B01 AMP

An exhaust cone placed aft of the turbine in a jet engine will cause the
pressure in the first part of the exhaust duct to
A. increase and the velocity to decrease.
B. increase and the velocity to increase.
C. decrease and the velocity to increase.
116. B01 AMP

What is the function of the stator vane assembly at the discharge end of
a typical axial flow compressor?
A. To increase air swirling motion into the combustion chambers.
B. To direct the flow of gases into the combustion chambers.
C. To straighten airflow to eliminate turbulence.
117. B01 AMP

The turbine section of a jet engine
A. increases air velocity to generate thrust forces.
B. utilizes heat energy to expand and accelerate the incoming gas
flow.
C. drives the compressor section.
118. B01 AMP

In the dual axial flow or twin spool compressor system, the first stage
turbine drives the
A. N1 compressor.
B. N2 compressor.
C. N1 and N2 compressors.
119. B01 AMP

During inspection, turbine engine components exposed to high
temperatures may only be marked with such materials as allowed by the
manufacturer. These materials generally include
1. layout dye.
2. commercial felt tip marker.
3. wax or grease pencil.
4. chalk.
5. graphite lead pencil.
A. 2, 4, and 5.
B. 1, 2, and 4.
C. 1, 3, and 4.
120. B01 AMP

When starting a turbine engine, a hung start is indicated if the engine
A. exhaust gas temperature exceeds specified limits.
B. fails to reach idle RPM.
C. RPM exceeds specified operating speed.
121. B01 AMP

What are the two basic elements of the turbine section in a turbine
engine?
A. Hot and cold.
B. Stator and rotor.
C. Impeller and diffuser.
122. B01 AMP

The function of the exhaust cone assembly of a turbine engine is to
A. swirl and collect the exhaust gases into a single exhaust jet.
B. straighten and collect the exhaust gases into a solid exhaust jet.
C. collect the exhaust gases and act as a noise suppressor.
123. B01 AMP
What are the two functional elements in a centrifugal compressor?
A. Turbine and compressor.
B. Impeller and diffuser.
C. Bucket and expander.
124. B01 AMP

What must be done after the fuel control unit has been replaced on an
aircraft gas turbine engine?
A. Recalibrate the fuel nozzles.
B. Retrim the engine.
C. perform a full power engine run to check fuel flow
125. B01 AMP

If, during inspection at engine overhaul, ball or roller bearings are
found to have magnetism but otherwise have no defects, they
A. must be degaussed before use.
B. are in an acceptable service condition.
C. cannot be used again.
126. B01 AMP

A turbine engine compressor which contains vanes on both sides of the
impeller is a
A. double entry axial flow compressor.
B. double entry centrifugal compressor.
C. single entry axial flow compressor.
127. B01 AMP

What is the first engine instrument indication of a successful start of
a turbine engine?
A. A rise in the engine fuel flow.
B. A rise in oil pressure.
C. A rise in the exhaust gas temperature.
128. B01 AMP

Some engine manufacturers of twin spool gas turbine engines identify
turbine discharge pressure in their maintenance manuals as
A. Pt7.
B. Tt7.
C. Pt2.
129. B01 AMP

Who establishes the recommended operating time between overhauls (TBO)
of a turbine engine used in general aviation?
A. The engine manufacturer.
B. The operator (utilizing manufacturer data and trend analysis)
working in conjunction with the FAA.
C. The FAA.
130. B01 AMP
The basic gas turbine engine is divided into two main sections: the
cold section and the hot section.
(1) The cold section includes the engine inlet, compressor, and turbine
sections.
(2) The hot section includes the combustor, diffuser, and exhaust
sections.
131. B01 AMP

(1) Welding and straightening of turbine engine rotating airfoils does
not require special equipment.
(2) Welding and straightening of turbine engine rotating airfoils is
commonly recommended by the manufacturer.
C. only No. 2 is true.
132. B01 AMP

Main bearing oil seals used with turbine engines are usually what
type(s)?
A. Labyrinth and/or carbon rubbing.
B. Teflon and synthetic rubber.
C. Labyrinth and/or silicone rubber.
133. B02 AMP

How does a dual axial flow compressor improve the efficiency of a
turbojet engine?
A. The velocity of the air entering the combustion chamber is
increased.
B. More turbine wheels can be used.
C. Higher compression ratios can be obtained.
134. B02 AMP

Three types of turbine blades are
A. impulse, reaction, and impulse reaction.
B. impulse, vector, and impulse-vector.
C. reaction, converging, and diverging.
135. B02 AMP

Which statements are true regarding aircraft engine propulsion?
1. An engine driven propeller imparts a relatively small amount of
acceleration to a large mass of air.
2. Turbojet and turbofan engines impart a relatively large amount of
acceleration to a smaller mass of air.
3. In modern turboprop engines, nearly 50 percent of the exhaust gas
energy is extracted by turbines to drive the propeller and compressor
with the rest providing exhaust thrust.
A. 1, 2.
B. 1, 2, 3.
C. 1, 3.
136. B02 AMP

An advantage of the axial flow compressor is its
A. low starting power requirements.
B. high peak efficiency.
C. low weight.
137. B02 AMP

What is one purpose of the stator blades in the compressor section of a
turbine engine?
A. Stabilize the pressure of the airflow.
B. Increase the velocity of the airflow.
C. Control the direction of the airflow.
138. B02 AMP

What is the purpose of the diffuser section in a turbine engine?
A. To reduce pressure and increase velocity.
B. To convert pressure to velocity.
C. To increase pressure and reduce velocity.
139. B02 AMP

Where do stress rupture cracks usually appear on turbine blades?
A. Along the leading edge, parallel to the edge.
B. Across the blade root, parallel to the fir tree.
C. Across the leading or trailing edge at a right angle to the edge
length.
140. B02 AMP

In which type of turbine engine combustion chamber is the case and liner
removed and installed as one unit during routine maintenance?
A. Can-annular.
B. Can.
C. Annular.
141. B02 AMP

The diffuser section of a jet engine is located between
A. the compressor section and the burner section.
B. station No. 7 and station No. 8.
C. the burner section and the turbine section.
142. B02 AMP

When the leading edge of a first stage turbine blade is found to have
stress rupture cracks, which of the following should be suspected?
A. Overspeed condition.
B. Overtemperature condition.
C. Faulty cooling shield.
143. B02 AMP

Turbine blades are generally more susceptible to operating damage than
compressor blades because of
A. higher centrifugal loading.
B. high pressure and high velocity gas flow.
C. exposure to high temperatures.
144. B02 AMP

Which of the following is the ultimate limiting factor of turbine engine
operation?
A. Compressor inlet air temperature.
B. Turbine inlet temperature.
C. Burner can pressure.
145. B02 AMP

The recurrent ingestion of dust or other fine airborne particulates into
a turbine engine can result in
A. foreign object damage to the compressor section.
B. erosion damage to the compressor and turbine sections.
C. the need for less frequent abrasive grit cleaning of the engine.
146. B02 AMP

Which of the following engine variables is the most critical during
turbine engine operation?
A. Turbine inlet temperature.
B. Compressor inlet air temperature.
C. Compressor RPM.
147. B02 AMP

Reduced blade vibration and improved airflow characteristics in gas
turbines are brought about by
A. fir tree blade attachment.
B. shrouded turbine rotor blades.
C. impulse type blades.
148. B02 AMP

Which turbine engine compressor offers the greatest advantages for both
starting flexibility and improved high altitude performance?
A. Split spool, axial flow.
B. Dual stage, centrifugal flow.
C. Single spool, axial flow.
149. B02 AMP

Jet engine turbine blades removed for detailed inspection must be
reinstalled in
A. a specified slot 180° away.
B. a specified slot 90° away in the direction of rotation.
C. the same slot.
150. B02 AMP

An advantage of the centrifugal flow compressor is its high
A. pressure rise per stage.
B. peak efficiency.
C. ram efficiency.
151. B02 AMP

The highest heat to metal contact in a jet engine is the
A. turbine inlet guide vanes.
B. turbine blades.
C. burner cans.
152. B02 AMP

Which two elements make up the axial flow compressor assembly?
A. Compressor and manifold.
B. Rotor and stator.
C. Stator and diffuser.
153. B02 AMP

The two types of centrifugal compressor impellers are
A. rotor and stator.
B. single entry and double entry.
C. impeller and diffuser.
154. B02 AMP

Between each row of rotating blades in a turbine engine compressor,
there is a row of stationary blades which act to diffuse the air. These
stationary blades are called
A. buckets.
B. rotors.
C. stators.
155. B02 AMP

Standard sea level pressure is
A. 29.92" Hg.
B. 29.00" Hg.
C. 29.29" Hg.
156. B02 AMP

Using standard atmospheric conditions, the standard sea level
temperature is
A. 59 °F.
B. 29 °C.
C. 59 °C.
157. B02 AMP

When aircraft turbine blades are subjected to excessive heat stress,
what type of failures would you expect?
A. Torsion and tension.
B. Bending and torsion.
C. Stress rupture.
158. B02 AMP

Compressor field cleaning on turbine engines is performed primarily in
order to
A. prevent engine oil contamination and subsequent engine bearing wear
or damage.
B. facilitate flight line inspection of engine inlet and compressor
areas for defects or FOD.
C. prevent engine performance degradation, increased fuel costs, and
damage or corrosion to gas path surfaces.
159. B02 AMP

Hot section inspections for many modern turbine engines are required
A. on a time or cycle basis.
B. only when an overtemperature or overspeed has occurred.
C. only at engine overhaul.
160. B02 AMP

A purpose of the shrouds on the turbine blades of an axial flow engine
is to
A. reduce vibration.
B. increase tip speed.
C. reduce air entrance.
161. B02 AMP

What should be done initially if a turbine engine catches fire when
starting?
A. Continue starting attempt in order to blow out the fire.
B. Continue engine start rotation and discharge a fire extinguisher
into the intake.
C. Turn off the fuel and continue engine rotation with the starter.
162. B02 AMP

What is the proper starting sequence for a turbojet engine?
A. Starter, ignition, fuel.
B. Starter, fuel, ignition.
C. Ignition, starter, fuel.
163. B02 AMP

What is used in turbine engines to aid in stabilization of compressor
airflow during low thrust engine operation?
A. Variable guide vanes and/or compressor bleed valves.
B. Stator vanes and rotor vanes.
C. Pressurization and dump valves.
164. B02 AMP
In a turbine engine with a dual spool compressor, the low speed
compressor
A. seeks its own best operating speed.
B. always turns at the same speed as the high speed compressor.
C. is connected directly to the high speed compressor.
165. B02 AMP

Hot spots on the tail cone of a turbine engine are possible indicators
of a malfunctioning fuel nozzle or
A. an improperly positioned tail cone.
B. a faulty combustion chamber.
C. a faulty igniter plug.
166. B02 AMP

The stator vanes in an axial flow compressor
A. direct air into the first stage rotor vanes at the proper angle.
B. convert pressure energy into velocity energy.
C. convert velocity energy into pressure energy.
167. B02 AMP

The velocity of subsonic air as it flows through a convergent nozzle
A. increases.
B. remains constant.
C. decreases.
168. B02 AMP

The velocity of supersonic air as it flows through a divergent nozzle
A. increases.
B. decreases.
C. is inversely proportional to the temperature.
169. B02 AMP

The pressure of subsonic air as it flows through a convergent nozzle
A. remains constant.
B. increases.
C. decreases.
170. B02 AMP

The pressure of supersonic air as it flows through a divergent nozzle
A. is inversely proportional to the temperature.
B. increases.
C. decreases.
171. B02 AMP

Anti icing of jet engine air inlets is commonly accomplished by
A. engine bleed air ducted through the critical areas.
B. electrical heating elements located within the engine air inlet
cowling.
C. electrical heating elements inside the inlet guide vanes.
172. B02 AMP
Generally, when starting a turbine engine, the starter should be
disengaged
A. when the ignition and fuel system are activated.
B. after the engine has reached self-accelerating speed.
C. only after the engine has reached full idle RPM.
173. B02 AMP

What is the primary advantage of an axial flow compressor over a
centrifugal compressor?
A. Less expensive.
B. Greater pressure ratio.
C. High frontal area.
174. B02 AMP

The purpose of a bleed valve, located in the beginning stages of the
compressor, in an aircraft gas turbine engine is to
A. Vent high ram air pressure overboard to prevent a compressor stall.
B. vent some of the air overboard to prevent a compressor stall.
C. Control excessively high RPM to prevent a compressor stall.
175. B02 AMP

What is the major function of the turbine assembly in a turbojet engine?
A. Supplies the power to turn the compressor.
B. Directs the gases in the proper direction to the tailpipe.
C. Increases the temperature of the exhaust gases.
176. B02 AMP

A gas turbine engine comprises which three main sections?
A. Compressor, diffuser, and stator.
B. Turbine, compressor, and combustion.
C. Turbine, combustion, and stator.
177. B02 AMP

What type of turbine blade is most commonly used in aircraft jet
engines?
A. Reaction.
B. Impulse.
C. Impulse-reaction.
178. B02 AMP

What is the primary factor which controls the pressure ratio of an axial
flow compressor?
A. Compressor inlet temperature.
B. Compressor inlet pressure.
C. Number of stages in compressor.
179. B02 AMP

The non-rotating axial-flow compressor airfoils in an aircraft gas
turbine engine, are called
A. stator vanes.
B. pressurization vanes.
C. bleed vanes.
180. B02 AMP

(1) In a turbine engine axial flow compressor, each consecutive pair of
rotor and stator blades constitutes a pressure stage.
(2) In a turbine engine axial flow compressor, the number of rows of
stages is determined by the amount of air and total pressure rise
required.
181. B02 AMP

The air passing through the combustion chamber of a turbine engine is
A. speeded up and heated by the action of the turbines.
B. entirely combined with fuel and burned.
C. used to support combustion and to cool the engine.
182. B02 AMP

The procedure for removing the accumulation of dirt deposits on
compressor blades is called
A. the soak method.
B. the purging process.
C. field cleaning.
183. B02 AMP

Which of the following may be used to accomplish internal inspection of
an assembled turbine engine?
1. Infrared photography.
2. Ultrasound.
3. A borescope.
4. Fluorescent penetrant and ultraviolet light.
A. 1, 2, 3.
B. 1, 3.
C. 3.
184. B03 AMP

What is the possible cause when a turbine engine indicates no change in
power setting parameters, but oil temperature is high?
A. Engine main bearing distress.
B. High scavenge pump oil flow.
C. Turbine damage and/or loss of turbine efficiency.
185. B03 AMP

Newton's First Law of Motion, generally termed the Law of Inertia,
states:
A. To every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
B. Every body persists in its state of rest, or of motion in a
straight line, unless acted upon by some outside force.
C. Force is proportional to the product of mass and acceleration.
186. B03 AMP

A turbine engine hot section is particularly susceptible to which kind
of damage?
A. Scoring.
B. Cracking.
C. Galling.
187. B03 AMP

Dirt particles in the air being introduced into the compressor of a
turbine engine will form a coating on all but which of the following?
A. Turbine blades.
B. Casings.
C. Inlet guide vanes.
188. B03 AMP

Severe rubbing of turbine engine compressor blades will usually cause
A. galling.
B. bowing.
C. cracking.
189. B03 AMP

Which of the following influences the operation of an automatic fuel
control unit on a turbojet engine?
A. Exhaust gas temperature.
B. Burner pressure.
C. Mixture control position.
190. B03 AMP

If a turbine engine is unable to reach takeoff EPR before its EGT limit
is reached, this is an indication that the
A. compressor may be contaminated or damaged.
B. fuel control must be replaced.
C. EGT controller is out of adjustment.
191. B03 AMP

The Brayton cycle is known as the constant
A. mass cycle.
B. temperature cycle.
C. pressure cycle.
192. B03 AMP

Continued and/or excessive heat and centrifugal force on turbine engine
rotor blades is likely to cause
A. creep.
B. profile.
C. galling.
193. B03 AMP

If the RPM of an axial flow compressor remains constant, the angle of
attack of the rotor blades can be changed by
A. changing the velocity of the airflow.
B. changing the compressor diameter.
C. increasing the pressure ratio.
194. B03 AMP

The compression ratio of an axial flow compressor is a function of the
A. number of compressor stages.
B. air inlet velocity.
C. rotor diameter.
195. B03 AMP

Which of the following variables affect the inlet air density of a
turbine engine?
1. Speed of the aircraft.
2. Compression ratio.
3. Turbine inlet temperature.
4. Altitude of the aircraft.
5. Ambient temperature.
6. Turbine and compressor efficiency.
A. 1, 3, 6.
B. 4, 5, 6.
C. 1, 4, 5.
196. B03 AMP

Why do some turbine engines have more than one turbine wheel attached to
a single shaft?
A. To help stabilize the pressure between the compressor and the
turbine.
B. To extract more power from the exhaust gases than a single wheel
can absorb.
C. To facilitate balancing of the turbine assembly.
197. B03 AMP

The exhaust section of a turbine engine is designed to
A. increase temperature, therefore increasing velocity.
B. impart a high exit velocity to the exhaust gases.
C. decrease temperature, therefore decreasing pressure.
198. B03 AMP

Which of the following types of combustion sections are used in aircraft
turbine engines?
A. Can, multiple can, and variable.
B. Multiple can, annular, and can-annular.
C. Annular, variable, and cascade vane.
199. B03 AMP
A cool-off period prior to shutdown of a turbine engine is accomplished
in order to
A. prevent vapor lock in the fuel control and/or fuel lines.
B. allow the turbine wheel to cool before the case contracts around
it.
C. prevent seizure of the engine bearings.
200. B03 AMP

What is meant by a shrouded turbine?
A. The turbine wheel has a shroud or duct which provides cooling air
to the turbine blades.
B. The turbine blades are shaped so that their ends form a band or
shroud.
C. The turbine wheel is enclosed by a protective shroud to contain the
blades in case of failure.
201. B03 AMP

What term is used to describe a permanent and cumulative deformation of
the turbine blades of a turbojet engine?
A. Stretch.
B. Distortion.
C. Creep.
202. B03 AMP

At what stage in a turbine engine are gas pressures the greatest?
A. Compressor inlet.
B. Turbine outlet.
C. Compressor outlet.
203. B03 AMP

In what section of a turbojet engine is the jet nozzle located?
A. Exhaust.
B. Turbine.
C. Combustion.
204. B03 AMP

(1) Accumulation of contaminates in the compressor of a turbojet engine
reduces aerodynamic efficiency of the blades.
(2) Two common methods for removing dirt deposits from turbojet engine
compressor blades are a fluid wash and an abrasive grit blast.
205. B03 AMP

Hot spots in the combustion section of a turbojet engine are possible
indicators of
A. faulty igniter plugs.
B. malfunctioning fuel nozzles.
C. dirty compressor blades.
206. B03 AMP

Which of the following can cause fan blade shingling in a turbofan
engine?
1. Engine overspeed.
2. Engine overtemperature.
3. Large, rapid throttle movements.
4. FOD.
A. 1, 4.
B. 1, 2.
C. 1, 2, 3, 4.
207. B03 AMP

A condition known as "hot streaking" in turbine engines is caused by
A. excessive fuel flow.
B. a misaligned combustion liner.
C. a partially clogged fuel nozzle.
208. C01 AMP

(Refer to figure 1.) Determine which portion of the AD is applicable for
Model O-690 series engine, serial No. 5863-40 with 283 hours' time in
service.
A. (B), (1).
B. (A).
C. (B), (2).
209. C01 AMP

A Cessna 180 aircraft has a McCauley propeller Model No. 2A34C50/90A.
The propeller is severely damaged in a ground accident, and this model
propeller is not available for replacement. Which of the following
should be used to find an approved alternate replacement?
A. Aircraft Engine and Propeller Specifications/ Type Certificate Data
Sheets.
B. Summary of Supplemental Type Certificates.
C. Aircraft Specifications/Type Certificate Data Sheets.
210. C01 AMP

Which of the following is used to monitor the mechanical integrity of
the turbines, as well as to check engine operating conditions of a
turbine engine?
A. Engine pressure ratio.
B. Engine oil pressure.
C. Exhaust gas temperature.
211. C01 AMP

On a reciprocating engine aircraft using a shrouded exhaust muffler
system as a source for cabin heat, the exhaust system should be
A. visually inspected for any indication of cracks or an operational
carbon monoxide detection test should be done.
B. removed and the exhaust muffler checked for cracks by using
magnetic particle inspection method or an hydrostatic test should be
done on the exhaust muffler.
C. replaced at each reciprocating engine overhaul by a new or
overhauled exhaust system or an hydrostatic test should be accomplished.
212. C01 AMP

(1) Airworthiness Directives are Federal Aviation Regulations and must
be complied with unless specific exemption is granted.
(2) Airworthiness Directives of an emergency nature may require
immediate compliance upon receipt.
213. C01 AMP

Which of the following contains a minimum checklist for 100-hour
inspections of engines?
A. 14 CFR Part 33 Appendix A.
B. 14 CFR Part 43 Appendix D.
C. Engine Specifications or Type Certificate Data Sheets.
214. C01 AMP

When must an Airworthiness Directive (AD) be complied with after it
becomes effective?
A. As specified in the AD.
B. At the next scheduled overhaul.
C. During the next scheduled inspection.
215. C01 AMP

Which of the following contains a table that lists the engines to which
a given propeller is adaptable?
A. Propeller Type Certificate Data Sheets.
B. Engine Type Certificate Data Sheets.
C. Aircraft Type Certificate Data Sheets.
216. C01 AMP

Which of the following component inspections is to be accomplished on a
100-hour inspection?
A. Check internal timing of magneto.
B. Check cylinder compression.
C. Check valve timing.
217. C01 AMP

You are performing a 100-hour inspection on an R985-22 aircraft engine.
What does the "985" indicate?
A. The total piston displacement of the engine.
B. The pistons will pump a maximum of 985 cubic inches of air per
crankshaft revolution.
C. The total piston displacement of one cylinder.
218. C01 AMP
Straightening nitrided crankshafts is
A. approved by the manufacturer.
B. not recommended.
C. recommended.
219. C01 AMP

The breaking loose of small pieces of metal from coated surfaces,
usually caused by defective plating or excessive loads, is called
A. chafing.
B. flaking.
C. brinelling.
220. C01 AMP

Each powerplant installed on an airplane with a Standard Airworthiness
Certificate must have been
A. manufactured under the TSO system.
B. type certificated.
C. originally certificated for that aircraft.
221. C01 AMP

