Last Year Paper Mains (2019)
Last Year Paper Mains (2019)
Last Year Paper Mains (2019)
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Physics
1. The density of a material in the shape of a cube is determines by measuring three sides of
the cube and its mass. If the relative errors in measuring the mass and length are respectively
1.5% and 1%, the maximum error in determining the density is :
(1) 2.5%
(2) 3.5%
(3) 4.5%
(4) 6%
Solution:
M
L3
M 3L
L
1.5 31
4.5%
Hence the Solution is Option (3)
2. All the graphs below are intended to represent the same motion. One of them does it
incorrectly. Pick it up.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution:
Set: A www.vedantu.com 1
Study Materials
NCERT Solutions for Class 6 to 12 (Math & Science)
Revision Notes for Class 6 to 12 (Math & Science)
RD Sharma Solutions for Class 6 to 12 Mathematics
RS Aggarwal Solutions for Class 6, 7 & 10 Mathematics
Important Questions for Class 6 to 12 (Math & Science)
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9, 10 & 12 (Math &
Science)
Important Formula for Class 6 to 12 Math
CBSE Syllabus for Class 6 to 12
Lakhmir Singh Solutions for Class 9 & 10
Previous Year Question Paper
CBSE Class 12 Previous Year Question Paper
CBSE Class 10 Previous Year Question Paper
JEE Main & Advanced Question Paper
NEET Previous Year Question Paper
(1) 18.3 g
(2) 27.3 kg
(3) 43.3 kg
(4) 10.3 kg
Solution:
4. A particle is moving in a circular path of radius a under the action of an attractive potential
k
U 2 . Its total energy is :
2r
k
(1) 2
4a
k
(2)
2a2
(3) Zero
3 k
(4)
2 a2
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JEE Mains 2018
Solution:
K
u
2r 2
du K
But F 3
dr r
‘ – ‘ sign of force implies attractive force
So,
K mv 2
r3 r
2
mv K
2 EK
2 2r
K K
UT 2 2
2r 2r
0
Hence the Solution is Option (3)
5. In a collinear collision, a particle with an initial speed 0 strikes a stationary particle of the
same mass. If the final total kinetic energy is 50% greater than the original kinetic energy, the
magnitude of the relative velocity between the two particles, after collision, is :
0
(1)
4
(2) 20
(3) 0
2
0
(4)
2
Solution:
By cons of linear momentum,
mv0 mv1 mv2
v0 v1 v2 ..... i
1 2 1 2 1 2
mv1 mv2 mv0
Also, 2 100
2 2
1 2
mv
2 0
50
1
v12 v22 v02 v02
2
3
v12 v22 v02
2
Using (i)
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3
v0 v2 v22 v02
2
2
1
v22 2v0v2 v12 v02
2
1
2v22 2v0 v2 v02 0
2
2v0 4v02 4v02
v2
4
v 2v0
0
2
v 2v0
If v2 0
2
v 2v0
v1 0
2
So relative velocity :
v2 v1 2v0
Hence the Solution is Option (2)
6. Seven identical circular planar disks, each of mass M and radius R are welded
symmetrically as shown. The moment of inertia of the arrangement about the axis normal to
the plane and passing through the point P is :
19
(1) MR2
2
55
(2) MR2
2
73
(3) MR2
2
181
(4) MR2
2
Solution:
Moment of inertia of each disc about the given axis is,
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1 3
I1 MR 2 MR 2 MR 2
2 2
1 19
I 4 MR 2 M 3R MR 2
2
2 2
1 51
I 7 MR 2 M 3R MR 2
2
2 2
I net I1 I 2 I 3 I 4 I 5 I 6 I 7
I net I1 I 4 I 7
73
I net MR 2
2
Hence the Solution is Option (3)
R
7. From a uniform circular disc of radius R and mass 9 M, a small disc of radius is
3
removed as shown in the figure. The moment of inertia of the remaining disc about an axis
perpendicular to the plane of the disc and passing through centre of disc is :
(1) 4MR2
40
(2) MR2
9
(3) 10MR2
37
(4) MR2
9
Solution:
Mass of disc = Volume x Density
9M = A T (Area x thickness x density)
9M = R2 t ......... i
For the disc which is cut off.
