Physics 5054 OL P1 MCQs 2015-2019 All Vs

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge Ordinary Level

PHYSICS 5054/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2015
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*2891513412*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 15 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB15 06_5054_11/4RP
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1 Is mass a scalar or a vector, and is acceleration a scalar or a vector?

mass acceleration

A scalar scalar
B scalar vector
C vector scalar
D vector vector

2 The diameter and the length of a thin wire, approximately 50 cm in length, are measured as precisely
as possible.

What are the best instruments to use?

diameter length

A micrometer rule
B micrometer vernier calipers
C rule tape
D vernier calipers rule

3 A student walks at a constant speed. He takes 100 s to walk 160 paces. The length of each pace
is 0.80 m.

How far does the student walk in 50 s?

A 64 m B 80 m C 128 m D 256 m

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4 The mass of a stone is found on Earth using a pan balance. The weight of the stone is found
using a newton meter.

pan balance newton meter

stone
stone

Are the readings the same or different on the Moon?

reading on reading on
pan balance newton meter

A different different
B same different
C different same
D same same

5 The table shows the weights and masses of four objects on different planets.

On which planet is the gravitational field strength the largest?

weight / N mass / kg

A 2.0 20
B 4.0 30
C 6.0 40
D 8.0 50

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6 Four forces act at a point as shown.

2N

8N 4N

2N

What is the size of the resultant force?

A 0N B 4N C 6N D 8N

7 A student drops, from rest, a table-tennis ball in air.

What happens to the velocity and to the acceleration of the ball during the first few seconds after
release?

velocity acceleration

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

8 The mass and volume of four different objects are plotted as shown.

Which object has the smallest density?

A B
20
mass / g

C D
10

0
0 5 10
volume / cm3

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9 Newton’s third law involves two quantities which are equal in size and opposite in direction.

What is the unit for these two quantities?

A J
B m / s2
C N
D W

10 When a car turns a corner at speed, it risks toppling over. Two factors affecting the stability of a
car are the height of its centre of mass and the distance between its front wheels.

Which factors make the car most stable?

distance
centre of
between front
mass
wheels

A high small
B high large
C low small
D low large

11 A cyclist travels along a horizontal track at constant speed.

The work done by the cyclist is equal to

A the change in kinetic energy.


B the force of air resistance.
C the force of friction in the bicycle.
D the thermal energy (heat) produced.

12 A 2.0 kg mass has 300 J of kinetic energy.

What is the speed of the mass?

A 8.7 m / s B 12 m / s C 17 m / s D 24 m / s

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13 The diagram shows a simple model of the braking system of a car. A force of 20 N is applied to
piston P. As a result, there is a force F on piston Q.

piston Q

F
20 N

piston P
oil

Piston P has an area of 5.0 cm2 and piston Q has an area of 25 cm2.

What is the force F ?

A 4.0 N B 20 N C 100 N D 500 N

14 The diagrams show liquids in containers.

Which column of liquid exerts the greatest pressure on the base of its container?

A B C D

paraffin water water paraffin


density of liquid 0.8 g / cm3 1.0 g / cm3 1.0 g / cm3 0.8 g / cm3

15 A solid bar is heated at one end.

How is thermal energy transferred to the other end of the bar?

A Heated molecules move along the bar, carrying energy to the other end.
B Heated molecules move along the bar, giving energy to others along the bar.
C Heated molecules stay completely still, but give energy to other molecules.
D Heated molecules vibrate more rapidly and pass energy to other molecules.

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16 The tubes inside solar heating panels use the Sun’s radiation to warm water.

Why are the tubes painted black?

A Black surfaces absorb radiation well.


B Black surfaces conduct heat well.
C Black surfaces emit radiation well.
D Black surfaces reflect radiation well.

17 Why is there a constriction in a clinical thermometer?

A to give the thermometer a smaller temperature range


B to make the thermometer more sensitive
C to prevent the mercury breaking the bulb when it expands
D to stop the mercury from going back to the bulb

18 In a liquid-in-glass thermometer, the liquid column is 2.0 cm long at 0 °C and it expands 10.0 cm
when heated to 100 °C.

2.0 cm 10.0 cm
P

0 °C 100 °C

Measuring from P, how long is the liquid column at 30 °C?

A 2.3 cm B 3.0 cm C 5.0 cm D 7.0 cm

19 Which substance in the table is liquid at 20 °C?

melting point boiling point


/ °C / °C

A –218 –183
B –39 357
C 44 280
D 119 444

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20 In which situation do sound waves not travel?

A from a satellite in space to Earth


B from a ship to a submarine
C from an explosion underground to the surface
D through a balloon filled with helium gas

21 A wave in a ripple tank passes from a deeper to a shallower region and refracts.

Which wave properties decrease as the wave enters the shallow region?

A frequency only
B speed only
C frequency and wavelength
D speed and wavelength

22 A ray of light is incident on the surface of a glass block, as shown in the diagram below.

air 45°
glass

The refractive index of the glass is 1.5.

The light ray changes direction when entering the glass.

What is the angle x through which the ray moves?

A 30° B 28° C 17° D 15°

23 An image is formed by a thin converging lens when it is used as a magnifying glass.

What is the correct description of the image?

A real and erect


B real and inverted
C virtual and erect
D virtual and inverted

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24 A ray of light travels from X to Y along an optical fibre. The angle of incidence at Y is greater than
the critical angle.

In which direction does the ray of light travel after reaching point Y?

B
optical fibre
Y

25 One end of a rod picks up the N-pole of a bar magnet when in position 1.

The same end of the rod picks up the S-pole of the bar magnet when in position 2.

position 1 position 2

rod rod

N S
magnet magnet
S N
bench

Which material is the rod made from and what is the pole at end P of the rod when in position 1?

material pole at P

A iron N-pole
B iron S-pole
C steel N-pole
D steel S-pole

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26 A metal ring screens a piece of equipment from a magnetic field.

magnetic
field equipment

metal ring

Which metal should be used for the ring, and why?

metal reason

A copper the metal carries the field lines around the equipment
B copper the metal is non-magnetic
C iron the metal carries the field lines around the equipment
D iron the metal is non-magnetic

27 The diagram shows the magnetic field pattern of a current in a solenoid.

solenoid

K L M

When the current in the solenoid is increased, where is there an increase in the magnetic field
strength?

A K, L and M
B K and L only
C M and L only
D M only

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28 The diagram shows a circuit.

cells

– + – +

lamp

lamp

Which circuit diagram shows this circuit?

A B C D

29 A charge of 7.5 C flows through a resistor in 5.0 s. A student has ammeters with different ranges
that he can use to measure the current in the resistor.

Which ammeter range is the most appropriate?

A 0-1A B 0-2A C 0-5A D 0 - 40 A

30 Three identical cells are connected in parallel to a resistor.

What is the advantage of using three cells in parallel, rather than using a single cell?

A Each cell produces more energy.


B Each cell supplies more charge.
C Each cell takes longer to run down.
D The total electromotive force (e.m.f.) is larger.

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31 When the flash on a camera is used, a charge of 1.5 C flows through the flash-tube in 0.0030 s.

The average voltage across the flash-tube is 3600 V.

What is the electrical energy supplied to the flash-tube and what is the average power supplied?

energy / J power / W

A 2400 7.2
B 2400 800 000
C 5400 16.2
D 5400 1.8 × 106

32 A 1.0 m length of wire of cross-sectional area 0.40 mm2 has a resistance of 2.0 Ω.

What is the resistance of a 0.50 m length of wire, of the same material, with a cross-sectional
area of 0.80 mm2 ?

A 0.5 Ω B 1.0 Ω C 4.0 Ω D 8.0 Ω

33 The diagram shows three resistors in parallel.

15 Ω

30 Ω

30 Ω

What is the combined resistance?

A 7.5 Ω B 15 Ω C 30 Ω D 75 Ω

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34 In which circuit is the voltmeter reading 7.2 V?

A B

3.0 Ω 4.0 Ω

12 V 12 V

5.0 Ω V 6.0 Ω V

C D

2.0 Ω 2.0 Ω

12 V 12 V

4.0 Ω V 6.0 Ω V

35 The diagram shows the information found on an electric kettle.

240 V 50 Hz
600 W 700 cm3

What is the frequency of the electrical supply used to power the kettle?

A 50 Hz B 240 V C 600 W D 700 cm3

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36 A magnet is placed near to a solenoid that is connected to a sensitive centre-zero ammeter.

solenoid

magnet

A
sensitive ammeter

The magnet is pushed towards the solenoid. It accelerates, then moves at constant speed, then
decelerates and stops inside the solenoid.

When is the reading on the ammeter zero?

A when the magnet is accelerating


B when the magnet is moving at constant speed
C when the magnet is decelerating
D when the magnet is stationary

37 A radioactive material decays by this process:

YL → Y
Z Z + 1M + x

What is particle x?

A an electron
B a helium nucleus
C a neutron
D a proton

38 A factory continuously produces plastic sheets. A radioactive isotope and a detector are used to
check the thickness of the sheets.

What is the most suitable source to use?

A an alpha source with a half-life of a few minutes


B an alpha source with a half-life of several years
C a beta source with a half-life of a few minutes
D a beta source with a half-life of several years

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39 A source contains a radioactive material.

Without the radioactive source present, a detector records a background count rate of 20 counts
per minute.

This source is placed in a fixed position near the detector. Initially a count rate of 520 per minute
is recorded.

What count rate is recorded after a time of two half-lifes of the radioactive source?

A 125 counts per minute


B 130 counts per minute
C 135 counts per minute
D 145 counts per minute

40 A nucleus contains 94 protons and 240 nucleons. It emits an alpha-particle.

How many protons and how many neutrons are in the nucleus produced?

number of number of
protons neutrons

A 90 144
B 90 236
C 92 144
D 92 236

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reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge Ordinary Level

PHYSICS 5054/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2015
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*3518048680*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 15 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB15 06_5054_12/6RP
© UCLES 2015 [Turn over

https://t.me/igcse_files 18
https://t.me/igcse_files 19 2

1 Which quantity is a scalar?

A acceleration
B force
C temperature
D velocity

2 The diameter and the length of a thin wire, approximately 50 cm in length, are measured as precisely
as possible.

What are the best instruments to use?

diameter length

A micrometer rule
B micrometer vernier calipers
C rule tape
D vernier calipers rule

3 A cyclist takes a ride lasting 25 s.

The diagram shows how her distance travelled from the starting position varies with time.

150
distance travelled / m
100

50

0
0 5 10 15 20 25
time / s

What is her average speed for the whole ride?

A 6.0 m / s B 7.5 m / s C 10.0 m / s D 11.0 m / s

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4 A car begins to move. It speeds up until it reaches a constant speed. It continues to travel at this
constant speed for the rest of the journey.

What happens to the acceleration and what happens to the velocity of the car during the journey?

A Both the acceleration and the velocity change.


B Only the acceleration changes.
C Only the velocity changes.
D Neither the acceleration nor the velocity changes.

5 A metal ball of mass 0.30 kg and weight 3.0 N is held so that it is below the surface of oil.
It experiences an upwards force of 0.30 N.

upwards
0.30 N
force

weight 3.0 N

When the ball is released, what is its initial acceleration?

A 1.0 m / s2 B 9.0 m / s2 C 10 m / s2 D 11 m / s2

6 A student drops, from rest, a table-tennis ball in air.

What happens to the velocity and to the acceleration of the ball during the first few seconds after
release?

velocity acceleration

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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7 The Earth travels in a circular orbit around the Sun at constant speed.

P Earth

R
Q

orbit of Sun
the Earth

Which arrows show the direction of the acceleration of the Earth and the direction of the velocity
of the Earth?

direction of direction of
acceleration velocity

A P Q
B Q P
C Q R
D R Q

8 The mass of a stone is found on Earth using a pan balance. The weight of the stone is found
using a newton meter.

pan balance newton meter

stone
stone

Are the readings the same or different on the Moon?

reading on reading on
pan balance newton meter

A different different
B same different
C different same
D same same

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9 A uniform beam is pivoted at its centre. Two weights are placed on the beam in the positions
shown and the beam is balanced by an upward force F.

40 cm 30 cm 20 cm

30 N pivot 60 N

What is the size of F?

A 6N B 12 N C 30 N D 60 N

10 The diagrams show liquids in containers.

Which column of liquid exerts the greatest pressure on the base of its container?

A B C D

paraffin water water paraffin


density of liquid 0.8 g / cm3 1.0 g / cm3 1.0 g / cm3 0.8 g / cm3

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11 The graph shows how the pressure of a fixed mass of gas varies with volume at constant
temperature.

125

100
pressure / kPa
75

50

25

0
0 5 10 15 20 25 30
volume / cm3

What is the volume of the gas when the pressure is 25 kPa?

A 2.5 cm3 B 10 cm3 C 30 cm3 D 40 cm3

12 A rocket of total mass M is travelling at a speed v. The engine of the rocket is fired and fuel is
used up. The mass of the rocket decreases to M / 2 and its speed increases to 2v.

What happens to the kinetic energy of the rocket?

A it doubles
B it halves
C it increases by a factor of four
D it stays the same

13 A builder lifts eight slabs from the ground on to the back of a lorry 1.5 m high.

The total time taken is 48 s and each slab weighs 200 N.

How much useful power does the builder produce?

A 50 W B 400 W C 2400 W D 3200 W

14 A solid bar is heated at one end.

How is thermal energy transferred to the other end of the bar?

A Heated molecules move along the bar, carrying energy to the other end.
B Heated molecules move along the bar, giving energy to others along the bar.
C Heated molecules stay completely still, but give energy to other molecules.
D Heated molecules vibrate more rapidly and pass energy to other molecules.

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15 An electrical heater is placed in a beaker of cold oil, as shown.

oil

The heater is switched on.

What happens to the liquid at X?

A It becomes less dense and falls.


B It becomes less dense and rises.
C It becomes more dense and falls.
D It becomes more dense and rises.

16 The tubes inside solar heating panels use the Sun’s radiation to warm water.

Why are the tubes painted black?

A Black surfaces absorb radiation well.


B Black surfaces conduct heat well.
C Black surfaces emit radiation well.
D Black surfaces reflect radiation well.

17 In a liquid-in-glass thermometer, the liquid column is 2.0 cm long at 0 °C and it expands 10.0 cm
when heated to 100 °C.

2.0 cm 10.0 cm
P

0 °C 100 °C

Measuring from P, how long is the liquid column at 30 °C?

A 2.3 cm B 3.0 cm C 5.0 cm D 7.0 cm

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18 Which substance in the table is liquid at 20 °C?

melting point boiling point


/ °C / °C

A –218 –183
B –39 357
C 44 280
D 119 444

19 Which diagram represents the change in the arrangement of the molecules in a solid as the
substance melts?

A B

C D

20 Some gas is trapped in a closed container. The gas is cooled and the volume of the container is
kept constant.

What happens to the gas molecules?

A They collide with the walls more often.


B They contract.
C They get closer together.
D They move more slowly.

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21 In a liquid, some energetic molecules break free from the surface even when the liquid is too cold
for bubbles to form.

What is the name of this process?

A boiling
B condensation
C convection
D evaporation

22 A pupil adds 37 g of ice at 0 °C to 100 g of water at 30 °C. The final temperature of the water and
melted ice is 0 °C. No heat is lost to, or gained from, the surroundings.

The specific heat capacity of water is 4.2 J / (g °C).

What is the specific latent heat of ice?

A 47 J / g B 341 J / g C 4700 J / g D 12 600 J / g

23 The heat capacity of an object, of mass 2.0 kg, is C. The energy needed to

A increase the temperature of the whole object by ∆t is C∆t.


B increase the temperature of unit mass of the object by ∆t is C∆t.
C melt the whole object is C.
D melt unit mass of the object is C.

24 A ball floating in a ripple tank begins to move vertically up and down as a wave passes beneath
it. The ball does not move horizontally.

wave
direction
ball movement
of ball

Which statement is correct?

A Both energy and water are transferred in the wave direction.


B Energy is not transferred in the wave direction but water is.
C Energy is transferred in the wave direction but water is not.
D Neither energy nor water is transferred in the wave direction.

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25 A ray of light in glass is incident on the surface at an angle c. The angle c is the critical angle.

Which diagram shows what happens to the light?

A B C D

air air air air


glass glass glass glass
c c c c

26 A ray of light is incident on the surface of a glass block, as shown in the diagram below.

air 45°
glass

The refractive index of the glass is 1.5.

The light ray changes direction when entering the glass.

What is the angle x through which the ray moves?

A 30° B 28° C 17° D 15°

27 An image is formed by a thin converging lens when it is used as a magnifying glass.

What is the correct description of the image?

A real and erect


B real and inverted
C virtual and erect
D virtual and inverted

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28 Which component of the electromagnetic spectrum is used for television transmission from
satellites?

A microwaves
B radio waves
C ultra-violet
D X-rays

29 In which situation do sound waves not travel?

A from a satellite in space to Earth


B from a ship to a submarine
C from an explosion underground to the surface
D through a balloon filled with helium gas

30 Two sound waves X and Y are compared.

X has the greater frequency.

Y has the greater amplitude.

How do the loudness and pitch of sound wave Y compare to those of X?

A Y is louder and higher pitch.


B Y is louder and lower pitch.
C Y is quieter and higher pitch.
D Y is quieter and lower pitch.

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31 A metal ring screens a piece of equipment from a magnetic field.

magnetic
field equipment

metal ring

Which metal should be used for the ring, and why?

metal reason

A copper the metal carries the field lines around the equipment
B copper the metal is non-magnetic
C iron the metal carries the field lines around the equipment
D iron the metal is non-magnetic

32 A positively charged rod is brought near to an isolated uncharged conducting sphere.

+
isolated
+
positively charged rod conducting sphere
+
+ X Y
+

insulator

What are the charges on sides X and Y of the sphere?

A Both X and Y are positively charged.


B Both X and Y are negatively charged.
C X is positively charged and Y is negatively charged.
D X is negatively charged and Y is positively charged.

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33 The diagram shows a circuit.

Where must an ammeter be connected to measure the smallest current?

A
10 Ω D
B 30 Ω
20 Ω

34 Two resistors of resistances 30 Ω and 60 Ω are arranged in parallel. The current in the 30 Ω
resistor is 0.60 A.

30 Ω 0.60 A

60 Ω

What is the potential difference across the 60 Ω resistor?

A 9.0 V B 18 V C 36 V D 54 V

35 The circuit shows three resistors in series connected to a battery. Each resistor has a voltmeter
across it and two of the voltages are shown.

40 V

V V V
10 V 18 V

What is the potential difference (p.d.) across the resistor R?

A 12 V B 22 V C 30 V D 68 V

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36 A teacher moves a magnet into and out of a coil of wire, as shown, in order to demonstrate
electromagnetic induction.

direction of
movement
of magnet
coil

S N

magnet

Which statement is correct?

A As the magnet is moved into the coil the left-hand end of the coil becomes a S-pole.
B As the magnet is taken out of the coil the left-hand end of the coil becomes a N-pole.
C Increasing the speed at which the magnet enters the coil, increases the induced voltage.
D Increasing the speed at which the magnet leaves the coil decreases the induced voltage.

37 A transformer consists of two coils which are wound on to a metallic core.

Which type of voltage is supplied to the transformer and which metal is used to make the core?

supply
metal
voltage

A alternating iron
B alternating steel
C direct iron
D direct steel

38 A nucleus of 215
84 Po decays by emitting an alpha-particle and the resulting nucleus then decays by
emitting a beta-particle.

What is the nucleon number and proton number of the final nucleus?

nucleon proton
number number

A 211 81
B 211 83
C 212 81
D 212 83

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39 A radioactive material decays by this process:

YL → Y
Z Z + 1M + x

What is particle x?

A an electron
B a helium nucleus
C a neutron
D a proton

40 The half-life of a radioactive isotope is 24 hours. A sample of this isotope produces an initial
count rate of 720 counts per second.

How long does it take for the count rate to fall to 90 counts per second?

A 3 hours
B 72 hours
C 96 hours
D 192 hours

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BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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© UCLES 2015 33 5054/12/M/J/15
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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge Ordinary Level

PHYSICS 5054/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2015
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*2918940906*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB15 11_5054_11/5RP
© UCLES 2015 [Turn over

https://t.me/igcse_files 34
https://t.me/igcse_files 35 2

1 During an experiment to find the density of a stone, the stone is lowered into a measuring cylinder
partly filled with water.

water stone

Which statement is correct?

A The difference between the readings gives the density of the stone.
B The difference between the readings gives the volume of the stone.
C The final reading gives the density of the stone.
D The final reading gives the volume of the stone.

2 The diagram shows a micrometer scale.

20
0 5
mm 15
10

Which reading is shown?

A 5.64 mm B 7.14 mm C 7.16 mm D 7.64 mm

3 An object travels at a constant speed of 10 m / s for 10 s. During the next 5 s, it accelerates


uniformly to 20 m / s.

20
speed
m/s

10

0
0 5 10 15
time / s

What is the total distance travelled by the object?

A 150 m B 175 m C 200 m D 300 m

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4 Which object has the largest resultant force?

A B

10 N 10 N
30 N 10 N
10 N 10 N

C D

5N 5N
30 N 5N
5N 5N

5 In which example does friction act in the direction of forward motion of the object on which it
acts?

A on a suitcase accelerating on a conveyor belt


B on sandpaper rubbing a wooden block
C on the skis of a skier accelerating downhill on smooth snow
D on the tyres of a braking car

6 The diagram represents the Moon in its orbit around the Earth.

Which arrow represents the direction of the resultant force acting on the Moon at the instant
shown?

C
B

Earth A D
Moon

direction of
motion of the Moon

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7 Which statement about mass is correct?

A Mass is density divided by volume.


B Mass is the amount of space occupied by a body.
C Mass is weight multiplied by the gravitational field strength.
D Mass resists a change in motion.

8 The total weight of the load and the wheelbarrow shown is 600 N.

70 cm 50 cm

F
load

pivot

600 N

What is the size of force F needed just to lift the loaded wheelbarrow?

A 350 N B 430 N C 600 N D 840 N

9 A force acts on a body.

Which properties of the body may all be changed by the force?

A mass, shape and size


B mass, shape and velocity
C mass, size and velocity
D shape, size and velocity

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10 Some students plan to use a spring to make a spring balance with a linear scale.

The graph shows how the extension of their spring changes with the load on it.

extension

0
0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14
load / N

What is the total range of a balance with a linear scale using this spring?

A 0 N to 10 N B 0 N to 12 N C 10 N to 12 N D 10 N to 14 N

11 A block of weight 900 N has rectangular faces. The diagram shows the lengths of the sides.

0.30 m

0.40 m
0.50 m

The block can rest on any of its faces.

What is the minimum pressure that the block can exert on the ground when resting on one of its
faces?