Indentations on bearing races caused by high static loads are known as
A. fretting.
B. brinelling.
C. galling.
222. C01 AMP

When inspecting an aircraft reciprocating engine what document is used
to determine if the proper magnetos are installed?
A. Engine Manufacturer's Maintenance Manual.
B. Instruction for continued airworthiness issued by the engine
manufacturer.
C. Aircraft Engine Specifications or Type Certificate Data Sheets.
223. C01 AMP

Which of the following can inspect and approve an engine major repair
for return to service?
A. Certificated mechanic with a powerplant rating.
B. Certificated mechanic with inspection authorization.
C. Certificated mechanic with airframe and powerplant ratings.
224. C01 AMP

What publication is used for guidance to determine whether a powerplant
repair is major or minor?
A. Federal Aviation Regulations, Part 43, appendix A.
B. Technical Standard Orders.
C. Airworthiness Directives.
225. C01 AMP
The airworthiness standards for the issue of type certificates for small
airplanes with nine or less passenger seats in the normal, utility, and
acrobatic categories may be found in the
A. Federal Aviation Regulations, Part 23.
B. Supplemental Type Certificate.
C. Federal Aviation Regulations, Part 21.
226. C01 AMP

Which of the following contains approved data for performing a major
repair to an aircraft engine?
A. Manufacturer's maintenance instructions when FAA approved.
B. Supplemental Type Certificates.
C. Engine Type Certificate Data Sheets.
227. C01 AMP

What maintenance record(s) is/are required following a major repair of
an aircraft engine?
A. Entries in engine maintenance records and a list of discrepancies
for the FAA.
B. Entries in the engine maintenance record and FAA Form 337.
C. Entry in logbook.
228. C01 AMP

A ground incident that results in propeller sudden stoppage would
require a crankshaft runout inspection. What publication would be used
to obtain crankshaft runout tolerance?
A. Type Certificate Data Sheet.
B. Current manufacturer's maintenance instructions.
C. AC 43.13-1A, Acceptable Methods, Techniques, and Practices
Aircraft Inspection and Repair.
229. C01 AMP

Select the Airworthiness Directive applicability statement which applies
to an IVO 355 engine, serial number T8164, with 2,100 hours' total time
and 300 hours since rebuilding.
A. Applies to all IVO 355 engines, serial numbers T8000 through T8900
with 2,400 hours or more total time.
B. Applies to all IVO 355 engines, serial numbers T8000 through T8300,
having less than 2,400 hours' total time.
C. Applies to all I.O. and TV10-355 engines, all serial numbers
regardless of total time or since overhaul.
230. C01 AMP

What publication contains the mandatory replacement time for parts of a
turbine engine?
A. Airworthiness directive issued by the engine manufacturer.
B. Engine Manufacturer's maintenance manual.
C. Engine Manufacturer's service instructions.
231. C01 AMP

How are discharge nozzles in a fuel injected reciprocating engine
identified to indicate the flow range?
A. By an identification metal tag attached to the nozzle body.
B. By an identification letter stamped on one of the hexes of the
nozzle body.
C. By color codes on the nozzle body.
232. C01 AMP

What section in the instructions for continued airworthiness is FAA
approved?
A. Engine overhaul manual or section.
B. Airworthiness limitations section.
C. Engine maintenance manual or section.
233. C01 AMP

Which of the following conditions is usually not acceptable to any
extent in turbine blades?
A. Pits.
B. Cracks.
C. Dents.
234. C01 AMP

(1) Serviceability limits for turbine blades are much more stringent
than are those for turbine nozzle vanes.
(2) A limited number of small nicks and dents can usually be permitted
in any area of a turbine blade.
A. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
B. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
235. H01 AMP

Which unit most accurately indicates fuel consumption of a reciprocating
engine?
A. Fuel flowmeter.
B. Fuel pressure gauge.
C. Electronic fuel quantity indicator.
236. H01 AMP

The fuel flowmeter used with a continuous-fuel injection system
installed on an aircraft horizontally opposed reciprocating engines
measures the fuel pressure drop across the
A. metering valve.
B. fuel nozzles.
C. manifold valve.
237. H01 AMP

The principal fault in the pressure type fuel flowmeter indicating
system, installed on a horizontally opposed continuous-flow fuel
injected aircraft reciprocating engine, is that a plugged fuel
injection nozzle will cause a
A. lower than normal fuel flow indication.
B. higher than normal fuel flow indication.
C. normal operation indication.
238. H01 AMP

Motor driven impeller and turbine fuel flow transmitters are designed to
transmit data
A. mechanically.
B. using aircraft electrical system power.
C. by fuel pressure.
239. H01 AMP

The fuel flow indicator rotor and needle for a motor impeller and
turbine indicating system is driven by
A. a mechanical gear train.
B. an electrical signal.
C. direct coupling to the motor shaft.
240. H01 AMP

On a twin engine aircraft with fuel injected reciprocating engines, one
fuel flow indicator reads considerably higher than the other in all
engine operating configurations. What is the probable cause of this
indication?
A. Alternate air door stuck open.
B. One or more fuel nozzles are clogged.
C. Carburetor icing.
241. H01 AMP

The fuel flow indication system used with many fuel-injected opposed
engine airplanes utilizes a measure of
A. fuel flow mass.
B. fuel flow volume.
C. fuel pressure.
242. H01 AMP

In addition to fuel quantity, a computerized fuel system (CFS) with a
totalizer indicator provides indication of how many of the following?
1. Fuel flow rate.
2. Fuel used since reset or initial start up.
3. Fuel time remaining at current power setting.
4. Fuel temperature.
A. Four.
B. Three.
C. Two.
243. H01 AMP

The fuel flow indication data sent from motor driven impeller and
turbine, and motorless type fuel flow transmitters is a measure of
A. fuel mass flow.
B. fuel volume flow.
C. engine burner pressure drop.
244. H02 AMP
A manifold pressure gauge is designed to
A. maintain constant pressure in the intake manifold.
B. indicate differential pressure between the intake manifold and
atmospheric pressure.
C. indicate absolute pressure in the intake manifold.
245. H02 AMP

Which of the following types of electric motors are commonly used in
electric tachometers?
A. Direct current, shunt-wound motors.
B. Direct current, series wound motors.
C. Synchronous motors.
246. H02 AMP

Where are the hot and cold junctions located in an engine cylinder
temperature indicating system?
A. The hot junction is located at the cylinder and the cold junction
is located at the instrument.
B. Both junctions are located at the cylinder.
C. Both junctions are located at the instrument.
247. H02 AMP

Basically, the indicator of a tachometer system is responsive to change
in
A. current flow.
B. voltage.
C. frequency.
248. H02 AMP

Which statement is correct concerning a thermocouple type temperature
indicating instrument system?
A. It usually contains a balancing circuit in the instrument case to
prevent fluctuations of the system voltage from affecting the
temperature reading.
B. It is a balanced type, variable resistor circuit.
C. It requires no external power source.
249. H02 AMP

Which statement is true regarding a thermocouple type cylinder head
temperature measuring system?
A. When the master switch is turned on, a thermocouple indicator will
move off scale to the low side.
B. The voltage output of a thermocouple system is determined by the
temperature difference between the two ends of the thermocouple.
C. The resistance required for cylinder head temperature indicators is
measured in farads.
250. H02 AMP

What basic meter is used to indicate cylinder head temperature in most
aircraft?
A. Electrodynamometer.
B. Galvanometer.
C. Thermocouple type meter.
251. H02 AMP

Which of the following is a primary engine instrument?
A. Tachometer.
B. Airspeed indicator.
C. Fuel flowmeter.
252. H02 AMP

A complete break in the line between the manifold pressure gauge and the
induction system will be indicated by the gauge registering
A. lower than normal for conditions prevailing.
B. prevailing atmospheric pressure.
C. zero.
253. H02 AMP

Engine oil temperature gauges indicate the temperature of the oil
A. entering the oil cooler.
B. entering the engine.
C. in the oil storage tank.
254. H02 AMP

Why do helicopters require a minimum of two synchronous tachometer
systems?
A. One indicates engine RPM and the other tail rotor RPM.
B. One indicates main rotor RPM and the other tail rotor RPM.
C. One indicates engine RPM and the other main rotor RPM.
255. H02 AMP

If the thermocouple leads were inadvertently crossed at installation,
what would the cylinder temperature gauge pointer indicate?
A. Normal temperature for prevailing condition.
B. Moves off scale on the zero side of the meter.
C. Moves off scale on the high side of the meter.
256. H02 AMP

A common type of electrically operated oil temperature gauge utilizes
A. vapor pressure and pressure switches.
B. a thermocouple type circuit.
C. either a wheatstone bridge or ratiometer circuit.
257. H02 AMP

The indication on a thermocouple-type cylinder head temperature
indicator is produced by
A. resistance changes in two dissimilar metals.
B. a difference in the voltage between two dissimilar metals.
C. a current generated by the temperature difference between
dissimilar metal hot and cold junctions.
258. H02 AMP

(1) Powerplant instrument range markings show whether the current state
of powerplant operation is normal, acceptable for a limited time, or
unauthorized.
(2) Powerplant instrument range markings are based on installed engine
operating limits which may not exceed (but are not necessarily equal to)
those limits shown on the engine Type Certificate Data Sheet.
B. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
259. H02 AMP

Thermocouple leads
A. are designed for a specific installation and may not be altered.
B. may be installed with either lead to either post of the indicator.
C. may be repaired using solderless connectors.
260. H02 AMP

(1) Engine pressure ratio (EPR) is a ratio of the exhaust gas pressure
to the engine inlet air pressure, and indicates the thrust produced.
(2) Engine pressure ratio (EPR) is a ratio of the exhaust gas pressure
to the engine inlet air pressure, and indicates volumetric efficiency.
261. H02 AMP

What unit in a tachometer system sends information to the indicator?
A. The two phase ac generator.
B. The three phase ac generator.
C. The synchronous motor.
262. H02 AMP

(1) Generally, when a turbine engine indicates high EGT for a particular
EPR (when there is no significant damage), it means that the engine is
out of trim.
(2) Some turbine powered aircraft use RPM as the primary indicator of
thrust produced, others use EPR as the primary indicator.
263. H02 AMP

Engine pressure ratio is determined by
A. dividing engine inlet total pressure by turbine outlet total
pressure.
B. multiplying engine inlet total pressure by turbine outlet total
pressure.
C. dividing turbine outlet total pressure by engine inlet total
pressure.
264. H02 AMP

Jet engine thermocouples are usually constructed of
A. iron constantan.
B. alumel constantan.
C. chromel alumel.
265. H02 AMP

Which of the following instrument discrepancies require replacement of
the instrument?
1. Red line missing from glass.
2. Glass cracked.
3. Case paint chipped.
4. Will not zero out.
5. Pointer loose on shaft.
6. Mounting screw loose.
7. Leaking at line B nut.
8. Fogged.
A. 2, 4, 5, 8.
B. 2, 3, 7, 8.
C. 1, 2, 4, 7.
266. H02 AMP

A Bourdon tube instrument may be used to indicate
1. pressure.
2. temperature.
3. position.
4. quantity.
A. 1 and 3.
B. 1 and 2.
C. 2 and 4.
267. H02 AMP

An indication of unregulated power changes that result in continual
drift of manifold pressure indication on a turbosuper-charged aircraft
engine is know as?
A. Bootstrapping
B. Waste gate fluctuation
C. Overshoot
268. H02 AMP

Which of the following instrument conditions is acceptable and does NOT
require immediate correction?
1. Red line missing.
2. Pointer loose on shaft.
3. Glass cracked.
4. Mounting screws loose.
5. Case paint chipped.
6. Leaking at line B nut.
7. Will not zero out.
8. Fogged.
A. 1.
B. 5.
C. 4.
269. H02 AMP

A change in engine manifold pressure has a direct effect on the
A. mean effective cylinder pressure.
B. compression ratio.
C. piston displacement.
270. H02 AMP

What instrument on a gas turbine engine should be monitored to minimize
the possibility of a "hot" start?
A. RPM indicator.
B. Torquemeter.
C. Turbine inlet temperature.
271. H02 AMP

In regard to using a turbine engine oil analysis program, which of the
following is NOT true?
A. Generally, an accurate trend forecast may be made after an engine's
first oil sample analysis.
B. It is best to start an oil analysis program on an engine when it is
new.
C. A successful oil analysis program should be run over an engine's
total operating life so that normal trends can be established.
272. H02 AMP

On an aircraft turbine engine, operating at a constant power, the
application of engine anti-icing will result in
A. a false EPR reading.
B. noticeable shift in EPR.
C. an increase in EPR.
273. H02 AMP

Engine pressure ratio is the total pressure ratio between the
A. aft end of the compressor and the aft end of the turbine.
B. front of the engine inlet and the aft end of the compressor.
C. front of the compressor and the rear of the turbine.
274. H02 AMP

What would be the possible cause if a gas turbine engine has high
exhaust gas temperature, high fuel flow, and low RPM at all engine power
settings?
A. Fuel control out of adjustment.
B. Turbine damage or loss of turbine efficiency.
C. Loose or corroded thermocouple probes for the EGT indicator.
275. H02 AMP

What is the primary purpose of the tachometer on an axial compressor
turbine engine?
A. Monitor engine RPM during cruise conditions.
B. Monitor engine RPM during starting and to indicate overspeed
conditions.
C. It is the most accurate instrument for establishing thrust settings
under all conditions.
276. H02 AMP

The exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indicator on a gas turbine engine
provides a relative indication of the
A. turbine inlet temperature.
B. temperature of the exhaust gases as they pass the exhaust cone.
C. exhaust temperature.
277. H02 AMP

In a turbine engine, where is the turbine discharge pressure indicator
sensor located?
A. At a location in the exhaust cone that is determined to be
subjected to the highest pressures.
B. Immediately aft of the last turbine stage.
C. At the aft end of the compressor section.
278. H02 AMP

In what units are turbine engine tachometers calibrated?
A. Percent of engine pressure ratio.
B. Actual engine RPM.
C. Percent of engine RPM.
279. H02 AMP

Instruments that provide readings of low or negative pressure, such as
manifold pressure gauges, are usually what type?
A. Bourdon tube.
B. Diaphragm or bellows.
C. Vane with calibrated spring.
280. H02 AMP

Instruments that measure relatively high fluid pressures, such as oil
pressure gauges, are usually what type?
A. Bourdon tube.
B. Vane with calibrated spring.
C. Diaphragm or bellows.
281. H02 AMP

The RPM indication of a synchronous ac motor tachometer is governed by
the generator
A. voltage.
B. frequency.
C. current.
282. H02 AMP

The EGT gauge used with reciprocating engines is primarily used to
furnish temperature readings in order to
A. obtain the best mixture setting for engine cooling.
B. obtain the best mixture setting for fuel efficiency.
C. prevent engine overtemperature.
283. H02 AMP

A red triangle, dot, or diamond mark on an engine instrument face or
glass indicates
A. the maximum operating limit for all normal operations.
B. a restricted operating range.
C. the maximum limit for high transients such as starting.
284. I01 AMP

Which of the following fire detectors are commonly used in the power
section of an engine nacelle?
A. CO detectors.
B. Rate of temperature rise detectors.
C. Smoke detectors.
285. I01 AMP

What is the function of a fire detection system?
A. To identify the location of a powerplant fire.
B. To discharge the powerplant fire extinguishing system at the origin
of the fire.
C. To activate a warning device in the event of a powerplant fire.
286. I01 AMP

(Refer to figure 2.) Determine the fire extinguisher container pressure
limits when the temperature is 75 °F.
A. 326 minimum and 415 maximum.
B. 338 minimum and 424 maximum.
C. 330 minimum and 419 maximum.
287. I01 AMP

How are most aircraft turbine engine fire extinguishing systems
activated?
A. Pushrod assembly.
B. Manual remote control valve.
C. Electrically discharged cartridges.
288. I01 AMP

How does carbon dioxide (CO2) extinguish an aircraft engine fire?
A. By lowering the temperature to a point where combustion will not
take place.
B. Contact with the air converts the liquid into snow and gas which
smothers the flame.
C. The high pressure spray lowers the temperature and blows out the
fire.
289. I01 AMP

What retains the nitrogen charge and fire extinguishing agent in a high
rate of discharge (HRD) container?
A. Breakable disk and fusible disk.
B. Pressure switch and check tee valve.
C. Pressure gauge and cartridge.
290. I01 AMP

A continuous loop fire detector is what type of detector?
A. Rate of temperature rise detector.
B. Spot detector.
C. Overheat detector.
291. I01 AMP

What is the operating principle of the spot detector sensor in a fire
detection system?
A. A bimetallic thermoswitch that closes when heated to a high
temperature.
B. A conventional thermocouple that produces a current flow.
C. Resistant core material that prevents current flow at normal
temperatures.
292. I01 AMP

How is the fire extinguishing agent distributed in the engine section?
A. Spray nozzles and perforated tubing.
B. Nitrogen pressure and slinger rings.
C. Spray nozzles and fluid pumps.
293. I01 AMP

Which of the following is the safest fire extinguishing agent to use
from a standpoint of toxicity and corrosion hazards?
A. Bromotrifluoromethane (Halon 1301).
B. Bromochlorodifluoromethane (Halon 1211).
C. Dibromodifluoromethane (Halon 1202).
294. I01 AMP

What is the principle of operation of the continuous loop fire detector
system sensor?
A. Core resistance material which prevents current flow at normal
temperatures.
B. Fuse material which melts at high temperatures.
C. A bimetallic thermoswitch which closes when heated to a high
temperature.
295. I01 AMP

The most satisfactory extinguishing agent for a carburetor or intake
fire is
A. methyl bromide.
B. dry chemical.
C. carbon dioxide.
296. I01 AMP

The explosive cartridge in the discharge valve of a fire extinguisher
container is
A. not a life dated unit.
B. a life dated unit.
C. mechanically fired.
297. I01 AMP

Why does one type of Fenwal fire detection system use spot detectors
wired in parallel between two separate circuits?
A. So that a double fault may exist in the system without sounding a
false alarm.
B. To provide an installation that is equal to two separate systems: a
primary system and a secondary, or back-up system.
C. So that a single fault may exist in the system without sounding a
false alarm
298. I01 AMP

Which of the following fire detection systems measures temperature rise
compared to a reference temperature?
A. Lindberg continuous element.
B. Thermal switch.
C. Thermocouple.
299. I01 AMP

The pulling out (or down) of an illuminated fire handle in a typical
large jet aircraft fire protection system commonly accomplishes what
events?
A. Closes all firewall shutoff valves, disconnects the generator, and
discharges a fire bottle.
B. Closes fuel shutoff, closes hydraulic shutoff, closes the oxygen
shutoff, disconnects the generator field, and arms the fire-
extinguishing system.
C. Closes fuel shutoff, closes hydraulic shutoff, disconnects the
generator field, and arms the fire extinguishing system.
300. I01 AMP

A fire detection system operates on the principle of a buildup of gas
pressure within a tube proportional to temperature. Which of the
following systems does this statement define?
A. Kidde continuous loop system.
B. Lindberg continuous element system.
C. Thermal switch system.
301. I01 AMP

The fire detection system that uses a single wire surrounded by a
continuous string of ceramic beads in a tube is the
A. Kidde system.
B. thermocouple system.
C. Fenwal system.
302. I01 AMP

The fire detection system that uses two wires imbedded in a ceramic core
within a tube is the
A. Kidde system.
B. Fenwal system.
C. Lindberg system.
303. I01 AMP

A fuel or oil fire is defined as a
A. class C fire.
B. class B fire.
C. class A fire.
304. I01 AMP

A fire detection system that operates on the rate of temperature rise
is a
A. continuous loop system.
B. thermal switch system.
C. thermocouple system.
305. I01 AMP

A fire involving energized electrical equipment is defined as a
A. class B fire.
B. class C fire.
C. class D fire.
306. I01 AMP

Two continuous-loop fire detection systems that will not test due to a
broken detector element are the
A. thermocouple system and the Lindberg system.
B. Kidde system and the Fenwal system.
C. Kidde system and the Lindberg system.
307. I01 AMP

In a fixed fire-extinguishing system, there are two small lines running
from the system and exiting overboard. These line exit ports are covered
with a blowout type indicator disc. Which of the following statements is
true?
A. When the yellow indicator disc is missing, it indicates the fire
extinguishing system has been normally discharged.
B. When the green indicator disc is missing, it indicates the fire
extinguishing system has had a thermal discharge.
C. When the red indicator disc is missing, it indicates the fire
extinguishing system has been normally discharged.
308. I01 AMP
The most satisfactory extinguishing agent for an electrical fire is
A. carbon dioxide.
B. carbon tetrachloride.
C. methyl bromide.
309. I01 AMP

Which of the following fire detection systems will detect a fire when an
element is inoperative but will not test when the test circuit is
energized?
A. The Kidde system and the Fenwal system.
B. The thermocouple system and the Lindberg system.
C. The Kidde system and the thermocouple system.
310. I01 AMP

Which of the following fire detection systems uses heat in the normal
testing of the system?
A. The thermocouple system and the Fenwal system.
B. The Kidde system and the Fenwal system.
C. The thermocouple system and the Lindberg system.
311. I01 AMP

After a fire is extinguished, or overheat condition removed in aircraft
equipped with a Systron-Donner fire detector, the detection system
A. must be manually reset.
B. automatically resets.
C. sensing component must be replaced.
312. I01 AMP

The use of water on class D fires
A. will cause the fire to burn more violently and can cause
explosions.
B. has no effect.
C. is most effective if sprayed in a fine mist.
313. I01 AMP

For fire detection and extinguishing purposes, aircraft powerplant areas
are divided into fire zones based on
A. hot and cold sections of the engine.
B. the volume and smoothness of the airflow through engine
compartments.
C. engine type and size.
314. I01 AMP

(Refer to figure 3.) What are the fire-extinguisher container pressure
limits when the temperature is 50 F?
A. 475 - 625 PSIG.
B. 425 - 575 PSIG.
C. 435 - 605 PSIG.
315. J01 AMP
What device is used to convert alternating current, which has been
induced into the loops of the rotating armature of a dc generator, to
direct current?
A. An inverter.
B. A commutator.
C. A rectifier.
316. J01 AMP