2
R
M ' t ...... ii
3
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(i)Divided by (ii)
9M
9M ' M
M
Moment of inertia of complete disc about an axis passes through O.
1
I1 9M R2
2
18
4MR 2
Hence the Solution is Option (1)
8. A particle is moving with a uniform speed in a circular orbit of radius R in a central force
inversely proportional to the nth power of R. If the period of rotation of the particle is T, then :
(1) T R3/2 for any n.
n
1
(2) T R 2
(3) T R n1/2
(4) T Rn/2
Solution:
F KR n 1
mv 2 K
So, n
R R
K 1
v n 1 /2
M R
2 R 2 R n 1
Now, T R 2
v K
M
T R n 1 /2
Hence the Solution is Option (3)
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liquid, covering entire cross section of cylindrical container. When a mass m is placed on the
surface of the piston to compress the liquid, the fractional decrement in the radius of the
dr
sphere, is :
r
Ka
(1)
mg
Ka
(2)
3mg
mg
(3)
3Ka
mg
(4)
Ka
P
K
V / V
4
For sphere, V r 3
3
V 3r
V r
r P Mg
r 3K 3Ka
Hence the Solution is Option (3)
10. Two moles of an ideal monoatomic gas occupies a volume V at 270 C. The gas expands
adiabatically to a volume 2 V. Calculate (a) the final temperature of the gas and (b) change in
its internal energy.
(1) (a) 189 K (b) 2.7 kJ
(2) (a) 195 K (b) -2.7 kJ
(3) (a) 189 K (b) -2.7 kJ
(4) (a) 195 K (b) 2.7 kJ
Solution:
Initially n = 2, v, T= 300k
Finally Vd = 2v
Gas is monoatomic, So, r = 5/3
So,
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nR Ti T f
dw
r 1
r 1
TV
i i T f V fr 1
2/3
1
Ti Tf
2
300 300
Tf 189k
41/3 1.6
Since gas undergoes expensed.
So, d w 0
& d q du d w
du 0.
Hence the Solution is Option (3)
11. The mass of a hydrogen molecule is 3.32 1027 kg. If 1023 hydrogen molecules strike, per
second, a fixed wall of area 2 cm2 at an angle of 450 to the normal, and rebound elastically
with a speed of 103 m/s, then the pressure on the wall is nearly :
(1) 2.35 103 N / m2
(2) 4.70 103 N / m2
(3) 2.35 102 N / m2
(4) 4.70 102 N / m2
Solution:
Change in momentum normal to the wall
So, Force
2mv cos 45 N o
t
1
2 3.32 1027 103 1023
Pr essure 2
2 104 1
P 2.35 103 N / m2
Hence the Solution is Option (1)
12. A silver atom in a solid oscillates in simple harmonic motion in some direction with a
frequency of 1012/sec. What is the force constant of the bonds connecting one atom with the
other ? (Mole wt. of silver = 108 and Avagadro number = 6.02 x 10 23 gm mole-1)
(1) 6.44 N/m
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Solution:
M
T 2
K
4 M
2
K
T2
108 103
4
2
6.023 1023
10
12 2
10.8
4 2 102
6.023
7.1N / m
Hence the Solution is Option (2)
13. A granite rod of 60 cm length is clamped at its middle point and is set into longitudinal
vibrations. The density of granite is 2.7 103 kg/m3 and its young’s modulus is 9.27 1010 Pa.
What will be the fundamental frequency of the longitudinal vibrations ?
(1) 5 kHz
(2) 2.5 kHz
(3) 10 kHz
(4) 7.5 kHz
Solution:
Since rod is clamped at centre. So centre it behaves as node & end it behave as antinode.