A 900 Pa B 4500 Pa C 6000 Pa D 7500 Pa

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12 A U-tube containing water is used as a manometer.

low-pressure
open to chamber
atmosphere

20 cm original
water level

20 cm

water

When one end of the manometer is connected to a low-pressure chamber, both water levels in
the manometer change by 20 cm. The gravitational field strength g is 10 N / kg.

The density of water is 1000 kg / m3.

How far below atmospheric pressure is the pressure in this chamber?

A 2000 Pa B 4000 Pa C 200 000 Pa D 400 000 Pa

13 A gas is trapped inside a cylinder by a movable piston. The length of the gas column is 20 cm and
the pressure inside the cylinder is p.

50 cm

gas at initial
pressure p

20 cm
original position
of piston

The piston is pulled out a distance of 30 cm, so that the length of the gas column is now 50 cm.
The temperature of the gas does not change.

What is the new pressure of the gas?

A 0.40 p B 0.60 p C 1.5 p D 2.5 p

14 The input power to a lamp is 6.0 W. The lamp wastes 2.7 J of energy in 3.0 s.

What is the efficiency of the lamp?

A 0.15 B 0.45 C 0.55 D 0.85

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15 The diagrams represent four thermometers.

25 °C 40 °C 250 °C 300 °C

20 °C 200 °C 260 °C

15 °C 150 °C 220 °C
35 °C
10 °C 100 °C 180 °C

5 °C 50 °C 140 °C

0 °C 30 °C 0 °C 100 °C

P Q R S

Which thermometer has the greatest sensitivity and which thermometer has the greatest range?

greatest greatest
sensitivity range

A P R
B P S
C Q R
D Q S

16 Which type of thermometer is used for measuring temperatures above 1000 °C and which type is
used for measuring temperatures that change rapidly?

measures temperatures measures temperatures


above 1000 °C that change rapidly

A liquid-in-glass liquid-in-glass
B liquid-in-glass thermocouple
C thermocouple liquid-in-glass
D thermocouple thermocouple

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17 An electric shower takes in cold water at 17 °C. The shower gives 6000 J of energy every second
to the cold water and heats it to 37 °C. The specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J / (kg °C).

What is the mass of hot water supplied by the shower in one second?

A 0.035 kg B 0.039 kg C 0.071 kg D 0.084 kg

18 What is latent heat of vaporisation?

A the energy required to make molecules expand


B the energy required to make molecules expand and move apart
C the energy required to make molecules move apart
D the energy required to make molecules move faster

19 In an experiment using a ripple tank, plane wavefronts arrive at a plane surface.

plane surface

Which row correctly describes the waves after they are reflected from the surface?

speed of waves wavelength λ

A larger shorter
B smaller shorter
C the same longer
D the same the same

20 Which statement about red light and blue light is correct?

A Red light has a higher frequency than blue light.


B Red light has a longer wavelength than blue light.
C Red light has the same speed in glass as blue light.
D Red light is refracted by a glass prism more than blue light.

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21 A ray of light in a transparent medium of refractive index 1.8 is incident on the surface as shown.
The light enters air.

air
medium 60°

30°

What is the angle between the refracted ray and the normal in air?

A 29° B 33° C 54° D 64°

22 A musical note is produced by two sources.

The traces produced by each source on the screen of a cathode-ray oscilloscope (c.r.o.) are
shown below.

What is the difference between the sounds?

A the amplitude
B the frequency
C the pitch
D the quality

23 What is a suitable metal for the core of an electromagnet?

A aluminium
B copper
C iron
D steel

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24 A polythene rod becomes charged when rubbed with a dry woollen cloth.

The charge caused is a result of

A friction producing a movement of electrons.


B friction producing a movement of protons.
C magnetism producing a movement of electrons.
D magnetism producing a movement of protons.

25 A positively charged insulated metal sphere is brought close to an uncharged insulated metal
sphere.

positively charged uncharged sphere


sphere

Which diagram shows the charge distribution on the spheres?

A B C D

+ + + – + + + – + –
+ + + – + + + – + –
++ ++ ++ – ++ ++ ++ – ++ –
– – –

26 The flash on a camera operates when a capacitor discharges through a flash-tube.


In 3.2 ms, a charge of 6.0 C passes through the flash-tube.

What is the average current in the flash-tube?

A 0.019 A
B 1.9 A
C 19 A
D 1900 A

27 Which physical quantity is produced by a calculation where a charge is multiplied by a potential


difference (p.d.)?

A current
B electromotive force (e.m.f.)
C energy
D power

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28 Three 10 Ω resistors are connected together to form networks X, Y and Z.

10 Ω
10 Ω

10 Ω 10 Ω 10 Ω 10 Ω 10 Ω

10 Ω
10 Ω

network X network Y network Z

What is the order of resistance of the networks going from the smallest total resistance to the
largest total resistance?

A X→Y→Z B X→Z→Y C Z→X→Y D Z→Y→X

29 Which circuit contains a fuse and a diode?

A B

C D

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30 Four resistors of unequal resistances are connected to a power supply as shown.

I2

I1 I4
I3

The currents in the four resistors are I1, I2, I3 and I4.

Which equation is correct?

A I1 = I2 – I3

B I2 = I 1 + I 4

C I3 = I4 – I1

D I4 = I 2 + I 3

31 Which diagram shows a lamp wired correctly to the mains supply in a house?

A B
live neutral live neutral

C D
live neutral live neutral

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32 P and Q represent two, parallel, straight wires carrying currents into the plane of the paper. P and
Q exert a force on each other.

Which arrow shows the force on Q?

Q
P D B

33 The diagram shows a simple d.c. motor.

What is the part labelled Q?

A a coil
B a commutator
C a magnet
D a slip ring

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34 An experiment is set up to investigate how the current in a filament lamp changes with the
potential difference across it.

Which circuit is correct?

A B

V V

C D

A A

V V

35 Electric power cables transmit electrical energy over large distances using high-voltage,
alternating current.

What are the advantages of using a high voltage and of using an alternating current?

advantage of using a high voltage advantage of using an alternating current

A high current is produced in the cable the resistance of the cable is reduced
B high current is produced in the cable the voltage can be changed using a transformer
C less energy is wasted in the cable the resistance of the cable is reduced
D less energy is wasted in the cable the voltage can be changed using a transformer

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36 Which section of the circuit contains a potential divider?

A B C D

buzzer

37 Which particles are emitted by the hot filament of a cathode-ray oscilloscope (c.r.o.) and which
type of field is used to accelerate them?

particles type of field

A electrons electric
B electrons magnetic
C protons electric
D protons magnetic

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38 In the circuit shown, all lamps are identical. Lamp P lights with normal brightness.

Q
P
Y
R

Switch Y is closed and lamps come on.

Which row indicates the brightness of the lamps?

P Q R

A dim dim dim


B normal dim dim
C normal off off
D off normal normal

39 Which type of electromagnetic radiation is produced during radioactive decay?

A alpha-particles
B beta-particles
C gamma-rays
D X-rays

40 Which row states where nuclear fusion occurs and what nuclear fusion is?

nuclear fusion occurs in nuclear fusion is

A a power station the joining of small nuclei


B a power station the splitting of large nuclei
C a star the joining of small nuclei
D a star the splitting of large nuclei

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

https://t.me/igcse_files
© UCLES 2015 49 5054/11/O/N/15
https://t.me/igcse_files 50

Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge Ordinary Level

PHYSICS 5054/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2015
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*1808398697*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 15 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB15 11_5054_12/6RP R
© UCLES 2015 [Turn over

https://t.me/igcse_files 50
https://t.me/igcse_files 51 2

1 Which is a scalar quantity?

A mass
B force
C velocity
D weight

2 During an experiment to find the density of a stone, the stone is lowered into a measuring cylinder
partly filled with water.

water stone

Which statement is correct?

A The difference between the readings gives the density of the stone.
B The difference between the readings gives the volume of the stone.
C The final reading gives the density of the stone.
D The final reading gives the volume of the stone.

3 The diagram shows a micrometer scale.

20
0 5
mm 15
10

Which reading is shown?

A 5.64 mm B 7.14 mm C 7.16 mm D 7.64 mm

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4 A lorry takes 15 minutes to travel along the path PQRS.

8.0 km
P Q S
3.0 km
5.0 km

What is the average speed of the lorry?

A 4.0 km / h B 22 km / h C 48 km / h D 64 km / h

5 An apple of mass 0.15 kg and weight 1.5 N falls from a tree. At one point during its fall, the air
resistance on the apple is 0.60 N upwards.

What is the acceleration of the apple at this point?

A 4.0 m / s2 B 6.0 m / s2 C 10 m / s2 D 14 m / s2

6 At time t 1, a stone is dropped from a stationary balloon. The stone reaches terminal velocity at
time t 2.

Which row gives the acceleration of the stone at time t 1 and at time t 2?

acceleration at t 1 acceleration at t 2
m / s2 m / s2

A 0 0
B 10 0
C 0 10
D 10 10

7 Four of the gravitational forces that act between bodies in the Solar System are described below.

P the force on the Moon due to the Earth


Q the force on the Earth due to the Sun
R the force on the Earth due to the Moon
S the force on the Moon due to the Sun

Which two forces are a Newton’s third law pair (action and reaction)?

A P and Q B P and R C Q and S D R and S

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8 The diagram represents the Moon in its orbit around the Earth.

Which arrow represents the direction of the resultant force acting on the Moon at the instant
shown?

C
B

Earth A D
Moon

direction of
motion of the Moon

9 A student produces some revision notes on gravity, mass and weight.

Which statement is not correct?

A A gravitational field is a region in which a mass experiences a gravitational force.


B Gravitational field strength has the unit of N / kg.
C Mass is a measure of the amount of matter.
D Mass is equal to weight multiplied by gravitational field strength.

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10 Two cylinders P and Q are made of copper.

P Q

The height of P is twice the height of Q. The diameter of P is half the diameter of Q.

Which statement is correct?

A The density of cylinder P is four times that of cylinder Q.


B The density of cylinder P is twice that of cylinder Q.
C The density of cylinder P is equal to that of cylinder Q.
D The density of cylinder P is half that of cylinder Q.

11 The total weight of the load and the wheelbarrow shown is 600 N.

70 cm 50 cm

F
load

pivot

600 N

What is the size of force F needed just to lift the loaded wheelbarrow?

A 350 N B 430 N C 600 N D 840 N

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12 A gas is trapped inside a cylinder by a movable piston. The length of the gas column is 20 cm and
the pressure inside the cylinder is p.

50 cm

gas at initial
pressure p

20 cm
original position
of piston

The piston is pulled out a distance of 30 cm, so that the length of the gas column is now 50 cm.
The temperature of the gas does not change.

What is the new pressure of the gas?

A 0.40 p B 0.60 p C 1.5 p D 2.5 p

13 The base of a rectangular storage tank is 2.0 m by 3.0 m. The tank is filled with paraffin to a depth
of 3.0 m.

3.0 m

2.0 m
3.0 m

The density of paraffin is 800 kg / m3 and the gravitational field strength is 10 N / kg.

What is the pressure at the bottom of the tank due to the paraffin?

A 2400 Pa B 14 400 Pa C 24 000 Pa D 144 000 Pa

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14 A person throws a stone so that it follows the path shown in the diagram.

In which position does the stone have the most gravitational potential energy?

C
water D

15 A piston of area 10 cm2 is pushed slowly into a very large cylinder containing gas at a pressure of
10 N / cm2. The pressure of the gas remains constant as the piston moves a distance of 0.10 m.

What is the force of the gas on the piston and what is the work done by the piston on the gas?

force / N work done / J

A 1.0 0.1
B 1.0 10
C 100 10
D 100 1000

16 A gas is in a sealed container of constant volume. The gas is heated and the pressure of the gas
on the walls of the container increases.

How do the particles of the gas cause this increase in pressure?

A They expand.
B They hit each other more frequently.
C They hit the container more frequently.
D They vibrate faster.

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17 The diagrams represent four thermometers.

25 °C 40 °C 250 °C 300 °C

20 °C 200 °C 260 °C

15 °C 150 °C 220 °C
35 °C
10 °C 100 °C 180 °C

5 °C 50 °C 140 °C

0 °C 30 °C 0 °C 100 °C

P Q R S

Which thermometer has the greatest sensitivity and which thermometer has the greatest range?

greatest greatest
sensitivity range

A P R
B P S
C Q R
D Q S

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18 Some of the liquid in a dish evaporates, as shown in the diagrams.

before evaporation after evaporation

Which molecules leave the liquid and which molecules in the liquid have greater average kinetic
energy?

molecules in the liquid have


molecules that leave have
greater average kinetic energy

A high energy before evaporation


B high energy after evaporation
C low energy before evaporation
D low energy after evaporation

19 An insulated beaker contains 300 g of water, initially at 30 °C. Water at 100 °C is added until the
temperature of the mixture reaches 50 °C.

The specific heat capacity of water is 4.2 J / (g °C).

How much water is added?

A 60 g B 120 g C 180 g D 750 g

20 Which statement is correct?

A Infra-red radiation cannot travel in a vacuum.


B Infra-red radiation cannot travel in solids or in gases.
C Infra-red radiation can only travel in a vacuum.
D Infra-red radiation can travel in a vacuum and in gases.

21 An echo sounder produces ultrasound of frequency 24 kHz. The ultrasound travels in water at a
speed of 1.5 km / s.

What is the wavelength in water of ultrasound of this frequency?

A 0.063 m B 16 m C 36 m D 63 m

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22 An object is viewed through a converging lens.

The diagram shows the paths of two rays from the top of the object to an eye.

thin lens

eye

object

How does the image compare with the object?

A It is larger and inverted.


B It is larger and upright.
C It is smaller and inverted.
D It is smaller and upright.

23 In an experiment using a ripple tank, plane wavefronts arrive at a plane surface.

plane surface

Which row correctly describes the waves after they are reflected from the surface?

speed of waves wavelength λ

A larger shorter
B smaller shorter
C the same longer
D the same the same

24 Which statement about red light and blue light is correct?

A Red light has a higher frequency than blue light.


B Red light has a longer wavelength than blue light.
C Red light has the same speed in glass as blue light.
D Red light is refracted by a glass prism more than blue light.

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25 A loudspeaker produces a sound wave of frequency 50 Hz.


The amplitude of the sound wave is increased.

What is heard?

A a louder sound of a higher pitch


B a louder sound of the same pitch
C a sound of higher pitch but the same loudness
D a sound of the same pitch and loudness as before

26 An ultrasound scanner produces an image of an unborn baby.

part of scanner

unborn baby

How does the scanner form an image?

A from ultrasound absorbed by the baby


B from ultrasound emitted by the baby
C from ultrasound reflected by the baby
D from ultrasound refracted by the baby

27 The sound from the siren of a ship is reflected by a cliff. An echo is heard by a sailor on the deck
of the ship, 4.0 s after the siren is sounded. The speed of sound in air is 320 m / s.

How far from the cliff is the ship?

A 80 m B 160 m C 640 m D 1280 m

28 Which material can be picked up by a magnet?

A aluminium
B copper
C iron
D plastic

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29 Which row correctly names an electrical conductor and an insulator?

electrical
insulator
conductor

A aluminium iron
B iron rubber
C plastic aluminium
D rubber plastic

30 A positively charged insulated metal sphere is brought close to an uncharged insulated metal
sphere.

positively charged uncharged sphere


sphere

Which diagram shows the charge distribution on the spheres?

A B C D

+ + + – + + + – + –
+ + + – + + + – + –
++ ++ ++ – ++ ++ ++ – ++ –
– – –

31 The diagram shows the magnetic field around wire X which carries a current into the paper.

The arrows on the field lines show the direction of the force on

A a N-pole.
B a S-pole.
C a small negative charge.
D a small positive charge.

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32 P and Q represent two, parallel, straight wires carrying currents into the plane of the paper. P and
Q exert a force on each other.

Which arrow shows the force on Q?

Q
P D B

33 A power supply of 18 V is connected to three resistors, as shown.

18 V

2.0 Ω
8.0 Ω

8.0 Ω

What is the potential difference across the 2.0 Ω resistor?

A 2.0 V B 3.6 V C 6.0 V D 12 V

34 An immersion heater is labelled 24 V, 120 W.

What is the current in the heater when it is connected to a 24 V supply?

A 0.20 A B 5.0 A C 24 A D 120 A

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35 Electric power cables transmit electrical energy over large distances using high-voltage,
alternating current.

What are the advantages of using a high voltage and of using an alternating current?

advantage of using a high voltage advantage of using an alternating current

A high current is produced in the cable the resistance of the cable is reduced
B high current is produced in the cable the voltage can be changed using a transformer
C less energy is wasted in the cable the resistance of the cable is reduced
D less energy is wasted in the cable the voltage can be changed using a transformer

36 Which particles are emitted by the hot filament of a cathode-ray oscilloscope (c.r.o.) and which
type of field is used to accelerate them?

particles type of field

A electrons electric
B electrons magnetic
C protons electric
D protons magnetic

37 The diagram shows an electrical device X connected between a 6 V a.c. supply and a 12 V lamp

6V X 12 V

The lamp is seen to glow with normal brightness.

What is X?

A a capacitor
B a potential divider
C a relay
D a transformer

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38 In the circuit shown, all lamps are identical. Lamp P lights with normal brightness.

Q
P
Y
R

Switch Y is closed and lamps come on.

Which row indicates the brightness of the lamps?

P Q R

A dim dim dim


B normal dim dim
C normal off off
D off normal normal

39 A radioactive isotope 14C emits beta-particles.

A sample of this isotope is left for a period of time that is equal to its half-life.

Which two quantities decrease to half of their initial value during this time?

A the decay rate and the number of protons


B the mass of the sample and the number of 14C nuclei
C the number of 14C nuclei and the decay rate
D the number of protons and the mass of the sample

40 In the Geiger-Marsden experiment, a beam of alpha-particles is fired at a very thin sheet of gold
foil, in a vacuum.

What is deduced from this experiment?

A Alpha-particles are repelled by electrons.


B Atoms contain air.
C Electrons are found in atomic nuclei.
D Nuclei are much smaller than atoms.

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BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge Ordinary Level

PHYSICS 5054/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2016
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*5160522444*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB16 06_5054_11/4RP
© UCLES 2016 [Turn over

https://t.me/igcse_files 66
https://t.me/igcse_files 67 2

1 The diagram shows arrows representing two vector quantities.

Which diagram shows the resultant R of these two vectors?

A B

R R

C D

R R

2 Which set of quantities are all vectors?

A acceleration, displacement, velocity


B chemical energy, mass, power
C extension, force, gravitational potential energy
D weight, kinetic energy, work

3 A student determines the circumference of a golf ball.

Which instrument gives a reading that is the circumference of the golf ball?

A calipers
B micrometer
C rule
D tape

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4 The graph shows how the speed of a car varies with time.

15
speed
m/s

0
0 10 20
time / s

Which statement about the acceleration of the car between 10 s and 20 s is correct?

A The acceleration decreases.


B The acceleration increases.
C The acceleration is constant, but not zero.
D The acceleration is zero.

5 A man pulls a sledge of mass 25 kg across level ground with a horizontal force of 60 N.
A constant force of friction of 20 N acts on the sledge.

What is the acceleration of the sledge?

A 0.63 m / s2 B 1.6 m / s2 C 2.4 m / s2 D 3.2 m / s2

6 A car moves in a circle at constant speed.

What is the direction of the resultant force acting on the car?

centre of circle
A B turned by car

C
D

direction
of motion

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7 A brick is placed on a newton meter and then on a beam balance.

newton meter beam balance

1.5 kg 0.5 kg

brick brick

What is measured by each instrument?

newton meter beam balance

A mass mass
B mass weight
C weight mass
D weight weight

8 A force acts on a body.

Which list contains only quantities that can be changed by the force?

A mass, shape, velocity


B mass, shape, volume
C mass, velocity, volume
D shape, velocity, volume

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9 A uniform horizontal beam, pivoted at its right-hand end, is in equilibrium. A force of 60 N acts
vertically upwards on the beam as shown.

60 N

20 cm 30 cm
pivot

weight
of beam

What is the weight of the beam?

A 36 N B 40 N C 90 N D 100 N

10 Four table lamps are shown along with the position M of the centre of mass in each case.

Which lamp is the most stable?

A B C D

M M
M
M

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11 A child slides down a slide.

7.0 m

The weight of the child is 250 N. The height of the slide is 7.0 m. The work done against friction as
the child travels down the slide is 1300 J.

What is the change in gravitational potential energy and what is the final kinetic energy of the
child?

change in
final kinetic
gravitational
energy
potential energy

A 1750 450
B 1750 1750
C 17 500 16 200
D 17 500 17 500

12 What uses non-renewable energy?

A a geothermal heating system


B a nuclear power station
C a solar panel
D a wind turbine

13 Which process in the Sun produces energy?

A burning
B nuclear fission
C nuclear fusion
D radiation

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14 A 300 N force is applied to a box to move it up a ramp, as shown.

Y
5.0 m
300 N

3.0 m

X
4.0 m

How much work is done by the force when moving the box from X to Y?

A 900 J B 1200 J C 1500 J D 3000 J

15 Four beakers contain the same liquid.

At which point is the pressure the greatest?

B
C
D

16 Water of depth 10 m exerts a pressure equal to atmospheric pressure.

An air bubble rises to the surface of a lake which is 20 m deep. When the bubble reaches the
surface, its volume is 6.0 cm3.

What is the volume of the air bubble at the bottom of the lake?

A 2.0 cm3 B 3.0 cm3 C 12 cm3 D 18 cm3

17 A gas in a container of fixed volume is heated.

What happens to the molecules of the gas?

A They collide less frequently.


B They expand.
C They move faster.
D They move further apart.

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18 Which statement about thermal radiation is correct?

A In a vacuum, thermal radiation travels at the speed of light.


B Thermal radiation is a longitudinal wave.
C Thermal radiation travels as an ultra-violet wave.
D White surfaces are better emitters of thermal radiation than black surfaces.

19 For a transverse wave, what is a wavefront ?

A a line joining all points on the same crest of a wave


B a line showing the displacement of a wave
C the energy content of a wave
D the first part of a wave to reach a point

20 A longitudinal wave passes along a spring. The coils of the spring vibrate from side to side.

The diagram shows the positions of the coils at one particular time.

W X Y Z

Which positions are one wavelength apart?

A W and X B W and Z C X and Z D Y and Z

21 Light is incident on a mirror. The light is reflected from the mirror.

The angle of incidence is i and the angle of reflection is r.

Which diagram correctly shows i and r ?

A B C D

r i r i
i i r r

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22 Which length is the focal length of the lens shown in the diagram?