A certain direct current series motor mounted within an aircraft draws
more amperes during start than when it is running under its rated load.
The most logical conclusion that may be drawn is
A. the brushes are floating at operating RPM because of weak brush
springs.
B. the starting winding is shorted.
C. the condition is normal for this type of motor.
317. J01 AMP

The stationary field strength in a direct current generator is varied
A. because of generator speed.
B. by the reverse-current relay.
C. according to the load requirements.
318. J01 AMP

What type of electric motor is generally used with a direct-cranking
engine starter?
A. Direct current, shunt-wound motor.
B. Synchronous motor.
C. Direct current, series-wound motor.
319. J01 AMP

Upon what does the output frequency of an ac generator (alternator)
depend?
A. The speed of rotation and the number of field poles.
B. The speed of rotation, the strength of the field, and the number of
field poles.
C. The speed of rotation and the strength of the field.
320. J01 AMP

A high surge of current is required when a dc electric motor is first
started. As the speed of the motor increases,
A. the counter emf builds up and opposes the applied emf, thus
reducing the current flow through the armature.
B. the applied emf increases proportionally.
C. the counter emf decreases proportionally.
321. J01 AMP

Alternators (ac generators) that are driven by a constant-speed drive
(CSD) mechanism are used to regulate the alternator to a constant
A. voltage output.
B. hertz output.
C. amperage output.
322. J01 AMP

What is used to polish commutators or slip rings?
A. Very fine sandpaper.
B. Aluminum oxide or garnet paper.
C. Crocus cloth or fine oilstone.
323. J01 AMP

If a generator is malfunctioning, its voltage can be reduced to residual
by actuating the
A. rheostat.
B. generator master switch.
C. master solenoid.
324. J01 AMP

If the points in a vibrator type voltage regulator stick in the closed
position while the generator is operating, what will be the probable
result?
A. Generator output voltage will decrease.
B. Generator output voltage will not be affected.
C. Generator output voltage will increase.
325. J01 AMP

Why is a constant speed drive used to control the speed of some aircraft
engine driven generators?
A. So that the frequency of the alternating current output will remain
constant.
B. So that the voltage output of the generator will remain within
limits.
C. To eliminate uncontrolled surges of current to the electrical
system.
326. J01 AMP

According to the electron theory of the flow of electricity, when a
properly functioning dc alternator and voltage regulating system is
charging an aircraft's battery, the direction of current flow through
the battery
A. is into the negative terminal and out the positive terminal.
B. is into the positive terminal and out the negative terminal.
C. cycles back and forth with the number of cycles per second being
controlled by the rotational speed of the alternator.
327. J01 AMP

Aircraft that operate more than one generator connected to a common
electrical system must be provided with
A. individual generator switches that can be operated from the cockpit
during flight.
B. automatic generator switches that operate to isolate any generator
whose output is less than 80 percent of its share of the load.
C. an automatic device that will isolate nonessential loads from the
system if one of the generators fails.
328. J01 AMP

The most effective method of regulating aircraft direct current
generator output is to vary, according to the load requirements, the
A. number of rotating armature loops in use.
B. strength of the stationary field.
C. generator speed.
329. J01 AMP

Electric motors are often classified according to the method of
connecting the field coils and armature. Aircraft engine starter motors
are generally of which type?
A. Series.
B. Compound.
C. Shunt (parallel).
330. J01 AMP

As the generator load is increased (within its rated capacity), the
voltage will
A. decrease and the amperage output will increase.
B. remain constant and the amperage output will increase.
C. remain constant and the amperage output will decrease.
331. J01 AMP

As the flux density in the field of a dc generator increases and the
current flow to the system increases, the
A. generator voltage decreases.
B. force required to turn the generator increases.
C. generator amperage decreases.
332. J01 AMP

What is the purpose of a reverse current cutout relay?
A. It prevents fluctuations of generator voltage.
B. It opens the main generator circuit whenever the generator voltage
drops below the battery voltage.
C. It eliminates the possibility of reversed polarity of the generator
output current.
333. J01 AMP

Generator voltage will not build up when the field is flashed and solder
is found on the brush cover plate. These are most likely indications of
A. excessive brush arcing.
B. an open armature.
C. armature shaft bearings overheating.
334. J01 AMP

Why is it unnecessary to flash the field of the exciter on a brushless
alternator?
A. Brushless alternators do not have exciters.
B. Permanent magnets are installed in the main field poles.
C. The exciter is constantly charged by battery voltage.
335. J01 AMP

One way that the automatic ignition relight systems are activated on gas
turbine engines is by a
A. sensing switch located in the tailpipe.
B. drop in compressor discharge pressure.
C. drop in fuel flow.
336. J01 AMP

How are the rotor windings of an aircraft alternator usually excited?
A. By a variable direct current.
B. By a constant ac voltage from the battery.
C. By a constant ac voltage.
337. J01 AMP

What precaution is usually taken to prevent electrolyte from freezing in
a lead acid battery?
A. Keep the battery fully charged.
B. Place the aircraft in a hangar.
C. Remove the battery and keep it under constant charge.
338. J01 AMP

What is the ampere-hour rating of a storage battery that is designed to
deliver 45 amperes for 2.5 hours?
A. 90.0 ampere hour.
B. 45.0 ampere hour.
C. 112.5 ampere hour.
339. J01 AMP

How many hours will a 140 ampere-hourbattery deliver 15 amperes?
A. 9.33 hours.
B. 1.40 hours.
C. 14.0 hours.
340. J01 AMP

What is a basic advantage of using ac for electrical power for a large
aircraft?
A. AC systems operate at higher voltage than dc systems and therefore
use more current and can use smaller and lighter weight wiring.
B. AC systems operate at lower voltage than dc systems and therefore
use less current and can use smaller and lighter weight wiring.
C. AC systems operate at higher voltage than dc systems and therefore
use less current and can use smaller and lighter weight wiring.
341. J01 AMP

What are two types of ac motors that are used to produce a relatively
high torque?
A. Shunt field and single phase.
B. Three phase induction and capacitor start.
C. Shaded pole and shunt field.
342. J01 AMP

(1) Alternators are rated in volt amps, which is a measure of the
apparent power being produced by the generator.
(2) Alternating current has the advantage over direct current in that
its voltage and current can easily be stepped up or down.
343. J01 AMP

What is the frequency of most aircraft alternating current?
A. 400 Hertz.
B. 115 Hertz.
C. 60 Hertz.
344. J01 AMP

The reason for flashing the field in a generator is to
A. increase generator capacity.
B. remove excessive deposits.
C. restore correct polarity and/or residual magnetism to the field
poles.
345. J01 AMP

The part of a dc alternator power system that prevents reverse flow of
current from the battery to the alternator is the
A. voltage regulator.
B. rectifier.
C. reverse current relay.
346. J01 AMP

The generating system of an aircraft charges the battery by using
A. constant voltage and constant current.
B. constant voltage and varying current.
C. constant current and varying voltage.
347. J01 AMP

The constant current method of charging a ni-cad battery
A. is the method most effective in maintaining cell balance.
B. will bring it up to fully charged in the shortest amount of time.
C. will lead to cell imbalance over a period of time.
348. J02 AMP

(Refer to figure 4.) The following data concerning the installation of
an electrical unit is known: current requirements for continuous
operation - 11 amperes; measured cable length - 45 feet; system voltage
- 28 volts (do not exceed 1 volt drop); cable in conduit and bundles.
What is the minimum size copper electrical cable that may be selected?
A. No. 14.
B. No. 10.
C. No. 12.
349. J02 AMP

Which of the following aircraft circuits does NOT contain a fuse/circuit
breaker?
A. Starter circuit.
B. Generator circuit.
C. Air conditioning circuit.
350. J02 AMP

The maximum number of terminals that may be connected to any one
terminal stud in an aircraft electrical system is
A. four.
B. two.
C. three.
351. J02 AMP

What is the maximum number of bonding jumper wires that may be attached
to one terminal grounded to a flat surface?
A. Three.
B. Two.
C. Four.
352. J02 AMP

As a general rule, starter brushes are replaced when they are
approximately
A. two-thirds their original length.
B. one half their original length.
C. one-third their original length.
353. J02 AMP

When installing an electrical switch, under which of the following
conditions should the switch be derated from its nominal current rating?
A. Capacitive circuits.
B. Conductive circuits.
C. Direct current motor circuits.
354. J02 AMP

The resistance of the current return path through the aircraft is always
considered negligible, provided the
A. voltage drop across the circuit is checked.
B. structure is adequately bonded.
C. generator is properly grounded.
355. J02 AMP

In order to reduce the possibility of ground shorting the circuits when
the connectors are separated for maintenance, the AN and MS electrical
connectors should be installed with the
A. pin section on the positive side of the electrical circuit.
B. socket section on the ground side of the electrical circuit.
C. pin section on the ground side of the electrical circuit.
356. J02 AMP

When does current flow through the coil of a solenoid operated
electrical switch?
A. Continually, as long as the aircraft's electrical system master
switch is on.
B. Continually, as long as the control circuit is complete.
C. Only until the movable points contact the stationary points.
357. J02 AMP

When a 28 volt, 75 ampere generator is installed on an aircraft, an
electrical load analysis ground check is performed and it is determined
that the battery is furnishing 57 amperes to the system, with all
electrical equipment operating.
This indicates
A. the load exceeds the maximum system percentage capacity.
B. that the generator load will exceed the generator limit.
C. the load will be within the generator load limit.
358. J02 AMP

What type of lubricant may be used to aid in pulling electrical wires or
cables through conduits?
A. Silicone grease.
B. Soapstone talc.
C. Rubber lubricant.
359. J02 AMP

Which of the following is regulated in a generator to control its
voltage output?
A. Speed of the armature.
B. Number of windings in the armature.
C. The strength of the field.
360. J02 AMP

Bonding jumpers should be designed and installed in such a manner that
they
A. are not subjected to flexing by relative motion of airframe or
engine components.
B. prevent buildup of a static electrical charge between the airframe
and the surrounding atmosphere.
C. provide a low electrical resistance in the ground circuit.
361. J02 AMP

When the starter switch to the aircraft gas turbine engine starter-
generator is energized and the engine fails to rotate, one of the
probable causes would be the
A. undercurrent solenoid contacts are defective.
B. power lever switch is defective.
C. starter solenoid is defective.
362. J02 AMP

Arcing at the brushes and burning of the commutator of a motor may be
caused by
A. low mica.
B. excessive brush spring tension.
C. weak brush springs.
363. J02 AMP

The maximum allowable voltage drop between the generator and the bus bar
is
A. 1 percent of the regulated voltage.
B. less than the voltage drop permitted between the battery and the
bus bar.
C. 2 percent of the regulated voltage.
364. J02 AMP

ON-OFF two position engine electrical switches should be installed
A. so that the toggle will move in the same direction as the desired
motion of the unit controlled.
B. under a guard.
C. so the ON position is reached by a forward or upward motion.
365. J02 AMP

When selecting an electrical switch for installation in an aircraft
circuit utilizing a direct current motor,
A. a derating factor should be applied.
B. only switches with screw type terminal connections should be used.
C. a switch designed for dc should be chosen.
366. J02 AMP

When installing electrical wiring parallel to a fuel line, the wiring
should be
A. above the fuel line.
B. in a non-conductive fire-resistant sleeve.
C. in metal conduit.
367. J02 AMP

(Refer to figure 4.) In a 28-volt system, what is the maximum continuous
current that can be carried by a single No. 10 copper wire 25 feet long,
routed in free air?
A. 35 amperes.
B. 20 amperes.
C. 28 amperes.
368. J02 AMP
What speed must an eight-pole ac generator turn to produce 400-Hertz ac?
A. 1,200 RPM.
B. 6,000 RPM.
C. 400 RPM.
369. J02 AMP

Which Federal Aviation Regulation specifies that each resettable circuit
protective device requires a manual operation to restore service after
the device has interrupted the circuit?
A. 14 CFR Part 43.
B. 14 CFR Part 91.
C. 14 CFR Part 23.
370. J02 AMP

Which Federal Aviation Regulation requirement prevents the use of
automatic reset circuit breakers?
A. 14 CFR Part 21.
B. 14 CFR Part 23.
C. 14 CFR Part 91.
371. J02 AMP

The time/current capacities of a circuit breaker or fuse must be
A. above those of the associated conductor.
B. equal to those of the associated conductor.
C. below those of the associated conductor.
372. J02 AMP

(1) Most modern aircraft use circuit breakers rather than fuses to
protect their electrical circuits.
(2) Federal Aviation Regulations Part 23 requires that all electrical
circuits incorporate some form of circuit protective device.
373. J02 AMP

Electrical switches are rated according to the
A. voltage and the current they can control.
B. resistance and the temperature rating.
C. resistance rating of the switch and the wiring.
374. J02 AMP

Electrical circuit protection devices are installed primarily to protect
the
A. wiring.
B. units.
C. switches.
375. J02 AMP
(1) Electrical circuit protection devices are rated based on the amount
of current that can be carried without overheating the wiring
insulation.
(2) A "trip free" circuit breaker makes it impossible to manually hold
the circuit closed when excessive current is flowing.
376. J02 AMP

Which of the following Federal Aviation Regulations require that all
aircraft using fuses as the circuit protective devices carry ``one spare
set of fuses, or three spare fuses of each kind required''?
A. 14 CFR Part 43.
B. 14 CFR Part 23.
C. 14 CFR Part 91.
377. J02 AMP

What is the smallest terminal stud allowed for aircraft electrical power
systems?
A. No. 8.
B. No. 6.
C. No. 10.
378. J02 AMP

A typical barrier type aircraft terminal strip is made of
A. layered aluminum impregnated with compound.
B. paper base phenolic compound.
C. polyester resin and graphite compound.
379. J02 AMP

A term commonly used when two or more electrical terminals are installed
on a single lug of a terminal strip is
A. stacking.
B. stepping.
C. strapping.
380. J02 AMP

(1) Electrical wires larger than 10 gauge use uninsulated terminals.
(2) Electrical wires smaller than 10 gauge use uninsulated terminals.
381. J02 AMP

Aircraft electrical wire size is measured according to the
A. Technical Standard Order system.
B. American Wire Gauge system.
C. Military Specification system.
382. J02 AMP

Aircraft copper electrical wire is coated with tin, silver, or nickel in
order to
A. add strength.
B. prevent oxidization.
C. improve conductivity.
383. K01 AMP

What will be the result of operating an engine in extremely high
temperatures using a lubricant recommended by the manufacturer for a
much lower temperature?
A. The oil pressure will be lower than normal.
B. The oil temperature and oil pressure will be higher than normal.
C. The oil pressure will be higher than normal.
384. K01 AMP

(1) Gas turbine and reciprocating engine oils can be mixed or used
interchangeably.
(2) Most gas turbine engine oils are synthetic.
385. K01 AMP

The time in seconds required for exactly 60 cubic centimeters of oil to
flow through an accurately calibrated orifice at a specific temperature
is recorded as a measurement of the oil's
A. flash point.
B. viscosity.
C. specific gravity.
386. K01 AMP

Upon what quality or characteristic of a lubricating oil is its
viscosity index based?
A. Its resistance to flow at a standard temperature as compared to
high grade paraffin base oil at the same temperature.
B. Its rate of flow through an orifice at a standard temperature.
C. Its rate of change in viscosity with temperature change.
387. K01 AMP

Compared to reciprocating engine oils, the types of oils used in turbine
engines
A. are required to carry and disperse a higher level of combustion by-
products.
B. have less tendency to produce lacquer or coke.
C. may permit a somewhat higher level of carbon formation in the
engine.
388. K01 AMP
The oil used in reciprocating engines has a relatively high viscosity
due to
A. large clearances and high operating temperatures.
B. the relatively high rotational speeds.
C. the reduced ability of thin oils to maintain adequate film strength
at altitude (reduced atmospheric pressure).
389. K01 AMP

If all other requirements can be met, what type of oil should be used to
achieve theoretically perfect engine lubrication?
A. The thinnest oil that will stay in place and maintain a reasonable
film strength.
B. An oil that combines a low viscosity index and a high
neutralization number.
C. An oil that combines high viscosity and low demulsibility.
390. K01 AMP

In addition to lubricating (reducing friction between moving parts),
engine oil performs what functions?
1. Cools.
2. Seals.
3. Cleans.
4. Prevents corrosion.
5. Cushions impact (shock) loads.
A. 1, 3, 4.
B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
C. 1, 2, 3, 4.
391. K01 AMP

Which of these characteristics is desirable in turbine engine oil?
A. High volatility.
B. High flash point.
C. Low flash point.
392. K01 AMP

The viscosity of a liquid is a measure of its
A. resistance to flow.
B. weight, or density.
C. rate of change of internal friction with change in temperature.
393. K01 AMP

What type of oil system is usually found on turbine engines?
A. Dry sump, dip, and splash.
B. Dry sump, pressure, and spray.
C. Wet sump, spray, and splash.
394. K01 AMP

Which of the following factors helps determine the proper grade of oil
to use in a particular engine?
A. Positive introduction of oil to the bearings.
B. Operating speeds of bearings.
C. Adequate lubrication in various attitudes of flight.
395. K01 AMP

Specific gravity is a comparison of the weight of a substance to the
weight of an equal volume of
A. mercury at a specific temperature.
B. oil at a specific temperature.
C. distilled water at a specific temperature.
396. K01 AMP

What advantage do mineral base lubricants have over vegetable oil base
lubricants when used in aircraft engines?
A. Cooling ability.
B. Chemical stability.
C. Friction resistance.
397. K01 AMP

The recommended aircraft engine lubricants are
A. mineral or synthetic based.
B. vegetable, mineral, or synthetic based.
C. animal, mineral, or synthetic based.
398. K01 AMP

High tooth pressures and high rubbing velocities, such as occur with
spur type gears, require the use of
A. straight mineral oil.
B. an EP lubricant.
C. metallic ash detergent oil.
399. K01 AMP

Manufacturers normally require turbine engine oil servicing within a
short time after engine shutdown primarily to
A. help dilute and neutralize any contaminants that may already be
present in the engine's oil system.
B. prevent overservicing.
C. provide a better indication of any oil leaks in the system.
400. K01 AMP

What type of oil do most engine manufacturers recommend for new
reciprocating engine break in?
A. Ashless dispersant oil.
B. Straight mineral oil.
C. Semi synthetic oil.
401. K02 AMP

The type of oil pumps most commonly used on turbine engines are
classified as
A. positive displacement.
B. constant speed.
C. variable displacement.
402. K02 AMP

As a general rule, the mixture setting on a reciprocating engine
operating at or near takeoff power that provides the best cooling is
A. FULL RICH.
B. LEAN.
C. FULL LEAN.
403. K02 AMP

The engine oil temperature regulator is usually located between which of
the following on a dry sump reciprocating engine?
A. The engine oil supply pump and the internal lubrication system.
B. The oil storage tank and the engine oil supply pump.
C. The scavenger pump outlet and the oil storage tank.
404. K02 AMP

What will happen to the return oil if the oil line between the scavenger
pump and the oil cooler separates?
A. Oil will accumulate in the engine.
B. The return oil will be pumped overboard.
C. The scavenger return line check valve will close and force the oil
to bypass directly to the intake side of the pressure pump.
405. K02 AMP

At cruise RPM, some oil will flow through the relief valve of a gear
type engine oil pump. This is normal as the relief valve is set at a
pressure which is
A. lower than the pressure pump capabilities.
B. lower than the pump inlet pressure.
C. higher than pressure pump capabilities.
406. K02 AMP

(1) Fuel may be used to cool oil in gas turbine engines.
(2) Ram air may be used to cool oil in gas turbine engines.
407. K02 AMP

In a reciprocating engine oil system, the temperature bulb senses oil
temperature
A. while the oil is in the hottest area of the engine.
B. immediately before the oil enters the oil cooler.
C. at a point after the oil has passed through the oil cooler.
408. K02 AMP
The oil dampened main bearing utilized in some turbine engines is used
to
A. provide an oil film between the outer race and the bearing housing
in order to reduce vibration tendencies in the rotor system, and to
allow for slight misalignment.
B. provide lubrication of bearings from the beginning of starting
rotation until normal oil pressure is established.
C. dampen surges in oil pressure to the bearings.
409. K02 AMP

What is the purpose of the last chance oil filters?
A. To prevent damage to the oil spray nozzle.
B. To assure a clean supply of oil to the lubrication system.
C. To filter the oil immediately before it enters the main bearings.
410. K02 AMP

In a jet engine which uses a fuel oil heat exchanger, the oil
temperature is controlled by a thermostatic valve that regulates the
flow of
A. fuel through the heat exchanger.
B. oil through the heat exchanger.
C. both fuel and oil through the heat exchanger.
411. K02 AMP

What prevents pressure within the lubricating oil tank from rising above
or falling below ambient pressure (reciprocating engine)?
A. Oil tank vent.
B. Oil pressure relief valve.
C. Oil tank check valve.
412. K02 AMP

In an axial flow turbine engine, compressor bleed air is sometimes used
to aid in cooling the
A. inlet guide vanes.
B. fuel.
C. turbine, vanes, blades, and bearings.
413. K02 AMP

Oil picks up the most heat from which of the following turbine engine
components?
A. Turbine bearing.
B. Compressor bearing.
C. Rotor coupling.
414. K02 AMP

Which of the following is a function of the fuel oil heat exchanger on a
turbojet engine?
A. Emulsifies the oil.
B. Aerates the fuel.
C. Increases fuel temperature.
415. K02 AMP

After making a welded repair to a pressurized type turbine engine oil
tank, the tank should be pressure checked to
A. 5 PSI.
B. not less than 5 PSI plus the average operating pressure of the
tank.
C. not less than 5 PSI plus the maximum operating pressure of the
tank.
416. K02 AMP

Why are fixed orifice nozzles used in the lubrication system of gas
turbine engines?
A. To protect the oil seals by preventing excessive pressure from
entering the bearing cavities.
B. To keep back pressure on the oil pump, thus preventing an air lock.
C. To provide a relatively constant oil flow to the main bearings at
all engine speeds.
417. K02 AMP

Possible failure related ferrous metal particles in turbine engine oil
cause an (electrical) indicating type magnetic chip detector to indicate
their presence by
A. generating a small electric current that is caused by the particles
being in contact with the dissimilar metal of the detector tip.
B. disturbing the magnetic lines of flux around the detector tip.
C. bridging the gap between the detector center (positive) electrode
and the ground electrode.
418. K02 AMP