So,
30cm
4
1.2m
9.27 1010
y
2.7 103
5.85 103 m / s
5.85 103
So,
1.2
5kHz
Hence the Solution is Option (1)
14. Three concentric metal shells A, B and C of respective radii a, b and c (a < b < c) have
surface charge densities , and respectively. The potential of shell B is :
a 2 b2
(1) c
0 a
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a 2 b2
(2) c
0 b
b2 c 2
(3) a
0 b
b2 c 2
(4) a
0 c
Solution:
Charge in sphere
A qA 4 a 2
B qB 4 b2
C qc 4 c 2
Potential of B:
qA qb qc
4 0 b 4 0 b 4 0 c
a2 b 2 c 2
0 b 0 b 0 c
a2
b c
0 b
a b
2 2
c
0 b
Hence the Solution is Option (2)
Solution:
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qi C0V
90 1012 20
1800 1012
1.8nC
5
q f 1.8nC
3
3nC
So, qind 3nC 1.8nC
1.2nC
Hence the Solution is Option (1)
16. In an a.c. circuit, the instantaneous e.m.f. and current are given by e = 100 sin 30 t
i 20sin 30t . In one cycle of a.c., the average power consumed by the circuit and the
4
wattless current are, respectively :
(1) 50, 10
1000
(2) ,10
2
50
(3) ,0
2
(4) 50, 0
Solution:
Pqv rms I rms cos
100 20
cos
2 2 4
2000
watt
2 2
1000
w
2
I w I rms cos
20 1
2 2
10 A
Hence the Solution is Option (2)
17. Two batteries with e.m.f. 12 V and 13 V are connected in parallel across a load resistor of
10𝛺. The internal resistances of the two batteries are 1𝛺 and 2𝛺 respectively. The voltage
across the load lies between :
(1) 11.6 V and 11.7 V
(2) 11.5 V and 11.6 V
(3) 11.4 V and 11.5 V
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Solution:
Total
1 2
emf 1
r r2
1 1
r1 r2
12 13
1 2
1 1
1 2
37
Volt
3
So, V Ir
r
Rr
11.53V
Hence the Solution is Option (2)
18. An electron, a proton and an alpha particle having the same kinetic energy are moving in
circular orbits of radii re, rp, r𝛼 respectively in a uniform magnetic field B. The relation
between re, rp, r𝛼 is :
(1) re > rp = r𝛼
(2) re < rp = r𝛼
(3) re < rp < r𝛼
(4) re < r𝛼 < rp
Solution:
For change moving in circular orbit is a uniform magnetic field,
mv 2mEK
r
Bq Bq
B2q2r 2
EK
2m
Since all particles came same EK & B,
So,
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q2r 2
Cons tan t
2m
qe q p & me m p
re rp
For proton & -particle
12 rp2 22 r2
2 1 2 4
rp r
Hence the Solution is Option (2)
19. The dipole moment of a circular loop carrying a current I, is m and the magnetic field at
the centre of the loop is B1. When the dipole moment is doubled by keeping the current
B
constant, the magnetic field at the centre of the loop is B2. The ratio 1 is :
B2
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 2
1
(4)
2
Solution:
Magnetic moment, M IA I r and magnetic field at the centre of circle
2
I
B 0
2R
M f I rf2 2M
M i I ri 2 M
rf
2
ri
B1 rf
So, 2
B2 ri
Hence the Solution is Option (3)
1
20. For an RLC circuit driven with voltage of amplitude m and frequency 0 the
LC
current exhibits resonance. The quality factor, Q is given by :
0 L
(1)
R
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0 R
(2)
L
R
(3)
0C
CR
(4)
0
Solution:
Qfactor = (voltage across L or C at Resonance)/(voltage across R)
I X L 0 L
=
I R R
Hence the Solution is Option (1)
z
21. An EM wave from air enters a medium. The electric fields are E1 E01xˆ cos 2 v t
c
in air and E2 E02 xˆ cos k 2z ct in medium, where the wave number k and frequency 𝜐
refer to their values in air. The medium is non-magnetic. If r1 and r2 refer to relative
permitivities of air and medium respectively, which of the following options is correct ?