A B C

lens
D

23 Light passes from air into a glass block of refractive index 1.5, as shown.

glass block
NOT TO
SCALE

57°
normal

What is the angle of refraction in the glass and what is the critical angle?

angle of refraction critical angle

A 34° 42°
B 34° 60°
C 38° 42°
D 38° 60°

24 Microwaves are used to transmit television signals to and from a satellite.

Which statement about microwaves is correct?

A They have a longer wavelength than radio waves.


B They penetrate the atmosphere without significant loss of energy.
C They travel much faster than radio waves in a vacuum.
D They warm the satellite and stop it freezing.

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25 Where are gamma-rays used?

A in fluorescent tubes
B in killing cancerous cells
C in pre-natal scanning
D in sunbeds

26 An intruder alarm is adjusted to give a quieter sound without affecting the pitch of the note.

How are the amplitude and the frequency of the sound affected?

amplitude frequency

A lower lower
B lower same
C same lower
D same same

27 Four plotting compasses are placed near a bar magnet. You may ignore any effects of the Earth’s
magnetic field.

One compass appears like this .

What is a possible position for this compass?

S N B

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28 The diagram shows an uncharged ball coated with metallic paint. The ball is suspended from an
insulating thread. It is placed near a positively charged rod.

insulating thread

+
ball covered +
with metallic +
paint +
positively
+
charged rod
+

Which diagram shows the charge distribution on the ball?

A B C D

+ – + – + –
+ – + – + –
+ – + – + –
+ – + – + –

29 The current in a car headlamp is 2.0 A. The headlamp is switched on for 4.0 minutes.

How much charge passes through the headlamp?

A 8.0 C B 30 C C 120 C D 480 C

30 How can one volt also be expressed?

A one coulomb per ampere


B one coulomb per joule
C one joule per ampere
D one joule per coulomb

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31 The cells, lamps and resistors in the circuits are identical.

In which circuit is the lamp the brightest?

A B

C D

32 The graph is the voltage-current graph for two resistance wires P and Q.

voltage P

0
0
current

The wires are made from the same material and have equal lengths.

The resistances of the wires and their cross-sectional areas are different.

Which wire has the greater resistance and which wire has the larger cross-sectional area?

larger cross-
greater resistance
sectional area

A P P
B P Q
C Q P
D Q Q

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33 A lamp is connected to the a.c. mains supply in series with a switch and a fuse.

Which circuit shows these components wired correctly?

A B
live neutral live neutral

C D
live neutral live neutral

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34 A student is investigating resistance using the circuit shown.

variable voltage
supply

A
R

The resistance of R is approximately 5 Ω.

What are the most suitable ranges for the voltmeter and for the ammeter?

voltmeter ammeter
range range

A 0–2V 0 – 0.5 A
B 0–2V 0–2A
C 0–5V 0–5A
D 0 – 10 V 0–5A

35 A split-ring commutator is used in a simple d.c. motor. It reverses the current in the coil.

How often does it reverse the current?

A every quarter turn


B every half turn
C every full turn
D every two turns

36 Which component, when used in a circuit, allows current to pass in only one direction?

A B C D

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37 A potential divider consists of a thermistor and a light-dependent resistor (LDR).

6.0 V

0V

Which conditions give the smallest voltage V across the LDR?

A cold and dark


B cold and light
C hot and dark
D hot and light

38 Which type of radiation consists of electrons?

A alpha-particles
B beta-particles
C gamma-rays
D X-rays

39 A sample of a radioactive isotope produces a count rate of 10 000 counts per minute. The half-life
of the isotope is one day.

What was the count rate of the sample two days ago?

A 2500 counts per minute


B 5000 counts per minute
C 20 000 counts per minute
D 40 000 counts per minute

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15
40 Which statement about a nucleus of 7N is correct?

A The nucleus contains 7 neutrons and 8 protons.


B The nucleus contains 7 neutrons and 15 protons.
C The nucleus contains 7 protons and 8 neutrons.
D The nucleus contains 7 protons and 15 neutrons.

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

https://t.me/igcse_files
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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge Ordinary Level

PHYSICS 5054/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2016
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*7302947629*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB16 06_5054_12/3RP
© UCLES 2016 [Turn over

https://t.me/igcse_files 82
https://t.me/igcse_files 83 2

1 A student determines the circumference of a golf ball.

Which instrument gives a reading that is the circumference of the golf ball?

A calipers
B micrometer
C rule
D tape

2 A man pulls a sledge of mass 25 kg across level ground with a horizontal force of 60 N.
A constant force of friction of 20 N acts on the sledge.

What is the acceleration of the sledge?

A 0.63 m / s2 B 1.6 m / s2 C 2.4 m / s2 D 3.2 m / s2

3 A car moves in a circle at constant speed.

What is the direction of the resultant force acting on the car?

centre of circle
A B turned by car

C
D

direction
of motion

4 Which property of a body resists change from a state of rest or of motion?

A density
B mass
C volume
D weight

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5 A brick is placed on a newton meter and then on a beam balance.

newton meter beam balance

1.5 kg 0.5 kg

brick brick

What is measured by each instrument?

newton meter beam balance

A mass mass
B mass weight
C weight mass
D weight weight

6 A uniform plank is pivoted at its mid-point. Two weights are added to the plank, one weight on
each side of the pivot in the positions shown.

2.0 m 2.0 m 2.0 m

12 N 8.0 N

A vertical force is applied at point X to balance the plank.

What is the size and direction of this force?

size / N direction

A 2.0 downwards
B 2.0 upwards
C 4.0 downwards
D 4.0 upwards

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7 Which quantity is a vector?

A energy
B force
C speed
D time

8 Which process in the Sun produces energy?

A burning
B nuclear fission
C nuclear fusion
D radiation

9 A 300 N force is applied to a box to move it up a ramp, as shown.

Y
5.0 m
300 N

3.0 m

X
4.0 m

How much work is done by the force when moving the box from X to Y?

A 900 J B 1200 J C 1500 J D 3000 J

10 Four beakers contain the same liquid.

At which point is the pressure the greatest?

B
C
D

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11 A block of weight W rests on a side of area A. The gravitational field strength is g.

What is the pressure exerted on the ground due to the block?

W WA W
A WA B C D
A g g

12 Water of depth 10 m exerts a pressure equal to atmospheric pressure.

An air bubble rises to the surface of a lake which is 20 m deep. When the bubble reaches the
surface, its volume is 6.0 cm3.

What is the volume of the air bubble at the bottom of the lake?

A 2.0 cm3 B 3.0 cm3 C 12 cm3 D 18 cm3

13 A gas in a container of fixed volume is heated.

What happens to the molecules of the gas?

A They collide less frequently.


B They expand.
C They move faster.
D They move further apart.

14 The diagram shows two liquid-in-glass thermometers P and Q.

liquid

liquid

The thermometers are identical except that Q has a capillary tube with a larger internal diameter
than P.

Which thermometer has the larger range and which thermometer has the greater sensitivity?

larger range greater sensitivity

A P P
B P Q
C Q P
D Q Q

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15 A slice of bread is placed under a red-hot electric grill to make toast.

grill

slice of bread

How does heat energy reach the bread?

A conduction and convection


B conduction only
C convection and radiation
D radiation only

16 The diagram shows the inside of a refrigerator.

cooling
unit

When the refrigerator is first switched on, what happens to the air near the cooling unit?

the particles of this air the density of this air

A become smaller decreases


B become smaller increases
C move closer together decreases
D move closer together increases

17 A water wave in a ripple tank refracts as it passes from deep water to shallow water.

Which properties change as the wave refracts?

A frequency and amplitude


B frequency and wavelength
C speed and frequency
D speed and wavelength

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18 The diagram shows light incident on a plane mirror.

P
ray of
light

40°
mirror

Which row gives the angle of reflection and the name of line PQ?

angle of the line PQ is


reflection called the

A 40° normal
B 40° reflected ray
C 50° normal
D 50° reflected ray

19 Which length is the focal length of the lens shown in the diagram?

A B C

lens
D

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20 The rays of light from a ray-box pass through three lenses placed at positions 1, 2 and 3.

ray-box

position 1 position 2 position 3

What type of lens is used at each position?

position 1 position 2 position 3

A converging converging converging


B converging converging diverging
C diverging converging diverging
D diverging diverging converging

21 Light passes from air into a block of glass, as shown.

w x
z
y
glass

Which expression is equal to the refractive index of glass?

sin w sin w sin y sin z


A B C D
sin y sin z sin w sin x

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22 A sound wave travels through air. The lines in the diagram show the positions of layers of air at
one particular time.

Which distance shows the wavelength of the wave?

A B C D

23 Four plotting compasses are placed near a bar magnet. You may ignore any effects of the Earth’s
magnetic field.

One compass appears like this .

What is a possible position for this compass?

S N B

24 A polythene rod is rubbed with a cloth and the cloth becomes positively charged.

Which statement describes the transfer of charge?

A Negative charges are transferred from the cloth to the polythene.


B Negative charges are transferred from the polythene to the cloth.
C Positive charges are transferred from the cloth to the polythene.
D Positive charges are transferred from the polythene to the cloth.

25 A charge of 45 C flows through an electric appliance in 3.0 minutes.

What is the average current in the appliance?

A 0.25 A B 4.0 A C 15 A D 135 A

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26 How can one volt also be expressed?

A one coulomb per ampere


B one coulomb per joule
C one joule per ampere
D one joule per coulomb

27 The diagram shows a battery of three 1.5 V cells.

What is an advantage of this arrangement of cells?

A The battery can supply a current for a longer time than a single 1.5 V cell.
B The battery can supply any e.m.f. between 0 V and 4.5 V.
C The battery supplies more energy to each coulomb of charge than a single 1.5 V cell.
D The e.m.f. of the battery is 4.5 V.

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28 Which diagram shows the arrangement of the ammeter and voltmeter to obtain readings to find
the power of a lamp?

A B

V A V A

C D

A
A

29 A 6.0 V battery is connected to a network containing five identical resistors. A voltmeter has one
lead connected to point K as shown.

At which point should lead L be connected so that the voltmeter reads 3.0 V?

6.0 V

A
B

D C
K

L
V

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30 The diagram shows the wiring of a three-pin mains plug. There is an error in the diagram.

N F

S
C

What is the error?

A The cable cover C is not under the clip S.


B The earth wire E is connected to the wrong terminal.
C The fuse F is connected to the live wire L.
D The live wire L is connected to the wrong end of the fuse F.

31 A 100 W lamp is switched on for five hours each day for three weeks.

The cost of one unit of electricity is $0.24.

How much does it cost to run the lamp for this time?

A $0.36 B $0.84 C $2.52 D $25.20

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32 The diagram shows a simple d.c. motor.

N S

The switch is closed and the coil rotates.

Which change makes the coil rotate in the opposite direction and at a faster rate?

A increase the current in the coil and increase the number of turns in the coil
B reverse both the magnetic field and the current in the coil
C reverse the magnetic field and decrease the current in the coil
D reverse the magnetic field and increase the current in the coil

33 The diagram shows a wire PQ between the N-pole and the S-pole of a magnet. There is a current
in the wire in the direction of the arrow.

N
P Q

S
What is the direction of the force on the wire PQ?

A into the page


B out of the page
C towards the N-pole
D towards the S-pole

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34 Electrical power is transmitted by cables over long distances at very high voltages.

What are the effects of using a high voltage transmission system?

power loss in the current in the


cables cables

A high high
B high low
C low high
D low low

35 The diagram represents thermionic emission from a metal filament.

metal filament particles

charged plate to
attract particles

The particles are attracted by a charged plate.

Which row shows the charge on the plate, and the temperature of the metal filament?

temperature of
charge on plate
metal filament

A negative high
B negative low
C positive high
D positive low

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36 A potential divider is connected across the terminals of a 6.0 V supply.

6.0 V

6.0 Ω R

V V
V1 V2

When R is adjusted to 6.0 Ω, the voltmeter readings V1 and V2 are equal.

What happens to the readings when the resistance of R is then increased?

V1 V2

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

37 Which nucleus is produced when americium-241 ( 241


95 Am) emits an alpha-particle?

237 237 245 245


A 93 Np B 97 Bk C 93 Np D 97 Bk

38 Which states the three types of radiation emitted by radioactive isotopes in order of their ionising
effect from highest to lowest?

A alpha-particles, beta-particles, gamma-rays


B alpha-particles, gamma-rays, beta-particles
C beta-particles, gamma-rays, alpha-particles
D gamma-rays, beta-particles, alpha-particles

39 Which statement about the half-life of a radioactive isotope is correct?

A Half-life changes as the isotope decays.


B Half-life is the time it takes for the nucleon number of the isotope to halve.
C Half-life is half the time it takes for the number of nuclei of the isotope to decrease to zero.
D Half-life is the time it takes for the number of nuclei of the isotope to decrease by half.

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40 The diagrams represent the nuclei of three atoms.

key
= proton

= neutron

P Q R

Which are isotopes of the same element?

A P and Q only
B P and R only
C Q and R only
D P, Q and R

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge Ordinary Level

PHYSICS 5054/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2016
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*1082857007*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 17 printed pages and 3 blank pages.

IB16 11_5054_11/3RP
© UCLES 2016 [Turn over

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https://t.me/igcse_files 99 2

1 A length of copper wire is labelled ‘length 30 m’ and ‘diameter 0.50 mm’.

Which instruments are most suitable to measure accurately the length and the diameter of the
wire?

length diameter

A rule calipers
B rule micrometer
C tape calipers
D tape micrometer

2 A skydiver falls from rest through the air and reaches terminal velocity.

What is the acceleration of the skydiver during his fall?

A constant at 0 m / s2
B constant at 10 m / s2
C starting at 0 m / s2 and increasing to 10 m / s2
D starting at 10 m / s2 and decreasing to 0 m / s2

3 The diagram shows a car going around a circular track at constant speed.

Which arrow shows the direction of the resultant force on the car?

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4 A car has stopped at a red light. When the light changes to green, the car starts moving with a
constant acceleration. The graph represents this motion.

y-axis

0
0 x-axis

Which quantity is plotted on the x-axis and which quantity is plotted on the y-axis?

x-axis y-axis

A distance time
B speed time
C time distance
D time speed

5 Which statement about mass and weight is correct?

A A mass experiences a weight due to a gravitational field.


B Mass and weight are different types of force.
C Mass and weight have the same unit.
D When an object expands, its mass changes but its weight stays the same.

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6 Each diagram shows two forces that are equal in magnitude.

Which diagram shows two forces that are a Newton’s third law pair of forces?

A B

normal block being pulled


contact force along the ground
book
table friction tension

weight

C D
electron air
attracted resistance
to nucleus

nucleus
attracted parachutist
to electron

weight

7 Two forces of 3.0 N and 4.0 N act at right-angles to each other.

Which diagram shows the resultant R of these forces?

A B C D

R R R R
3.0 N 3.0 N 3.0 N 3.0 N

4.0 N 4.0 N 4.0 N 4.0 N

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8 A workman rolls a barrel of weight 2000 N up a plank of length 2.0 m and onto a lorry. The back of
the lorry is 0.80 m above the horizontal surface of the road.

2.0 m

0.80 m

What is the work done on the barrel against gravity?

A 1000 J B 1600 J C 2500 J D 4000 J

9 Three objects P, Q and R have different masses and different speeds, as shown in the table.

mass speed
kg m/ s

P 1.0 3.0
Q 2.0 2.0
R 5.0 1.0

What is the order of increasing kinetic energy (smallest first) of the objects?

A P→Q→R

B P→R→Q

C R→P→Q

D R→Q→P

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10 A weightlifter lifts some masses through a height of 1.8 m.

The gravitational field strength g is 10 N / kg.

During the lift, the gravitational potential energy of the masses increases by 4500 J.

What is the total mass lifted?

A 25 kg B 250 kg C 450 kg D 810 kg

11 Which expression is used to calculate power?

A distance
work done

B work done × distance

C work done
time taken

D work done × time taken

12 The pressure of the atmosphere is 100 000 Pa.

What force does the atmosphere exert on the upper surface of a pond of surface area 20 m2?

A 5000 N B 100 000 N C 100 020 N D 2 000 000 N

13 Oil of density 8.5 × 102 kg / m3 is stored in a large tank.

The gravitational field strength g is 10 N / kg.

What is the pressure due to the oil 6.0 m below its surface?

A 51 Pa B 510 Pa C 5100 Pa D 51 000 Pa

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14 Air is trapped in a cylinder by a piston.

cylinder piston

air

The piston is pushed further into the cylinder.

How do the pressure and the volume of the air in the syringe change?

pressure volume

A decrease decrease
B decrease increase
C increase decrease
D increase increase

15 Which statement explains how a pressure is exerted by a gas on a container?

A Gas molecules collide with other gas molecules in the container.


B Gas molecules collide with the walls of the container.
C Gas molecules exert strong attractive forces on each other.
D Gas molecules exert strong repulsive forces on each other.

16 When a liquid evaporates, molecules escape from its surface.

Which molecules escape, and what happens to the average kinetic energy of the molecules
remaining in the liquid?

A The less energetic molecules escape and the average kinetic energy decreases.
B The less energetic molecules escape and the average kinetic energy increases.
C The more energetic molecules escape and the average kinetic energy decreases.
D The more energetic molecules escape and the average kinetic energy increases.

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17 The diagram shows changes of state.

P Q
gas liquid solid
S R

What are the names of the changes of state P, Q, R and S?

P Q R S

A condensation melting solidification boiling


B condensation solidification melting boiling
C boiling melting solidification condensation
D boiling solidification melting condensation

18 A boiling liquid absorbs thermal energy (heat) at a rate of 450 W.

The specific latent heat of vaporisation is 2.7 × 106 J / kg.

How much liquid is vaporised in 9.0 minutes?

A 1.5 g B 11 g C 90 g D 5400 g

19 What makes a clinical thermometer suitable for measuring small changes in body temperature?

A The amount of liquid in the bulb is small.


B The bore of the capillary tube is narrow.
C The capillary tube is long.
D The glass bulb has a thin wall.

20 Which statement about the transfer of thermal energy is correct?

A Transfer by radiation does not require a medium.


B Transfer is from a region of lower temperature to one of higher temperature.
C Transfer upwards in fluids is mainly through the vibrations of neighbouring particles.
D Transfer in solids is by means of density changes in the material.

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21 A phone rings and lights up.

Which types of wave are associated with the phone’s operation?

light sound

A longitudinal longitudinal
B longitudinal transverse
C transverse longitudinal
D transverse transverse

22 The diagram shows the surface of water as a wave passes across a ripple tank.

Q R
P

Which lengths represent the amplitude and the wavelength of the wave?

amplitude wavelength

A Q P
B Q S
C R P
D R S

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23 The angle of incidence of ray OP on the plane mirror MN is 40°.

normal

40°

10°
M N
P

The mirror is rotated through 10°, as shown by the dashed line. The direction of the incident ray
OP does not change.

What is the new angle of incidence?

A 30° B 40° C 50° D 60°

24 A ray of light is incident on the surface of a glass block. The diagram is not drawn to scale.

The refractive index of the glass is 1.5.

incident ray
normal

36°

air
glass

path light takes


r d without the glass block

The angle of refraction is r. The angle between the refracted ray and the path the light takes
without the glass block is d.

What are r and d ?

r/° d/°

A 23 12
B 24 12
C 23 13
D 24 13

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25 In the diagram, a convex lens forms an image I of an object O. The diagram is not drawn to
scale.

45 cm 20 cm 16 cm

What is the focal length of the lens?

A 16 cm B 20 cm C 36 cm D 45 cm

26 A lens is used to produce a magnified image, as shown in the scale diagram.

image

object

What is the linear magnification produced by the lens?

A 0.33 B 3.0 C 4.0 D 6.0

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27 Blue and yellow are colours in the visible spectrum.

Which colour has the lower frequency and which colour has the longer wavelength?

lower frequency longer wavelength

A blue blue
B blue yellow
C yellow blue
D yellow yellow

28 Which two types of electromagnetic radiation are both used to kill cancerous cells and are both
used to detect cracks in metals?

A gamma-rays and microwaves


B gamma-rays and X-rays
C microwaves and ultra-violet radiation
D ultra-violet radiation and X-rays

29 Which property of a sound wave increases as the loudness of the sound increases?

A amplitude
B frequency
C speed
D wavelength

30 Delicate instruments are often placed in a box to screen them from stray magnetic fields.

What is the material used for the box and why is it chosen?

A Aluminium is used because it is a non-magnetic material.


B Copper is used because it has a low electrical resistance.
C Polythene is used because it is a good electrical insulator.
D Soft iron is used because it is a magnetic material.

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31 A positively charged metal sphere is placed midway between two previously uncharged metal
rods, one of which is connected to earth.

Which diagram shows the charges on the rods?

A B

– + + + + – + –

C D

+ – + – + – + + – +

32 A current-carrying wire lies between the poles of two magnets, as shown.

wire direction
of current

N S

What is the direction of the force on the wire?

A into the plane of the paper


B out of the plane of the paper
C towards the left
D towards the right

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33 A coil P of N turns is made from a length L of wire. The coil carries a current I when between two
magnetic poles.

N-pole S-pole

A similar coil Q of 2N turns is made from a length 2L of identical wire. It also carries a current I
when between the two magnetic poles.

Which coil has the greater resistance and which coil experiences the greater turning effect?

greater turning
greater resistance
effect

A P P
B P Q
C Q P
D Q Q

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34 A magnet moves up and down above a coil of wire.

spring

S magnet

P
movement N
Q
of magnet
R

coil of
wire

The bottom of the magnet moves up and down between P and R.

Where is the bottom of the magnet when there is no induced electromotive force (e.m.f.) in the
coil?

A at P and at Q
B at P and at R
C at Q only
D at R only

35 Which material is most suitable for the core of a transformer and which material is most suitable
for the coils in the transformer?

material for core material for coils

A iron copper
B iron steel
C steel copper
D steel iron

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36 The diagram shows a cathode-ray tube. The dotted line shows the path of a beam of electrons.
The beam hits the screen at point X and produces a bright spot. P and Q are horizontal plates on
each side of the beam.

screen
P
X
Q

cathode anode

Which change will move the bright spot to a different position on the screen?

A Apply a voltage between metal plates P and Q.


B Decrease the positive voltage of the anode.
C Increase the positive voltage of the anode.
D Increase the voltage between the terminals of the cathode.

37 The table gives the colour code used for marking resistors.

black brown red orange yellow green blue violet

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7

What is the resistance of the resistor in the diagram?

yellow violet orange

A 4.73 Ω B 473 Ω C 4700 Ω D 47 000 Ω

38 Which types of radiation may be emitted by radioactive nuclei?

A beta and gamma


B microwaves and infra-red
C radio waves and microwaves
D ultra-violet and X-rays

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39 A freshly made sample of radioactive material gives a count rate of 8000 counts per minute. After
20 days, it gives a count rate of 500 counts per minute.

What is the half-life of the material?