What would be the probable result if the oil system pressure relief
valve should stick in the open position on a turbine engine?
A. Insufficient lubrication.
B. Decreased oil temperature.
C. Increased oil pressure.
419. K02 AMP

What is the primary purpose of the oil to fuel heat exchanger?
A. De aerate the oil.
B. Cool the fuel.
C. Cool the oil.
420. K02 AMP

Low oil pressure can be detrimental to the internal engine components.
However, high oil pressure
A. should be limited to the engine manufacturer's recommendations.
B. has a negligible effect.
C. will not occur because of pressure losses around the bearings.
421. K02 AMP
What is the primary purpose of the oil breather pressurization system
that is used on turbine engines?
A. Prevents foaming of the oil.
B. Allows aeration of the oil for better lubrication because of the
air/oil mist.
C. Provides a proper oil spray pattern from the main bearing oil jets.
422. K02 AMP

The purpose of directing bleed air to the outer turbine case on some
engines is to
A. provide optimum turbine blade tip clearance by controlling thermal
expansion.
B. provide up to 100 percent kinetic energy extraction from the
flowing gases.
C. allow operation in a thermal environment 600 to 800 °F above the
temperature limits of turbine blade and vane alloys.
423. K03 AMP

In order to relieve excessive pump pressure in an engine's internal oil
system, most engines are equipped with a
A. vent.
B. relief valve.
C. bypass valve.
424. K03 AMP

What is the source of most of the heat that is absorbed by the
lubricating oil in a reciprocating engine?
A. Pistons and cylinder walls.
B. Exhaust valves.
C. Crankshaft main bearings.
425. K03 AMP

How are the teeth of the gears in the accessory section of an engine
normally lubricated?
A. By surrounding the load bearing portions with baffles or housings
within which oil pressure can be maintained.
B. By submerging the load bearing portions in oil.
C. By splashed or sprayed oil.
426. K03 AMP

What is the purpose of the check valve generally used in a dry sump
lubrication system?
A. To prevent the oil from the pressure pump from entering the
scavenger system.
B. To prevent the scavenger pump from losing its prime.
C. To prevent the oil from the supply tank from seeping into the
crankcase during inoperative periods.
427. K03 AMP

From the following, identify the factor that has the least effect on the
oil consumption of a specific engine.
A. Lubricant characteristics.
B. Mechanical efficiency.
C. Engine RPM.
428. K03 AMP

How is the oil collected by the piston oil ring returned to the
crankcase?
A. Down vertical slots cut in the piston wall between the piston oil
ring groove and the piston skirt.
B. Through holes drilled in the piston oil ring groove.
C. Through holes drilled in the piston pin recess.
429. K03 AMP

As an aid to cold weather starting, the oil dilution system thins the
oil with
A. kerosene.
B. gasoline.
C. alcohol.
430. K03 AMP

The basic oil pressure relief valve setting for a newly overhauled
engine is made
A. within the first 30 seconds of engine operation.
B. when the oil is at a higher than normal temperature to assure high
oil pressure at normal oil temperature.
C. in the overhaul shop.
431. K03 AMP

Where is the oil temperature bulb located on a dry sump reciprocating
engine?
A. Oil inlet line.
B. Oil cooler.
C. Oil outlet line.
432. K03 AMP

If a full flow oil filter is used on an aircraft engine, and the filter
becomes completely clogged, the
A. bypass valve will open and the oil pump will supply unfiltered oil
to the engine.
B. oil will be bypassed back to the oil tank hopper where larger
sediments and foreign matter will settle out prior to passage through
the engine.
C. oil supply to the engine will be blocked.
433. K03 AMP

Oil accumulation in the cylinders of an inverted in line engine and in
the lower cylinders of a radial engine is normally reduced or prevented
by
A. routing the valve operating mechanism lubricating oil to a separate
scavenger pump.
B. extended cylinder skirts.
C. reversed oil control rings.
434. K03 AMP

What is the primary purpose of changing aircraft engine lubricating oils
at predetermined periods?
A. The oil becomes diluted with gasoline washing past the pistons into
the crankcase.
B. The oil becomes contaminated with moisture, acids, and finely
divided suspended solid particles.
C. Exposure to heat and oxygen causes a decreased ability to maintain
a film under load.
435. K03 AMP

What determines the minimum particle size which will be excluded or
filtered by a cuno type (stacked disc, edge filtration) filter?
A. Both the number and thickness of the discs in the assembly.
B. The disc thickness.
C. The spacer thickness.
436. K03 AMP

What is the primary purpose of the hopper located in the oil supply tank
of some dry sump engine installations?
A. To reduce the time required to warm the oil to operating
temperatures.
B. To reduce surface aeration of the hot oil and thus reduce oxidation
and the formation of sludge and varnish.
C. To impart a centrifugal motion to the oil entering the tank so that
the foreign particles in the oil will separate more readily.
437. K03 AMP

The purpose of the flow control valve in a reciprocating engine oil
system is to
A. compensate for volumetric increases due to foaming of the oil.
B. deliver cold oil to the hopper tank.
C. direct oil through or around the oil cooler.
438. K03 AMP

Where are sludge chambers, when used in aircraft engine lubrication
systems, usually located?
A. In the crankshaft throws.
B. Adjacent to the scavenger pumps.
C. In the oil storage tank.
439. K03 AMP

Why is an aircraft reciprocating engine oil tank on a dry sump
lubrication system equipped with a vent line?
A. To prevent pressure buildup in the oil tank.
B. To eliminate foaming in the oil tank.
C. To prevent pressure buildup in the reciprocating engine crankcase.
440. K03 AMP

(1) Wet sump oil systems are most commonly used in gas turbine engines.
(2) In most turbine engine oil tanks, a slight pressurization of the
tank is desired to ensure a positive flow of oil.
441. K03 AMP

The pumping capacity of the scavenger pump in a dry sump aircraft
engine's lubrication system
A. is greater than the capacity of the oil supply pump.
B. is less than the capacity of the oil supply pump.
C. is usually equal to the capacity of the oil supply pump in order to
maintain constant oiling conditions.
442. K03 AMP

In which of the following situations will the oil cooler automatic
bypass valve be open the greatest amount?
A. Engine oil below normal operating temperature.
B. Engine stopped with no oil flowing after runup.
C. Engine oil above normal operating temperature.
443. K03 AMP

In order to maintain a constant oil pressure as the clearances between
the moving parts of an engine increase through normal wear, the supply
pump output
A. remains relatively constant (at a given RPM) with less oil being
returned to the pump inlet by the relief valve.
B. remains relatively constant (at a given RPM) with more oil being
returned to the pump inlet by the relief valve.
C. increases as the resistance offered to the flow of oil increases.
444. K03 AMP

The valve assemblies of opposed reciprocating engines are lubricated by
means of a
A. gravity feed system.
B. pressure system.
C. splash and spray system.
445. K03 AMP

What will result if an oil filter becomes completely blocked?
A. Oil flow to the engine will stop.
B. Oil will flow at the normal rate through the system.
C. Oil will flow at a reduced rate through the system.
446. K03 AMP

A turbine engine dry sump lubrication system of the self contained, high
pressure design
A. stores oil in the engine crankcase.
B. consists of pressure, breather, and scavenge subsystems.
C. has no heat exchanger.
447. K03 AMP

How are the piston pins of most aircraft engines lubricated?
A. By oil which is sprayed or thrown by the master or connecting rods.
B. By pressure oil through a drilled passageway in the heavy web
portion of the connecting rod.
C. By the action of the oil control ring and the series of holes
drilled in the ring groove directing oil to the pin and piston pin boss.
448. K03 AMP

The vent line connecting the oil supply tank and the engine in some dry
sump engine installations permits
A. pressurization of the oil supply to prevent cavitation of the oil
supply pump.
B. oil vapors from the engine to be condensed and drained into the oil
supply tank.
C. the oil tank to be vented through the normal engine vent.
449. K03 AMP

An engine lubrication system pressure relief valve is usually located
between the
A. oil cooler and the scavenger pump.
B. pump and the internal oil system.
C. scavenger pump and the external oil system.
450. K03 AMP

Where is the oil of a dry sump reciprocating engine exposed to the
temperature control valve sensing unit?
A. Oil cooler inlet.
B. Engine outlet.
C. Engine inlet.
451. K03 AMP

Under which of the following conditions is the oil cooler flow control
valve open on a reciprocating engine?
A. When the temperature of the oil returning from the engine is too
low.
B. When the temperature of the oil returning from the engine is too
high.
C. When the scavenger pump output volume exceeds the engine pump input
volume.
452. K03 AMP

The purpose of a relief valve installed in the tank venting system of a
turbine engine oil tank is to
A. maintain a positive internal pressure in the oil tank after
shutdown to prevent oil pump cavitation on engine start.
B. prevent oil pump cavitation by maintaining a constant pressure on
the oil pump inlet.
C. maintain internal tank air pressure at the ambient atmospheric
level regardless of altitude or rate of change in altitude.
453. K03 AMP

In a reciprocating engine, oil is directed from the pressure relief
valve to the inlet side of the
A. scavenger pump.
B. oil temperature regulator.
C. pressure pump.
454. K03 AMP

If the oil in the oil cooler core and annular jacket becomes congealed,
what unit prevents damage to the cooler?
A. Surge protection valve.
B. Oil pressure relief valve.
C. Airflow control valve.
455. K03 AMP

The primary source of oil contamination in a normally operating
reciprocating engine is
A. atmospheric dust and pollution.
B. combustion deposits due to combustion chamber blow by and oil
migration on the cylinder walls.
C. metallic deposits as a result of engine wear.
456. K03 AMP

A drop in oil pressure may be caused by
A. the bypass valve sticking open.
B. the temperature regulator sticking open.
C. foreign material under the relief valve.
457. K03 AMP

The main oil filters strain the oil at which point in the system?
A. Immediately after it leaves the scavenger pump.
B. Just as it leaves the pressure pump.
C. Immediately before it enters the pressure pump.
458. K03 AMP

Which type valve prevents oil from entering the main accessory case when
the engine is not running?
A. Bypass.
B. Check.
C. Relief.
459. K03 AMP

An oil tank having a capacity of 5 gallons must have an expansion space
of
A. 5 quarts.
B. 4 quarts.
C. 2 quarts.
460. K03 AMP

As a general rule, a small amount of small fuzzy particles or gray
metallic paste on a turbine engine magnetic chip detector
A. indicates an imminent component failure.
B. is considered to be the result of normal wear.
C. indicates accelerated generalized wear.
461. K03 AMP

Why is expansion space required in an engine oil supply tank?
A. For oil enlargement and collection of foam.
B. To eliminate oil foaming.
C. For proper oil tank ventilation.
462. K03 AMP

The purpose of a dwell chamber in a turbine engine oil tank is to
provide
A. separation of entrained air from scavenged oil.
B. for a pressurized oil supply to the oil pump inlet.
C. a collection point for sediments.
463. K03 AMP

Which of the following bearing types must be continuously lubricated by
pressure oil?
A. Plain.
B. Roller.
C. Ball.
464. L01 AMP

When a magneto is disassembled, keepers are usually placed across the
poles of the rotating magnet to reduce the loss of magnetism. These
keepers are usually made of
A. cobalt steel.
B. chrome magnet steel.
C. soft iron.
465. L01 AMP

How is the strength of a magneto magnet checked?
A. Check the output of the secondary coil with an ac ammeter while
operating the magneto at a specified speed.
B. Check the ac voltage reading at the breaker points.
C. Hold the points open and check the output of the primary coil with
an ac ammeter while operating the magneto at a specified speed.
466. L01 AMP

The E gap angle is usually defined as the number of degrees between the
neutral position of the rotating magnet and the position
A. of greatest magnetic flux density.
B. where the contact points open.
C. where the contact points close.
467. L01 AMP

Magneto breaker point opening relative to the position of the rotating
magnet and distributor rotor (internal timing) can be set most
accurately
A. during the magneto to engine timing operation.
B. during assembly of the magneto before installation on the engine.
C. by setting the points roughly at the required clearance before
installing the magneto and then making the fine breaker point adjustment
after installation to compensate for wear in the magneto drive train.
468. L01 AMP

What will be the results of increasing the gap of the breaker points in
a magneto?
A. Retard the spark and increase its intensity.
B. Advance the spark and decrease its intensity.
C. Retard the spark and decrease its intensity.
469. L01 AMP

What is the purpose of a safety gap in some magnetos?
A. To prevent flashover in the distributor.
B. To discharge the secondary coil's voltage if an open occurs in the
secondary circuit.
C. To ground the magneto when the ignition switch is off.
470. L01 AMP

When timing a magneto internally, the alignment of the timing marks
indicates that the
A. magnets are in the E gap position.
B. breaker points are just closing.
C. magnets are in the neutral position.
471. L01 AMP

What is the electrical location of the primary capacitor in a high-
tension magneto?
A. In series with the primary and secondary winding.
B. In series with the breaker points.
C. In parallel with the breaker points.
472. L01 AMP

In a high tension ignition system, the current in the magneto secondary
winding is
A. induced when the primary circuit is interrupted.
B. conducted from the primary winding via the discharge of the
capacitor.
C. induced when the primary circuit discharges via the breaker points.
473. L01 AMP
When a "Shower of Sparks" ignition system is activated at an engine
start, a spark plug fires
A. as soon as the advance breaker points open.
B. only while both the retard and advance breaker points are closed.
C. only while both the retard and advance breaker points are open.
474. L01 AMP

What is the radial location of the two north poles of a four pole
rotating magnet in a high tension magneto?
A. 180° apart.
B. 90° apart.
C. 270° apart.
475. L01 AMP

Capacitance afterfiring in most modern spark plugs is reduced by the use
of
A. fine wire electrodes.
B. a built in resistor in each plug.
C. aluminum oxide insulation.
476. L01 AMP

What components make up the magnetic system of a magneto?
A. Pole shoes, the pole shoe extensions, and the primary coil.
B. Primary and secondary coils.
C. Rotating magnet, the pole shoes, the pole shoe extensions, and the
coil core.
477. L01 AMP

In an aircraft ignition system, one of the functions of the capacitor is
to
A. regulate the flow of current between the primary and secondary
coil.
B. facilitate a more rapid collapse of the magnetic field in the
primary coil.
C. stop the flow of magnetic lines of force when the points open.
478. L01 AMP

When will the voltage in the secondary winding of a magneto, installed
on a normally operating engine, be at its highest value?
A. Toward the latter part of the spark duration when the flame front
reaches its maximum velocity.
B. Immediately after the breaker points close.
C. Just prior to spark plug firing.
479. L01 AMP

When the switch is off in a battery ignition system, the primary circuit
is
A. opened.
B. grounded.
C. shorted.
480. L01 AMP

As an aircraft engine's speed is increased, the voltage induced in the
primary coil of the magneto
A. remains constant.
B. increases.
C. varies with the setting of the voltage regulator.
481. L01 AMP

The purpose of a safety gap in a magneto is to
A. protect the high voltage winding from damage.
B. prevent burning out the primary winding.
C. prevent burning of contact points.
482. L01 AMP

A defective primary capacitor in a magneto is indicated by
A. a weak spark.
B. a fine grained frosted appearance of the breaker points.
C. burned and pitted breaker points.
483. L01 AMP

How many secondary coils are required in a low tension ignition system
on an 18 cylinder engine?
A. 36.
B. 9.
C. 18.
484. L01 AMP

The spark is produced in a magneto ignition system when the breaker
points are
A. fully open.
B. fully closed.
C. beginning to open.
485. L01 AMP

Shielding is used on spark plug and ignition wires to
A. prevent interference with radio reception.
B. protect the wires from short circuits as a result of chafing or
rubbing.
C. prevent outside electromagnetic emissions from disrupting the
operation of the ignition system.
486. L01 AMP

What is the purpose of using an impulse coupling with a magneto?
A. To produce a momentary high rotational speed of the magneto.
B. To absorb impulse vibrations between the magneto and the engine.
C. To compensate for backlash in the magneto and the engine gears.
487. L01 AMP
The purpose of staggered ignition is to compensate for
A. rich fuel/air mixture around exhaust valve.
B. short ignition harness.
C. diluted fuel/air mixture around exhaust valve.
488. L01 AMP

Aircraft magneto housings are usually ventilated in order to
A. provide cooling and remove corrosive gases produced by normal
arcing.
B. allow heated air from the accessory compartment to keep the
internal parts of the magneto dry.
C. prevent the entrance of outside air which may contain moisture.
489. L01 AMP

Failure of an engine to cease firing after turning the magneto switch
off is an indication of
A. an open P-lead to ground.
B. an open high tension lead.
C. a grounded magneto switch.
490. L01 AMP

When using a timing light to time a magneto to an aircraft engine, the
magneto switch should be placed in the
A. OFF position.
B. BOTH position.
C. LEFT or RIGHT position (either one).
491. L01 AMP

What is the difference between a low tension and a high tension engine
ignition system?
A. A low tension system uses a transformer coil near the spark plugs
to boost voltage, while the high tension system voltage is constant from
the magneto to the spark plugs.
B. A high tension system is designed for high altitude aircraft, while
a low tension system is for low to medium altitude aircraft.
C. A low tension system produces relatively low voltage at the spark
plug as compared to a high tension system.
492. L01 AMP

The amount of voltage generated in any magneto secondary coil is
determined by the number of windings and by the
A. rate of buildup of the magnetic field around the primary coil.
B. amount of charge released by the capacitor.
C. rate of collapse of the magnetic field around the primary coil.
493. L02 AMP

The capacitor type ignition system is used almost universally on turbine
engines primarily because of its high voltage and
A. low amperage.
B. long life.
C. high heat intensity.
494. L02 AMP

In a low tension ignition system, each spark plug requires an individual
A. breaker assembly.
B. capacitor.
C. secondary coil.
495. L02 AMP

A certain nine cylinder radial engine used a noncompensated single unit,
dual type magneto with a four pole rotating magnet and separately
mounted distributors. Which of the following will have the lowest RPM at
any given engine speed?
A. Breaker cam.
B. Distributors.
C. Engine crankshaft.
496. L02 AMP

What will be the effect if the spark plugs are gapped too wide?
A. Lead damage.
B. Insulation failure.
C. Hard starting.
497. L02 AMP

When removing a shielded spark plug, which of the following is most
likely to be damaged?
A. Center electrode.
B. Core insulator.
C. Shell section.
498. L02 AMP

What likely effect would a cracked distributor rotor have on a magneto?
A. Ground the secondary circuit through the crack.
B. Ground the primary circuit through the crack.
C. Fire two cylinders simultaneously.
499. L02 AMP

How does the ignition system of a gas turbine engine differ from that of
a reciprocating engine?
A. A high energy spark is required for ignition.
B. One igniter plug is used in each combustion chamber.
C. Magneto to engine timing is not critical.
500. L02 AMP

In a turbine engine dc capacitor discharge ignition system, where are
the high voltage pulses formed?
A. At the rectifier.
B. At the breaker.
C. At the triggering transformer.
501. L02 AMP
Which of the following breaker point characteristics is associated with
a faulty capacitor?
A. Fine grained.
B. Crowned.
C. Coarse grained.
502. L02 AMP

How are most radial engine spark plug wires connected to the distributor
block?
A. By use of cable piercing screws.
B. By use of terminal sleeves and retaining nuts.
C. By use of self locking cable ferrules.
503. L02 AMP

Thermocouples are usually inserted or installed on the
A. front cylinder of the engine.
B. rear cylinder of the engine.
C. hottest cylinder of the engine.
504. L02 AMP

Capacitance afterfiring of a spark plug is caused by
A. constant polarity firing.
B. excessive center electrode erosion.
C. the stored energy in the ignition shielded lead unloading after
normal timed ignition.
505. L02 AMP

If it is found that a shielded ignition system does not adequately
reduce ignition noise, it may be necessary to install
A. a filter between the magneto and magneto switch.
B. a second layer of shielding.
C. bonding wires from the shielding to ground.
506. L02 AMP

When a magneto is operating, what is the probable cause for a shift in
internal timing
A. The distributor gear teeth are wearing on the rotor gear teeth.
B. The rotating magnet looses its magnetism.
C. The cam follower wear and/or the breaker points wear.
507. L02 AMP

Why are turbine engine igniters less susceptible to fouling than
reciprocating engine spark plugs?
A. Turbine igniters operate at cooler temperatures.
B. The frequency of the spark is less for igniters.
C. The high intensity spark cleans the igniter.
508. L02 AMP
The constrained gap igniter plug used in some gas turbine engines
operates at a cooler temperature because
A. it projects into the combustion chamber.
B. the construction is such that the spark occurs beyond the face of
the combustion chamber liner.
C. the applied voltage is less.
509. L02 AMP

What should be used to clean grease or carbon tracks from capacitors or
coils that are used in magnetos?
A. Solvent.
B. Acetone.
C. Naphtha.
510. L02 AMP

Generally, when removing a turbine engine igniter plug, in order to
eliminate the possibility of the technician receiving a lethal shock,
the ignition switch is turned off and
A. the igniter lead is disconnected from the plug and the center
electrode grounded to the engine after disconnecting the transformer-
exciter input lead and waiting the prescribed time.
B. disconnected from the power supply circuit.
C. the transformer exciter input lead is disconnected and the center
electrode grounded to the engine after disconnecting the igniter lead
from the plug and waiting the prescribed time.
511. L02 AMP

Great caution should be exercised in handling damaged hermetically
sealed turbine engine igniter transformer units because
A. compounds in the unit may become a fire or explosion hazard when
exposed to the air.
B. some contain toxic chemicals.
C. some contain radioactive material.
512. L02 AMP

Igniter plugs used in turbine engines are subjected to high intensity
spark discharges and yet they have a long service life because they
A. operate at much lower temperatures.
B. are not placed directly into the combustion chamber.
C. do not require continuous operation.
513. L02 AMP

The electrical circuit from the spark plug back to the magneto is
completed by grounding through the
A. engine structure.
B. P-lead.
C. cockpit switch.
514. L02 AMP

Spark plugs are considered worn out when the
A. electrodes have worn away to about two-thirds of their original
dimensions.
B. electrodes have worn away to about one-half of their original
dimensions.
C. center electrode edges have become rounded.
515. L02 AMP

Which of the following could cause damage to the nose ceramic or to the
electrode of an aircraft spark plug?
A. Excessive magneto voltage.
B. Plug installed without a copper gasket.
C. Improper gapping procedure.
516. L02 AMP