(1) r1 4
r2
r1
(2) 2
r2
r1 1
(3)
r2 4
r1 1
(4)
r2 2
Solution:
z
E1 E01xˆ cos 2 v t
c
E2 E02 xˆ cos k 2z ct
Where
2 1
k &
c
So volume in medium 1 = C
Volume in medium 2 = C/2
1
C
0r1
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C 1
2 0r2
r2
2
r1
r1 1
r2 4
Hence the Solution is Option (3)
22. Unpolarized light of intensity I passes through an ideal polarizer A. Another identical
1
polarizer B is placed behind A. The intensity of light beyond B is found to be .Now
2
another identical polarizer C is placed between A and B. The intensity beyond B is now
1
found to be . The angle between polarizer A and C is :
8
0
(1) 0
(2) 300
(3) 450
(4) 600
Solution:
I
Unpolarized light of intensity I, when passed through a polarizer A, its intensity becomes
2
I
Since intensity of light emerging from polarizer B =
2
So, A & B are parallel placed.
Let, C makes angle with A.
So,
I I
cos 4
2 8
1
cos 2
2
1
cos
2
45
23. The angular width of the central maximum in a single slit diffraction pattern is 60 0. The
width of the slit is 1 𝜇m. The slit is illuminated by monochromatic plane waves. If another
slit of same width is made near it, Young’s fringes can be observed on a screen placed at a
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distance of 50 cm from the slits. If the observed fringe width is 1 cm, what is slit separation
distance ?
(i.e. distance between the centres of each slit.)
(1) 25𝜇m
(2) 50𝜇m
(3) 75𝜇m
(4) 100 𝜇m
Solution:
2
600
d 180
1
m
3 2
In Ydse,
D
B' 106
d'
1 1
10
2 2 2 2
106
d'
d' 2
106
10 12
26.16 25 m
Hence the Solution is Option (1)
24. An electron from various excited states of hydrogen atom emit radiation to come to the
ground state. Let n,g be the de Broglie wavelength of the electron in the nth state and the
ground state respectively. Let n be the wavelength of the emitted photon in the transition
from the nth state to the ground state. For large n, (A, B are constants)
B
(1) n A 2
n
(2) n A Bn
(3) 2n A Bn2
(4) 2n
Solution:
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h h
mv 2MEk
h2
Ek
2m 2
For emitted photon,
En E1
hc
n
h2 h2 hc
2mn 2mg n
2 2
hc h2 h 2
K K
n 2mn2 2mg2
2 n A Bn2
Hence the Solution is Option (3)
25. If the series limit frequency of the Lyman series is 𝜐L , then the series limit frequency of
the Pfund series is :
(1) 25vL
(2) 16vL
v
(3) L
16
v
(4) L
25
Solution:
1 1 1
R 2 2 v
n1 n2
1 1
R 2 vl & R 2 v p
1 5
v 1
l
v p 25
vl
vp
25
Hence the Solution is Option (4)
26. It is found that if a neutron suffers an elastic collinear collision with deuterium at rest,
fractional loss of its energy is pd; while for its similar collision with carbon nucleus at rest,
fractional loss of energy is pc. The values of pd and pc are respectively :
(1) (.89, .28)
(2) (.28, .89)
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(3) (0, 0)
(4) (0, 1)
Solution: U1 , U2=0
Since collision is elastic,
u M M 2 2 M 1M 2
1 1 1
M1 M 2
But , u2 0
1 M1 M 2
............. i
u1 M1 M 2
Fractional loss in kinetic energy of neutron,
1 1
M 1u12 M 112
2 2
1
M 1u12
2
2
1 1
u1
So, A.TQ;
1 2 8
2
Pd 1 0.89
1 2 9
1 12
2
Pc 1 0.28
1 12
Hence the Solution is Option (1)
27. The reading of the ammeter for a silicon diode in the given circuit is :
(1) 0
(2) 15 mA
(3) 11.5 mA
(4) 13.5 mA
Solution:
The given diode is a forward bias & hence behaves as a perfect conductor i.e., it offers zero
resistance.