A 4.0 days
B 5.0 days
C 20 days
D 80 days

40 Which number is always equal to the proton number of a neutral atom of a radioactive isotope?

A the number of electrons in the atom


B the number of neutrons in the atom
C the number of nucleons in the atom
D the number of particles in the atom

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge Ordinary Level

PHYSICS 5054/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2016
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*0862570060*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 15 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB16 11_5054_12/3RP
© UCLES 2016 [Turn over

https://t.me/igcse_files 118
https://t.me/igcse_files 119 2

1 A length of copper wire is labelled ‘length 30 m’ and ‘diameter 0.50 mm’.

Which instruments are most suitable to measure accurately the length and the diameter of the
wire?

length diameter

A rule calipers
B rule micrometer
C tape calipers
D tape micrometer

2 A skydiver falls from rest through the air and reaches terminal velocity.

What is the acceleration of the skydiver during his fall?

A constant at 0 m / s2
B constant at 10 m / s2
C starting at 0 m / s2 and increasing to 10 m / s2
D starting at 10 m / s2 and decreasing to 0 m / s2

3 Two aluminium spheres P and Q, of masses 0.50 kg and 1.0 kg respectively, are released at the
same time from the same height.

Why do they have the same acceleration?

A The density of P is equal to the density of Q.


B The force on P is equal to the force on Q.
C The force on Q is double the force on P.
D The gravitational field strength for Q is double that for P.

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4 The graph shows a distance-time graph for a car travelling in a straight line.

In which region is the car decelerating?

distance D
C

A
0
0 time

5 A force of 20 N acts on an object of mass 5.0 kg in the forward direction. A second force also acts
on the object. The forward acceleration of the object is 3.0 m / s2.

What is the size and direction of the second force?

size of force / N direction of force

A 5.0 backwards
B 15 backwards
C 15 forwards
D 35 forwards

6 The diagram shows a car going around a circular track at constant speed.

Which arrow shows the direction of the resultant force on the car?

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7 A block is hung on a spring balance. The marker inside the balance is pulled down by the block.

marker 1.0
2.0
3.0
4.0
5.0
6.0
7.0
8.0
9.0
10.0

What can the position of the marker be used to determine?

A the mass of the block in kg


B the mass of the block in N
C the moment caused by the block in N m
D the weight of the block in kg

8 The density of gold is 19 g / cm3.

A gold coin is 2.0 mm thick. Each face of the coin has an area of 4.5 cm2.

area
thickness 4.5 cm2
2.0 mm

What is the mass of the coin?

A 2.1 g B 17 g C 21 g D 170 g

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9 A man with an open parachute is falling to Earth at constant speed. The following forces are
acting.

P the upward force of the parachute on the man.


Q the upward force of the man on the Earth.
R the downward force of the Earth on the parachute.
S the downward force of the man on the parachute.

Which two forces are a Newton’s third law pair?

A P and Q B P and R C P and S D Q and R

10 Two forces, X and Y, act on an object and produce a resultant force. The scale diagram
represents the sizes and directions of forces X and Y.

force X

force Y

Force Z balances the resultant force due to X and Y and keeps the object stationary.

Which arrow represents force Z?

A B

force Z force Z

C D

force Z force Z

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11 Three objects P, Q and R have different masses and different speeds, as shown in the table.

mass speed
kg m/ s

P 1.0 3.0
Q 2.0 2.0
R 5.0 1.0

What is the order of increasing kinetic energy (smallest first) of the objects?

A P→Q→R

B P→R→Q

C R→P→Q

D R→Q→P

12 Which power stations all rely on renewable sources of energy?

A hydroelectric, oil-fired, solar power stations


B hydroelectric, solar, wind power stations
C hydroelectric, oil-fired, wind power stations
D oil-fired, wind, solar power stations

13 Which force does no work?

A the force from a car’s engine that causes the car to accelerate
B the force that causes a box to slide over a rough horizontal surface
C the force that causes a satellite to move in a circular orbit
D the force that causes a spring to stretch

14 A workman rolls a barrel of weight 2000 N up a plank of length 2.0 m and onto a lorry. The back of
the lorry is 0.80 m above the horizontal surface of the road.

2.0 m

0.80 m

What is the work done on the barrel against gravity?

A 1000 J B 1600 J C 2500 J D 4000 J

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15 An electric motor is used to operate a lift (elevator). The motor does 140 000 J of work in 70 s.

What is the output power of the motor?

A 0.50 milliwatts
B 2.0 watts
C 2.0 kilowatts
D 9.8 megawatts

16 Which expression gives the efficiency of an a.c. generator?

electrical energy output


A
total energy input
electrical energy output
B
thermal energy output
total energy output
C
electrical energy input
thermal energy output
D
total energy input

17 The pressure of the gas supply in the laboratory is measured using a manometer.

Which distance gives the pressure of the gas above atmospheric pressure?

gas pressure
atmospheric
pressure

B
C

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18 A gas expands slowly and its temperature remains constant.

What happens to the gas molecules?

A They move further apart and their average speed decreases.


B They move further apart and their average speed increases.
C They move further apart and their average speed remains unchanged.
D They stay the same distance apart and their average speed decreases.

19 A piece of paper torn out of an exercise book is shown.

Which process is being described?

A conduction
B convection
C evaporation
D radiation

20 A sample of liquid at 100 °C is allowed to cool to a room temperature of 20 °C.

The diagram shows how the temperature changes with time during the cooling process.

At which time does the sample become completely solid?

100
temperature / °C

20

0
0 A B C D
time

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21 One kilogram of water needs more thermal energy to raise its temperature by 1 °C than one
kilogram of copper.

Why is this?

A copper has a higher specific heat capacity than water


B copper has a lower specific heat capacity than water
C copper is a better conductor of heat than water
D copper is a poorer conductor of heat than water

22 The thermal energy produced by an electric heater in three minutes is used to melt wax. The wax
is initially at its melting point of 60 °C.

The specific latent heat of the wax is 220 J / g. The heater supplies 7700 J of thermal energy to the
wax.

How much wax melts?

A 0.58 g B 1.7 g C 12 g D 35 g

23 What makes a clinical thermometer suitable for measuring small changes in body temperature?

A The amount of liquid in the bulb is small.


B The bore of the capillary tube is narrow.
C The capillary tube is long.
D The glass bulb has a thin wall.

24 In which states of matter does convection occur?

A gases, liquids and solids


B gases and liquids only
C gases and solids only
D liquids and solids only

25 Which statement about waves is correct?

A All electromagnetic waves are transverse waves.


B All transverse waves travel at 300 000 000 m / s.
C Longitudinal waves cannot be refracted.
D Water waves are longitudinal waves.

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26 The diagram shows the surface of water as a wave passes across a ripple tank.

Q R
P

Which lengths represent the amplitude and the wavelength of the wave?

amplitude wavelength

A Q P
B Q S
C R P
D R S

27 A lens is used to produce a magnified image, as shown in the scale diagram.

image

object

What is the linear magnification produced by the lens?

A 0.33 B 3.0 C 4.0 D 6.0

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28 A girl is long-sighted.

Which statement is correct?

A She sees close objects less clearly than a person with normal vision.
B She sees distant objects more clearly than a person with normal vision.
C The fault is corrected with a diverging lens.
D The image of a close object is formed in front of her retina.

29 Sound travels at different speeds in solids, liquids and gases.

Which list shows these states of matter in order of increasing speed of sound (slowest to
fastest)?

A gas → liquid → solid

B gas → solid → liquid

C liquid → solid → gas

D solid → liquid → gas

30 A man stands between two tall buildings, P and Q. The diagram is not drawn to scale.

He is 50 m from P and 200 m from Q.

building building
P Q

(not to scale)

50 m 200 m

gun

He fires a gun and the first two echoes he hears are 1.0 second apart.

What is the speed of sound calculated from this observation?

A 250 m / s B 300 m / s C 330 m / s D 500 m / s

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31 Delicate instruments are often placed in a box to screen them from stray magnetic fields.

What is the material used for the box and why is it chosen?

A Aluminium is used because it is a non-magnetic material.


B Copper is used because it has a low electrical resistance.
C Polythene is used because it is a good electrical insulator.
D Soft iron is used because it is a magnetic material.

32 A positively charged metal sphere is placed midway between two previously uncharged metal
rods, one of which is connected to earth.

Which diagram shows the charges on the rods?

A B

– + + + + – + –

C D

+ – + – + – + + – +

33 An ammeter and a voltmeter are connected into the circuit shown when determining the power
produced by a heater.

How are these meters connected, in relation to the heater?

ammeter voltmeter

A in parallel in parallel
B in parallel in series
C in series in parallel
D in series in series

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34 Resistors of different resistances are connected to a power supply in either a parallel circuit or a
series circuit. Which statement is correct?

A The current is the same in all resistors connected in parallel.


B The current is the same in all resistors connected in series.
C The voltage across each resistor is different for all resistors connected in parallel.
D The voltage across each resistor is the same for all resistors connected in series.

35 The headlamp circuit in a car includes a 7A fuse.

What is the purpose of the fuse?

A It increases the resistance of the circuit.


B It makes it easier for the current to flow.
C It protects the wiring from overheating.
D It reduces the voltage across the lamp.

36 A current-carrying wire lies between the poles of two magnets, as shown.

wire direction
of current

N S

What is the direction of the force on the wire?

A into the plane of the paper


B out of the plane of the paper
C towards the left
D towards the right

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37 A magnet moves up and down above a coil of wire.

spring

S magnet

P
movement N
Q
of magnet
R

coil of
wire

The bottom of the magnet moves up and down between P and R.

Where is the bottom of the magnet when there is no induced electromotive force (e.m.f.) in the
coil?

A at P and at Q
B at P and at R
C at Q only
D at R only

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38 A resistor of constant resistance and a thermistor are connected in series with a battery. A
voltmeter is connected in parallel with the resistor.

resistor V

thermistor

The temperature falls.

What are the correct changes?

resistance of voltmeter
thermistor reading

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

39 A freshly made sample of radioactive material gives a count rate of 8000 counts per minute. After
20 days, it gives a count rate of 500 counts per minute.

What is the half-life of the material?

A 4.0 days
B 5.0 days
C 20 days
D 80 days

238
40 A nucleus of uranium 92 U decays to thorium by emitting an alpha-particle.

What is the resulting thorium nucleus?


234 236 238 239
A 90 Th B 90 Th C 93 Th D 92 Th

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publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge Ordinary Level

PHYSICS 5054/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2017
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*5808454302*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 15 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB17 06_5054_11/3RP
© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

https://t.me/igcse_files 134
https://t.me/igcse_files 135 2

1 A micrometer is used to measure the diameter of a uniform wire.

screw

wire

rotating scale

fixed scale

What is done to obtain an accurate answer?

A Make the micrometer horizontal and then use the scales to find the reading.
B Subtract the fixed-scale reading from the rotating-scale reading.
C Subtract the rotating-scale reading from the fixed-scale reading.
D Use the scales to find the reading and add or subtract any zero error.

2 A car’s acceleration and maximum speed are improved by using an engine of smaller mass and
greater driving force.

How many of the underlined quantities are vectors?

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

3 The diagram shows the resultant R of a 3.0 N force and a 4.0 N force acting at a point.

3.0 N R

4.0 N

The angle between the 3.0 N force and the 4.0 N force can be any value from 0° to 90°.

Which value of R is not possible?

A 4.0 N B 5.0 N C 6.0 N D 7.0 N

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4 The diagram shows the distance-time graph of a car.

distance

0
0 time

The car is travelling along a straight road up a hill.

Which quantity for the car is constant and greater than zero?

A acceleration
B gravitational potential energy
C kinetic energy
D resultant force

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5 A resultant force acts on an object and causes it to move in a straight line.

The graph shows how the resultant force varies with time.

resultant force

0
0 t0 time

Which graph is the speed-time graph for the object?

A B

speed speed

0 0
0 t0 time 0 t0 time

C D
speed speed

0 0
0 t0 time 0 t0 time

6 A skydiver jumps from an aeroplane. After a few seconds, he reaches a terminal velocity without
opening his parachute.

Why does he reach terminal velocity?

A Air resistance becomes greater than his weight and slows him down.
B Air resistance decreases and he speeds up.
C Air resistance increases and balances his weight so that his acceleration is zero.
D His weight decreases and balances the air resistance.

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7 A satellite is orbiting the Earth in a circular orbit.

Which two quantities are always in the same direction as each other?

A the acceleration of the satellite and the displacement of the satellite


B the acceleration of the satellite and the velocity of the satellite
C the resultant force on the satellite and the acceleration of the satellite
D the resultant force on the satellite and the velocity of the satellite

8 A satellite is in a circular orbit around a planet.

Which statement is correct?

A Its acceleration is constant in direction but not in size.


B Its acceleration is constant in size but not in direction.
C Its gravitational potential energy varies.
D Its velocity is constant.

9 The diagram shows a block of wood resting on a sloping board.

Which arrow shows the direction of the gravitational force acting on the block?

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10 An astronaut travels to the International Space Station.

Which row describes how his mass and his weight compare with their sizes on Earth?

mass weight

A different different
B different the same
C the same different
D the same the same

11 The graph shows the extension of a piece of copper wire as the load on it is increased.

extension
of wire

0
0 load

What does the graph show?

A At a certain load, the wire becomes easier to extend.


B At a certain load, the wire becomes harder to extend.
C The load and the extension are directly proportional for all loads.
D The load and the extension are inversely proportional for all loads.

12 A uniform beam is pivoted at its centre. The beam is balanced by three weights in the positions
shown.

0.50 m

0.40 m d

300 N 350 N 100 N

What is the length d ?

A 0.020 m B 0.050 m C 0.20 m D 0.48 m

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13 The work done by a force on a body is calculated by multiplying the force by a quantity.

Which quantity?

A the distance travelled in the direction of the force


B the distance travelled perpendicular to the direction of the force
C the speed in the direction perpendicular to the force
D the velocity in the direction of the force

14 A small motor has an input power rating of 10 W and is run for 5.0 minutes.

What is the electrical energy input to the motor in this time?

A 2.0 J B 50 J C 300 J D 3000 J

15 A small hydroelectric power station diverts water from a river. Every second, 20 kg of water flows
through a pipe and falls through a vertical drop of 15 m. The efficiency of the power station is 0.60
(60%).

The gravitational field strength g is 10 N / kg.

What is the power output?

A 0.18 kW B 1.8 kW C 3.0 kW D 180 kW

16 Two cylindrical vessels are joined together and filled with water as shown.

X Y

How does the pressure at point X compare to the pressure at points Y and Z?

compared to Y compared to Z

A pressure at X is higher pressure at X is lower


B pressure at X is higher pressure at X is the same
C pressure at X is the same pressure at X is lower
D pressure at X is the same pressure at X is the same

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17 The pressure of a gas in a cylinder is measured using a water manometer.

to gas cylinder

20 cm

water

The density of water is 1000 kg / m3 and the gravitational field strength g is 10 N / kg.

What is the pressure, above atmospheric pressure, of the gas in the cylinder?

A 200 Pa B 2000 Pa C 20 000 Pa D 200 000 Pa

18 Four beakers contain equal volumes of water at two different temperatures. The beakers are
placed in the open air.

From which beaker does water evaporate the fastest?

surface area temperature of


of beaker / cm2 water / °C

A 20 20
B 20 40
C 40 20
D 40 40

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19 A fixed mass of gas undergoes a change of volume at constant temperature.

Which diagram shows the relationship between the volume and the pressure of the gas?

A B
pressure pressure

0 0
0 volume 0 volume

C D
pressure pressure

0 0
0 volume 0 volume

20 A substance consists of particles that are close together and moving past each other at random.
The average speed of the particles is gradually increasing.

What best describes the substance?

A a gas being heated


B a liquid being heated
C a liquid undergoing solidification
D a solid being heated

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21 The table shows the melting points and the boiling points of some elements.

Which element is a liquid over the largest range of temperature?

melting point boiling point


element
/ °C / °C

A bromine –7 59
B chlorine –102 –34
C fluorine –220 –188
D iodine 114 184

22 Some ice cubes are taken from a freezer and heated in a container. The readings of temperature
and time are recorded on the graph.

Which temperature is 0 °C?

temperature A
B

C
D
0 time

23 The mercury-in-glass thermometer shown has a linear scale.

At a temperature of 100 °C, h has a value of 28 cm.

At 80 °C, h has a value of 24 cm.

What is the value of h when the temperature is 0 °C?

A 0.0 cm B 2.8 cm C 4.0 cm D 8.0 cm

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24 The diagram shows a clinical thermometer.

X
35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 °C

How does the diagram show that this is a sensitive thermometer?

A It has a range of 7 °C.

B There are equal distances between each °C mark on the scale.


C There is a constriction in the tube at X.

D There is a large distance between each °C mark on the scale.

25 There is a tight metal lid on a glass jar. The lid is loosened by pouring hot water over it.

Which physics property explains this?

A convection
B evaporation
C expansion
D radiation

26 Which waves are longitudinal?

A sound waves in water


B ultra-violet waves in air
C waves on the surface of water
D X-rays in a vacuum

27 Light travelling in glass is incident on a glass-air boundary. The angle of incidence of the light is
greater than the critical angle.

Which arrow shows the direction of the light after it is incident on the boundary?

normal

D
air
glass C

B
incident ray A

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28 Light strikes the top surface of a glass block at an angle of 15° as shown.

15°

(not to scale)
r glass
block

The refractive index of glass is 1.5.

What is the angle of refraction r ?

A 10° B 23° C 40° D 50°

29 A wall poster showing the electromagnetic spectrum is displayed in a laboratory.

gamma X-ray ultra-violet radio

increasing frequency increasing wavelength

A section of the electromagnetic spectrum has been accidentally ripped from this wall poster.

Which piece is missing?

A infra-red visible light microwave

B microwave infra-red visible light

C visible light infra-red microwave

D visible light microwave infra-red

30 Which type of wave is used to send television signals to a satellite?

A infra-red waves
B light waves
C microwaves
D sound waves

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31 A ship that is stationary on the surface of the sea sends pulses of sound vertically downwards
towards the sea bed.

Each pulse that reflects from the sea bed is received 1.0 s after it is sent out.

A whale swims under the boat and a pulse is received 0.60 s after it is sent out.

The speed of sound in sea water is 1500 m / s.

What is the distance of the whale above the sea bed?

A 300 m B 450 m C 600 m D 750 m

32 A charged plastic ball is at rest.

Which fields are found in the region surrounding the ball?


(Ignore the magnetic field of the Earth.)

A electric, gravitational and magnetic


B electric and gravitational only
C electric and magnetic only
D gravitational and magnetic only

33 What proves that a metal bar is a permanent magnet?

A It attracts both ends of a compass needle.


B It attracts one end of another magnet.
C It conducts electricity.
D It repels one end of another magnet.

34 Electrical apparatus is protected from magnetic fields by placing the apparatus in a box.

What is the box made from?

A aluminium
B iron
C rubber
D steel

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35 A shoe becomes positively charged by friction when it rubs against a carpet.

What happens as the shoe becomes charged?

A Negative electrons are transferred to the carpet.


B Negative electrons are transferred to the shoe.
C Positive electrons are transferred to the carpet.
D Positive electrons are transferred to the shoe.

36 During a thunderstorm, a lightning flash occurs when charge flows between a cloud and the
Earth. On average, 20 C of charge flows during each flash and there are three flashes every
minute.

What is the average current between the cloud and the Earth during the thunderstorm?

A 1.0 A B 36 A C 60 A D 1800 A

37 Why are batteries sometimes made from several identical cells arranged in parallel?

A The battery has a greater e.m.f. than a single cell on its own.
B The battery has a lower e.m.f. than a single cell on its own.
C The battery lasts longer than a single cell on its own.
D The battery supplies a smaller current than a single cell on its own.

38 A cylinder of conducting material has resistance R.

A second cylinder of the same material is twice as long but has half the cross-sectional area.

What is the resistance of the second cylinder?

A R B R C 2R D 4R
2

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39 A student uses a transformer to light a filament lamp using a 230 V a.c. supply. The lamp has a
maximum voltage rating of 6.0 V.

300 turns 20 turns

230 V

What happens when the circuit is switched on?

A The lamp does not light at all.


B The lamp lights dimly.
C The lamp lights at normal brightness.
D The lamp lights up brightly and then goes out.

40 Which row is correct for nuclear fission and for nuclear fusion?

fission fusion

A produces larger nuclei is the energy source of a star


B produces larger nuclei releases energy in a power station
C produces smaller nuclei is the energy source of a star
D produces smaller nuclei releases energy in a power station

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge Ordinary Level

PHYSICS 5054/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2017
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*8580986700*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 18 printed pages and 2 blank pages.

IB17 06_5054_12/2RP
© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

https://t.me/igcse_files 150
https://t.me/igcse_files 151 2

1 A car accelerates at 5.0 m / s2 along a straight, horizontal road and reaches a velocity of 20 m / s in
a time of 4.0 s.

During this time, its total displacement is 40 m.

Which quantity is a scalar?

A a displacement of 40 m
B a time of 4.0 s
C a velocity of 20 m / s
D an acceleration of 5.0 m / s2

2 The diagram shows the resultant R of a 3.0 N force and a 4.0 N force acting at a point.

3.0 N R

4.0 N

The angle between the 3.0 N force and the 4.0 N force can be any value from 0° to 90°.

Which value of R is not possible?

A 4.0 N B 5.0 N C 6.0 N D 7.0 N

3 A micrometer is used to measure the diameter of a uniform wire.

screw

wire

rotating scale

fixed scale

What is done to obtain an accurate answer?

A Make the micrometer horizontal and then use the scales to find the reading.
B Subtract the fixed-scale reading from the rotating-scale reading.
C Subtract the rotating-scale reading from the fixed-scale reading.
D Use the scales to find the reading and add or subtract any zero error.

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4 The diagram shows the distance-time graph of a car.

distance

0
0 time

The car is travelling along a straight road up a hill.

Which quantity for the car is constant and greater than zero?

A acceleration
B gravitational potential energy
C kinetic energy
D resultant force

5 The diagram shows a speed-time graph for an object moving with uniform acceleration.

6.0
speed
m/s

0
0 4.0
time / s

What is the distance travelled in the first 4.0 s?

A 0.67 m B 1.5 m C 12 m D 24 m

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6 A hanging basket is fixed to a wall by a bracket.

wall
bracket

20 N

80 N

The weight of the basket is 80 N. The weight of the bracket is 20 N.

What is the size of the upwards force exerted on the bracket by the wall?

A 60 N B 70 N C 90 N D 100 N

7 A train of mass 240 000 kg is travelling at a speed of 60 m / s. The brakes are applied and it
decelerates for 10 minutes until it comes to rest.

What is the average resultant force?

A 24 000 N B 40 000 N C 480 000 N D 720 000 N

8 A car travels at a constant speed along a circular, horizontal path.

away from
the centre car
path of car

towards
the direction the centre
of travel

Which statement describes the forces acting on the car?