Sharp bends should be avoided in ignition leads primarily because
A. ignition lead shielding effectiveness will be reduced.
B. ignition lead wire conductor material is brittle and may break.
C. weak points may develop in the insulation through which high
tension current can leak.
517. L02 AMP

In a high tension ignition system, a primary capacitor of too low a
capacity will cause
A. excessively high secondary voltage.
B. excessive primary voltage.
C. the breaker contacts to burn.
518. L02 AMP

Which of the following, obtained during magneto check at 1,700 RPM,
indicates a short (grounded) circuit between the right magneto primary
and the ignition switch?
A. BOTH-1,700 RPM,[new line]R-1,625 RPM,[new line]L-1,700 RPM,[new
line]OFF-1,625 RPM.
B. BOTH-1,700 RPM,[new line]R-0 RPM,[new line]L-1,700 RPM,[new
line]OFF-0 RPM.
C. BOTH-1,700 RPM,[new line]R-0 RPM,[new line]L-1,675 RPM,[new
line]OFF-0 RPM.
519. L02 AMP

If an aircraft ignition switch is turned off and the engine continues to
run normally, the trouble is probably caused by
A. an open ground lead in the magneto.
B. primary lead grounding.
C. arcing magneto breaker points.
520. L02 AMP

When the ignition switch of a single (reciprocating) engine aircraft is
turned to the OFF position,
A. the primary circuits of both magnetos are grounded.
B. all circuits are automatically opened.
C. the secondary circuits of both magnetos are opened.
521. L02 AMP
A spark plug's heat range is the result of
A. its ability to transfer heat from the firing end of the spark plug
to the cylinder head.
B. the heat intensity of the spark.
C. the area of the plug exposed to the cooling airstream.
522. L02 AMP

If staggered ignition timing is used, the
A. spark will be automatically advanced as engine speed increases.
B. spark plug nearest the exhaust valve will fire first.
C. spark plug nearest the intake valve will fire first.
523. L02 AMP

The term "reach," as applied to spark plug design and/or type, indicates
the
A. length of center electrode exposed to the flame of combustion.
B. length of the shielded barrel.
C. linear distance from the shell gasket seat to the end of the
threads on the shell skirt.
524. L02 AMP

(1) The platinum and iridium ground electrodes used on fine wire spark
plugs are extremely brittle and can be broken if they are improperly
handled or adjusted.
(2) When gapping massive-electrode spark plugs, a wire gauge should be
inserted between the center and ground electrodes while moving the
ground electrode in order to avoid setting the gap too close.
525. L02 AMP

Hot spark plugs are generally used in aircraft powerplants
A. with comparatively high compression or high operating temperatures.
B. with comparatively low operating temperatures.
C. which produce high power per cubic inch displacement.
526. L02 AMP

Which of the following statements regarding magneto switch circuits is
NOT true?
A. In the OFF position, neither the right nor left magneto circuits
are open.
B. In the BOTH position, the right and left magneto circuits are
grounded.
C. In the RIGHT position, the right magneto circuit is open and the
left magneto circuit is grounded.
527. L02 AMP
Which of the following statements most accurately describes spark plug
heat range?
A. A cold plug is designed so that the insulator tip is reasonably
short to hasten the rate of heat transfer from the tip through the spark
plug shell to the cylinder head.
B. The length of the threaded portion of the shell usually denotes the
spark plug heat range.
C. A hot plug is designed so that the insulator tip is reasonably
short to hasten the rate of heat transfer from the tip through the spark
plug shell to the cylinder head.
528. L02 AMP

When does battery current flow through the primary circuit of a battery
ignition coil?
A. When the breaker points are closed and the ignition switch is on.
B. At all times when the ignition switch is on.
C. Only when the breaker points are open.
529. L02 AMP

When performing a magneto ground check on an engine, correct operation
is indicated by
A. a slight increase in RPM.
B. a slight drop in RPM.
C. no drop in RPM.
530. L02 AMP

Defective spark plugs will cause the engine to run rough at
A. low speeds only.
B. high speeds only.
C. all speeds.
531. L02 AMP

A spark plug is fouled when
A. its spark grounds without jumping electrodes.
B. it causes preignition.
C. its spark grounds by jumping electrodes.
532. L02 AMP

Which of the following would be cause for rejection of a spark plug?
A. Carbon fouling of the electrode and insulator.
B. Insulator tip cracked.
C. Lead fouling of the electrode and insulator.
533. L02 AMP

Upon inspection of the spark plugs in an aircraft engine, the plugs were
found caked with a heavy black soot. This indicates
A. a lean mixture.
B. a rich mixture.
C. worn oil seal rings.
534. L02 AMP
Spark plug heat range is determined by
A. the reach of the spark plug.
B. its ability to transfer heat to the cylinder head.
C. the number of ground electrodes.
535. L02 AMP

Ignition check during engine runup indicates excessive RPM drop during
operation on the right magneto. The major portion of the RPM loss occurs
rapidly after switching to the right magneto position (fast drop). The
most likely cause is
A. faulty or fouled spark plugs.
B. one or more dead cylinders.
C. incorrect ignition timing on both magnetos.
536. L02 AMP

If new breaker points are installed in a magneto on an engine, it will
be necessary to time the
A. magneto drive to the engine.
B. magneto internally and the magneto to the engine.
C. breaker points to the No. 1 cylinder.
537. L02 AMP

Using a cold spark plug in a high-compression aircraft engine would
probably result in
A. normal operation.
B. a fouled plug.
C. detonation.
538. L02 AMP

Spark plug fouling caused by lead deposits occurs most often
A. when cylinder head temperatures are relatively low.
B. during cruise with rich mixture.
C. when cylinder head temperatures are high.
539. L02 AMP

The type of ignition system used on most turbine aircraft engines is
A. high resistance.
B. low tension.
C. capacitor discharge.
540. L02 AMP

Ignition check during engine runup indicates a slow drop in RPM. This is
usually caused by
A. defective spark plugs.
B. a defective high tension lead.
C. incorrect ignition timing or valve adjustment.
541. L02 AMP

If the ground wire of a magneto is disconnected at the ignition switch,
the result will be the
A. engine will not stop running when the ignition switch is turned
off.
B. affected magneto will be isolated and the engine will run on the
opposite magneto.
C. engine will stop running.
542. L02 AMP

Which of the following are advantages of dual ignition in aircraft
engines?
1. Gives a more complete and quick combustion of the fuel.
2. Provides a backup magneto system.
3. Increases the output power of the engine.
4. Permits the use of lower grade fuels.
5. Increases the intensity of the spark at the spark plugs.
A. 2, 3, 4.
B. 2, 3, 5.
C. 1, 2, 3.
543. L02 AMP

How does high tension ignition shielding tend to reduce radio
interference?
A. Receives and grounds high frequency waves coming from the magneto
and high tension ignition leads.
B. Reduces voltage drop in the transmission of high tension current.
C. Prevents ignition flashover at high altitudes.
544. L02 AMP

Which of the following are distinct circuits of a high tension magneto?
1. Magnetic.
2. Primary.
3. E gap.
4. P lead.
5. Secondary.
A. 1, 3, 4.
B. 1, 2, 5.
C. 2, 4, 5.
545. L02 AMP

What is the relationship between distributor and crankshaft speed of
aircraft reciprocating engines?
A. The crankshaft turns at one half distributor speed.
B. The distributor turns at one and one half crankshaft speed.
C. The distributor turns at one half crankshaft speed.
546. L02 AMP

Why do turbine engine ignition systems require high energy?
A. Because the applied voltage is much greater.
B. To ignite the fuel under conditions of high altitude and high
temperatures.
C. To ignite the fuel under conditions of high altitude and low
temperatures.
547. L02 AMP

Which of the following are included in a typical turbine engine ignition
system?
1. Two igniter plugs.
2. Two transformers.
3. One exciter unit.
4. Two intermediate ignition leads.
5. Two low tension igniter leads.
6. Two high tension igniter leads.
A. 1, 4, 5.
B. 1, 3, 6.
C. 2, 3, 4.
548. L02 AMP

At what RPM is a reciprocating engine ignition switch check made?
A. The slowest possible RPM.
B. Full throttle RPM.
C. 1,500 RPM.
549. L02 AMP

What is the approximate position of the rotating magnet in a high
tension magneto when the points first close?
A. Neutral.
B. Full register.
C. A few degrees after neutral.
550. L02 AMP

What component of a dual magneto is shared by both ignition systems?
A. Rotating magnet.
B. Capacitor.
C. High tension coil.
551. L02 AMP

What would be the result if a magneto breaker point mainspring did not
have sufficient tension?
A. The points will stick.
B. The points will not open to the specified gap.
C. The points will float or bounce.
552. L02 AMP

The secondary coil of a magneto is grounded through the
A. primary coil.
B. ignition switch.
C. grounded side of the breaker points.
553. L03 AMP

(Refer to figure 5.) Placing the engine master switch and battery switch
to the on position and advancing the power lever, allows current to flow
from the bus to the
A. fuel valve, external power receptacles, power lever switch, power
lever relay coil, and ignition relay coil.
B. fuel valve, external power receptacles, undercurrent relay
contacts, starter relay coil, and ignition relay contacts.
C. fuel valve, start switch, power lever switch, power lever relay
coil, fuel pumps, and one side of the ignition relay contactor.
554. L03 AMP

(Refer to figure 5.) The type of system depicted is capable of operating
with
A. battery power and external power simultaneously.
B. either battery or external power.
C. external power only.
555. L03 AMP

(Refer to figure 5.) If wire No. 8 is broken or disconnected after
starter rotation is initiated, and the power lever is advanced, the
A. starter will shut down, but the igniters will continue to fire.
B. starting sequence will continue normally.
C. starting sequence will discontinue.
556. L03 AMP

(Refer to figure 5.) When an external power source is connected to the
aircraft,
A. both battery power and external power are available to the bus.
B. the start relay coil has a path to ground.
C. the battery cannot be connected to the bus.
557. L03 AMP

The purpose of an under current relay in a starter-generator system is
to
A. disconnect power from the starter-generator and ignition when
sufficient engine speed is reached.
B. provide a backup for the starter relay.
C. keep current flow to the starter-generator under the circuit
capacity maximum.
558. L03 AMP

(Refer to figure 5.) Which malfunctions will allow the igniters to
operate when tested but be inoperative during a start attempt?
1. Conductor No. 10 broken.
3. Ignition relay inoperative.
A. 1 or 4.
B. 2 or 3.
C. 1 or 3.
559. L03 AMP
(Refer to figure 5.) Which malfunctions will allow the igniters to
operate normally during start but be inoperative when tested?
A. 2 or 4.
B. 1 or 3.
C. 3 or 4.
560. L03 AMP

When using an electric starter motor, current usage
A. is highest just before starter cutoff (at highest RPM).
B. remains relatively constant throughout the starting cycle.
C. is highest at the start of motor rotation.
561. L03 AMP

When using an electric starter motor, the current flow through it
A. is highest at the start of motor rotation.
B. is highest just before starter cutoff (at highest RPM.)
C. remains relatively constant throughout the starting cycle.
562. L04 AMP

The primary advantage of pneumatic (air turbine) starters over
comparable electric starters for turbine engines is
A. reduction gearing not required.
B. a decreased fire hazard.
C. high power-to-weight ratio.
563. L04 AMP

A clicking sound heard at engine coast-down in a pneumatic starter
incorporating a sprag clutch ratchet assembly is an indication of
A. the pawls re-contacting and riding on the ratchet gear.
B. gear tooth and/or pawl damage.
C. one or more broken pawl springs.
564. L04 AMP

Pneumatic starters are usually designed with what types of airflow
impingement systems?
A. Double entry centrifugal outward flow and axial-flow turbines.
B. Centrifugal compressor and axial-flow compressor.
C. Radial inward flow turbine and axial-flow turbine.
565. L04 AMP

Inspection of pneumatic starters by maintenance technicians usually
includes checking the
A. rotor alignment.
B. oil level and magnetic drain plug condition.
C. stator and rotor blades for FOD.
566. L04 AMP
Air turbine starters are generally designed so that reduction gear
distress or damage may be detected by
A. inspection of a magnetic chip detector.
B. breakage of a shear section on the starter drive shaft.
C. characteristic sounds from the starter assembly during engine
start.
567. L04 AMP

Airflow to the pneumatic starter from a ground unit is normally
prevented from causing starter overspeed during engine start by
A. stator nozzle design that chokes airflow and stabilizes turbine
wheel speed.
B. activation of a flyweight cutout switch.
C. a preset timed cutoff of the airflow at the source.
568. L04 AMP

A safety feature usually employed in pneumatic starters that is used if
the clutch does not release from the engine drive at the proper time
during start is the
A. flyweight cutout switch.
B. spring coupling release.
C. drive shaft shear point.
569. L04 AMP

A safety feature usually employed in pneumatic starters that is used to
prevent the starter from reaching burst speed if inlet air does not
terminate on schedule is the
A. spring coupling release.
B. drive shaft shear point.
C. stator nozzle design that chokes airflow and stabilizes turbine
wheel speed.
570. M01 AMP

In order to stabilize cams, springs, and linkages within the fuel
control, manufacturers generally recommend that all final turbine engine
trim adjustments be made in the
A. decrease direction.
B. increase direction.
C. decrease direction after over-adjustment.
571. M01 AMP

When trimming a turbine engine, the fuel control is adjusted to
A. allow the engine to produce maximum RPM without regard to power
output.
B. set idle RPM and maximum speed or EPR.
C. produce as much power as the engine is capable of producing.
572. M01 AMP

A supervisory electronic engine control (EEC) is a system that receives
engine operating information and
A. adjusts a standard hydromechanical fuel control unit to obtain the
most effective engine operation.
B. develops the commands to various actuators to control engine
parameters.
C. controls engine operation according to ambient temperature,
pressure, and humidity.
573. M01 AMP

A full-authority electronic engine control (EEC) is a system that
receives all the necessary data for engine operation and
A. controls engine operation according to ambient temperature,
pressure, and humidity.
B. develops the commands to various actuators to control engine
parameters.
C. adjusts a standard hydromechanical fuel control unit to obtain the
most effective engine operation.
574. M01 AMP

The active clearance control (ACC) portion of an EEC system aids turbine
engine efficiency by
A. adjusting stator vane position according to operating conditions
and power requirements.
B. ensuring turbine blade to engine case clearances are kept to a
minimum by controlling case temperatures.
C. automatically adjusting engine speed to maintain a desired EPR.
575. M01 AMP

What should be checked/changed to ensure the validity of a turbine
engine performance check if an alternate fuel is to be used?
A. Fuel specific gravity setting.
B. EPR gauge calibration.
C. Maximum RPM adjustment.
576. M01 AMP

The generally acceptable way to obtain accurate on-site temperature
prior to performing engine trimming is to
A. observe the reading on the aircraft Outside Air Temperature (OAT)
gauge.
B. call the control tower to obtain field temperature.
C. hang a thermometer in the shade of the nose wheel-well until the
temperature reading stabilizes.
577. M01 AMP

An aircraft should be facing into the wind when trimming an engine.
However, if the velocity of the wind blowing into the intake is
excessive, it is likely to cause a
A. trim setting resulting in engine overspeed.
B. false high compression and turbine discharge pressure, and a
subsequent low trim.
C. false low exhaust gas temperature reading.
578. M01 AMP
Generally, the practice when trimming an engine is to
A. turn all accessory bleed air off.
B. turn all accessory bleed air on.
C. make adjustments (as necessary) for all engines on the same
aircraft with accessory bleed air settings the same--either on or off.
579. M02 AMP

A reciprocating engine automatic mixture control responds to changes in
air density caused by changes in
A. altitude or humidity.
B. altitude only.
C. altitude or temperature.
580. M02 AMP

On a float type carburetor, the purpose of the economizer valve is to
A. provide extra fuel for sudden acceleration of the engine.
B. maintain the leanest mixture possible during cruising best power.
C. provide a richer mixture and cooling at maximum power output.
581. M02 AMP

The fuel metering force of a conventional float type carburetor in its
normal operating range is the difference between the pressure acting on
the discharge nozzle located within the venturi and the pressure
A. of the air as it enters the venturi (impact pressure).
B. acting on the fuel in the float chamber.
C. of the fuel as it enters the carburetor.
582. M02 AMP

If the main air bleed of a float-type carburetor becomes clogged, the
engine will run
A. lean at rated power.
B. rich at rated power.
C. rich at idling.
583. M02 AMP

Which method is commonly used to adjust the level of a float in a float
type carburetor?
A. Change the angle of the float arm pivot.
B. Add or remove shims under the needle valve seat.
C. Lengthening or shortening the float shaft.
584. M02 AMP

What is the possible cause of an engine running rich at full throttle if
it is equipped with a float type carburetor?
A. Clogged main air bleed.
B. Float level too low.
C. Clogged atmospheric vent.
585. M02 AMP
One of the things a metering orifice in a main air bleed helps to
accomplish (at a given altitude) in a carburetor is
A. better fuel vaporization and control of fuel discharge, especially
at lower engine speeds.
B. a progressively richer mixture as airflow through the carburetor
increases.
C. pressure in the float chamber to increase as airflow through the
carburetor increases.
586. M02 AMP

A punctured float in a float type carburetor will cause the fuel level
to
A. rise, and enrich the mixture.
B. lower, and enrich the mixture.
C. rise, and lean the mixture.
587. M02 AMP

The back suction mixture control system operates by
A. varying the pressure acting on the fuel in the float chamber.
B. changing the effective cross sectional area of the main metering
orifice (jet).
C. varying the pressure within the venturi section.
588. M02 AMP

If an aircraft engine is equipped with a carburetor that is not
compensated for altitude and temperature variations, the fuel/air
mixture will become
A. richer as the altitude increases and leaner as the temperature
increases.
B. richer as either the altitude or temperature increases.
C. leaner as either the altitude or temperature increases.
589. M02 AMP

Float type carburetors which are equipped with economizers are normally
set for
A. the economizer system to supplement the main system supply at all
engine speeds above idling.
B. their leanest practical mixture delivery at cruising speeds and
enriched by means of the economizer system at higher power settings.
C. their richest mixture delivery and leaned by means of the
economizer system.
590. M02 AMP

If a float type carburetor becomes flooded, the condition is most likely
caused by
A. a leaking needle valve and seat assembly.
B. the accelerating pump shaft being stuck.
C. a clogged back suction line.
591. M02 AMP
If an engine is equipped with a float type carburetor and the engine
runs excessively rich at full throttle, a possible cause of the trouble
is a clogged
A. back suction line.
B. main air bleed.
C. atmospheric vent line.
592. M02 AMP

What occurs when a back suction type mixture control is placed in IDLE
CUTOFF?
A. The float chamber will be vented to a negative pressure area.
B. The fuel passages to the main and idle jets will be closed by a
valve.
C. The fuel passage to the idle jet will be closed by a valve.
593. M02 AMP

Which of the following best describes the function of an altitude
mixture control?
A. Regulates the air pressure above the fuel in the float chamber.
B. Regulates the air pressure in the venturi.
C. Regulates the richness of the fuel/air charge entering the engine.
594. M02 AMP

Select the correct statement concerning the idle system of a
conventional float type carburetor.
A. Climatic conditions have very little effect on idle mixture
requirements.
B. The low pressure area created in the throat of the venturi pulls
the fuel from the idle passage.
C. The low pressure between the edges of the throttle valve and the
throttle body pulls the fuel from the idle passage.
595. M02 AMP

On an engine equipped with a pressure type carburetor, fuel supply in
the idling range is ensured by the inclusion in the carburetor of
A. an idle metering jet that bypasses the carburetor in the idle
range.
B. a separate boost venturi that is sensitive to the reduced airflow
at start and idle speeds.
C. a spring in the unmetered fuel chamber to supplement the action of
normal metering forces.
596. M02 AMP

The economizer system of a float type carburetor performs which of the
following functions?
A. It supplies and regulates the additional fuel required for all
engine speeds above cruising.
B. It supplies and regulates the fuel required for all engine speeds.
C. It regulates the fuel required for all engine speeds and all
altitudes.
597. M02 AMP
How will the mixture of an engine be affected if the bellows of the
automatic mixture control (AMC) in a pressure carburetor ruptures while
the engine is operating at altitude?
A. It will become leaner.
B. No change will occur until the altitude changes.
C. It will become richer.
598. M02 AMP

The fuel level within the float chamber of a properly adjusted float
type carburetor will be
A. slightly higher than the discharge nozzle outlet.
B. slightly lower than the discharge nozzle outlet.
C. at the same level as the discharge nozzle outlet.
599. M02 AMP

The metered fuel pressure (chamber C) in an injection type carburetor
A. will be approximately equal to the pressure in chamber A (impact
pressure).
B. varies according to the position of the poppet valve located
between chamber D (unmetered fuel) and chamber E (engine driven fuel
pump pressure).
C. is held constant throughout the entire engine operating range.
600. M02 AMP

Select the statement which is correct relating to a fuel level check of
a float type carburetor.
A. Block off the main and idle jets to prevent a continuous flow of
fuel through the jets.
B. Do not measure the level at the edge of the float chamber.
C. Use 5 pounds fuel pressure for the test if the carburetor is to be
used in a gravity fuel feed system.
601. M02 AMP

What carburetor component measures the amount of air delivered to the
engine?
A. Automatic mixture control.
B. Economizer valve.
C. Venturi.
602. M02 AMP

If a float type carburetor leaks fuel when the engine is stopped, a
likely cause is that the
A. main air bleed is clogged.
B. float needle valve is worn or otherwise not seated properly.
C. float level is adjusted too low.
603. M02 AMP

Fuel is discharged for idling speeds on a float type carburetor
A. in the venturi.
B. from the idle discharge nozzle.
C. through the idle discharge air bleed.
604. M02 AMP

When air passes through the venturi of a carburetor, what three changes
occur?
A. Velocity decreases, temperature increases, and pressure increases.
B. Velocity increases, temperature decreases, and pressure decreases.
C. Velocity increases, temperature increases, and pressure decreases.
605. M02 AMP

Where is the throttle valve located on a float type carburetor?
A. After the venturi and just before the main discharge nozzle.
B. Between the venturi and the discharge nozzle.
C. After the main discharge nozzle and venturi.
606. M02 AMP

An aircraft carburetor is equipped with a mixture control in order to
prevent the mixture from becoming too
A. lean at high altitudes.
B. rich at high altitudes.
C. rich at high speeds.
607. M02 AMP