So,
V 3
I 1102 A
R 200
15mA
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Solution:
Required number of channels
10
10 109
100
5 103
2 105
Hence the Solution is Option (3)
29. In a potentiometer experiment, it is found that no current passes through the galvanometer
when the terminals of the cell are connected across 52 cm of the potentiometer wire. If the
cell is shunted by a resistance of 5𝛺, a balance is found when the cell is connected across 40
cm of the wire. Find the internal resistance of the cell.
(1) 1𝛺
(2) 1.5𝛺
(3) 2𝛺
(4) 2.5𝛺
Solution:
l
r 1 1 R
l2
52
1 5
40
12 5
40
1.5
Hence the Solution is Option (2)
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30. On interchanging the resistances, the balane point of a meter bridge shifts to the left by 10
cm. The resistance of their series combinations is 1 k𝛺. How much was the resistance on the
left slot before interchanging the resistances ?
(1) 990𝛺
(2) 505𝛺
(3) 550𝛺
(4) 910𝛺
Solution:
P l
Q 100 l
Q l 10
&
P 110 l
l 110 l
100 l l 10
l 2 10l 11000 100l 100l l 2
200l 11000
l 55cm
l 100 l
1000
A A
10
A
l
So, 10 55
A
550
Hence the Solution is Option (3)
Chemistry
31. The ratio of mass present of C and H of an organic compound (CXHYOZ) is 6 : 1. If one
molecule of the above compound (CXHYOZ) contains half as much oxygen as required to burn
one molecule of compound CXHY completely to CO2 and H2O. The empirical formula of
compound CXHYOZ is :
(1) C3H6O3
(2) C2H4O
(3) C3H4O2
(4) C2H4O3
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Solution:
CxHyOz – Organic compound
mass of C
6 :1
mass of H
mass of C / 12 6 1
:
mass of H / 1 12 2
No.of moles of C 1
:1
No.of moles of H 2
moles of C
Cx H yOz
Moles of H
y y
Cx H y x o2 xco2 H 2o
x 2
y x y
cx hy oz x o2 x co 2 H 2O
4 2 x
1 y y z
x x
2 4 4 2
x y y
2x Z
4 2
y
Z x
4
4
c2 h4o3 Z 2 3
4
Hence the answer is option (4).
32. Which type of ‘defect’ has the presence of cations in the interstitial sites ?
(1) Schottky defect
(2) Vacancy defect
(3) Frenkel defect
(4) Metal deficiency defect
Solution:
Frankel defect has the presence of cation in interstitial site.
Hence the answer is option (3).
33. According to molecular orbital theory, which of the following will not be a viable
molecule ?
(1) H22
(2) He2
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(3) H 2
(4) H22
Solution :
*
H22 electronic configuration 1S 2 , 1S 2
1 1
Number of electrons = 4 ; Bo Nb Na 2 2 0
2 2
Molecule does not exist.
Hence the answer is option (4).
34. Which of the following lines correctly show the temperature dependence of equilibrium
constant K, for an exothermic reaction?
(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) C and D
(4) A and D
Solution:
H o S o
ln K Re lationbetween Rate cons tan t
RT R
For exothermic reaction H = -ve.
H o
Slope 0
R
Hence the answer is option (1).
35. The combustion of benzene (1) gives CO2(g) and H2O(I). Given that heat of combustion
of benzene at constant volume is -3263.9 kJ mol-1 at 250 C; heat of combustion (in kJ mol-1)
of benzene at constant pressure will be :
(1) 4152.6
(2) -452.46
(3) 3260
(4) -3267.6
Solution:
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15
C6 H 6 l O2 g 6CO2 3H 2O l
2
ng 6 7.5 1.5
H U ngRT
3263.9 1.5 8.134 103 298
3267.6
36. For 1 molal aqueous solution of the following compounds, which one will show the
highest freezing point?
(1) Co H 2O 6 Cl3
(2) Co H2O5 Cl Cl2 .H2O
Solution:
Tf i kf m
Tf i
1
Tf
i
Co H2O3 Cl3 .3H2O ; i = 1
Co H 2O 6 Cl3 ; i = 2
Co H2O5 Cl Cl2 .H2O ; i = 4
Co H2O 4 Cl2 Cl.2H 2O ; i = 3
Hence the answer is option (4).