A They are balanced as the car is moving at constant speed.


B They are unbalanced with a resultant in the direction away from the centre.
C They are unbalanced with a resultant in the direction of travel of the car.
D They are unbalanced with a resultant in the direction towards the centre.

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9 The diagram shows a block of wood resting on a sloping board.

Which arrow shows the direction of the gravitational force acting on the block?

10 On the Earth’s surface, the gravitational field strength is 10 N / kg.

On the surface of Mars, the gravitational field strength is 3.8 N / kg.

A robot vehicle has a weight of 2000 N on Earth.

What is the weight of the robot vehicle on Mars?

A 200 N B 760 N C 7600 N D 76 000 N

11 The diagram shows a rectangular block.

3.0 cm
(not to scale)

5.0 cm 4.0 cm

The density of the block is 2.5 g / cm3.

What is the mass of the block?

A 18 g B 24 g C 50 g D 150 g

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12 The graph shows the extension of a piece of copper wire as the load on it is increased.

extension
of wire

0
0 load

What does the graph show?

A At a certain load, the wire becomes easier to extend.


B At a certain load, the wire becomes harder to extend.
C The load and the extension are directly proportional for all loads.
D The load and the extension are inversely proportional for all loads.

13 The diagram shows a load-extension graph for a wire.

Which point is the limit of proportionality?

C D
load
B

0
0 extension

14 A small motor has an input power rating of 10 W and is run for 5.0 minutes.

What is the electrical energy input to the motor in this time?

A 2.0 J B 50 J C 300 J D 3000 J

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15 A student of mass 60 kg climbs some steps. He travels a horizontal distance of 2.0 m and a
vertical distance of 1.5 m. The gravitational field strength g is 10 N / kg.

(not to scale)
1.5 m

2.0 m

What is the work done against the force of gravity?

A 90 J B 120 J C 900 J D 1200 J

16 Which energy source is non-renewable?

A nuclear energy
B solar energy
C tidal energy
D wind energy

17 In a coal-fired power station, the coal is burnt and thermal energy (heat) is produced. The thermal
energy is used to produce electrical energy.

In which order does the energy pass through parts of the power station?

A boiler → generator → turbine

B boiler → turbine → generator

C turbine → boiler → generator

D turbine → generator → boiler

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18 Two glass containers filled with different liquids are placed next to each other.

Point P is a distance h below the surface of the liquid in one container.

Point Q is a distance h below the surface of the liquid in the other container.

h h

P Q

Why is the pressure at P different from the pressure at Q?

A The atmospheric pressure is different at P.


B The densities of the liquids are different.
C The gravitational field strength is different at P.
D The shapes of the containers are different.

19 The pressure of a gas in a cylinder is measured using a water manometer.

to gas cylinder

20 cm

water

The density of water is 1000 kg / m3 and the gravitational field strength g is 10 N / kg.

What is the pressure, above atmospheric pressure, of the gas in the cylinder?

A 200 Pa B 2000 Pa C 20 000 Pa D 200 000 Pa

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20 A fixed mass of gas is enclosed in a cylinder with a movable piston.

cylinder
gas

piston

The gas is initially at pressure p1 and has a volume V1.

The temperature is kept constant. The piston is moved so that the pressure becomes p2 and the
volume becomes V2.

Which equation is correct?

p1 p2
A =
V1 V2

p1 V1
B =
p2 V2

C p 1V1 = p 2V2
D p 1V2 = p 2V1

21 A substance consists of particles that are close together and moving past each other at random.
The average speed of the particles is gradually increasing.

What best describes the substance?

A a gas being heated


B a liquid being heated
C a liquid undergoing solidification
D a solid being heated

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22 Some ice cubes are taken from a freezer and heated in a container. The readings of temperature
and time are recorded on the graph.

Which temperature is 0 °C?

temperature A
B

C
D
0 time

23 A tray for making ice cubes holds 30 g of water. The specific latent heat of fusion of ice is
3.3 × 105 J / kg.

How much thermal energy is removed from the water at 0 °C to change it into ice at 0 °C?

A 9.9 × 103 J B 1.1 × 104 J C 9.9 × 106 J D 1.1 × 107 J

24 The bulbs of the four thermometers shown all contain mercury.

Which thermometer is the most sensitive?

A B

small bulb, narrow tube large bulb, wide tube

C D

small bulb, wide tube large bulb, narrow tube

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25 A metal box has four different surfaces; dull black, shiny black, dull silver and shiny silver.

The box is filled with boiling water so that each surface is at the same temperature.

A sensor measures the amount of radiation from each surface.

sensor

dull meter
shiny silver
silver

Which surface emits the least radiation and which surface emits the most radiation?

least most

A dull black shiny silver


B dull silver shiny black
C shiny black dull silver
D shiny silver dull black

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26 The diagram shows a water wave in a ripple tank being refracted at the boundary between region
P and region Q.

boundary

region
P region Q

How does the wave in region P compare with the wave in region Q?

wavelength speed of
of wave in wave in
region P region P

A larger faster
B larger slower
C smaller faster
D smaller slower

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27 The graph shows how the height of a water wave varies with distance along the wave.

8
height / mm 6
4
2
0
–2 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16
–4
distance / cm
–6
–8

Which graph shows a wave with twice the amplitude, half the frequency, and the same speed?

8
height / mm 6
4
2
A 0
–2 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16
–4
distance / cm
–6
–8

8
height / mm 6
4
2
B 0
–2 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16
–4
distance / cm
–6
–8

8
height / mm 6
4
2
C 0
–2 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16
–4
distance / cm
–6
–8

8
height / mm 6
4
2
D 0
–2 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16
–4
distance / cm
–6
–8

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28 A narrow beam of yellow and green light is separated as it passes through a prism.

Which ray diagram is correct?

A B

yellow
yellow
green
green

C D
yellow

green

yellow
green

29 Which type of wave is used to send television signals to a satellite?

A infra-red waves
B light waves
C microwaves
D sound waves

30 What proves that a metal bar is a permanent magnet?

A It attracts both ends of a compass needle.


B It attracts one end of another magnet.
C It conducts electricity.
D It repels one end of another magnet.

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31 Which action demagnetises a bar magnet?

A placing the magnet inside a coil connected to a d.c. supply


B placing the magnet inside a coil connected to an a.c. supply
C withdrawing the magnet from inside a coil connected to a d.c. supply
D withdrawing the magnet from inside a coil connected to an a.c. supply

32 Electrical apparatus is protected from magnetic fields by placing the apparatus in a box.

What is the box made from?

A aluminium
B iron
C rubber
D steel

33 The circuit shown is switched on for 1.0 minute.

6.0 V
+ –

3.0 Ω

How much charge passes through the 3.0 Ω resistor?

A 2.0 C B 12 C C 120 C D 720 C

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34 The readings of an ammeter and a voltmeter are used to calculate the resistance of resistor R.

Which circuit shows the ammeter and voltmeter in the correct positions?

A B

V
A

V A
R R

C D

V V

A A
R R

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35 A thermistor and a light-dependent resistor (LDR) are connected in series. A potential difference
(p.d.) of 6.0 V is applied across them as shown.

+6.0 V

thermistor

LDR

0V

The thermistor has a resistance of 6000 Ω in a cold room and 1000 Ω in a warm room. The LDR
has a resistance of 2000 Ω in dim light and 500 Ω in bright light.

When is the p.d. across the LDR equal to 2.0 V?

A in a cold room with bright light


B in a cold room with dim light
C in a warm room with bright light
D in a warm room with dim light

36 What is the effect of using a split-ring commutator?

A it ensures that the current is the same in all parts of a series circuit
B it generates an alternating electric current
C it produces a force on a current-carrying coil
D it reverses the direction of the current in the coil of a motor

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37 The N-pole of a magnet is moved into a solenoid and an e.m.f. is induced.

solenoid

N S

What causes an increase in the induced e.m.f.?

A moving the magnet more quickly


B moving the magnet more slowly
C pulling the magnet out instead of pushing it in
D using the S-pole of the magnet instead of the N-pole

38 Which material is used for the core of a transformer?

A copper
B iron
C plastic
D steel

39 Which row is correct for nuclear fission and for nuclear fusion?

fission fusion

A produces larger nuclei is the energy source of a star


B produces larger nuclei releases energy in a power station
C produces smaller nuclei is the energy source of a star
D produces smaller nuclei releases energy in a power station

40 What happens to the proton number (atomic number) of a nucleus as it emits an alpha-particle?

A It decreases by one.
B It decreases by two.
C It decreases by four.
D It does not change.

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reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge Ordinary Level

PHYSICS 5054/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2017
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*4629719290*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 17 printed pages and 3 blank pages.

IB17 11_5054_11/3RP
© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

https://t.me/igcse_files 170
https://t.me/igcse_files 171 2

1 Which list contains only scalar quantities?

A acceleration, displacement, velocity


B distance, force, speed
C force, length, time
D length, mass, speed

2 A manufacturer measures the three dimensions of a wooden floor tile using three different
instruments.

The approximate dimensions of the tile are shown.

length 0.4 m
thickness 0.005 m

(not to scale)

width 0.08 m

Which instruments are used to measure accurately each of these dimensions?

length thickness width

A metre rule micrometer calipers

B metre rule calipers micrometer

C micrometer metre rule calipers

D calipers micrometer metre rule

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3 The speed-time graph represents a short journey.

speed

0
0 time

Which distance-time graph represents the same journey?

A B

distance distance

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

distance distance

0 0
0 time 0 time

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4 An object travels for 20 s with a constant speed of 10 m / s. For the next 10 s, it accelerates
uniformly to 20 m / s.

20
speed
m/s

10

0
0 10 20 30
time / s

What is the total distance travelled by the object in the 30 s?

A 300 m B 350 m C 400 m D 450 m

5 A skydiver falls at terminal velocity. He then opens his parachute.

Which row gives the direction of the resultant force on the skydiver and the direction of the
acceleration of the skydiver immediately after the parachute opens?

resultant force acceleration

A downwards downwards
B downwards upwards
C upwards downwards
D upwards upwards

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6 The diagram shows two objects on a beam balance.

pivot

The beam balance is in equilibrium.

Which quantities may be different?

A the masses of the two objects


B the moments about the pivot of the two objects
C the volumes of the two objects
D the weights of the two objects

7 A metal wire is suspended from a support and loads of different mass are attached to the lower
end.

The table shows how the extension of the wire depends on the mass of the load.

mass / kg 0 2.0 4.0 6.0 8.0 10.0


extension / mm 0 0.35 0.70 1.05 1.50 2.05

Between which values of mass does the limit of proportionality lie?

A 0 and 2.0 kg
B 4.0 kg and 6.0 kg
C 6.0 kg and 8.0 kg
D 8.0 kg and 10.0 kg

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8 The diagram shows a mercury manometer connected to a gas container.

to gas container

0.60 m

0.20 m

mercury

The density of mercury is 14 000 kg / m3. The gravitational field strength g is 10 N / kg.

What is the pressure difference between the gas in the container and the atmosphere?

A 28 000 Pa B 42 000 Pa C 56 000 Pa D 84 000 Pa

9 An astronaut on the Moon drops a tool box of mass 3.0 kg. It falls from rest and its kinetic energy
as it hits the surface is 0.96 J.

At which speed does the tool box hit the surface of the Moon?

A 0.46 m / s B 0.57 m / s C 0.64 m / s D 0.80 m / s

10 A car travels a distance of 200 m in 20 s. The engine of the car provides a driving force of 1000 N.

What is the power output of the engine?

A 0.25 W B 4.0 W C 100 W D 10 000 W

11 A gas is heated in a closed container of constant volume.

What happens to the molecules of the gas?

A They collide with the walls with less force.


B They expand.
C They move faster.
D They move further apart.

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12 Scientists believe that some lakes are shrinking because of evaporation.

What increases the rate of evaporation?

A a decrease in the surface area


B a fall in water temperature
C an increase in the depth of the lake
D wind blowing across the surface

13 Solid wax is melted in a boiling tube and then allowed to cool.

The graph shows the cooling curve.

temperature

X Y

0
0 time

What is happening between points X and Y?

A The liquid is at its boiling point.


B The liquid is turning to solid.
C The solid has reached room temperature.
D The solid is turning to liquid.

14 During boiling and during melting, a substance either takes in energy or gives out energy.

Which row gives the energy transfer corresponding to the change of state?

during boiling during melting

A gives out energy gives out energy


B gives out energy takes in energy
C takes in energy gives out energy
D takes in energy takes in energy

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15 The temperature of a 50 g mass of a metal is raised by 40 °C. The specific heat capacity of the
metal is 0.40 J / (g °C).

How much thermal energy is supplied?

A 0.32 J B 0.50 J C 500 J D 800 J

16 In which substance is the conduction of thermal energy mainly due to the movement of
electrons?

A air
B ice
C iron
D water

17 Four similar metal plates are the same distance from a heater that emits infra-red radiation.

The plates are painted dull black, dull white, shiny black and shiny white.

Which plate absorbs the most radiation and which plate reflects the most radiation?

absorbs reflects
most radiation most radiation

A dull black dull white


B dull black shiny white
C shiny black dull black
D shiny white dull black

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18 A wave is travelling in water in a glass-sided tank.

The diagram shows a side view of the wave at one instant.

4.0 cm

5.0 cm

What are the amplitude and the wavelength of the wave?

amplitude wavelength
/ cm / cm

A 4.0 5.0
B 4.0 10
C 8.0 5.0
D 8.0 10

19 An earthquake wave travels through the solid surface of the Earth from east to west. The solid
surface vibrates in a north-south direction.

How can the earthquake wave be described?

A electromagnetic
B longitudinal
C sound
D transverse

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20 A solid plastic cylinder is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.4. Light travelling in the plastic
cylinder strikes the inside surface at an angle of incidence of 70°. The light undergoes total
internal reflection.

liquid of refractive
index 1.4

70° reflected ray


light

plastic cylinder

What are the values of the critical angle in the plastic and the refractive index of the plastic?

critical angle refractive index


in plastic of plastic

A greater than 70° greater than 1.4


B greater than 70° less than 1.4
C less than 70° greater than 1.4
D less than 70° less than 1.4

21 What is the name and shape of the lens used to correct short sight?

name of lens shape of lens

A converging

B converging

C diverging

D diverging

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22 An object is placed in front of a converging lens. The lens forms a magnified image of the object
on a screen.

Which statement is correct?

A The distance between the object and the lens is greater than the focal length.
B The image formed is a virtual image.
C The image is the right way up.
D The lens is acting as a magnifying glass.

23 A type of electromagnetic radiation possesses the following properties.

● It is ionising.
● Its frequency is higher than the frequency of microwaves.
● It is not detected by the human eye.

What is this radiation?

A gamma rays
B infra-red
C light
D radio waves

24 Which row gives the speed of sound in air, in water and in steel?

speed in air speed in water speed in steel


m/s m/s m/s

A 330 1500 6000


B 330 6000 1500
C 6000 330 1500
D 6000 1500 330

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25 As a sound wave travels from one medium to another, its wavelength increases.

What happens to the frequency and to the speed of the sound?

frequency speed

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C stays constant decreases
D stays constant increases

26 The diagram shows the pattern and the direction of the magnetic field between two magnetic
poles X and Y.

X Y

Which types of pole are X and Y?

X Y

A N-pole N-pole
B N-pole S-pole
C S-pole N-pole
D S-pole S-pole

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27 The diagram shows a sensitive device surrounded by a shield that prevents the magnetic field
from reaching the device.

shield
magnetic field device

How does the shield protect the device?

A It channels the magnetic field around the shield until it emerges on the right-hand side.
B Its left-hand side absorbs the magnetic field.
C Its left-hand side reflects the magnetic field.
D Its left-hand side scatters the magnetic field in all directions.

28 A polythene rod is charged by rubbing it with a cloth.

cloth cloth
+
+ +
+




polythene rod polythene rod

before charging after charging

Which statement explains why the cloth is charged?

A Electrons move from the cloth to the rod.


B Electrons move from the rod to the cloth.
C Protons move from the cloth to the rod.
D Protons move from the rod to the cloth.

29 What is electromotive force (e.m.f.)?

charge charge work done work done


A B C D
work done time charge time

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30 In a circuit, a voltmeter is used to measure the potential difference across a lamp. An ammeter is
used to measure the current in the lamp.

Which diagram shows the circuit?

A B C D

– + – + – + – +

V V

V A A V

A A

31 The battery in a circuit contains two identical cells connected in parallel.

2.0 V

I1 2.0 V I2

Which row shows the relationship between currents I1 and I2 and gives the electromotive force
(e.m.f.) of the battery?

relationship e.m.f. / V

A I1 > I2 2.0
B I1 > I2 4.0
C I1 = I2 2.0
D I1 = I2 4.0

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32 The diagram shows the circuit for a hair-dryer.

fan motor
M

The fan motor has a power rating of 0.10 kW and the heaters each have a rating of 0.40 kW. The
cost of electricity is 8.0 cents / kW h.

What is the cost of running the hair-dryer for two hours with switches P and Q closed and
switch R open?

A 1.6 cents B 4.0 cents C 6.4 cents D 8.0 cents

33 Why are the metal casings of electrical appliances earthed?

A to complete the circuit


B to ensure the casing is not at a dangerous voltage
C to ensure the fuse blows when the current in the appliance is too large
D to protect the appliance from overheating

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34 The diagram shows a wire XY lying between the poles of a magnet.

The ends of the wire are connected to a sensitive ammeter. The wire is moved and a reading is
registered.

In which direction is the wire moved?

A
Y
B

D C

N S A

35 Which particles are emitted by a hot metal filament?

A alpha-particles
B electrons
C neutrons
D protons

36 A light-emitting diode (LED) is connected to an alternating current (a.c.) supply.

a.c. supply

LED

The LED flashes on and off.

What is the direction of the current in the LED when it emits light?

A towards the left only


B towards the right only
C towards the left or towards the right
D there is no current in the LED

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37 A narrow beam of alpha-particles is fired at a thin piece of gold foil.

What is the final direction of the largest number of alpha-particles?

gold foil

beam of
alpha-particles A

D
C

32
38 A nucleus of phosphorus 15 P emits a beta-particle to form a new nucleus.

What is the nucleon number and what is the proton number of the new nucleus?

nucleon number proton number


(mass number) (atomic number)

A 28 13
B 31 14
C 31 15
D 32 16

39 How does a nucleus of the isotope chlorine-37 differ from a nucleus of the isotope chlorine-35?

A It contains one more neutron and one more electron.


B It contains one more proton and one more electron.
C It contains two more neutrons.
D It contains two more protons.

40 Which types of radiation may be emitted by radioactive decay?

A alpha-particles and gamma rays


B microwaves and infra-red
C radio waves and microwaves
D ultra-violet and X-rays

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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© UCLES 2017 189 5054/11/O/N/17
https://t.me/igcse_files 190

Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge Ordinary Level

PHYSICS 5054/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2017
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*9485232338*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB17 11_5054_12/3RP
© UCLES 2017 [Turn over

https://t.me/igcse_files 190
https://t.me/igcse_files 191 2

1 Which list contains only scalar quantities?

A acceleration, displacement, velocity


B distance, force, speed
C force, length, time
D length, mass, speed

2 A manufacturer measures the three dimensions of a wooden floor tile using three different
instruments.

The approximate dimensions of the tile are shown.

length 0.4 m
thickness 0.005 m

(not to scale)

width 0.08 m

Which instruments are used to measure accurately each of these dimensions?

length thickness width

A metre rule micrometer calipers

B metre rule calipers micrometer

C micrometer metre rule calipers

D calipers micrometer metre rule

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3 The speed-time graph represents a short journey.

speed

0
0 time

Which distance-time graph represents the same journey?

A B

distance distance

0 0
0 time 0 time

C D

distance distance

0 0
0 time 0 time

4 A free-fall skydiver jumps from a plane. As he falls there is a force acting upwards and a force
acting downwards on his body. These produce a resultant force.

Before he reaches terminal velocity, how do the sizes of the forces change?

downward force upward force resultant force

A decreases decreases stays the same


B increases stays the same decreases
C stays the same increases decreases
D stays the same increases increases

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5 The diagram shows two objects on a beam balance.

pivot

The beam balance is in equilibrium.

Which quantities may be different?

A the masses of the two objects


B the moments about the pivot of the two objects
C the volumes of the two objects
D the weights of the two objects

6 Two blocks are joined together.

1.0 cm

1.0 cm

density density
6.0 g / cm3 9.0 g / cm3
1.0 cm 2.0 cm

One block has a density of 6.0 g / cm3 and the other has a density of 9.0 g / cm3.

What is the overall density of the two blocks joined together?

A 7.0 g / cm3 B 7.5 g / cm3 C 8.0 g / cm3 D 15 g / cm3

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7 A diver of weight 500 N stands at the end of a springboard that is 2.0 m long and is fixed at
point P.

P
2.0 m

The springboard has a weight of 500 N. The centre of mass of the springboard is in the centre of
the board.

What is the total moment about point P of the diver and the board?

A 500 N m B 750 N m C 1000 N m D 1500 N m

8 A tennis ball of mass 56 g is travelling at 1500 metres / minute.

Which expression is equal to the kinetic energy, in joules, of the tennis ball?

A 1
2
× 0.056 × (25)2

B 1
2
× 0.056 × (1500)2

C 1
2
× 56 × (25)2

D 1
2
× 56 × (1500)2

9 In a hydroelectric power station, 4.2 × 105 kg of water passes through the turbines every second.
The turbines are at a height of 50 m below the surface of the reservoir. The gravitational field
strength g is 10 N / kg.

Assuming there are no energy losses, what is the power output of the power station?

A 8.4 × 103 W B 8.4 × 104 W C 2.1 × 107 W D 2.1 × 108 W

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10 The diagram shows a mercury manometer connected to a gas container.

to gas container

0.60 m

0.20 m

mercury

The density of mercury is 14 000 kg / m3. The gravitational field strength g is 10 N / kg.

What is the pressure difference between the gas in the container and the atmosphere?

A 28 000 Pa B 42 000 Pa C 56 000 Pa D 84 000 Pa

11 A gas syringe contains a fixed mass of air. The volume of the air is 240 cm3 and it exerts a
pressure of 5.0 × 104 Pa. The air is slowly compressed, keeping the temperature constant, until
the pressure is 1.5 × 105 Pa.

What is the final volume of air?

A 72 cm3 B 80 cm3 C 720 cm3 D 800 cm3

12 An extremely large increase in pressure is needed to compress a liquid. A gas can be


compressed by a much smaller increase in pressure.

Which statement explains this?

A Molecules repel each other very strongly when very close.


B The attractive forces between molecules are small at large distances.
C The molecules in the gas collide with the walls of their container and rebound.
D The molecules of a liquid are constantly moving at random.