Which of the following is NOT a function of the carburetor venturi?
A. Regulates the idle system.
B. Limits the airflow at full throttle.
C. Proportions the fuel/air mixture.
608. M02 AMP

Idle cutoff is accomplished on a carburetor equipped with a back suction
mixture control by
A. turning the fuel selector valve to OFF.
B. the positive closing of a needle and seat.
C. introducing low pressure (intake manifold) air into the float
chamber.
609. M02 AMP

One purpose of an air bleed in a float type carburetor is to
A. increase fuel flow at altitude.
B. decrease fuel density and destroy surface tension.
C. meter air to adjust the mixture.
610. M02 AMP

To determine the float level in a float type carburetor, a measurement
is usually made from the top of the fuel in the float chamber to the
A. centerline of the main discharge nozzle.
B. parting surface of the carburetor.
C. top of the float.
611. M02 AMP
The throttle valve of float type aircraft carburetors is located
A. after the main discharge nozzle and ahead of the venturi.
B. between the venturi and the engine.
C. ahead of the venturi and main discharge nozzle.
612. M02 AMP

Why must a float type carburetor supply a rich mixture during idle?
A. Engine operation at idle results in higher than normal volumetric
efficiency.
B. Because at idling speeds the engine may not have enough airflow
around the cylinders to provide proper cooling.
C. Because of reduced mechanical efficiency during idle.
613. M02 AMP

What component is used to ensure fuel delivery during periods of rapid
engine acceleration?
A. Acceleration pump.
B. Water injection pump.
C. Power enrichment unit.
614. M02 AMP

The device that controls the ratio of the fuel/air mixture to the
cylinders is called a
A. throttle valve.
B. metering jet.
C. mixture control.
615. M02 AMP

The device that controls the volume of the fuel/air mixture to the
cylinders is called a
A. metering jet.
B. throttle valve.
C. mixture control.
616. M03 AMP

Which statement is correct regarding a continuous flow fuel injection
system used on many reciprocating engines?
A. Fuel is injected directly into each cylinder.
B. Two injector nozzles are used in the injector fuel system for
various speeds.
C. Fuel is injected at each cylinder intake port.
617. M03 AMP

During the operation of an aircraft engine, the pressure drop in the
carburetor venturi depends primarily upon the
A. air temperature.
B. barometric pressure.
C. air velocity.
618. M03 AMP
Which of the following causes a single diaphragm accelerator pump to
discharge fuel?
A. An increase in manifold pressure that occurs when the throttle
valve is opened.
B. A decrease in manifold pressure that occurs when the throttle valve
is opened.
C. An increase in venturi suction when the throttle valve is open.
619. M03 AMP

At what engine speed does the main metering jet actually function as a
metering jet in a float type carburetor?
A. All RPM's above idle range.
B. All RPM's.
C. Cruising RPM only.
620. M03 AMP

What is the purpose of the carburetor accelerating system?
A. Supply and regulate additional fuel required for engine speeds
above cruising.
B. Supply and regulate the fuel required for engine speeds above idle.
C. Temporarily enrich the mixture when the throttle is suddenly
opened.
621. M03 AMP

When troubleshooting an engine for too rich a mixture to allow the
engine to idle, what would be a possible cause?
A. Mixture setting too rich.
B. A primer line open.
C. Air leak in the intake manifold.
622. M03 AMP

What is the relationship between the accelerating pump and the
enrichment valve in a pressure injection carburetor?
A. The accelerating pump actuates the enrichment valve.
B. No relationship since they operate independently.
C. Fuel pressure affects both units.
623. M03 AMP

What is the relationship between the pressure existing within the throat
of a venturi and the velocity of the air passing through the venturi?
A. There is no direct relationship between the pressure and the
velocity.
B. The pressure is inversely proportional to the velocity.
C. The pressure is directly proportional to the velocity.
624. M03 AMP

Which of the following is least likely to occur during operation of an
engine equipped with a direct cylinder fuel injection system?
A. Backfiring.
B. Kickback during start.
C. Afterfiring.
625. M03 AMP

What carburetor component actually limits the desired maximum airflow to
the engine at full throttle?
A. Venturi.
B. Manifold intake.
C. Throttle valve.
626. M03 AMP

On a carburetor without an automatic mixture control as you ascend to
altitude, the mixture will
A. be leaned.
B. be enriched.
C. not be affected.
627. M03 AMP

During engine operation, if carburetor heat is applied, it will
A. increase engine RPM.
B. decrease the air density to the carburetor.
C. increase fuel/air ratio.
628. M03 AMP

The desired engine idle speed and mixture setting
A. is usually adjusted in the following sequence; speed first, then
mixture.
B. should give minimum RPM with maximum manifold pressure.
C. is adjusted with engine warmed up and operating.
629. M03 AMP

A nine cylinder radial engine, using a multiple point priming system
with a central spider, will prime which cylinders?
A. One, two, three, eight, and nine.
B. All cylinders.
C. One, three, five, and seven.
630. M03 AMP

What is a function of the idling air bleed in a float type carburetor?
A. It vaporizes the fuel at idling speeds.
B. It aids in emulsifying/vaporizing the fuel at idle speeds.
C. It provides a means for adjusting the mixture at idle speeds.
631. M03 AMP

If the volume of air passing through a carburetor venturi is reduced,
the pressure at the venturi throat will
A. decrease.
B. be equal to the pressure at the venturi outlet.
C. increase.
632. M04 AMP
(Refer to figure 6.) Which curve most nearly represents an aircraft
engine's fuel/air ratio throughout its operating range?
A. 2.
B. 1.
C. 3.
633. M04 AMP

What will occur if the vapor vent float in a pressure carburetor loses
its buoyancy?
A. A rich mixture will occur at all engine speeds.
B. The engine will continue to run after the mixture control is placed
in IDLE CUTOFF.
C. The amount of fuel returning to the fuel tank from the carburetor
will be increased.
634. M04 AMP

What method is ordinarily used to make idle speed adjustments on a float
type carburetor?
A. An orifice and adjustable tapered needle.
B. An adjustable throttle stop or linkage.
C. An adjustable needle in the drilled passageway which connects the
airspace of the float chamber and the carburetor venturi.
635. M04 AMP

For what primary purpose is a turbine engine fuel control unit trimmed?
A. To properly position the power levers.
B. To obtain maximum thrust output when desired.
C. To adjust the idle RPM.
636. M04 AMP

Which type of fuel control is used on most of today's turbine engines?
A. Hydromechanical or electronic.
B. Electromechanical.
C. Mechanical.
637. M04 AMP

Under which of the following conditions will the trimming of a turbine
engine be most accurate?
A. No wind and low moisture.
B. High moisture and low wind.
C. High wind and high moisture.
638. M04 AMP

(1) The mixture used at rated power in air cooled reciprocating engines
is richer than the mixture used through the normal cruising range.
(2) The mixture used at idle in air cooled reciprocating engines is
richer than the mixture used at rated power.
639. M04 AMP

Under which of the following conditions would an engine run lean even
though there is a normal amount of fuel present?
A. The use of too high an octane rating fuel.
B. The carburetor air heater valve in the HOT position.
C. Incomplete fuel vaporization.
640. M04 AMP

An indication that the optimum idle mixture has been obtained occurs
when the mixture control is moved to IDLE CUTOFF and manifold pressure
A. decreases momentarily and RPM drops slightly before the engine
ceases to fire.
B. decreases and RPM increases momentarily before the engine ceases to
fire.
C. increases momentarily and RPM drops slightly before the engine
ceases to fire.
641. M04 AMP

The use of less than normal throttle opening during starting will cause
A. a rich mixture.
B. a lean mixture.
C. backfire due to lean fuel/air ratio.
642. M04 AMP

When checking the idle mixture on a carburetor, the engine should be
idling normally, then pull the mixture control toward the IDLE CUTOFF
position. A correct idling mixture will be indicated by
A. an immediate decrease in RPM.
B. a decrease of 20 to 30 RPM before quitting.
C. an increase of 10 to 50 RPM before decreasing.
643. M04 AMP

When a new carburetor is installed on an engine,
A. and the engine is warmed up to normal temperatures, adjust the idle
mixture, then the idle speed.
B. warm up the engine and adjust the float level.
C. do not adjust the idle mixture setting; this was accomplished on
the flow bench.
644. M04 AMP

The purpose of the back suction mixture control in a float type
carburetor is to adjust the mixture by
A. regulating the pressure drop at the venturi.
B. regulating the pressure on the fuel in the float chamber.
C. regulating the suction on the mixture from behind the throttle
valve.
645. M04 AMP
Reciprocating engine power will be decreased at all altitudes if the
A. manifold pressure is increased.
B. air density is increased.
C. humidity is increased.
646. M04 AMP

An aircraft engine equipped with a pressure type carburetor is started
with the
A. mixture control in the FULL RICH position.
B. primer while the mixture control is positioned at the FULL LEAN
position.
C. primer while the mixture control is positioned at IDLE CUTOFF.
647. M04 AMP

An excessively lean fuel/air mixture may cause
A. high oil pressure.
B. backfiring through the exhaust.
C. an increase in cylinder head temperature.
648. M04 AMP

The density of air is very important when mixing fuel and air to obtain
a correct fuel to air ratio. Which of the following weighs the most?
A. 75 parts of dry air and 25 parts of water vapor.
B. 100 parts of dry air.
C. 50 parts of dry air and 50 parts of water vapor.
649. M04 AMP

A mixture ratio of 11:1 normally refers to
A. 1 part fuel to 11 parts air.
B. a stoichiometric mixture.
C. 1 part air to 11 parts fuel.
650. M04 AMP

The economizer system in a float type carburetor
A. increases the fuel/air ratio at high power settings.
B. keeps the fuel/air ratio constant.
C. functions only at cruise and idle speeds.
651. M04 AMP

A carburetor is prevented from leaning out during quick acceleration by
the
A. accelerating system.
B. mixture control system.
C. power enrichment system.
652. M04 AMP

In turbine engines that utilize a pressurization and dump valve, the
dump portion of the valve
A. cuts off fuel flow to the engine fuel manifold and dumps the
manifold fuel into the combustor to burn just before the engine shuts
down.
B. drains the engine manifold lines to prevent fuel boiling and
subsequent deposits in the lines as a result of residual engine heat (at
engine shutdown).
C. dumps extra fuel into the engine in order to provide for quick
engine acceleration during rapid throttle advancement.
653. M04 AMP

What effect does high atmospheric humidity have on the operation of a
jet engine?
A. Decreases engine pressure ratio.
B. Decreases compressor and turbine RPM.
C. Has little or no effect.
654. M04 AMP

What are the positions of the pressurization valve and the dump valve
in a jet engine fuel system when the engine is shut down?
A. Pressurization valve open, dump valve open.
B. Pressurization valve closed, dump valve closed.
C. Pressurization valve closed, dump valve open.
655. M04 AMP

What could cause a lean mixture and high cylinder head temperature at
sea level or low altitudes?
A. Defective accelerating system.
B. Mixture control valve fully closed.
C. Automatic mixture control stuck in the extended position.
656. M04 AMP

Detonation occurs when the fuel/air mixture
A. burns too fast.
B. ignites before the time of normal ignition.
C. is too rich.
657. M04 AMP

What corrective action should be taken when a carburetor is found to be
leaking fuel from the discharge nozzle?
A. Raise the float level.
B. Turn the fuel off each time the aircraft is parked.
C. Replace the needle valve and seat.
658. M04 AMP

A major difference between the Teledyne-Continental and RSA (Precision
Airmotive or Bendix) continuous flow fuel injection systems in fuel
metering is that the
A. Continental system utilizes airflow as a metering force.
B. Continental system uses fuel pressure only as a metering force.
C. RSA system uses air pressure only as a metering force.
659. M04 AMP
The function of the altitude compensating, or aneroid valve used with
the Teledyne-Continental fuel injection system on many turbocharged
engines is to
A. prevent an overly rich mixture during sudden acceleration.
B. provide a means of enriching the mixture during sudden
acceleration.
C. prevent detonation at high altitudes.
660. M04 AMP

The primary purpose of the air bleed openings used with continuous flow
fuel injector nozzles is to
A. aid in proper fuel vaporization.
B. provide for automatic mixture control.
C. lean out the mixture.
661. N01 AMP

During what period does the fuel pump bypass valve open and remain open?
A. When the boost pump pressure is greater than fuel pump pressure.
B. When the fuel pump output is greater than the demand of the
carburetor.
C. When the fuel pump pressure is greater than the demand of the
engine.
662. N01 AMP

Which of the following statements concerning a centrifugal type fuel
boost pump located in a fuel supply tank is NOT true?
A. Air and fuel vapors do not pass through a centrifugal type pump.
B. Fuel can be drawn through the impeller section of the pump when it
is not in operation.
C. The centrifugal type pump is classified as a positive displacement
pump.
663. N01 AMP

Where is the engine fuel shutoff valve usually located?
A. Aft of the firewall.
B. Adjacent to the fuel pump.
C. Downstream of the engine driven fuel pump.
664. N01 AMP

Boost pumps in a fuel system
A. operate during takeoff only.
B. provide a positive flow of fuel to the engine pump.
C. are primarily used for fuel transfer.
665. N01 AMP

(Refer to figure 7.) What is the purpose of the fuel transfer ejectors?
A. To assist in the transfer of fuel from the main tank to the boost
pump sump.
B. To transfer fuel from the boost pump sump to the wing tank.
C. To supply fuel under pressure to the engine driven pump.
666. N01 AMP

What is the purpose of an engine-driven fuel pump bypass valve?
A. To divert the excess fuel back to the main tank.
B. To divert the excess fuel from the pressure side of the pump to the
inlet side of the pump.
C. To prevent a damaged or inoperative pump from blocking the fuel
flow of another pump in series with it.
667. N01 AMP

Most large aircraft reciprocating engines are equipped with which of the
following types of engine driven fuel pumps?
A. Rotary vane type fuel pump.
B. Centrifugal type fuel pump.
C. Gear type fuel pump.
668. N01 AMP

When an electric primer is used, fuel pressure is built up by the
A. suction at the main discharge nozzle.
B. booster pump.
C. internal pump in the primer solenoid.
669. N01 AMP

The fuel pump relief valve directs excess fuel to the
A. inlet side of the fuel pump.
B. inlet side of the fuel strainer.
C. fuel tank return line.
670. N01 AMP

Which type of pump is commonly used as a fuel pump on reciprocating
engines?
A. Impeller.
B. Gear.
C. Vane.
671. N01 AMP

The purpose of the diaphragm in most vane type fuel pumps is to
A. compensate fuel pressures to altitude changes.
B. maintain fuel pressure below atmospheric pressure.
C. equalize fuel pressure at all speeds.
672. N01 AMP

The primary condition(s) that allow(s) microorganisms to grow in the
fuel in aircraft fuel tanks is (are)
A. warm temperatures and frequent fueling.
B. the presence of dirt or other particulate contaminants.
C. the presence of water.
673. N02 AMP
It is desirable that fuel lines have a gentle slope upward or downward
and not have sharp curves or sharp rises and/or falls in order to
A. prevent stagnation or "pooling" of fuel in the fuel lines.
B. minimize the generation of static electricity by decreasing fluid
friction in the lines.
C. prevent vapor lock.
674. N02 AMP

The fuel systems of aircraft certificated in the standard classification
must include which of the following?
A. A positive means of shutting off the fuel to all engines.
B. A reserve supply of fuel, available to the engine only after
selection by the flightcrew, sufficient to operate the engines at least
30 minutes at METO power.
C. An engine driven fuel pump and at least one auxiliary pump per
engine.
675. N02 AMP

Where should the main fuel strainer be located in the aircraft fuel
system?
A. At the lowest point in the fuel system.
B. Downstream from the wobble pump check valve.
C. At any point in the system lower than the carburetor strainer.
676. N02 AMP

Where physical separation of the fuel lines from electrical wiring or
conduit is impracticable, locate the fuel line
A. above the wiring and clamp the line securely to the airframe
structure.
B. inboard of the wiring and clamp both securely to the airframe
structure.
C. below the wiring and clamp the line securely to the airframe
structure.
677. N02 AMP

What is a characteristic of a centrifugal type fuel boost pump?
A. It requires a relief valve.
B. It has positive displacement.
C. It separates air and vapor from the fuel.
678. N02 AMP

The Federal Aviation Regulations require the fuel flow rate for gravity
systems (main and reserve) to be
A. 125 percent of the maximum, except takeoff, fuel consumption of the
engine.
B. 150 percent of the takeoff fuel consumption of the engine.
C. 125 percent of the takeoff fuel consumption of the engine.
679. N02 AMP

A pilot reports that the fuel pressure fluctuates and exceeds the upper
limits whenever the throttle is advanced. The most likely cause of the
trouble is
A. an air leak at the fuel pump relief valve body.
B. a sticking fuel pump relief valve.
C. a ruptured fuel pump relief valve diaphragm.
680. N02 AMP

A fuel strainer or filter must be located between the
A. boost pump and engine driven fuel pump.
B. boost pump and tank outlet.
C. tank outlet and the fuel metering device.
681. N02 AMP

Fuel pump relief valves designed to compensate for atmospheric pressure
variations are known as
A. balanced type relief valves.
B. compensated flow valves.
C. pressurized relief valves.
682. N02 AMP

Fuel lines are kept away from sources of heat, and sharp bends and steep
rises are avoided to reduce the possibility of
A. positive lock.
B. vapor lock.
C. liquid lock.
683. N02 AMP

Fuel crossfeed systems are used in aircraft to
A. jettison fuel in an emergency.
B. purge the fuel tanks.
C. maintain aircraft stability.
684. N02 AMP

If an engine equipped with a float type carburetor backfires or misses
when the throttle is advanced, a likely cause is that the
A. accelerating pump is not operating properly.
B. float level is too high.
C. main air bleed is clogged.
685. N02 AMP

A fuel pressure relief valve is required on
A. centrifugal fuel boost pumps.
B. engine driven vane type fuel pumps.
C. engine driven diaphragm-type fuel pumps.
686. N02 AMP

Fuel pressure produced by the engine-driven fuel pump is adjusted by the
A. engine driven fuel pump adjusting screw.
B. relief valve adjusting screw.
C. bypass valve adjusting screw.
687. N02 AMP

Kerosene is used as turbine engine fuel because
A. kerosene does not contain any water.
B. kerosene has more heat energy per gallon and lubricates fuel system
components.
C. kerosene has very high volatility which aids in ignition and
lubrication.
688. N02 AMP

What are the principal advantages of the duplex fuel nozzle used in many
turbine engines?
A. Allows a wider range of fuels and filters to be used.
B. Provides better atomization and uniform flow pattern.
C. Restricts the amount of fuel flow to a level where more efficient
and complete burning of the fuel is achieved.
689. N02 AMP

Which of the following turbine fuel filters has the greatest filtering
action?
A. Small wire mesh.
B. Micron.
C. Stacked charcoal.
690. N02 AMP

What is the purpose of the flow divider in a turbine engine duplex fuel
nozzle?
A. Creates the primary and secondary fuel supplies.
B. Provides a flow path for bleed air which aids in the atomization of
fuel.
C. Allows an alternate flow of fuel if the primary flow clogs or is
restricted.
691. N02 AMP

What causes the fuel divider valve to open in a turbine engine duplex
fuel nozzle?
A. Bleed air after the engine reaches idle RPM.
B. An electrically operated solenoid.
C. Fuel pressure.
692. N02 AMP

How often should float carburetors be overhauled?
A. At engine overhaul.
B. Annually.
C. At engine change.
693. N02 AMP

Which statement is true regarding proper throttle rigging of an
airplane?
A. The throttle stop on the carburetor must be contacted before the
stop in the cockpit.
B. The stop in the cockpit must be contacted before the stop on the
carburetor.
C. The throttle control is properly adjusted when neither stop makes
contact.
694. N02 AMP

What precaution should be taken when putting thread lubricant on a
tapered pipe plug in a carburetor float bowl?
A. Put the thread lubricant only on the first thread.
B. Do not use thread lubricant on any carburetor fitting.
C. Engage the first thread of the plug, then put a small amount of
lubricant on the second thread and screw the plug in.
695. N02 AMP

Maximum power is normally considered to be developed in a reciprocating
engine with a fuel/air mixture ratio of approximately
A. 8:1.
B. 15:1.
C. 12:1.
696. O01 AMP

A method commonly used to prevent carburetor icing is to
A. electrically heat the venturi and throttle valve.
B. mix alcohol with the fuel.
C. preheat the intake air.
697. O01 AMP

Carburetor icing is most severe at
A. high altitudes.
B. low engine temperatures.
C. air temperatures between 30 and 40 °F.
698. O01 AMP

Carburetor icing on an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller
can be detected by
A. an increase in manifold pressure with a constant RPM.
B. a decrease in power output with no change in manifold pressure or
RPM.
C. a decrease in manifold pressure with a constant RPM.
699. O01 AMP

What part of an aircraft in flight will begin to accumulate ice before
any other?
A. Propeller spinner or dome.
B. Wing leading edge.
C. Carburetor.
700. O02 AMP

During full power output of an unsupercharged engine equipped with a
float type carburetor, in which of the following areas will the highest
pressure exist?
A. Carburetor air scoop.
B. Venturi.
C. Intake manifold.
701. O02 AMP

As manifold pressure increases in a reciprocating engine, the
A. density of air in the cylinder increases.
B. weight of the fuel/air charge decreases.
C. volume of air in the cylinder increases.
702. O02 AMP

Which of the following statements regarding volumetric efficiency of an
engine is true?
A. It is possible to exceed 100 percent volumetric efficiency of some
engines by the use of superchargers of the proper type.
B. The volumetric efficiency of an engine will remain the same
regardless of the amount of throttle opening.
C. It is impossible to exceed 100 percent volumetric efficiency of any
engine regardless of the type of supercharger used.
703. O02 AMP

Bootstrapping of a turbocharged engine is indicated by
A. a maximum increase in manifold pressure.
B. a transient increase in engine power.
C. a overboost condition of the engine on takeoff.
704. O02 AMP

Which of the following would be a factor in the failure of an engine to
develop full power at takeoff?
A. Excessively rich setting on the idle mixture adjustment.
B. Failure of the economizer valve to remain closed at takeoff
throttle setting.
C. Improper adjustment of carburetor heat valve control linkage.
705. O02 AMP