37. An aqueous solution contains 0.10 M H2S and 0.20 M HCl. If the equilibrium constants
for the formation of HS- from H2S is 1.0 x 10-7 and that of S2- from HS- ions is 1.2 x 10-13 then
the concentration of S2- ions in aqueous solution is :
(1) 5 x 10-8
(2) 3 x 10-20
(3) 6 x 10-21
(4) 5 x 10-19
Solution:
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H 2 S 2 H S 2
ka1 .ka2
0.1 x 0.2 x
0.2
52
2
ka1.ka2
0.1
2
1.2 10 0.1
S 2
0.04
S 2 3 1020
Hence the answer is option (2).
Solution:
KS p BaSO4 1010
QS p KS p
Ba SO 10
2 2
4
10
50
Ba 2 1010
500
Ba 2 109
m1v1 m2 v2
m 450 109 500
500
m 109
450
m 1.1109
Hence the answer is option (3).
Solution:
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r k p m = order of reaction
m
m
95
1 k 363 ............1
100
67
0.5 k 362 ........... 2
100
equation 1 / Equation 2
m
1 95
0.5 67
m
95
2
67
2 0.4
m
log 2 m log1.4
0.3010
m
log1.4
0.3010
m
0.15
m2
Hence the answer is option (1).
40. How long (approximate) should water be electrolysed by passing through 100 amperes
current so that the oxygen released can completely burn 27.66 g of diborane?
(Atomic weight of B = 10.8 u)
(1) 6.4 hours
(2) 0.8 hours
(3) 3.2 hours
(4) 1.6 hours
Solution:
Cathode: H2O 2e H 2 2OH
Re duction
Anode:
2 H 2O 4 H O2 4e oxidation
B2 H 6 3O2 B2O3 3H 2O
27.66 g
27.66
n 1
276
Moles of O2 required = 3
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Gram equivalent of O2 = 3 4 12
Gram equivalent
it
w
96500
100 t
12
96500
12 965
t sec
60 60
t 3.2hr
Hence the answer is option (3).
(4) 3 Ca OH 2 .CaF2
Solution:
3Ca3 PO4 2 .CaF2
Hence the answer is option (3).
Solution:
KCl is an ionic compound. It cannot from covalent bond. Elements of s – block & p – block
combine to form ionic compounds.
Hence the answer is option (3).
Set: A www.vedantu.com 26
JEE Mains 2018
Solution:
BCl3 and AlCl3 are electron deficient compounds. Boron and aluminium has 6 electrons in
their valence shell in BCl3 & AlCl3,. PH3, SiCl4 have 8 electrons in their valence shell. They
are not Lewis acids.
Hence the answer is option (4).
Solution:
The total number of lone pair of electrons is I3 is 9
45. Which of the following salts is the most basic in aqueous solution?
(1) Al(CN)3
(2) CH3COOK
(3) FeCl3
(4) Pb(CH3COO)2
4 3
46. Hydrogen peroxide oxides Fe CN 6 to Fe CN 6 in acidic medium but reduces
3 4
Fe CN 6 to Fe CN 6 in alkaline medium. The other products formed are,
respectively:
(1) H 2O O2 and H2O
(2) H 2O O2 and H2O OH
(3) H2O and H 2O O2
(4) H2O and H2O OH
Set: A www.vedantu.com 27
JEE Mains 2018
Solution:
4 3
Fe 2 CN H 2O2
Fe CN 6 H 2O
3
6 Oxidizing agent
reducing agent
oxidi sin g agent H 2O21 H 2O2 Re duction
Re ducing agent H2O21 O2 oxidation
3 4
Fe 3 CN H 2O2
Fe 2 CN O2
6 Oxidizing agent 6
oxiding agent
Hence the answer is option (3).