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13 A dish of liquid is left on a laboratory bench. Some of the liquid evaporates.

What happens and why?

A The liquid cools because liquid molecules have more potential energy than gas molecules.
B The liquid cools because faster-moving molecules escape.
C The liquid warms because liquid molecules have less potential energy than gas molecules.
D The liquid warms because slower-moving molecules are left behind.

14 Solid wax is melted in a boiling tube and then allowed to cool.

The graph shows the cooling curve.

temperature

X Y

0
0 time

What is happening between points X and Y?

A The liquid is at its boiling point.


B The liquid is turning to solid.
C The solid has reached room temperature.
D The solid is turning to liquid.

15 What is meant by the heat capacity of a solid object?

A the maximum thermal energy it can store per unit mass


B the maximum thermal energy it can store per unit volume
C the thermal energy required to cause a unit temperature rise
D the thermal energy required to raise its temperature to its melting point

16 The distance between the ice point and the steam point in a liquid-in-glass thermometer is 20 cm.

The top of the liquid thread is 12 cm above the ice point.

What is the temperature?

A 40 °C B 60 °C C 80 °C D 88 °C

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17 A thermocouple is a type of thermometer.

Which statement applies to a thermocouple?

A It can measure rapidly varying temperatures.


B It must be made from three different metals.
C Its resistance decreases when one junction is heated.
D The distance between the two junctions increases as the temperature increases.

18 A heater is designed to radiate thermal energy.

Which change to the design decreases the thermal energy emitted by radiation?

A a darker coloured surface


B a higher surface temperature
C a larger surface area
D a shinier surface

19 A sound wave in a solid is represented by a series of lines. The diagram shows compressions C
and rarefactions R at one instant in time.

R C R C R C R

Which statement is correct?

A All particles on one line move in the same direction at the same time.
B The direction of travel of the sound wave is parallel to the lines.
C The distance between a compression and its adjacent rarefaction is a wavelength.
D The pattern of lines represents a transverse wave.

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20 Which diagram shows reflection by a plane mirror?

A B C D
mirror

21 Light is incident on a plastic block of refractive index 1.5.

The angle of incidence is 50°.

What is the angle of refraction?

A 31° B 33° C 40° D 75°

22 A solid plastic cylinder is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.4. Light travelling in the plastic
cylinder strikes the inside surface at an angle of incidence of 70°. The light undergoes total
internal reflection.

liquid of refractive
index 1.4

70° reflected ray


light

plastic cylinder

What are the values of the critical angle in the plastic and the refractive index of the plastic?

critical angle refractive index


in plastic of plastic

A greater than 70° greater than 1.4


B greater than 70° less than 1.4
C less than 70° greater than 1.4
D less than 70° less than 1.4

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23 The ray diagrams, X and Y, show two ways in which a thin converging lens produces an image
that is larger than the object.

thin converging thin converging


lens lens
image

object object

image

X Y

Which devices use a lens as shown in diagram X and in diagram Y?

X Y

A camera magnifying glass


B magnifying glass projector
C photographic enlarger camera
D photographic enlarger projector

24 The diagram shows the electromagnetic spectrum with three components named. The spectrum
is in order from long wavelength to short wavelength.

Which component of the spectrum is used in a sunbed to produce a suntan?

long wavelength short wavelength

radio visible gamma


A B C D
waves light rays

25 Which row gives the speed of sound in air, in water and in steel?

speed in air speed in water speed in steel


m/s m/s m/s

A 330 1500 6000


B 330 6000 1500
C 6000 330 1500
D 6000 1500 330

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26 A compass needle is moved to different places around a strong bar magnet.

Which position shows incorrectly the direction of the compass needle?

D B

27 A plastic block is rubbed with a silk handkerchief and the block becomes charged.

What causes the block to become charged?

A Negative electrons flow from the handkerchief and positive electrons flow from the block.
B Negative electrons flow from the handkerchief to the block.
C Positive electrons flow from the block to the handkerchief.
D Positive electrons flow to the handkerchief and negative electrons flow to the block.

28 A negatively-charged rod is brought near to an uncharged metal sphere on an insulating stand.

Which diagram shows the charge distribution on the sphere?

A B C D
metal sphere
rod
––––––

––––––

––––––

––––––

– + – + + –
– + – + + –
– + – + + –
– + – + + –
insulating
stand

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29 A 6.0 V battery, three resistors and three voltmeters are connected in the circuit shown.

voltmeter 1
V

6.0 V

V
voltmeter 2

V
voltmeter 3

The reading on voltmeter 1 is 2.0 V.

What is the reading on voltmeter 2 and what is the reading on voltmeter 3?

reading on reading on
voltmeter 2 voltmeter 3
/V /V

A 2.0 4.0
B 2.0 8.0
C 4.0 4.0
D 4.0 8.0

30 A piece of wire has a resistance of 16 Ω.

The wire is 20 cm long and has a cross-sectional area of 2.0 mm2.

Which wire of the same material has a resistance of 8.0 Ω?

cross-sectional
length / cm
area / mm2

A 10 1.0
B 10 4.0
C 20 1.0
D 20 4.0

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31 The battery in a circuit contains two identical cells connected in parallel.

2.0 V

I1 2.0 V I2

Which row shows the relationship between currents I1 and I2 and gives the electromotive force
(e.m.f.) of the battery?

relationship e.m.f. / V

A I1 > I2 2.0
B I1 > I2 4.0
C I1 = I2 2.0
D I1 = I2 4.0

32 The diagram shows the circuit for a hair-dryer.

fan motor
M

The fan motor has a power rating of 0.10 kW and the heaters each have a rating of 0.40 kW. The
cost of electricity is 8.0 cents / kW h.

What is the cost of running the hair-dryer for two hours with switches P and Q closed and
switch R open?

A 1.6 cents B 4.0 cents C 6.4 cents D 8.0 cents

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33 Why is the coil of an electric motor wound on a soft-iron cylinder?

A to decrease the electric current


B to increase the electric current
C to reverse the magnetic field
D to strengthen the magnetic field

34 A straight wire carries a current into the paper. The diagram shows three magnetic field lines
around the wire.

key
current into paper

The current in the wire increases.

What is the direction of the field lines and which change occurs to the field lines as the current
increases?

direction change

A clockwise the lines move closer together


B clockwise the lines move further apart
C anticlockwise the lines move closer together
D anticlockwise the lines move further apart

35 Which particles are emitted by a hot metal filament?

A alpha-particles
B electrons
C neutrons
D protons

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36 A circuit includes a thermistor and a light-dependent resistor (LDR).

The resistance of the thermistor and the resistance of the LDR both increase.

Which changes cause this?

change to thermistor change to LDR

A decrease in temperature decrease in brightness


B decrease in temperature increase in brightness
C increase in temperature decrease in brightness
D increase in temperature increase in brightness

37 A sample contains atoms of an isotope that has a half-life of 7.2 years.

Which quantity halves every 7.2 years?

A the mass of the sample


B the nucleon (mass) number
C the number of atoms of the isotope
D the proton (atomic) number

38 A beam, consisting of alpha-particles (α), beta-particles (β), and gamma rays (γ), passes into a
magnetic field.

Which diagram shows their paths in the magnetic field?

A B
magnetic magnetic
field field
α α
β γ

γ β

C D
magnetic magnetic
field field
β γ
γ α

α β

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39 A narrow beam of alpha-particles is fired at a thin piece of gold foil.

What is the final direction of the largest number of alpha-particles?

gold foil

beam of
alpha-particles A

D
C

32
40 A nucleus of phosphorus 15 P emits a beta-particle to form a new nucleus.

What is the nucleon number and what is the proton number of the new nucleus?

nucleon number proton number


(mass number) (atomic number)

A 28 13
B 31 14
C 31 15
D 32 16

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge Ordinary Level

PHYSICS 5054/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2018
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*4488257281*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 19 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB18 06_5054_11/3RP
© UCLES 2018 [Turn over

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https://t.me/igcse_files 207 2

1 Which statement about electromagnetic waves is correct?

A All electromagnetic waves have speeds in air of approximately 3 × 108 m / s.


B In air, some electromagnetic waves travel faster than light.
C The electromagnetic waves with the largest wavelength are in the infra-red region.
D The electromagnetic waves with the smallest wavelength are in the X-ray region.

2 A student wishes to measure directly the circumference of a football.

Which is the most suitable instrument to use?

A calipers
B a measuring tape
C a micrometer
D a ruler

3 The diagram shows a satellite S travelling at a constant speed in a circular orbit around a
planet P.

B S D P

Which statement is correct?

A The resultant force on the satellite is zero.


B The resultant force on the satellite is in direction B.
C The resultant force on the satellite is in direction C.
D The resultant force on the satellite is in direction D.

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4 Which speed-time graph represents the motion of a railway train making a short stop at a station?

A B C D

speed speed speed speed

0 0 0 0
0 time 0 time 0 time 0 time

5 The minimum braking distance for a car is tested on a dry road.

The test is then repeated on a wet road.

What happens to the braking distance and to the frictional force between the tyres and the road?

braking distance frictional force

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

6 Which piece of equipment is used to measure mass?

A balance
B manometer
C measuring cylinder
D newton meter

7 A body of mass 10 kg falling freely in the gravitational field close to the Moon’s surface has an
acceleration of 1.6 m / s2.

What is the gravitational field strength on the Moon?

A 0 N / kg B 1.6 N / kg C 10 N / kg D 16 N / kg

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8 The graph shows extension-load curves for four fibres.

Which fibre is the most difficult to stretch over the range of loads shown?

extension A
B
C

0
0 load

9 The diagram shows a muscle and bones in a person’s arm. The hand holds a load of weight 40 N.
The elbow acts as a pivot and the tension in the muscle keeps the lower part of the arm
horizontal.

tension
in muscle

load

elbow
(pivot)
hand

5.0 cm
40 N

35 cm

What is the tension in the muscle due to the load?

A 200 N B 240 N C 280 N D 1400 N

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10 Four objects of equal mass rest on a table. The centre of mass of each object is labelled G.

Which object is the least stable?

A B C D

G
G
G G

11 Forces of 4.0 N and 2.0 N act at a point.

Which scale diagram shows the forces that have a resultant of 4.0 N?

A B

2.0 N
2.0 N

4.0 N 4.0 N

C D

2.0 N 2.0 N 4.0 N

4.0 N

12 A student calculates his power in running up a flight of stairs. He measures the vertical height of
the stairs, the time taken to run up the stairs and his weight.

How does he calculate his power?

A height × time × weight

height × weight
B
time

time × weight
C
height

weight
D
height × time

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13 How does an oil-fired power station differ from a nuclear power station?

A Gases emitted by hot fuel are emitted into the atmosphere.


B Steam is produced in a boiler using hot fuel.
C The hot steam is used to turn a turbine.
D Turbines are used to drive an electric generator.

14 Five blocks have the same mass but different base areas. They all rest on a horizontal table.

A graph is plotted to show the relationship between the pressure exerted on the table and the
base area of the block.

Which graph shows this relationship?

A B C D
pressure pressure pressure pressure

0 0 0 0
0 area 0 area 0 area 0 area

15 Each tyre of a car has an area of 100 cm2 in contact with the ground.

The car has a mass of 1600 kg. The weight of the car is equally distributed amongst the four
tyres.

The gravitational field strength g is 10 N / kg.

What is the pressure exerted on the ground?

A 4.0 N / cm2 B 16 N / cm2 C 40 N / cm2 D 160 N / cm2

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16 The diagram shows a simple mercury barometer.

Which height is a measure of the atmospheric pressure?

A
C D

17 What is described as ‘the escape of more energetic molecules from the surface of a liquid’?

A condensation
B evaporation
C melting
D radiation

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18 The diagrams represent four thermometers.

25 °C 40 °C 250 °C 300 °C

20 °C 200 °C 260 °C

15 °C 150 °C 220 °C
35 °C
10 °C 100 °C 180 °C

5 °C 50 °C 140 °C

0 °C 30 °C 0 °C 100 °C

P Q R S

Which thermometer has the greatest sensitivity and which thermometer has the greatest range?

greatest greatest
sensitivity range

A P R
B P S
C Q R
D Q S

19 What happens when a solid is heated and expands?

A The molecules do not change size and the spaces between the molecules become larger.
B The molecules expand and the spaces between the molecules become larger.
C The molecules expand and the spaces between the molecules become smaller.
D The molecules expand and the spaces between the molecules do not change size.

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20 When a piece of smouldering rope is held at the opening of the box in the diagram, smoke moves
in the direction indicated.

smouldering rope
smoke

glass fronted box

burning candle

What is responsible for the movement of the smoke?

A convection
B movement of free electrons
C radiation
D vibration of molecules

21 The diagrams show four identical cans with their outside surfaces either polished silver or painted
dull black. Each can contains the same volume of water, initially at 80 °C.

After five minutes in a cool room, which can contains the coolest water?

A B C D
lid

dull black polished silver dull black polished silver

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22 The diagram shows two divergent rays of light from an object O being reflected from a plane
mirror.

At which position is the image formed?

O A B

mirror D

23 Which statement is correct?

A Total internal reflection only occurs when light travels from air into glass.
B The larger the refractive index of glass, the larger is the critical angle.
C When total internal reflection occurs, the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.
D When total internal reflection occurs, the angle of incidence is less than the critical angle.

24 The diagram shows the paths of two rays from the top of an object through a lens.

object

lens

The object is viewed from the opposite side of the lens to the object.

How does the image compare with the object?

A larger and inverted


B larger and the same way up
C smaller and inverted
D smaller and the same way up

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25 A young person with healthy ears can hear a range of frequencies.

What is the approximate range of frequencies?

A 2 Hz to 2000 Hz only
B 2 Hz to 20 000 Hz only
C 20 Hz to 2000 Hz only
D 20 Hz to 20 000 Hz only

26 The diagram shows a loudspeaker that is producing a continuous sound wave of frequency
200 Hz in air.

loudspeaker

1
Which diagram best shows how the sound wave causes a molecule at P to move during 200
s?

A B C D

P P P
P

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27 The diagram shows an alarm system.

battery P
iron core

iron armature

pivot

bell

What happens when battery P is disconnected?

iron armature bell

A falls rings
B falls stops ringing
C moves up rings
D moves up stops ringing

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28 An electric current in a wire is into the page.

Which diagram shows the shape and direction of the magnetic field around the wire?

A B

current current
into page into page

C D

current current
into page into page

29 A copper wire X has resistance R. Another copper wire Y has twice the length and half the cross-
sectional area of X.

l
wire X
A

2l
wire Y
A
2

What is the resistance of Y?

A R B R C 2R D 4R
2

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30 In the circuit shown, the temperature of the room and the amount of light affect the current.

thermistor

LDR

Under which conditions is the current in the circuit the largest?

temperature amount of light

A high in bright light


B high in the dark
C low in bright light
D low in the dark

31 An electrical appliance is plugged into a socket in the wall. The plug contains a fuse.

What is the main purpose of the fuse?

A to earth the appliance


B to earth the plug
C to protect the user from electric shock
D to protect the wiring from overheating

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32 A horizontal beam of electrons passes between the two poles of a magnet.

beam of
electrons
S

In which direction is the beam deflected?

A into the page


B out of the page
C towards the north pole
D towards the south pole

33 Which graph shows the voltage output V against time t for an a.c. generator?

A B

V V
0 0
0 t 0 t

C D

V V
0 0
0 t 0 t

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34 A loudspeaker and a microphone are placed in front of a wall.

wall

loudspeaker
microphone

The loudspeaker makes a sound which is detected by the microphone.

The microphone is connected to an oscilloscope which is set so that each division on the screen
represents 0.01 s. The microphone detects the original sound and the echo.

one division

sound

echo

display on oscilloscope

The speed of sound in air is 300 m / s.

What is the distance between the loudspeaker and the wall?

A 6.0 m B 12 m C 24 m D 48 m

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35 The circuit diagram shows a variable resistor R connected in parallel to the lower half of a
potential divider.

V1 V

V2 V R

The resistance of R increases.

What happens to the two voltmeter readings?

V1 V2

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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36 Thin aluminium foil is used in cooking.

The diagram shows a system used to control the thickness of aluminium foil being made in a
factory.

radioactive
source aluminium foil
rollers

radiation
detector

What is the most suitable radioactive source for the system?

half-life
source
of source

A beta 1 hour
B beta 6 years
C gamma 1 hour
D gamma 6 years

37 Which of alpha, beta and gamma radiations are waves?

A alpha only
B beta only
C gamma only
D alpha and beta

38 A radioactive isotope of hydrogen has a half-life of 12 years.

A sample contains 40 million atoms of this isotope.

How many atoms of this isotope are left after 24 years?

A 20 million
B 10 million
C 5 million
D zero

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84
39 How many nucleons are in one neutral atom of the krypton isotope 36 Kr?

A 36 B 48 C 84 D 120

230
40 A radioactive nucleus is represented as 92 U .

Which row represents another isotope of the same element?

number of number of
protons in nucleus neutrons in nucleus

A 90 140
B 91 138
C 92 139
D 93 136

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BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge Ordinary Level

PHYSICS 5054/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2018
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*7054857815*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 15 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB18 06_5054_12/2RP
© UCLES 2018 [Turn over

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1 Which is a vector quantity?

A a mass of 2.0 kg

B a temperature of –10 °C
C a weight of 15 N
D an average speed of 20 m / s

2 Forces of 4.0 N and 2.0 N act at a point.

Which scale diagram shows the forces that have a resultant of 4.0 N?

A B

2.0 N
2.0 N

4.0 N 4.0 N

C D

2.0 N 2.0 N 4.0 N

4.0 N

3 What is the name and value of the unit of power written as mW?

name value

A megawatt 10–3 W
B megawatt 106 W
C milliwatt 10–3 W
D milliwatt 106 W

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4 Micrometers, metre rules, tapes and calipers are used for measuring lengths.

Which row identifies the most suitable device for accurately measuring the stated length?

length measuring device

A 0.15 mm micrometer
B 0.50 mm metre rule
C 0.15 m tape
D 0.50 m calipers

5 The planets in the Solar System orbit the Sun.

Which statement is correct?

A There is a force on each planet away from the Sun.


B There is a force on each planet in the direction in which it travels.
C There is a force on each planet opposite to the direction in which it travels.
D There is a force on each planet towards the Sun.

6 Which forces act on a skydiver who is falling at terminal velocity?

A air resistance and weight


B air resistance only
C weight only
D no forces act

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7 A uniform rod of weight 5.0 N is held initially at rest.

The diagram shows the forces acting on the rod when it is released.

10 N

uniform rod

2.0 N
3.0 N
5.0 N

What happens to the rod when it is released?

A It does not move.


B It moves to the right.
C It moves upwards.
D It starts to rotate.

8 A block of metal is placed on an electronic balance to record its mass.

57.0

What is the unit of the reading on the electronic balance and what is the unit of weight?

unit on
unit of
electronic
weight
balance

A g g
B g N
C N g
D N N

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9 A body of mass 10 kg falling freely in the gravitational field close to the Moon’s surface has an
acceleration of 1.6 m / s2.

What is the gravitational field strength on the Moon?

A 0 N / kg B 1.6 N / kg C 10 N / kg D 16 N / kg

10 Two objects X and Y are suspended from a uniform rod, pivoted at its centre.

The rod is in equilibrium.

10 cm 25 cm
rod

pivot
X Y

Which statement about X and Y is correct?

A The mass of X is 0.4 times the mass of Y.


B The mass of X is 2.5 times the mass of Y.
C The mass of X is 3.5 times the mass of Y.
D The mass of X is equal to the mass of Y.

11 A force of 1600 N accelerates a car, of mass 800 kg, from rest.

What is the car’s acceleration and its velocity after 4.0 s?

acceleration velocity
m / s2 m/s

A 0.50 0.13
B 0.50 0.50
C 2.0 2.0
D 2.0 8.0

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12 The graph shows extension-load curves for four fibres.

Which fibre is the most difficult to stretch over the range of loads shown?

extension A
B
C

0
0 load

13 Four objects of equal mass rest on a table. The centre of mass of each object is labelled G.

Which object is the least stable?

A B C D

G
G
G G

14 Which power station produces carbon dioxide when operating?

A gas-fired power station


B geothermal power station
C nuclear power station
D wind power station

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15 Work is done when a force of 400 N pulls a crate of weight 500 N at a constant speed along a
ramp, as shown.

5.0 m

400 N
3.0 m

500 N

Part of the work done increases the gravitational potential energy E of the crate and the rest is
work done W against friction.

What are the values of E and W ?

E/J W/J

A 1500 500
B 1500 2000
C 2000 2500
D 3500 500

16 Five blocks have the same mass but different base areas. They all rest on a horizontal table.

A graph is plotted to show the relationship between the pressure exerted on the table and the
base area of the block.

Which graph shows this relationship?

A B C D
pressure pressure pressure pressure

0 0 0 0
0 area 0 area 0 area 0 area

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17 The diagram shows a simple mercury barometer.

Which height is a measure of the atmospheric pressure?

A
C D

18 A sealed packet containing air and a snack is purchased at an airport. The sealed packet is taken
on board an aircraft. During the flight the packet becomes larger.

What causes the packet to become larger?

A The density of the air inside the packet increases.


B The mass of the packet increases.
C The pressure of the air outside the packet decreases.
D The volume of the air inside the packet decreases.

19 A sealed container of gas is heated and the pressure inside increases.

What happens to the molecules of the gas to cause this increase in pressure?

A Their kinetic energy decreases.


B They become heavier.
C They expand.
D They hit the container more frequently.

20 Equal masses of copper and water are heated to the same temperature. As they cool down, the
copper and the water lose thermal energy at the same rate.

The temperature of the copper falls faster.

Why is this?

A Copper has a larger specific heat capacity.


B Copper has a larger specific latent heat.
C Copper has a smaller specific heat capacity.
D Copper has a smaller specific latent heat.

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21 The diagram shows a thermometer.

column of mercury capillary tube

What is in region X of the capillary tube?

A a vacuum
B alcohol
C steam
D water

22 The diagrams represent four thermometers.

25 °C 40 °C 250 °C 300 °C

20 °C 200 °C 260 °C

15 °C 150 °C 220 °C
35 °C
10 °C 100 °C 180 °C

5 °C 50 °C 140 °C

0 °C 30 °C 0 °C 100 °C

P Q R S

Which thermometer has the greatest sensitivity and which thermometer has the greatest range?

greatest greatest
sensitivity range

A P R
B P S
C Q R
D Q S

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23 The resistance R of a wire increases uniformly with temperature. The values of R at the fixed
points are shown in the table.

0 °C 100 °C

R/Ω 100 250

What is the temperature when R = 160 Ω?

A 24 °C B 40 °C C 60 °C D 64 °C

24 Samples of four different materials at room temperature are heated from below and heat is
transferred upwards.

In which material is all of the heat transferred by the vibration of molecules?