Boost manifold pressure is generally considered to be any manifold
pressure above
A. 30" Hg.
B. 50" Hg.
C. 14.7" Hg.
706. O02 AMP

What is the purpose of the density controller in a turbocharger system?
A. Limits the maximum manifold pressure that can be produced at other
than full throttle conditions.
B. Limits the maximum manifold pressure that can be produced by the
turbocharger at full throttle.
C. Maintains constant air velocity at the carburetor inlet.
707. O02 AMP
What is the purpose of the rate of change controller in a turbocharger
system?
A. Limits the maximum manifold pressure that can be produced by the
turbocharger at full throttle conditions.
B. Controls the position of the waste gate after the aircraft has
reached its critical altitude.
C. Controls the rate at which the turbocharger discharge pressure will
increase.
708. O02 AMP

What is the purpose of a turbocharger system for a small reciprocating
aircraft engine?
A. Compresses the air to hold the cabin pressure constant after the
aircraft has reached its critical altitude.
B. Compresses air to maintain manifold pressure constant from sea
level to the critical altitude of the engine.
C. Maintains constant air velocity in the intake manifold.
709. O02 AMP

What are the three basic regulating components of a sea level boosted
turbocharger system?
1. Exhaust bypass assembly.
2. Compressor assembly.
3. Pump and bearing casing.
4. Density controller.
5. Differential pressure controller.
A. 2, 3, 4.
B. 1, 2, 3.
C. 1, 4, 5.
710. O02 AMP

The differential pressure controller in a turbocharger system
A. provides a constant fuel-to-air ratio.
B. positions the waste gate valve for maximum power.
C. reduces bootstrapping during part throttle operation.
711. O02 AMP

The purpose of a sonic venturi on a turbocharged engine is to
A. limit the amount of air that can flow from the turbocharger into
the cabin for pressurization.
B. increase the velocity of the fuel/air charge.
C. increase the amount of air that can flow from the turbocharger into
the cabin for pressurization.
712. O02 AMP

What is used to drive a supercharger?
A. Belt drive through a pulley arrangement.
B. Gear train from the crankshaft.
C. Exhaust gases.
713. O02 AMP
The purpose of a bellmouth compressor inlet is to
A. provide an increased pressure drop in the inlet.
B. maximize the aerodynamic efficiency of the inlet.
C. provide an increased ram air effect at low airspeeds.
714. O02 AMP

What method(s) is/are used to provide clean air to the engines of
helicopters and turboprop airplanes that have particle (sand and ice)
separators installed?
A. Positive and negative charged areas to attract and/or repel
particulates out of the airflow.
B. Sharp airflow directional change to take advantage of inertia
and/or centrifugal force, and filters or engine inlet screens.
C. Air/moisture separators, and ``washing'' the air clean utilizing
water droplets.
715. O02 AMP

The vortex dissipators installed on some turbine-powered aircraft to
prevent engine FOD utilize
A. variable geometry inlet ducts.
B. variable inlet guide vanes (IGV) and/or variable first stage fan
blades.
C. a stream of engine bleed air blown toward the ground ahead of the
engine.
716. O02 AMP

Vortex dissipator systems are generally activated by
A. a fuel pressure switch anytime an engine is operating.
B. an engine inlet airflow sensor.
C. a landing gear switch.
717. O02 AMP

When an engine with a subsonic divergent type inlet duct is running in
place at high speed on the ground, the air pressure within the inlet is
A. ambient.
B. positive.
C. negative.
718. O03 AMP

If carburetor or induction system icing is not present when carburetor
heat is applied with no change in the throttle setting, the
A. mixture will become richer.
B. manifold pressure will increase.
C. engine RPM will increase.
719. O03 AMP

When starting an engine equipped with a carburetor air heater, in what
position should the heater be placed?
A. Hot.
B. Cold.
C. Neutral.
720. O03 AMP

The application of carburetor heat during engine operation will
A. decrease the volume of air in the cylinder.
B. decrease the weight of the fuel/air charge.
C. increase the density of air in the cylinder.
721. O03 AMP

In addition to causing accelerated wear, dust or sand ingested by a
reciprocating engine may also cause
A. sludge formation.
B. silicon fouling of spark plugs.
C. acid formation.
722. O03 AMP

In an airplane equipped with an alternate air system, if the main air
duct air filter becomes blocked or clogged, the
A. system will automatically allow warm, unfiltered air to be drawn
into the engine.
B. flow of air into the engine will be slowed or cut off unless
alternate air is selected.
C. system will automatically allow warm, filtered alternate air to be
drawn into the engine.
723. O03 AMP

If a fire starts in the induction system during the engine starting
procedure, what should the operator do?
A. Turn off all switches.
B. Turn off the fuel switches to stop the fuel.
C. Continue cranking the engine.
724. O03 AMP

The action of a carburetor airscoop is to supply air to the carburetor,
but it may also
A. cool the engine.
B. keep fuel lines cool and prevent vapor lock.
C. increase the pressure of the incoming air by ram effect.
725. P01 AMP

The primary purpose of baffles and deflectors installed around cylinders
of air-cooled aircraft engines is to
A. increase the volume of air used to cool the engine.
B. force cooling air into close contact with all parts of the
cylinders.
C. create a low pressure area aft of the cylinders.
726. P01 AMP

What is the purpose of an augmenter used in some reciprocating engine
exhaust systems?
A. To aid in cooling the engine.
B. To reduce exhaust back pressure.
C. To assist in displacing the exhaust gases.
727. P01 AMP

Cracks in cooling fins that do not extend into the cylinder head may be
repaired by
A. removing affected area and contour filing within limits.
B. welding and then grinding or filing to original thickness.
C. filling the extremities of crack with liquid metal.
728. P01 AMP

Which of the following should a mechanic consult to determine the
maximum amount of cylinder cooling fin that could be removed when cracks
are found?
A. AC 43.13-1A.
B. Engine manufacturer's service or overhaul manual.
C. Engine structure repair manual.
729. P01 AMP

A bent cooling fin on an aluminum cylinder head
A. should be stop drilled or a small radius filed at the point of the
bend.
B. should be sawed off and filed smooth.
C. should be left alone if no crack has formed.
730. P01 AMP

Where are cooling fins usually located on air cooled engines?
A. Cylinder head, cylinder barrel, and inside the piston.
B. Cylinder head, cylinder walls, and inside the piston.
C. Exhaust side of the cylinder head, inside the pistons, and
connecting rods.
731. P01 AMP

How do cowl flaps aid in cooling a horizontally opposed aircraft engine?
A. Controls the amount of air flowing around the cylinders.
B. Directs air through the engine cylinders.
C. Recirculates air through the engine cylinders.
732. P01 AMP

The position of the cowl flaps during normal cruise flight conditions is
A. closed.
B. one half open.
C. open.
733. P01 AMP

Generally, a small crack just started in a cylinder baffle
A. requires no action unless it grows or is branched into two cracks.
B. requires repair by reinforcing, such as installation of a doubler
over the area.
C. may be stop drilled.
734. P02 AMP

Which of the following assists in removing heat from the metal walls and
fins of an air-cooled cylinder assembly?
A. A baffle and cowl arrangement.
B. An engine induction system.
C. An intercooler system.
735. P02 AMP

During ground operation of an engine, the cowl flaps should be in what
position?
A. Opened according to ambient conditions.
B. Fully open.
C. Fully closed.
736. P02 AMP

Which of the following defects would likely cause a hot spot on a
reciprocating engine cylinder?
A. Cowling air seal leakage.
B. A cracked cylinder baffle.
C. Too much cooling fin area broken off.
737. P02 AMP

What part of an air cooled cylinder assembly has the greatest fin area
per square inch?
A. Rear of the cylinder head.
B. Cylinder barrel.
C. Exhaust valve port.
738. P02 AMP

Reciprocating engines used in helicopters are cooled by
A. a fan mounted on the engine.
B. the downdraft from the main rotor.
C. blast tubes on either side of the engine mount.
739. P02 AMP

The greatest portion of heat generated by combustion in a typical
aircraft reciprocating engine is
A. carried out with the exhaust gases.
B. converted into useful power.
C. dissipated through the cylinder walls and heads.
740. P02 AMP

A broken cooling fin on a cylinder head
A. is cause for rejection of the head.
B. should be left alone.
C. may be filed to smooth contours if damage and/or repair limits are
not exceeded.
741. P02 AMP

An engine becomes overheated due to excessive taxiing or improper ground
runup. Prior to shutdown, operation must continue until cylinders have
cooled, by running engine at
A. high RPM with mixture control in rich position.
B. low RPM with oil dilution system activated.
C. idle RPM.
742. P02 AMP

Cylinder head temperatures are measured by means of an indicator and a
A. resistance bulb sensing device.
B. thermocouple sensing device.
C. wheatstone bridge sensing device.
743. P02 AMP

High cylinder head temperatures are likely to result from
A. a very rich mixture at high power settings.
B. a very lean mixture at high power settings.
C. fouled spark plugs.
744. P02 AMP

The purpose of an intercooler when used with a turbocharger is to cool
the
A. air entering the carburetor from the turbocharger.
B. turbocharger bearings.
C. exhaust gases before they come in contact with the turbo drive.
745. P02 AMP

Prolonged idling of an engine will usually result in
A. increased oil consumption.
B. foreign material buildup on spark plugs.
C. excessive cylinder head temperatures.
746. P02 AMP

The most common method and generally the best conduction of heat from
the inside of a cylinder barrel to the cooling air is accomplished by
A. shrinking on a jacket or muff of aluminum cooling fins around a
steel cylinder sleeve.
B. machining fins directly on the outside of the barrel.
C. machining fins directly on the outside of the barrel and shrinking
on a jacket or muff of aluminum cooling fins around a steel cylinder
sleeve (on different areas of the barrel).
747. P02 AMP

What is the function of a blast tube as found on aircraft engines?
A. A tube used to load a cartridge starter.
B. A means of cooling the engine by utilizing the propeller backwash.
C. A device to cool an engine accessory.
748. P02 AMP

Which statement is true regarding the air passing through the combustion
section of a jet engine?
A. Most is used for engine cooling.
B. Most is used to support combustion.
C. A small percentage is frequently bled off at this point to be used
for air-conditioning and/or other pneumatic powered systems.
749. P02 AMP

Which of the following results in a decrease in volumetric efficiency?
A. Part throttle operation.
B. Cylinder head temperature too low.
C. Short intake pipes of large diameter.
750. P02 AMP

What is the position of the cowl flaps during engine starting and warmup
operations under normal conditions?
A. Full open at all times.
B. Open for starting, closed for warmup.
C. Full closed at all times.
751. P02 AMP

Increased engine heat will cause volumetric efficiency to
A. increase.
B. decrease.
C. remain the same.
752. Q01 AMP

Why is high nickel chromium steel used in many exhaust systems?
A. Corrosion resistance and low expansion coefficient.
B. Corrosion resistance and high heat conductivity.
C. High heat conductivity and flexibility.
753. Q01 AMP

Reciprocating engine exhaust system designs commonly used to provide for
ease of installation and/or allow for expansion and contraction, may
include the use of
1. spring loaded ball/flexible joints.
2. slip joints.
3. bellows.
4. flexible metal tubing.
A. 1, 2, 3, and/or 4.
B. 1, 2, and/or 4.
C. 1, 2, and/or 3.
754. Q01 AMP

One source commonly used for carburetor air heat is
A. turbocharger heated air.
B. exhaust gases.
C. alternate air heat.
755. Q01 AMP

The hot section of a turbine engine is particularly susceptible to which
of the following kind of damage?
A. Galling.
B. Cracking.
C. Pitting.
756. Q01 AMP

What is the purpose of a slip joint in an exhaust collector ring?
A. It aids in alignment and absorbs expansion.
B. It permits the collector ring to be installed in one piece.
C. It reduces vibration and increases cooling.
757. Q01 AMP

Sodium filled valves are advantageous to an aviation engine because they
A. dissipate heat well.
B. dampen valve impact shocks.
C. are lighter.
758. Q01 AMP

What type of nuts are used to hold an exhaust system to the cylinders?
A. Brass or heat-resistant nuts.
B. High-temperature aluminum self-locking nuts.
C. High-temperature fiber self-locking nuts.
759. Q01 AMP

Repair of exhaust system components
A. is not recommended to be accomplished in the field.
B. must be accomplished by the component manufacturer.
C. is impossible because the material cannot be identified.
760. Q01 AMP

On turbojet powered airplanes, thrust reversers are capable of producing
between?
A. 35 and 65 percent of the rated thrust in the reverse direction.
B. 35 and 75 percent of the rated thrust in the reverse direction.
C. 35 and 50 percent of the rated thrust in the reverse direction.
761. Q02 AMP

On an aircraft that utilizes an exhaust heat exchanger as a source of
cabin heat, how should the exhaust system be inspected?
A. X rayed to detect any cracks.
B. With the heater air shroud removed.
C. Hydrostatically tested.
762. Q02 AMP

How should ceramic coated exhaust components be cleaned?
A. By degreasing.
B. With alkali.
C. By mechanical means.
763. Q02 AMP

Which of the following indicates that a combustion chamber of a jet
engine is not operating properly?
A. Hot spots on the tail cone.
B. Clam shells stick in thrust reverse position.
C. Warping of the exhaust duct liner.
764. Q02 AMP

Select a characteristic of a good weld on exhaust stacks.
A. Porousness or projecting globules should show in the weld.
B. The weld should taper off smoothly into the base metal.
C. The weld should be built up 1/8 inch.
765. Q02 AMP

How do the turbines which are driven by the exhaust gases of a turbo
compound engine contribute to total engine power output?
A. By driving the supercharger, thus relieving the engine of the
supercharging load.
B. By converting the latent heat energy of the exhaust gases into
thrust by collecting and accelerating them.
C. By driving the crankshaft through suitable couplings.
766. Q02 AMP

How should corrosion resistant steel parts such as exhaust collectors be
blast cleaned?
A. Use steel grit which has not previously been used on soft iron.
B. Use sand which has not previously been used on iron or steel.
C. Use super fine granite grit.
767. Q02 AMP

Power recovery turbines used on some reciprocating engines are driven by
the
A. crankshaft.
B. velocity of the exhaust gases.
C. exhaust gas pressure.
768. Q02 AMP

Reciprocating engine exhaust systems that have repairs or sloppy weld
beads which protrude internally are unacceptable because they cause
A. local hot spots.
B. localized cracks.
C. base metal fatigue.
769. Q02 AMP

Ball joints in reciprocating engine exhaust systems should be
A. disassembled and the seals replaced every engine change.
B. tight enough to prevent any movement.
C. loose enough to permit some movement.
770. Q02 AMP

All of the following are recommended markers for reciprocating engine
exhaust systems except
A. India ink.
B. lead pencil.
C. Prussian blue.
771. Q02 AMP

How are combustion liner walls cooled in a gas turbine engine?
A. By secondary air flowing through the combustion chamber.
B. By bleed air vented from the engine air inlet.
C. By the pattern of holes and louvers cut in the diffuser section.
772. Q02 AMP

Dislodged internal muffler baffles on a small reciprocating engine may
A. obstruct the muffler outlet and cause excessive exhaust back
pressure.
B. cause the engine to run excessively cool.
C. cause high fuel and oil consumption.
773. Q02 AMP

What is the purpose of an exhaust outlet guard on a small reciprocating
engine?
A. To reduce spark exit.
B. To prevent dislodged muffler baffles from obstructing the muffler
outlet.
C. To shield adjacent components from excessive heat.
774. Q02 AMP

What could be a result of undetected exhaust system leaks in a
reciprocating engine powered airplane?
A. Too low exhaust back pressure resulting in the desired power
settings not being attained.
B. Pilot/passenger incapacitation caused by carbon monoxide entering
the cabin.
C. A rough-running engine with increased fuel consumption.
775. Q02 AMP

How may reciprocating engine exhaust system leaks be detected?
A. An exhaust trail aft of the tailpipe on the airplane exterior.
B. Fluctuating manifold pressure indication.
C. Signs of exhaust soot inside cowling and on adjacent components.
776. Q02 AMP

Compared to normally aspirated engines, turbocharged engine exhaust
systems operate at
A. similar temperatures and pressures.
B. similar temperatures and higher pressures.
C. higher temperatures and higher pressures.
777. Q02 AMP

Most exhaust system failures result from thermal fatigue cracking in the
areas of stress concentration. This condition is usually caused by
A. improper welding techniques during manufacture.
B. the high temperatures at which the exhaust system operates.
C. the drastic temperature change which is encountered at altitude.
778. Q03 AMP

Thrust reversers utilizing a pneumatic actuating system usually receive
operating pressure from
A. an on board hydraulic or electrical powered compressor.
B. the engine bleed air system.
C. high pressure air reservoirs.
779. Q03 AMP

Operating thrust reversers at low ground speeds can sometimes cause
1. sand or other foreign object ingestion.
2. hot gas re-ingestion.
3. compressor stalls.
A. 1, 2, and 3.
B. 2 and 3.
C. 1 and 2.
780. Q03 AMP

The purpose of cascade vanes in a thrust reversing system is to
A. form a solid blocking door in the jet exhaust path.
B. turn to a forward direction the fan and/or hot exhaust gases that
have been blocked from exiting through the exhaust nozzle.
C. turn the exhaust gases forward just after exiting the exhaust
nozzle.
781. Q03 AMP

The rearward thrust capability of an engine with the thrust reverser
system deployed is
A. equal to its forward capability.
B. equal to or less than its forward capability, depending on ambient
conditions and system design.
C. less than its forward capability.
782. Q03 AMP

Which statement is generally true regarding thrust reverser systems?
A. Engine thrust reversers on the same aircraft usually will not
operate independently of each other (must all be simultaneously).
B. It is possible to move some aircraft backward on the ground using
reverse thrust.
C. Mechanical blockage system design permits a deployment position aft
of the exhaust nozzle only.
783. Q03 AMP
What is the proper operating sequence when using thrust reversers to
slow an aircraft after landing?
A. Retard thrust levers to ground idle, raise thrust reverser levers
as required, and retard thrust reverser levers to ground idle.
B. Advance thrust levers up to takeoff position as conditions require,
select thrust reverse, de-select thrust reverser, retard thrust levers
to ground idle.
C. Select thrust reverse, advance thrust reverser levers no higher
than 75% N1, and retard thrust reverser levers to idle at approximately
normal taxi speed.
784. R01 AMP

How is aircraft electrical power for propeller deicer systems
transferred from the engine to the propeller hub assembly?
A. By flexible electrical connectors.
B. By slip rings and brushes.
C. By slip rings and segment plates.
785. R01 AMP

How is anti icing fluid ejected from the slinger ring on a propeller?
A. By centrifugal force.
B. By centripetal force.
C. By pump pressure.
786. R01 AMP

On most reciprocating multiengine aircraft, automatic propeller
synchronization is accomplished through the actuation of the
A. propeller control levers.
B. throttle levers.
C. propeller governors.
787. R01 AMP

Propeller fluid anti icing systems generally use which of the following?
A. Ethyl alcohol.
B. Ethylene glycol.
C. Isopropyl alcohol.
788. R01 AMP

What is a function of the automatic propeller synchronizing system on
multiengine aircraft?
A. To control engine RPM and reduce vibration.
B. To control the power output of all engines.
C. To control the tip speed of all propellers.
789. R01 AMP

Ice formation on propellers, when an aircraft is in flight, will
A. decrease available engine power.
B. decrease thrust and cause excessive vibration.
C. increase aircraft stall speed and increase noise.
790. R01 AMP

What unit in the propeller anti icing system controls the output of the
pump?
A. Rheostat.
B. Cycling timer.
C. Pressure relief valve.
791. R01 AMP

Proper operation of electric deicing boots on individual propeller
blades may best be determined by
A. feeling the boots to see if they are heating.
B. observing the ammeter or loadmeter for current flow.
C. feeling the sequence of boot heating and have an assistant observe
the loadmeter indications.
792. R01 AMP

A propeller synchrophasing system allows a pilot to reduce noise and
vibration by
A. adjusting the phase angle between the propellers on an aircraft's
engines.
B. adjusting the plane of rotation of all propellers.
C. setting the pitch angle of all propellers exactly the same.
793. R02 AMP

Which of the following determines oil and grease specifications for
lubrication of propellers?
A. Propeller manufacturers.
B. Airframe manufacturers.
C. Engine manufacturers.
794. R02 AMP

Grease used in aircraft propellers reduces the frictional resistance of
moving parts and is easily molded into any form under pressure. This
statement defines
A. viscosity and melting point of grease.
B. antifriction and chemical stability of grease.
C. antifriction and plasticity characteristics of grease.
795. R03 AMP

What type of imbalance will cause a two blade propeller to have a
persistent tendency to come to rest in a horizontal position (with the
blades parallel to the ground) while being checked on a propeller
balancing beam?
A. Harmonic.
B. Horizontal.
C. Vertical.
796. R03 AMP

What is the purpose of an arbor used in balancing a propeller?
A. To mark the propeller blades where weights are to be attached.
B. To support the propeller on the balance knives.
C. To level the balance stand.
797. R03 AMP

If a blade of a particular metal propeller is shortened because of
damage to the tip, the remaining blade(s) must be
A. reduced to conform with the shortened blade.
B. reset (blade angle) to compensate for the shortened blade.
C. returned to the manufacturer for alteration.
798. R03 AMP

The application of more protective coating on one blade than the other
when refinishing a wood propeller
A. has little or no effect on operating characteristics.
B. should never be done.
C. may be necessary to achieve final balancing.
799. R03 AMP

Apparent engine roughness is often a result of propeller unbalance. The
effect of an unbalanced propeller will usually be
A. greater at high RPM.
B. approximately the same at all speeds.
C. greater at low RPM.
800. R03 AMP

Which of the following is used to correct horizontal unbalance of a wood
propeller?
A. Brass screws.
B. Shellac.
C. Solder.
801. R03 AMP

Propeller aerodynamic (thrust) imbalance can be largely eliminated by
A. correct blade contouring and angle setting.
B. static balancing.
C. keeping the propeller blades within the same plane of rotation.
802. R04 AMP

A powerplant using a hydraulically controlled constant speed propeller
is operating within the propeller's constant speed range at a fixed
throttle setting. If the tension of the propeller governor control
spring (speeder spring) is reduced by movement of the cockpit propeller
control, the propeller blade angle will
A. decrease, engine manifold pressure will decrease, and engine RPM
will increase.
B. decrease, engine manifold pressure will increase, and engine RPM
will decrease.
C. increase, engine manifold pressure will increase, and engine RPM
will decrease.
803. R04 AMP
During engine operation at speeds lower than those for which the
constant speed propeller control can govern in the INCREASE RPM
position, the propeller will
A. maintain engine RPM in the normal manner until the HIGH PITCH stop
is reached.
B. remain in the full LOW PITCH position.
C. remain in the full HIGH PITCH position.
804. R04 AMP

When engine power is increased, the constant speed propeller tries to
function so that it will
A. increase the RPM, decrease the blade angle, and maintain a low
angle of attack.
B. maintain the RPM, decrease the blade angle, and maintain a low
angle of attack.
C. maintain the RPM, increase the blade angle, and maintain a low
angle of attack.
805. R04 AMP

The propeller governor controls the
A. oil to and from the pitch changing mechanism.
B. spring tension on the boost pump speeder spring.
C. linkage and counterweights from moving in and out.
806. R04 AMP

During the on-speed condition of a propeller, the
A. centrifugal force acting on the governor flyweights is greater than
the tension of the speeder spring.
B. centrifugal force of the governor flyweights is equal to the
speeder spring force.
C. tension on the speeder spring is less than the centrifugal force
acting on the governor flyweights.
807. R04 AMP

What actuates the pilot valve in the governor of a constant speed
propeller?
A. Governor flyweights.
B. Governor pump oil pressure.
C. Engine oil pressure.
808. R04 AMP

What action takes place when the cockpit control lever for a hydromatic,
constant speed propeller is actuated?
A. The governor booster pump pressure is varied.
B. The governor bypass valve is positioned to direct oil pressure to
the propeller dome.
C. Compression of the speeder spring is changed.
809. R04 AMP
When the centrifugal force acting on the propeller governor flyweights
overcomes the tension on the speeder spring, a propeller is in what
speed condition?
A. Underspeed.
B. On speed.
C. Overspeed.
810. R04 AMP

What operational force causes the greatest stress on a propeller?
A. Thrust bending force.
B. Centrifugal force.
C. Aerodynamic twisting force.
811. R04 AMP

What operational force tends to increase propeller blade angle?
A. Thrust bending force.
B. Centrifugal twisting force.
C. Aerodynamic twisting force.
812. R05 AMP

Which of the following best describes the blade movement of a propeller
that is in the high RPM position when reversing action is begun?
A. Low pitch through high pitch to reverse pitch.
B. Low pitch through feather position to reverse pitch.
C. Low pitch directly to reverse pitch.
813. R05 AMP

Propellers exposed to salt spray should be flushed with
A. fresh water.
B. soapy water.
C. stoddard solvent.
814. R05 AMP

How can a steel propeller hub be tested for cracks?
A. By anodizing.
B. By magnetic particle inspection.
C. By etching.
815. R05 AMP

Which of the following functions requires the use of a propeller blade
station?
A. Indexing blades.
B. Propeller balancing.
C. Measuring blade angle.
816. R05 AMP

The propeller blade angle is defined as the acute angle between the
airfoil section chord line (at the blade reference station) and which of
the following?
A. The plane of rotation.
B. The relative wind.
C. The axis of blade rotation during pitch change.
817. R05 AMP

The actual distance a propeller moves forward through the air during one
revolution is known as the
A. geometric pitch.
B. relative pitch.
C. effective pitch.
818. R05 AMP

What is the result of moving the throttle on a reciprocating engine when
the propeller is in the constant speed range with the engine developing
cruise power?
A. Opening the throttle will cause an increase in blade angle.
B. Movement of the throttle will not affect the blade angle.
C. The RPM will vary directly with any movement of the throttle.
819. R05 AMP

Propeller blade stations are measured from the
A. blade base.
B. hub centerline.
C. index mark on the blade shank.
820. R05 AMP

The thrust produced by a rotating propeller is a result of
A. the angle of relative wind and rotational velocity of the
propeller.
B. an area of low pressure behind the propeller blades.
C. an area of decreased pressure immediately in front of the propeller
blades.
821. R05 AMP

Why is a constant speed counterweight propeller normally placed in full
HIGH PITCH position before the engine is stopped?
A. To prevent hydraulic lock of the piston when the oil cools.
B. To prevent overheating of the engine during the next start.
C. To prevent exposure and corrosion of the pitch changing mechanism.
822. R05 AMP

The low pitch stop on a constant speed propeller is usually set so that
A. the engine will turn at its rated takeoff RPM at sea level when the
throttle is opened to allowable takeoff manifold pressure.
B. the limiting engine manifold pressure cannot be exceeded with any
combination of throttle opening, altitude, or forward speed.
C. maximum allowable engine RPM cannot be exceeded with any
combination of manifold pressure, altitude, or forward speed.
823. R05 AMP

The angle of attack of a rotating propeller blade is measured between
the blade chord or face and which of the following?
A. Relative airstream.
B. Plane of blade rotation.
C. Full low pitch blade angle.
824. R05 AMP

The centrifugal twisting moment of an operating propeller tends to
A. reduce the pitch angle.
B. bend the blades in the direction of rotation.
C. increase the pitch angle.
825. R05 AMP

Which of the following is identified as the cambered or curved side of a
propeller blade, corresponding to the upper surface of a wing airfoil
section?
A. Blade face.
B. Blade chord.
C. Blade back.
826. R05 AMP

Which of the following best describes the blade movement of a full
feathering, constant speed propeller that is in the LOW RPM position
when the feathering action is begun?
A. Low pitch through high pitch to feather position.
B. High pitch directly to feather position.
C. High pitch through low pitch to feather position.
827. R05 AMP

What is the primary purpose of the metal tipping which covers the blade
tips and extends along the leading edge of each wood propeller blade?
A. To increase the longitudinal strength of the blade.
B. To increase the lateral strength of the blade.
C. To prevent impact damage to the tip and leading edge of the blade.
828. R05 AMP

Which of the following forces or combination of forces operates to move
the blades of a constant speed counterweight type propeller to the HIGH
PITCH position?
A. Prop governor oil pressure acting on the propeller piston cylinder
arrangement.
B. Centrifugal force acting on the counterweights.
C. Engine oil pressure acting on the propeller piston cylinder
arrangement and centrifugal force acting on the counterweights.
829. R05 AMP

The purpose of permanently sealing and partially filling some models of
McCauley propeller hubs with dyed oil is to
A. make the location of cracks readily apparent.
B. provide an always clean separate lubrication of the internal parts.
C. dampen pressure surges and prevent too rapid changes in propeller
blade angle.
830. R05 AMP

Which of the following best describes the blade movement of a feathering
propeller that is in the HIGH RPM position when the feathering action is
begun?
A. Low pitch through high pitch to feather position.
B. Low pitch through reverse pitch to feather position.
C. High pitch through low pitch to feather position.
831. R05 AMP

The blade angle of a fixed pitch propeller
A. is smallest at the tip.
B. increases in proportion to the distance each section is from the
hub.
C. is greatest at the tip.
832. R05 AMP

During operational check of an aircraft using hydromatic full feathering
propellers, the following observations are made:
The feather button, after being pushed, remains depressed until the
feather cycle is complete, then opens.
When unfeathering, it is necessary to manually hold the button down
until unfeathering is accomplished.
A. The feather cycle is correct. The unfeather cycle indicates a
malfunction.
B. Both feather and unfeather cycles indicate malfunctions.
C. Both feather cycle and unfeather cycle are functioning properly.
833. R05 AMP

Inspection of propeller blades by dye-penetrant inspection is
accomplished to detect
A. cracks or other defects.
B. torsional stress.
C. corrosion at the blade tip.
834. R05 AMP

What controls the constant speed range of a constant speed propeller?
A. The mechanical limits in the propeller pitch range.
B. Engine RPM.
C. Angle of climb and descent with accompanying changes in airspeed.
835. R05 AMP

For takeoff, a constant speed propeller is normally set in the
A. LOW PITCH, high RPM position.
B. HIGH PITCH, low RPM position.
C. HIGH PITCH, high RPM position.
836. R05 AMP

Which of the following statements about constant speed counterweight
propellers is also true when referring to two position counterweight
propellers?
A. Blade angle changes are accomplished by the use of two forces, one
hydraulic and the other centrifugal.
B. Since an infinite number of blade angle positions are possible
during flight, propeller efficiency is greatly improved.
C. The pilot selects the RPM and the propeller changes pitch to
maintain the selected RPM.
837. R05 AMP

Most engine propeller combinations have one or more critical ranges
within which continuous operation is not permitted. Critical ranges are
established to avoid
A. severe propeller vibration.
B. inefficient propeller pitch angles.
C. low or negative thrust conditions.
838. R05 AMP

Which of the following defects is cause for rejection of wood
propellers?
A. Solder missing from screw heads securing metal tipping.
B. No protective coating on propeller.
C. An oversize hub or bolthole, or elongated boltholes.
839. R05 AMP

An aircraft's propeller system beta range
A. refers to the most fuel efficient pitch range to use at a given
engine RPM.
B. is used to produce zero or negative thrust.
C. is used to achieve maximum thrust during takeoff.
840. R05 AMP

The primary purpose of a cuff on a propeller is to
A. strengthen the propeller.
B. increase the flow of cooling air to the engine nacelle.
C. distribute anti icing fluid.
841. R05 AMP

The purpose of a three way propeller valve is to
A. permit constant speed operation of the propeller.
B. direct oil from the engine through the governor to the propeller.
C. direct oil from the engine oil system to the propeller cylinder.
842. R05 AMP

The primary purpose of a propeller is to
A. create lift on the fixed airfoils of an aircraft.
B. provide static and dynamic stability of an aircraft in flight.
C. change engine horsepower to thrust.
843. R05 AMP
A constant speed propeller provides maximum efficiency by
A. increasing the lift coefficient of the blade.
B. adjusting blade angle for most conditions encountered in flight.
C. increasing blade pitch as the aircraft speed decreases.
844. R05 AMP

The centrifugal twisting force acting on a propeller blade is
A. greater than the aerodynamic twisting force and tends to move the
blade to a lower angle.
B. less than the aerodynamic twisting force and tends to move the
blade to a lower angle.
C. greater than the aerodynamic twisting force and tends to move the
blade to a higher angle.
845. R05 AMP

Geometric pitch of a propeller is defined as the
A. angle between the blade chord and the plane of rotation.
B. effective pitch plus slippage.
C. effective pitch minus slippage.
846. R05 AMP

Propeller blade angle is the angle between the
A. relative wind and the rotational plane of the propeller.
B. chord of the blade and the relative wind.
C. chord of the blade and the rotational plane of the propeller.
847. R05 AMP

What operational force causes propeller blade tips to lag in the
opposite direction of rotation?
A. Torque bending force.
B. Aerodynamic twisting force.
C. Thrust bending force.
848. R05 AMP

What operational force tends to bend the propeller blades forward at the
tip?
A. Centrifugal twisting force.
B. Torque bending force.
C. Thrust bending force.
849. R05 AMP

What are the rotational speed and blade pitch angle requirements of a
constant speed propeller during takeoff?
A. High speed and low pitch angle.
B. Low speed and high pitch angle.
C. High speed and high pitch angle.
850. R05 AMP

(1) A mechanic certificate with a powerplant rating authorizes the
holder to repair deep scars, nicks, and dents on aluminum propeller
blades.
(2) A mechanic certificate with a powerplant rating authorizes the
holder to perform minor straightening of steel propeller blades.
851. R05 AMP

(1) During takeoff, propeller thrust (pull) is greatest if the blade
angle of attack is low and the engine power setting is high.
(2) With the aircraft stationary, propeller thrust is greatest if the
blade angle of attack is high and the engine power setting is high.
852. R05 AMP

Longitudinal (fore and aft) clearance of constant speed propeller blades
or cuffs must be at least 1/2 inch (12.7 mm) between propeller parts and
stationary parts of the aircraft. This clearance is with the propeller
blades
A. at takeoff pitch (maximum thrust) angle.
B. feathered or in the most critical pitch configuration.
C. at the lowest pitch angle.
853. R05 AMP

Constant-speed non-feathering McCauley, Hartzell, and other propellers
of similar design without counterweights increase pitch angle using
A. spring pressure.
B. centrifugal twisting moment.
C. oil pressure.
854. R05 AMP

Counterweights on constant-speed propellers are generally used to aid in
A. unfeathering the propellers.
B. increasing blade angle.
C. decreasing blade angle.
855. R05 AMP

When lubricating a Hartzell propeller blade with grease, to prevent
damage to the blade seals, the service manual may recommend on some
models to
A. remove one of the two zerk fittings for the blade and grease the
blade through the remaining fitting.
B. pump grease into both zerk fittings for the blade simultaneously.
C. remove the seals prior to greasing and reinstall them afterwards.
856. R05 AMP
The primary purpose of a feathering propeller is to
A. prevent further engine damage when an engine fails in flight.
B. eliminate the drag created by a windmilling propeller when an
engine fails in flight.
C. prevent propeller damage when an engine fails in flight.
857. R06 AMP

What normally prevents a Hartzell Compact propeller from going to
feather when the engine is shut down on the ground?
A. Propeller cylinder air pressure.
B. Accumulator provided oil pressure.
C. A latch mechanism composed of springs and lock pins.
858. R06 AMP

When running up an engine and testing a newly installed hydromatic
propeller, it is necessary to exercise the propeller by moving the
governor control through its entire travel several times to
A. test the maximum RPM setting of the governor.
B. seat the blades fully against the low pitch stop.
C. free the dome of any entrapped air.
859. R06 AMP

Which of the following occurs to cause front cone bottoming during
propeller installation?
A. The front cone contacts the ends of the shaft splines, preventing
the front and rear cones from being tightened against the cone seats in
the propeller hub.
B. The front cone enters the front propeller hub cone seat at an angle
causing the propeller retaining nut to appear tight when it is only
partially tightened.
C. The front cone becomes bottomed in the front propeller hub cone
seat before the rear propeller hub cone seat has engaged the rear cone.
860. R06 AMP

What is indicated when the front cone bottoms while installing a
propeller?
A. Rear cone should be moved forward.
B. Propeller dome combination is incorrect.
C. Blade angles are incorrect.
861. R06 AMP

How is the oil pressure delivery on a hydromatic propeller normally
stopped after the blades have reached their full feathered position?
A. Electric cutout pressure switch.
B. Pulling out the feathering push button.
C. Stop lugs in the teeth of the rotating cam.
862. R06 AMP

The primary purpose of the front and rear cones for propellers that are
installed on splined shafts is to
A. position the propeller hub on the splined shaft.
B. reduce stresses between the splines of the propeller and the
splines of the shaft.
C. prevent metal to metal contact between the propeller and the
splined shaft.
863. R06 AMP

Which of the following statements concerning the installation of a new
fixed pitch wood propeller is true?
A. If a separate metal hub is used, final track should be accomplished
prior to installing the hub in the propeller.
B. NAS close tolerance bolts should be used to install the propeller.
C. Inspect the bolts for tightness after the first flight and again
after the first 25 hours of flying.
864. R06 AMP

If propeller cones or hub cone seats show evidence of galling and wear,
the most likely cause is
A. the front cone was not fully bottomed against the crankshaft
splines during installation.
B. the propeller retaining nut was not tight enough during previous
operation.
C. the pitch change stops were located incorrectly, causing the cone
seats to act as the high pitch stop.
865. R06 AMP

On aircraft equipped with hydraulically operated constant speed
propellers, all ignition and magneto checking is done with the propeller
in which position?
A. Low RPM.
B. High RPM.
C. High pitch range.
866. R06 AMP

Oil leakage around the rear cone of a hydromatic propeller usually
indicates a defective
A. spider shaft oil seal.
B. piston gasket.
C. dome barrel oil seal.
867. R06 AMP

Maximum taper contact between crankshaft and propeller hub is determined
by using
A. a surface gauge.
B. a micrometer.
C. bearing blue color transfer.
868. R06 AMP

Propeller blade tracking is the process of determining
A. the plane of rotation of the propeller with respect to the aircraft
longitudinal axis.
B. the positions of the tips of the propeller blades relative to each
other.
C. that the blade angles are within the specified tolerance of each
other.
869. R06 AMP

What is the basic purpose of the three small holes (No. 60 drill) in the
tipping of wood propeller blades?
A. To provide a means for inserting balancing shot when necessary.
B. To provide a means for periodically impregnating the blade with
preservation materials.
C. To allow the moisture which may collect between the tipping and the
wood to escape (vent the tipping).
870. R06 AMP

A fixed pitch wooden propeller that has been properly installed and the
attachment bolts properly torqued exceeds the out of track allowance by
1/16 inch. The excessive out of track condition may be corrected by
A. discarding the propeller since out of track conditions cannot be
corrected.
B. slightly overtightening the attachment bolts adjacent to the most
forward blade.
C. placing shims between the inner flange and the propeller.
871. R06 AMP

Manually feathering a hydromechanical propeller means to
A. block governor oil pressure to the cylinder of the propeller.
B. port governor oil pressure from the cylinder of the propeller.
C. port governor oil pressure to the cylinder of the propeller.
872. R06 AMP

In what position is the constant speed propeller control placed to check
the magnetos?
A. Full decrease, low propeller blade pitch angle.
B. Full increase, high propeller blade pitch angle.
C. Full increase, low propeller blade pitch angle.
873. R06 AMP

If a flanged propeller shaft has dowel pins
A. install the propeller so that the blades are positioned for hand
propping.
B. the propeller can be installed in only one position.
C. check carefully for front cone bottoming against the pins.
874. R07 AMP

Repairs of aluminum alloy adjustable pitch propellers are not permitted
to be made on which of the following propeller blade areas?
A. Back.
B. Shank.
C. Face.
875. R07 AMP
Which of the following methods is used to straighten a bent aluminum
propeller blade that is within repairable limits?
A. Either hot or cold straightening, depending on the location and
severity of damage.
B. Careful heating to accomplish straightening, followed by heat
treatment to restore original strength.
C. Cold straightening only.
876. R07 AMP

It is important that nicks in aluminum alloy propeller blades be
repaired as soon as possible in order to
A. equalize the centrifugal loads between the blades.
B. maintain equal aerodynamic characteristics between the blades.
C. eliminate stress concentration points.
877. R07 AMP

Generally, unless otherwise specified by the manufacturer, repairs of
nicks, scratches, gouges, etc. on aluminum propeller blades must be made
A. so as to return the damaged area to the original dimensions.
B. perpendicular to the blade axis.
C. parallel to the length of the blade.
878. R07 AMP

Minor surface damage located in a repairable area, but not on the
leading or trailing edges of aluminum blades, may be repaired by first
A. filing with a half round or flat file.
B. filing with a riffle file.
C. rough sanding and applying a proper filler.
879. R07 AMP

After proper removal of aluminum blade damage, the affected surface
should be polished with
A. fine steel wool.
B. very fine sandpaper.
C. powdered soapstone.
880. R07 AMP

When preparing a propeller blade for inspection it should be cleaned
with
A. mild soap and water.
B. methyl ethyl ketone.
C. steel wool.
881. R07 AMP

What method would be used to inspect an aluminum propeller blade when a
crack is suspected
A. use a bright light.
B. dye-penetrant.
C. magnetic particle.
882. R07 AMP
Surface treatment to counter the effects of dye-penetrant inspection on
a propeller is accomplished by
A. wiping with alcohol.
B. rinse the blade in alodine solution.
C. washing off with solvent.
883. R07 AMP

One of the advantages of inspecting an aluminum propeller utilizing dye-
penetrant inspection procedure is that
A. it shows whether visible lines and other marks are actually cracks
rather than scratches.
B. defects just below the surface are indicated.
C. it indicates overspeed condition.
884. R07 AMP

The primary reason for careful inspection and prompt repairing of minor
surface defects such as scratches, nicks, gouges, etc. on aluminum alloy
propellers is to prevent
A. unbalanced aerodynamics.
B. fatigue failure.
C. corrosion.
885. R07 AMP

Which of the following generally renders an aluminum alloy propeller
unrepairable?
A. Any slag inclusions or cold shuts.
B. Any repairs that would require shortening and re-contouring of
blades.
C. Transverse cracks of any size.
886. R07 AMP

Cold straightening a bent aluminum propeller blade may be accomplished
by
A. the holder of a mechanic certificate with a powerplant rating.
B. an appropriately rated repair station or the manufacturer.
C. a person working under the supervision of the holder of a mechanic
certificate with both airframe and powerplant ratings.
887. T01 AMP

Frequently, an aircraft's auxiliary power unit (APU) generator
A. supplements the aircraft's engine-driven generators during peak
loads.
B. is identical to the engine-driven generators.
C. has a higher load capacity than the engine-driven generators.
888. T01 AMP

Fuel is normally supplied to an APU from
A. the airplane's main fuel supply.
B. its own independent fuel supply.
C. the airplane's reserve fuel supply.
889. T01 AMP

An APU is usually rotated during start by
A. an electric starter.
B. a pneumatic starter.
C. a turbine impingement system.
890. T01 AMP

The function of an APU air inlet plenum is to
A. stabilize the pressure of the air before it enters the compressor.
B. decrease the pressure of the air before entering the compressor.
C. increase the velocity of the air before entering the compressor.
891. T01 AMP

When in operation, the speed of an APU
A. remains at or near rated speed regardless of the load condition.
B. remains at idle and automatically accelerates to rated speed when
placed under load.
C. is controlled by a cockpit power lever.
892. T01 AMP

Generally, when maximum APU shaft output power is being used in
conjunction with pneumatic power
A. electrical loading will be automatically modulated to maintain a
safe EGT.
B. pneumatic loading will be automatically modulated to maintain a
safe EGT.
C. temperature limits and loads must be carefully monitored by the
operator to maintain a safe EGT.
893. T01 AMP

When necessary, APU engine cooling before shutdown may be accomplished
by
A. opening the bleed air valve.
B. closing the bleed air valve.
C. unloading the generator(s).
894. T01 AMP

Usually, most of the load placed on an APU occurs when
A. an electrical load is placed on the generator(s).
B. the bleed air valve is closed.
C. the bleed air valve is opened.
895. T01 AMP

Fuel scheduling during APU start and under varying pneumatic bleed and
electrical loads is maintained
A. automatically by the APU fuel control system.
B. automatically by an aircraft main engine fuel control unit.
C. manually through power control lever position.

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Version: 013

The FAA computer-assisted testing system is supported by a series of

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