A air
B mercury
C rubber
D water

25 The diagrams show four identical cans with their outside surfaces either polished silver or painted
dull black. Each can contains the same volume of water, initially at 80 °C.

After five minutes in a cool room, which can contains the coolest water?

A B C D
lid

dull black polished silver dull black polished silver

26 A communications system uses microwaves with a wavelength of 15 cm. The speed of light is
3.0 × 108 m / s.

What is the frequency of the microwaves?

A 2.0 × 107 Hz B 4.5 × 107 Hz C 2.0 × 109 Hz D 4.5 × 109 Hz

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27 The diagram shows two divergent rays of light from an object O being reflected from a plane
mirror.

At which position is the image formed?

O A B

mirror D

28 Which statement about blue light is correct?

A Blue light has a smaller frequency than red light.


B Blue light has a longer wavelength than red light.
C Blue light has the same speed in glass as red light.
D Blue light is refracted more by a glass prism than red light.

29 Which device uses total internal reflection?

A magnifying glass
B optical fibre
C photographic enlarger
D projector

30 A television controller emits an infra-red beam.

Which statement about infra-red radiation is correct?

A It causes ionisation.
B It consists of longitudinal waves.
C It has a higher frequency than ultra-violet light.
D It travels at the speed of light.

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31 The diagram shows a loudspeaker that is producing a continuous sound wave of frequency
200 Hz in air.

loudspeaker

1
Which diagram best shows how the sound wave causes a molecule at P to move during 200
s?

A B C D

P P P
P

32 Which frequency is in the range heard by a healthy human ear?

A 12 mHz B 12 Hz C 12 kHz D 12 MHz

33 What is one of the uses of ultrasound?

A cleaning jewellery
B satellite communication
C fluorescent tubes
D optical fibres

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34 The diagram shows an alarm system.

battery P
iron core

iron armature

pivot

bell

What happens when battery P is disconnected?

iron armature bell

A falls rings
B falls stops ringing
C moves up rings
D moves up stops ringing

35 V is a potential difference, I is a current, R is a resistance, and t is a time.

Which expression has units of energy?

A It B I 2R C VIt D V2
R

36 A step-down transformer has a primary coil and a secondary coil wound on a soft-iron core.

The primary coil is connected to a 6.0 V direct current (d.c.) supply.

Which statement about the transformer is correct?

A The output voltage is equal to 6.0 V.


B The output voltage is greater than 6.0 V.
C The output voltage is less than 6.0 V but more than zero.
D There is no output voltage.

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37 Which symbol is used for a light-dependent resistor?

A B C D

38 The circuit diagram shows a variable resistor R connected in parallel to the lower half of a
potential divider.

V1 V

V2 V R

The resistance of R increases.

What happens to the two voltmeter readings?

V1 V2

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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39 An oscilloscope is used to measure potential difference (p.d.). The trace with no input connected
is shown.

one division

A 1.5 V d.c. supply is connected to the oscilloscope.

The Y-gain is set at 0.5 V / div. The time-base is set at 0.5 ms / div.

Which trace shows a supply of 1.5 V d.c.?

A B C D

84
40 How many nucleons are in one neutral atom of the krypton isotope 36 Kr?

A 36 B 48 C 84 D 120

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge Ordinary Level

PHYSICS 5054/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2018
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*7390144058*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 14 printed pages and 2 blank pages.

IB18 11_5054_11/3RP
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1 What is a possible mass for a normal adult person?

A 7.5 kg B 75 kg C 750 kg D 7500 kg

2 A small cylinder is rolled along a ruler and completes two revolutions.

start finish
two revolutions

mark on
cylinder

0 cm 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11

The circumference is the distance around the outside of a circle.

What is the circumference of the cylinder?

A 4.4 cm B 5.2 cm C 8.8 cm D 10.2 cm

3 A skydiver is falling at terminal velocity.

Which row describes the acceleration of the skydiver and the velocity of the skydiver?

acceleration of velocity of the


the skydiver skydiver

A downwards constant
B downwards zero
C zero constant
D zero zero

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4 A cyclist takes a ride lasting 250 s.

The graph shows how the distance from the starting position varies with time.

300
distance / m

200

100

0
0 50 100 150 200 250
time / s

What is his average speed for the whole journey?

A 1.0 m / s B 1.2 m / s C 1.5 m / s D 2.0 m / s

5 An engine pulls a truck at constant speed on a level track.

engine
link
truck

track

The link between the engine and the truck breaks. The driving force on the engine remains
constant.

What effect does this have on the engine and on the truck?

engine truck

A speed stays constant slows down


B speeds up slows down
C speed stays constant stops immediately
D speeds up stops immediately

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6 What happens to an object when it is moved to a location where the gravitational field strength is
slightly greater?

A Its density decreases.


B Its mass decreases.
C Its weight increases.
D Its volume increases.

7 Two cylinders P and Q are made of copper.

P Q

The height of P is twice the height of Q. The diameter of P is half the diameter of Q.

Which statement is correct?

A The density of cylinder P is four times that of cylinder Q.


B The density of cylinder P is twice that of cylinder Q.
C The density of cylinder P is equal to that of cylinder Q.
D The density of cylinder P is half that of cylinder Q.

8 Which diagram shows the addition of the 4.0 N and the 3.0 N forces?

A B C D

5.0 N 5.0 N 5.0 N 5.0 N


3.0 N 3.0 N 3.0 N 3.0 N

4.0 N 4.0 N 4.0 N 4.0 N

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9 An electric motor, connected to the mains, is used to lift bricks to the top of a building.

There is a fuse in the plug.

How can the efficiency of the motor be increased?

A Increase the friction in the motor.


B Reduce the energy losses in the motor.
C Use a fuse with a higher current rating.
D Use a fuse with a lower current rating.

10 Air is trapped in a cylinder by a piston. The pressure of the air is p and the length of the air
column is 20 cm.

The piston is moved outwards until the length of the air column has increased by 40 cm.

The temperature of the air remains constant.

20 cm 40 cm

trapped air

What is the new air pressure?


p p
A B C 2p D 3p
2 3

11 A long tube, full of mercury, is inverted in a small dish of mercury.

R
S

The mercury level in the tube falls, leaving a vacuum at the top.

When the atmospheric pressure decreases, which length decreases?

A PQ B PS C QR D RS

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12 Some gas is trapped in a closed container. The gas is cooled and the volume of the container is
kept constant.

What happens to the gas molecules?

A They collide with the walls more often.


B They contract.
C They get closer together.
D They move more slowly.

13 The diagram shows four changes of state W, X, Y and Z.

W Y
gas liquid solid
X Z

Which row gives the names of the four changes of state?

W X Y Z

A condensation boiling freezing melting


B condensation boiling melting freezing
C boiling condensation freezing melting
D boiling condensation melting freezing

14 What increases when a liquid becomes a gas at its boiling point?

A the average kinetic energy of the molecules


B the molecular size
C the molecular spacing
D the total number of molecules

15 A metal lid fits tightly on a glass jar.

Which process makes it easier to remove the lid from the jar?

A cool the lid only


B put the jar and lid in a refrigerator
C warm the jar only
D warm the lid only

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16 The specific heat capacity of lead is 130 J / (kg °C). Lead of mass 0.50 kg is heated from 10 °C to
35 °C.

Which calculation gives the amount of thermal energy, in J, absorbed by the lead?

A 0.50 × 130 × 25

B 0.50 × 130 × 35

C 0.50 × 130
25

D 0.50 × 130
35

17 A cold solid is placed on top of a hot solid. Thermal energy flows from the hot solid to the cold
one.

What is the explanation for this?

A A hot solid expands, so its molecules will move further apart.


B Energy is passed from one molecule to the next.
C Heat always rises.
D Molecules are free to move randomly through the solids.

18 Which term is the number of crests of a wave passing a point per second?

A amplitude
B frequency
C speed
D wavelength

19 The diagram shows a thin converging lens of focal length f.

Where must an object be placed to produce a real image in the position shown?

A B C D

f f

image

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20 White light is dispersed by a prism. Compared with blue light, the red light is

A slowed down less and refracted less.


B slowed down less and refracted more.
C slowed down more and refracted less.
D slowed down more and refracted more.

21 What is the approximate value for

speed of light in air


?
speed of sound in air

A 102 B 104 C 106 D 108

22 What are the lowest frequency and the highest frequency of the sound that a human being with
normal hearing can hear?

lowest frequency highest frequency

A 2.0 Hz 2.0 kHz


B 2.0 Hz 20 000 Hz
C 20 Hz 20 kHz
D 20 kHz 20 000 kHz

23 Ultrasound has a number of uses in engineering and medicine.

What is ultrasound not used for?

A cleaning
B pre-natal scanning
C quality control
D sterilising medical equipment

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24 Which diagram shows the electric field around an isolated point positive charge?

A B

+ +

C D

+ +

25 An electric field is formed by two isolated, equal and opposite charges P and Q.

P + Y – Q

How does the field at X compare with the field at Y?

A It is stronger at X than at Y and is in the opposite direction.


B It is stronger at X than at Y and is in the same direction.
C It is weaker at X than at Y and is in the opposite direction.
D It is weaker at X than at Y and is in the same direction.

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26 A positively charged rod is held close to an insulated metal sphere. The sphere is earthed as
shown.

metal
sphere
+
+
rod +
+
+
+

earth

The earth connection is removed and then the rod is removed.

Which diagram shows the charges on the sphere after the rod is removed?

A B C D
+
+ + ++ –
– – ––
+ –
++ ++ –– ––

27 The voltage across a resistor of fixed resistance changes.

Which graph shows how the current in the resistor changes with the voltage?

A B C D
current current current current

0 0 0 0
0 voltage 0 voltage 0 voltage 0 voltage

28 A wire of length 0.50 m and cross-sectional area 1.0 × 10–6 m2 has a resistance of 0.75 Ω.

Another wire of the same material has a length of 2.0 m and a cross-sectional area of
0.50 × 10–6 m2.

What is the resistance of the longer wire?

A 0.094 Ω B 0.38 Ω C 1.5 Ω D 6.0 Ω

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29 A battery of electromotive force (e.m.f.) 10 V is connected to a resistor.

10 V

A charge of 2.0 coulombs passes through the resistor.

How much work is done as the charge passes through the resistor?

A 0.20 J B 2.0 J C 5.0 J D 20 J

30 Three identical resistors are joined in series to a cell.

P
V

V
Q

Voltmeter Q reads 8.0 V.

What is the reading on voltmeter P and what is the e.m.f. of the cell?

reading on P / V e.m.f. of cell / V

A 4.0 8.0
B 4.0 12
C 8.0 8.0
D 8.0 12

31 The power of an electrical heater is 3.0 kW.

The heater is switched on for a time of 2 hours and 30 minutes.

The cost of using the heater for this time is 120 c.

What is the cost of 1.0 kW h of electrical energy?

A 16 c B 17 c C 40 c D 48 c

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32 In a lighting circuit, the switch is placed in the live wire.

Why is this?

A A lamp in the circuit can be isolated from the supply.


B The fuse is in the neutral wire.
C The switch does not work in the neutral wire.
D Too much current flows in the earth wire.

33 A wire is placed in the magnetic field between the poles of a magnet, as shown.

N
wire

S
When there is a current in the wire, it experiences a force.

Which change increases the size of this force?

A reverse both the direction of the current and the poles of the magnet
B reverse just the direction of the current
C use a stronger magnet
D use a thicker wire with the same current

34 A 12 V lamp glows at normal brightness when connected to the secondary coil of a mains
transformer. The mains voltage is 240 V.

The transformer is 100% efficient and the primary coil has 200 turns.

How many turns are there on the secondary coil?

A 10 B 14 C 4000 D 580 000

35 Which row shows how the electrical energy produced by a power station is transmitted to distant
towns?

current voltage

A alternating low
B alternating very high
C direct low
D direct very high

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36 The diagram shows the trace on an oscilloscope screen. The first peak occurs when a pulse of
sound is emitted. The second, smaller peak is the echo received from a wall.

3.0 cm

8.0 cm

The trace moves across the screen in a time of 24 ms.

How long does it take for the sound to travel to the wall?

A 4.5 ms B 9.0 ms C 12 ms D 32 ms

37 The diagram shows a nuclear reaction.

+
+

+ +
+

The shaded particles are uncharged.

What are the products shown in this reaction?

A a helium atom and a neutron


B a helium atom and a proton
C a helium nucleus and a neutron
D a helium nucleus and a proton

38 The results of the alpha-particle scattering experiment gave evidence for which of the following?

A nuclear fusion
B radioactive decay
C the existence of isotopes
D the nuclear atom

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39 What does the alpha-radiation given off by radioactive nuclei consist of?

A fast-moving protons
B helium nuclei
C microwaves
D radio waves

40 One nucleus of a uranium isotope contains 238 nucleons of which 146 are neutrons.

Which is the nucleus of another isotope of uranium?

number of nucleons number of neutrons


in the nucleus in the nucleus

A 235 143
B 237 147
C 238 144
D 241 146

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge International Examinations


Cambridge Ordinary Level

PHYSICS 5054/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2018
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*6157908540*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, Centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 15 printed pages and 1 blank page.

IB18 11_5054_12/3RP
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1 An apple falls from a tree.

Which row describes the forces acting on the apple and the motion of the apple as it falls?

forces acting motion of


on the apple the apple

A balanced acceleration
B balanced constant speed
C unbalanced acceleration
D unbalanced constant speed

2 The table shows how the speeds of four bodies, A, B, C and D, change with time.

Which body has an acceleration that is not constant?

speed of A speed of B speed of C speed of D


time / s
m/ s m/s m/s m/s

0 0 0 0 5.5
1 1.0 2.0 3.0 6.5
2 3.0 4.0 6.0 7.5
3 6.0 6.0 9.0 8.5

3 An engine pulls a truck at constant speed on a level track.

engine
link
truck

track

The link between the engine and the truck breaks. The driving force on the engine remains
constant.

What effect does this have on the engine and on the truck?

engine truck

A speed stays constant slows down


B speeds up slows down
C speed stays constant stops immediately
D speeds up stops immediately

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4 On which car is there a resultant force?

A a car moving along a straight horizontal road at constant speed


B a car moving around a bend at constant speed
C a car moving uphill at constant velocity
D a car that is stationary

5 Which piece of apparatus may be used to compare the masses of two objects?

A balance
B manometer
C measuring cylinder
D micrometer

6 The graph shows how the extension of a spring changes with the masses suspended from it
when the spring is on planet X and when the spring is on planet Y.

planet X
50
extension
cm 40

30 planet Y

20

10

0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
mass / kg

Which conclusion can be drawn from these graphs?

A It is not possible to compare the gravitational field strengths on planets X and Y.


B The gravitational field strength on planet X is equal to the gravitational field strength on
planet Y.
C The gravitational field strength on planet X is one third of the gravitational field strength on
planet Y.
D The gravitational field strength on planet X is three times the gravitational field strength on
planet Y.

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7 Two cylinders P and Q are made of copper.

P Q

The height of P is twice the height of Q. The diameter of P is half the diameter of Q.

Which statement is correct?

A The density of cylinder P is four times that of cylinder Q.


B The density of cylinder P is twice that of cylinder Q.
C The density of cylinder P is equal to that of cylinder Q.
D The density of cylinder P is half that of cylinder Q.

8 A tennis ball is compressed. Work is done and energy is transferred to the molecules of air inside
the ball, and also to the rubber from which the ball is made.

Which row is correct?

kinetic energy of temperature


air molecules of ball
inside the ball

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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9 Paths are laid as shown between points X, Y and Z.

5.0 m 12.0 m

X Z
13.0 m

A person walks along the paths from X to Y to Z and then back to X.

What is the value of the total displacement and of the total distance travelled?

total displacement total distance travelled


/m /m

A 0 0
B 0 30
C 30 0
D 30 30

10 Which diagram shows the addition of the 4.0 N and the 3.0 N forces?

A B C D

5.0 N 5.0 N 5.0 N 5.0 N


3.0 N 3.0 N 3.0 N 3.0 N

4.0 N 4.0 N 4.0 N 4.0 N

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11 The diagram represents a geothermal power station.

cold steam and


water hot water

Which useful energy transformation is taking place?

A electrical energy → potential energy

B electrical energy → thermal energy

C potential energy → electrical energy

D thermal energy → electrical energy

12 A motor is used to lift a load 0.50 m vertically, as shown.

motor

0.50 m

load

40 N

The load weighs 40 N. The power of the motor is 20 W and the system is 25% efficient.

How long does it take to raise the load?

A 0.040 s B 0.25 s C 4.0 s D 40 s

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13 Different liquids are poured into four different containers.

In which container does the liquid produce the greatest pressure at the bottom of the container?

area of base density of liquid depth of liquid


/ cm2 g / cm3 / cm

A 10 1.3 50
B 20 0.80 80
C 40 1.0 60
D 50 0.92 75

14 A rectangular block of metal has weight 6.0 N and measures 3.0 cm × 4.0 cm × 5.0 cm.

What is the smallest pressure that it can exert when resting on a horizontal surface?

A 0.10 N / cm2 B 0.30 N / cm2 C 0.40 N / cm2 D 0.50 N / cm2

15 Air is trapped in a cylinder by a piston. The pressure of the air is p and the length of the air
column is 20 cm.

The piston is moved outwards until the length of the air column has increased by 40 cm.

The temperature of the air remains constant.

20 cm 40 cm

trapped air

What is the new air pressure?


p p
A B C 2p D 3p
2 3

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16 A long tube, full of mercury, is inverted in a small dish of mercury.

R
S

The mercury level in the tube falls, leaving a vacuum at the top.

When the atmospheric pressure decreases, which length decreases?

A PQ B PS C QR D RS

17 A cold bottle containing a drink is placed on a table on a warm day. Drops of water form on the
outside of the bottle.

Which process causes the drops to form?

A condensation
B conduction
C convection
D evaporation

18 Some gas is trapped in a closed container. The gas is cooled and the volume of the container is
kept constant.

What happens to the gas molecules?

A They collide with the walls more often.


B They contract.
C They get closer together.
D They move more slowly.

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19 A 100 g piece of solid lead at room temperature is heated. After 22 s, it has all become liquid.

The graph shows how its temperature varies with time.

400
temperature
/ °C

300

200

100

0
0 5 10 15 20 25

time / s

The power of the heater is 320 W.

Which expression gives the specific latent heat, in J / kg, of the lead?

7.0 × 320 22 × 320 7.0 × 320 22 × 320


A B C D
0.10 × 300 0.10 × 300 0.10 0.10

20 What increases when a liquid becomes a gas at its boiling point?

A the average kinetic energy of the molecules


B the molecular size
C the molecular spacing
D the total number of molecules

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21 Two liquid-in-glass thermometers are almost identical. They contain the same quantity of the
same liquid and the diameters of their capillary tubes are the same.

The only difference is that one thermometer is longer than the other.

Which row shows how the ranges and the sensitivities of the thermometers compare?

ranges sensitivities

A different different
B different same
C same different
D same same

22 Which statement about a water wave is correct?

A The amplitude is the vertical distance between a trough and a peak.


B The frequency is the number of troughs passing a point in one second added to the number
of peaks passing a point in one second.
C The speed is the horizontal distance travelled per second by a peak.
D The wavelength is the horizontal distance between a trough and a peak.

23 The diagram shows a thin converging lens of focal length f.

Where must an object be placed to produce a real image in the position shown?

A B C D

f f

image

24 White light is dispersed by a prism. Compared with blue light, the red light is

A slowed down less and refracted less.


B slowed down less and refracted more.
C slowed down more and refracted less.
D slowed down more and refracted more.

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25 A student reads the following in her physics book.

‘The incident angle is greater than 42° which is the critical angle for glass in air.’

What is the student reading about?

A focal length of a glass lens


B reflection in a plane mirror
C refraction as light enters glass
D total internal reflection

26 Which statement about radio waves is correct?

A Radio waves are sound waves.


B Radio waves are used to kill cancerous cells.
C Radio waves are used in television communications.
D Radio waves have frequencies higher than those of visible light.

27 Ultrasound is used to map the ocean floor.

During one survey, the depth of water is 1200 m. An ultrasound pulse is sent from the surface and
when it returns to the ship, another pulse is sent immediately. In any period of 8.0 s, five pulses
are sent down from the surface.

What is the speed of the ultrasound in water?

A 150 m / s B 300 m / s C 750 m / s D 1500 m / s

28 Which diagram shows the magnetic field pattern in the region between the N-poles of the two bar
magnets?

A B C D

N N N N N N N N

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29 Students are asked to describe an experiment to measure the resistance of a metallic conductor.

Which description is correct?

A Connect an ammeter in parallel and a voltmeter in series with the conductor then use R = I .
V
B Connect an ammeter in parallel and a voltmeter in series with the conductor then use R = V .
I
C Connect a voltmeter in parallel and an ammeter in series with the conductor then use R = I .
V
D Connect a voltmeter in parallel and an ammeter in series with the conductor then use R = V .
I

30 The diagram shows three 6.0 Ω resistors connected to give various total resistances.

What is the difference between the smallest total resistance and the largest total resistance?

A 7.0 Ω B 9.0 Ω C 12 Ω D 16 Ω

31 A wire of length 0.50 m and cross-sectional area 1.0 × 10–6 m2 has a resistance of 0.75 Ω.

Another wire of the same material has a length of 2.0 m and a cross-sectional area of
0.50 × 10–6 m2.

What is the resistance of the longer wire?

A 0.094 Ω B 0.38 Ω C 1.5 Ω D 6.0 Ω

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32 A defibrillator is a device that is used to give an electric shock to a patient’s heart.

It supplies an electric shock with energy 240 J at an average voltage of 2000 V for 10 ms.

What is the average current it supplies?

A 0.012 A B 1.2 A C 12 A D 120 A

33 In a lighting circuit, the switch is placed in the live wire.

Why is this?

A A lamp in the circuit can be isolated from the supply.


B The fuse is in the neutral wire.
C The switch does not work in the neutral wire.
D Too much current flows in the earth wire.

34 Which cable transmits electrical energy at the highest voltage?

A a cable from a bicycle dynamo to a lamp


B a household lighting cable
C a power cable between towns
D an electric cooker cable

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35 A thermistor and a light-dependent resistor are connected in series.

Which conditions give the least resistance?

cold dark

cold light

hot dark

hot light

36 An oscilloscope is connected to a d.c. power supply.

The time-base on the oscilloscope is switched off.

What is seen on the screen of the oscilloscope?

A B C D

37 What does the alpha-radiation given off by radioactive nuclei consist of?

A fast-moving protons
B helium nuclei
C microwaves
D radio waves

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38 Which statement about the reactor in a nuclear power station is correct?

A In the reactor, the main reaction occurs when protons hit uranium nuclei.
B The process taking place in the reactor is called nuclear fusion.
C The reactor produces energy to boil water and to produce steam.
D Carbon dioxide is the major waste product from the reactor.

39 The results of the alpha-particle scattering experiment gave evidence for which of the following?

A nuclear fusion
B radioactive decay
C the existence of isotopes
D the nuclear atom

40 Which statement about two different isotopes of the same element is correct?

A Both isotopes have the same number of electrons in a nucleus.


B Both isotopes have the same number of protons in a nucleus.
C Both isotopes have the same number of neutrons in a nucleus.
D Both isotopes have the same number of nucleons in a nucleus.

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BLANK PAGE

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
International Examinations Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download at
www.cie.org.uk after the live examination series.

Cambridge International Examinations is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of University of Cambridge Local
Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is itself a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge Assessment International Education


Cambridge Ordinary Level

PHYSICS 5054/11
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2019
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*5696420882*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 18 printed pages and 2 blank pages.

IB19 06_5054_11/3RP
© UCLES 2019 [Turn over

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1 Which quantities are both vectors?

A acceleration and length


B distance and velocity
C length and distance
D velocity and acceleration

2 Two forces X and Y act as shown.

Which diagram shows the resultant force R of X and Y?

A B

Y Y
R R

X X

C D

Y Y
R R

X X

3 Which reading is given to one tenth of a millimetre?

A 3.3 cm B 3.31 cm C 3.310 cm D 3.312 cm

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4 The magnitudes of three different electric charges are given below.

What is the correct order of size, from largest to smallest?

A 1 mC → 1 MC → 1 kC

B 1 MC → 1 mC → 1 kC

C 1 MC → 1 kC → 1 mC

D 1 kC → 1 mC → 1 MC

5 Four of the gravitational forces that act between bodies in the Solar System are listed below.

P the force on the Moon due to the Earth


Q the force on the Earth due to the Sun
R the force on the Earth due to the Moon
S the force on the Moon due to the Sun

Which two forces are a Newton’s third law pair (action and reaction)?

A P and Q B P and R C Q and S D R and S

6 A hot-air balloon is travelling at constant velocity and is at a constant height above the ground.

The diagram shows the only four forces acting on the balloon.

W Y

direction of travel

Which statement is correct?

A W and Y are equal, X and Z are equal.


B W and Y are equal, X is greater than Z.
C X and Z are equal, Y is greater than W.
D Y is greater than W, X is greater than Z.

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7 The diagram represents an object O moving from X to Y along a circular path at constant speed.

What is the direction of the resultant force on O in the position shown?

A B
Y

O C

8 Four objects of different masses are situated in places with different gravitational field strengths.

Which object has the greatest weight?

gravitatio nal field strength


mass / kg
N / kg

A 3.0 10.4
B 3.5 9.5
C 4.0 10.2
D 4.5 9.0

9 A uniform metre rule is balanced by a 4.0 N weight as shown.

10 cm

0 50 cm 100 cm

pivot

4.0 N W

What is the weight W of the metre rule?

A 1.0 N B 4.0 N C 16 N D 40 N

10 Which statement about centre of mass is correct?

A Objects with a centre of mass at the same height are less stable when the base is larger.
B Objects with a centre of mass at the same height are more stable when the base is larger.
C Objects with higher centres of mass and smaller bases are more stable.
D Objects with identical bases are more stable when the centre of mass is higher.

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11 A garden table weighs 60 N and has a top surface of area 2.0 m2. It is raining and the rain
produces a pressure of 4.0 N / m2 on the table.

Ignoring the pressure of the atmosphere, what is the force exerted by the table on the ground?

A 52 N B 58 N C 62 N D 68 N

12 The diagram shows a manometer containing mercury that is sealed at one end.

vacuum

What happens to the distance h when the manometer is taken higher up a mountain?

A It decreases, because atmospheric pressure decreases with height.


B It decreases, because atmospheric pressure increases with height.
C It increases, because atmospheric pressure decreases with height.
D It increases, because atmospheric pressure increases with height.

13 Some doctors measure blood pressure by using a mercury manometer. Blood pressure varies by
5.6 kPa as a heart beats.

The density of mercury is 14 000 kg / m3 and the gravitational field strength g is 10 N / kg.

What is the change in the height difference between the levels in the manometer during a
heartbeat?

A 40 mm B 80 mm C 400 mm D 800 mm

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14 The diagram shows a stationary fairground ride with four chairs of equal mass.

Which chair has the most gravitational potential energy?

D
B

15 The diagram shows a small car of mass 500 kg approaching a hill. It moves up the hill with
constant speed.

200 m
10 m

mass 500 kg

The gravitational field strength g is 10 N / kg.

Ignoring friction, how much work is done in moving the car up the hill?

A 5.0 × 103 J B 5.0 × 104 J C 1.0 × 105 J D 1.0 × 106 J

16 Which statement is correct?

A Infrared radiation cannot travel in a vacuum.


B Infrared radiation cannot travel in solids or in gases.
C Infrared radiation can only travel in a vacuum.
D Infrared radiation can travel in a vacuum and in gases.

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17 The diagram shows a set of apparatus used to determine the specific heat capacity of water.

thermometer

electrical heater
metal container

water

What does not affect the rate at which energy is lost to the surroundings?

A insulating the container


B placing a lid on the container
C polishing the outer surface of the container
D moving the thermometer closer to the heater

18 Two thermometers X and Y contain different liquids but are otherwise identical.

The thermometers are heated through the same temperature rise. The volume of liquid in
thermometer X increases by more than the volume of liquid in thermometer Y.

Which is the more sensitive thermometer and which is the thermometer with the larger range?

more sensitive thermometer with


thermometer the larger range

A X X
B X Y
C Y X
D Y Y

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19 The diagram shows two thermometers P and Q that are identical except that P contains less
mercury.

mercury

P Q

Which statement is correct?

A The lowest measureable temperature is the same on P and on Q.


B The range of P is equal to the range of Q.
C The scales on P and Q are both linear.
D The sensitivity of P is equal to the sensitivity of Q.

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20 The diagram shows air trapped in a flask by a small volume of water in a thin tube.

small volume
of water P
Q

air

When the flask is held in a student’s hands, the small volume of water first moves down from P to
Q, and then up to R.

Why does the small volume of water move like this?

A The flask contracts and then the air expands.


B The flask expands and then the air contracts.
C The flask expands and then the air expands less than the flask.
D The flask expands and then the air expands more than the flask.

21 Which statement about particles in a liquid is correct?

A They all have the same speed.


B They are stationary.
C They move at random.
D They vibrate about a fixed point.

22 A gas is enclosed in a container of fixed volume.

The gas gains heat energy from an external source.

What happens to the molecules of the gas?

A They expand.
B They move faster inside the container.
C They move further apart.
D They vibrate with greater frequency.

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23 Which waves are longitudinal?

A gamma rays
B light waves
C ultrasound waves
D X-rays

24 A ray of light strikes a plane mirror at an angle of incidence of 20°.

The angle of incidence is then increased by 5°.

What is the new angle between the incident ray and the reflected ray?

A 10° B 25° C 45° D 50°

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25 A parallel beam of light is incident on a thin diverging lens.

The focal length of the lens is FL, as shown in the diagram.

position of
diverging lens

F L

Which ray diagram shows the beam after it has passed through the lens?

A B

F L F L

C D

F L F L

26 The following lists show colours of the spectrum.

Which list shows these colours in order of increasing frequency?

A blue, violet, red, orange, yellow, green


B green, blue, violet, red, orange, yellow
C red, orange, violet, yellow, green, blue
D red, orange, yellow, green, blue, violet

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27 Four sound waves are displayed on the screen of a cathode-ray oscilloscope.

Which sound wave gets louder and has a pitch that decreases?

A B C D

28 A student investigates a permanent magnet by suspending paper clips from the magnet as
shown.

permanent magnet

N S

paper clip

Which statement is correct?

A Each paper clip has a S-pole at the top and a N-pole at the bottom when suspended from the
permanent magnet.
B If the paper clips are made of soft iron they become demagnetised when the permanent
magnet is removed.
C If the paper clips are made of steel they become demagnetised when the permanent magnet
is removed.
D More paper clips can be suspended from the N-pole.

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29 Two vertical wires pass at right-angles through a piece of card. There is a large current in each
wire in the direction shown.

current into card


plotting
compass

current out of card

A plotting compass is placed on the card.

Which diagram shows the direction in which the needle of the plotting compass points?

A B C D

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30 The diagram shows a car ignition switch and starter motor.

car ignition
switch

pivot
relay

battery
contacts

1A starter
motor

100 A

The ignition switch is in a circuit with long, thin wires. The starter motor is in a circuit with short,
thick wires.

What is the explanation for the choice of wires?

A Each circuit needs to contain the same total mass of wire.


B Thicker wires heat up more quickly when the relay is switched on.
C Thin wires have lower resistances.
D The ignition switch circuit carries a smaller current than the starter motor circuit.

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31 The diagram shows some white plastic beads in a clear plastic box.

clear plastic
white plastic box
beads

side view

The box is shaken and the beads rub against the box. The beads stick to the inside surface of the
box.

beads sticking
to inside surface

side view

Which row is a possible explanation for this?

box beads

A gains electrons no change of electrons


B loses electrons gain electrons
C no change of electrons lose electrons
D no change of electrons gain electrons

32 Which unit is the same as a volt?

A ampere / ohm
B ampere / watt
C ohm / ampere
D watt / ampere

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33 The voltage / current graph for a metal wire is shown.

voltage

0
0 current

What does the gradient of this graph represent?

A the charge passing through the wire


B the e.m.f. of the battery connected to the wire
C the energy produced in the wire
D the resistance of the wire

34 What is the symbol for a device that measures current?

A B C D

A V

35 The cable to an electric cooker contains a live wire, a neutral wire and an earth wire.

When the cooker is working correctly, in which wires are the currents equal?

A the live, the neutral and the earth


B the live and the earth only
C the neutral and the earth only
D the neutral and the live only

36 The coil of a simple motor lies between the poles of a permanent magnet. The coil rotates about
its axis when there is a current in it.

What decreases the frequency of rotation of the coil?

A increasing the number of turns in the coil


B reversing the current
C using a lower voltage supply
D using a stronger magnet

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37 A beam of electrons travels through a vacuum. The beam passes between the poles of a magnet
as shown.

S
electrons

N
What is the direction of the conventional current and what is the direction of the magnetic field?

direction of the direction of the


conventional current magnetic field

A → ↓
B → ↑
C ← ↓
D ← ↑

38 A teacher uses the circuit shown.

X Y
long transmission wires

The identical lamps X and Y are connected to a low voltage a.c. power supply by high resistance
transmission wires. Both lamps are switched on.

Lamp X is then switched off. Lamp Y stays switched on.

What happens to the voltage and the power supplied to lamp Y?

the voltage supplied the power supplied


to lamp Y to lamp Y

A decreases decreases
B decreases stays the same
C increases increases
D increases stays the same

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39 A car battery supplies a current in one direction. A current in the opposite direction recharges the
battery.

Which circuit recharges the battery, using an alternating current (a.c.) supply and a diode?

A B

+ +
a.c. a.c.
supply supply
– –

C D

+ +
a.c. a.c.
supply supply
– –

40 A neutral atom of boron contains 5 electrons and 5 protons.

The nucleon number (mass number) of the atom is 11.

How many neutrons are there in the atom?

A 1 B 5 C 6 D 11

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Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

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Cambridge Assessment International Education


Cambridge Ordinary Level

PHYSICS 5054/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2019
1 hour
Additional Materials: Multiple Choice Answer Sheet
Soft clean eraser
*3140712138*

Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

READ THESE INSTRUCTIONS FIRST

Write in soft pencil.


Do not use staples, paper clips, glue or correction fluid.
Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the Answer Sheet in the spaces provided
unless this has been done for you.
DO NOT WRITE IN ANY BARCODES.

There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions. For each question there are four possible
answers A, B, C and D.
Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the separate Answer Sheet.

Read the instructions on the Answer Sheet very carefully.

Each correct answer will score one mark. A mark will not be deducted for a wrong answer.
Any rough working should be done in this booklet.
Electronic calculators may be used.

This document consists of 16 printed pages.

IB19 06_5054_12/3RP
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1 Which reading is given to one tenth of a millimetre?

A 3.3 cm B 3.31 cm C 3.310 cm D 3.312 cm

2 A woman runs 2.0 km from X to Y in 20 minutes and then rests at Y for 10 minutes. She then
takes 10 minutes to run 1.6 km from Y to Z.

2.4 km
1.6 km

X 2.0 km Y

What is the size of her average velocity for the journey from X to Z?

A 0.060 km / minute
B 0.080 km / minute
C 0.090 km / minute
D 0.130 km / minute

3 A cyclist travelling in a straight line at 8.0 m / s accelerates to 12 m / s in a time of 6.0 s.

Which expression gives the cyclist’s acceleration?

A 6 B 8 C 12 − 6 D 12 − 8
12 − 8 12 − 6 8 6

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4 The diagram shows the distance–time graph for a moving object.

distance

0
0 time

What is the moving object?

A a ball thrown vertically upwards and falling back to the thrower


B a car, starting from rest, speeding up as it moves away from a traffic signal
C a rock dropped from a high cliff, falling into the sea below
D a train braking to a halt as it stops at a station

5 Four of the gravitational forces that act between bodies in the Solar System are listed below.

P the force on the Moon due to the Earth


Q the force on the Earth due to the Sun
R the force on the Earth due to the Moon
S the force on the Moon due to the Sun

Which two forces are a Newton’s third law pair (action and reaction)?

A P and Q B P and R C Q and S D R and S

6 A parachutist of mass 60 kg falls at a steady speed of 10 m / s. The gravitational field strength g is


10 N / kg.

What is the upward force acting on the parachutist?

A 0 B 6.0 N C 60 N D 600 N

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7 A force moves a box up a rough slope.

The diagram shows four forces acting on the box.

Which is the force due to friction on the box?

D
A

C
B

8 The mass of object P is greater than the mass of object Q.

The objects contain different amounts of matter and have a different resistance to change of
motion.

Which row is correct?

greater amount greater resistance to


of matter change of motion

A P P
B P Q
C Q P
D Q Q

9 Four objects of different masses are situated in places with different gravitational field strengths.

Which object has the greatest weight?

gravitatio nal field strength


mass / kg
N / kg

A 3.0 10.4
B 3.5 9.5
C 4.0 10.2
D 4.5 9.0

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10 A uniform metre rule is balanced by a 4.0 N weight as shown.

10 cm

0 50 cm 100 cm

pivot

4.0 N W

What is the weight W of the metre rule?

A 1.0 N B 4.0 N C 16 N D 40 N

11 A large hook sticks into a pencil. The hook and pencil are balanced on the edge of a table, as
shown.

Where is the centre of mass of the hook and pencil?

pencil
A

B large hook
table
C

12 The diagram shows a graph of load against extension for a material.

At which point is the limit of proportionality?

B
load
A D
C

0
0 extension

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13 A length of metal wire is made from a radioactive isotope of the metal.

The diagram shows masses suspended from the end of the wire.

wire

masses

The masses are removed from the wire.

Which property changes?

A half-life of the isotope


B length of the wire
C mass of the wire
D melting point of the metal

14 The diagram shows a manometer containing mercury that is sealed at one end.

vacuum

What happens to the distance h when the manometer is taken higher up a mountain?

A It decreases, because atmospheric pressure decreases with height.


B It decreases, because atmospheric pressure increases with height.
C It increases, because atmospheric pressure decreases with height.
D It increases, because atmospheric pressure increases with height.

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15 The pressure on the gas contained in a sealed syringe is slowly doubled. The volume of the gas
halves.

What must be true about the density and the temperature of the gas?

density temperature

A decreases increases
B increases decreases
C increases remains constant
D remains constant increases

16 An object is lifted.

Which expression gives the increase in gravitational potential energy of the object?

A mass multiplied by its velocity


B mass multiplied by its acceleration
C the rate at which work is done
D weight multiplied by the increase in height

17 The diagram shows a small car of mass 500 kg approaching a hill. It moves up the hill with
constant speed.

200 m
10 m

mass 500 kg

The gravitational field strength g is 10 N / kg.

Ignoring friction, how much work is done in moving the car up the hill?

A 5.0 × 103 J B 5.0 × 104 J C 1.0 × 105 J D 1.0 × 106 J

18 Which method of producing electricity does not use an a.c. generator?

A geothermal power station


B solar panels
C wave-energy generators
D wind turbine

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19 Three solar panels have a total area of 7.2 m2. Together, they produce 1.0 kW of power.

An area of 1.0 m2 of each panel receives 0.80 kJ of energy from the Sun in 1.0 s.

What is the efficiency of the solar panels?

A 11% B 17% C 52% D 80%

20 A student suggests three different definitions for power.

1 energy transferred per second

2 force × distance moved


3 rate of doing work

Which definitions are correct?

A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 3 only

21 Which statement is correct?

A Infrared radiation cannot travel in a vacuum.


B Infrared radiation cannot travel in solids or in gases.
C Infrared radiation can only travel in a vacuum.
D Infrared radiation can travel in a vacuum and in gases.

22 How is latent heat defined?

A the thermal energy absorbed or emitted by unit mass during a change of state without a
temperature change
B the thermal energy absorbed or emitted by unit mass during unit temperature change
C the thermal energy absorbed or emitted during a change of state without a temperature
change
D the thermal energy absorbed or emitted during unit temperature change

23 In low-pressure hydrogen, there are no forces between the molecules except during collisions
with each other.

Which statement describes the motion of a molecule between one collision and the next?

A It moves with changing speed and continuously changes direction.


B It moves with changing speed in a straight line.
C It moves with constant speed and continuously changes direction.
D It moves with constant speed in a straight line.

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24 A gas is enclosed in a container of fixed volume.

The gas gains heat energy from an external source.

What happens to the molecules of the gas?

A They expand.
B They move faster inside the container.
C They move further apart.
D They vibrate with greater frequency.

25 A wave on water travels towards a stationary boat.

wave
boat

As the wave passes, the boat starts to move up and down and gains kinetic energy from the
wave.

Which property of the wave changes as the wave passes the boat?

A amplitude
B frequency
C speed
D wavelength

26 Which waves are longitudinal?

A gamma rays
B light waves
C ultrasound waves
D X-rays

27 An object is placed at a distance from a converging lens that is equal to twice the focal length of
the lens.

Which statement about the image is correct?

A It is enlarged.
B It is inverted.
C It is on the same side of the lens as the object.
D It is virtual.

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28 The lens in the diagram produces an image I of the object O.

I
O
F F

Why is this not the ray diagram for a photographic enlarger?

A The image is magnified.


B The image is virtual.
C The lens is a converging lens.
D The lens is too thin.

29 What is the approximate range of audible frequencies for a healthy human ear?

A 2.0 Hz to 2.0 kHz


B 20 Hz to 2.0 kHz
C 20 Hz to 20 kHz
D 200 Hz to 200 kHz

30 The speed of sound in air is ca, the speed of sound in water is cw and the speed of sound in ice is
c i.

Which relationship is correct?

A ca > ci B ca > cw C ci > cw D cw = ca

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31 One end of each of two bars is marked with an X or a Y, as shown.

X Y

bar 1 bar 2

End X of bar 1 is brought close to the N-pole and then to the S-pole of a magnet.

End Y of bar 2 is brought close to the N-pole and then to the S-pole of the magnet.

The table shows what happens.

end X of bar 1 end Y of bar 2

N-pole of magnet attracted attracted


S-pole of magnet attracted repelled

What materials are bar 1 and bar 2 made from?

bar 1 bar 2

A copper iron
B iron steel
C steel copper
D steel iron

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32 The diagram shows a car ignition switch and starter motor.

car ignition
switch

pivot
relay

battery
contacts

1A starter
motor

100 A

The ignition switch is in a circuit with long, thin wires. The starter motor is in a circuit with short,
thick wires.

What is the explanation for the choice of wires?

A Each circuit needs to contain the same total mass of wire.


B Thicker wires heat up more quickly when the relay is switched on.
C Thin wires have lower resistances.
D The ignition switch circuit carries a smaller current than the starter motor circuit.

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33 The diagram shows a simple circuit.

variable
resistor

M
motor

What happens when the resistance of the variable resistor is increased?

A The lamps are dimmer and the motor rotates more quickly.
B The lamps are dimmer and the motor rotates more slowly.
C The lamps have the same brightness and the motor rotates more quickly.
D The lamps have the same brightness and the motor rotates more slowly.

34 The diagram shows a simple electrical circuit.

I
R

Which statement cannot be correct?

A The current I is 2 A.
B The e.m.f. E is 12 J.
C The p.d. V (across the resistor) is 10 V.

D The resistance R is 5 Ω.

35 The cable to an electric cooker contains a live wire, a neutral wire and an earth wire.

When the cooker is working correctly, in which wires are the currents equal?

A the live, the neutral and the earth


B the live and the earth only
C the neutral and the earth only
D the neutral and the live only

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36 The manufacturer of an electrical heater states that only one heater must be connected to the
mains wiring through any fuse.

The current in the circuit with only one heater is 9 A. The fuse rating is 10 A.

Despite the warning, a second identical heater is added, as shown. When the switch is closed the
fuse blows.

fuse
10 A

to mains
heater heater
circuit

The fuse is replaced with a 20 A fuse.

What happens when the switch is closed?

A Each heater only receives half the correct current.


B Each heater receives twice the correct current.
C The circuit wiring connecting the heaters to the mains may overheat.
D The fuse melts when the heaters are switched on.

37 A coil is rotating in a magnetic field. The coil is connected to an oscilloscope. The diagram shows
the trace on the screen of the oscilloscope.

The coil now speeds up and rotates twice as fast.

Which diagram shows the new trace?

A B C D

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38 A teacher uses the circuit shown.

X Y
long transmission wires

The identical lamps X and Y are connected to a low voltage a.c. power supply by high resistance
transmission wires. Both lamps are switched on.

Lamp X is then switched off. Lamp Y stays switched on.

What happens to the voltage and the power supplied to lamp Y?

the voltage supplied the power supplied


to lamp Y to lamp Y

A decreases decreases
B decreases stays the same
C increases increases
D increases stays the same

39 A car battery supplies a current in one direction. A current in the opposite direction recharges the
battery.

Which circuit recharges the battery, using an alternating current (a.c.) supply and a diode?

A B

+ +
a.c. a.c.
supply supply
– –

C D

+ +
a.c. a.c.
supply supply
– –

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40 A proton has charge q and mass m.

What is the charge and what is the mass of an alpha-particle?

charge mass

A q 2m
B 2q 2m
C 2q 4m
D 4q 2m

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of the Cambridge Assessment Group. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of
Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which itself is a department of the University of Cambridge.

https://t.me/igcse_files
© UCLES 2019 309 5054/12/M/J/19

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