47. The oxidation states of Cr in Cr H2O6 Cl3 , Cr C6 H6 2 , and
K2 Cr CN 2 O 2 O2 NH3 respectively are :
(1) +3, +4, and +6
(2) +3, +2, and +4
(3) +3, 0, and +6
(4) +3, 0, and +4
Solution:
The Oxidation state of Cr in
Cr H 2O 6 Cl3
x 6 0 3 0 .
x 3
Cr C6 H 6 2
x 2 0 0
x0
K 2 Cr CN 2 O 2 O2 NH 3
2 x 2 1 2 2 1 2 0
6
x 6
Hence the answer is option (3).
48. The compound that does not produce nitrogen gas by the thermal decomposition is :
(1) Ba(N3)2
(2) (NH4)2Cr2O7
Set: A www.vedantu.com 28
JEE Mains 2018
(3) NH4NO2
(4) (NH4)2SO4
Solution:
NH 4 NO2 N 2 H 2O
NH 4 2 Cr2O7
N 2 H 2O Cr2O3
Ba N 3 2
Ba N 2
Hence the answer is option (4).
49. When metal ‘M’ is treated with NaOH, a white gelatinous precipitate ‘X’ is obtained,
which is soluble in excess of NaOH. Compound ‘X’ when heated strongly gives an oxide
which is used in chromatography as an adsorbent. The metal ‘M’ is :
(1) Zn
(2) Ca
(3) Al
(4) Fe
Solution:
The Gelatinous precipitate formed in Al(OH)3 ; Al(OH)3 on strong heating gives Al2O3 which
is used in chromatography as an adsorbent. So the metal is Al.
Hence the answer is option (3).
Solution:
Set: A www.vedantu.com 29
JEE Mains 2018
Solution:
C6 H12O6
HI
CH3 CH 2 4 CH3
Glu cos e n hexane
Hence the answer is option (1).
Solution:
Trans alkenes are formed by the reaction of alkynes with Na/liq. NH3
(birch Reduction)
Set: A www.vedantu.com 30
JEE Mains 2018
53. Which of the following compounds will be suitable for Kjeldahl’s method for nitrogen
estimation?
Solution:
Kjeldahl’s method:-
54. Phenol on treatment with CO2 in the presence of NaOH followed by acidification
produces compound X as the major product. X on treatment with (CH3CO)2O in the presence
of catalytic amount of H2SO4 produces :
(1)
(2)
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JEE Mains 2018
(3)
(4)
Solution:
55. An alkali is titrated against an acid with methyl orange as indicator, which of the
following is a correct combination?
Solution:
When a weak base is titrated with string acid with methyl orange as an indicator then at end
point
The colour change will be yellow to pinkish red.
Hence the answer is option (3).
Set: A www.vedantu.com 32
JEE Mains 2018
56. The predominant form of histamine present in human blood is (pk a , Histidine = 6.0)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution:
57. Phenol reacts with methyl chloroformate in the presence of NaOH to form product A.
A reacts with Br2 to form product B. A and B are respectively :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Set: A www.vedantu.com 33
JEE Mains 2018
Solution:
(b)
(c)
(d)
Solution:
The lone pair on the nitrogen atom is in conjugation with the bond hence it can involve in
resonance.
during resonance the other nitrogen attains a negative charge.
Hence ‘c’ is a strong base.
Set: A www.vedantu.com 34
JEE Mains 2018
The +I group of CH3 and C2H5 makes ‘d’ more basic but less basic than ‘c’
The nitrogen involves sp2 hybridization which is highly electro negative have least basic.
Hence the answer is option (4).
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution:
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JEE Mains 2018
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Solution:
NaOMe
MeOH
E2 reaction
Set: A www.vedantu.com 36
JEE Mains 2018
Mathematics
Solution:
2 | x 3| x
x 6 6 0
Case-I x 3
2
x 3 x 6 x 6 0 x 4 x 0 x 0,6
As x 9 x 16
Case II x 3 2 x 6 x6 x 6 0
x 6
x 2 0 x 36,4
As, x 3 x 4
There are exactly two elements in the given set.
63. If , c are the distinct roots, of the equation x2 x 1 0 , then 101 107 is equal
to :
(1) -1
(2) 0
(3) 1
(4) 2
Solution:
x2 – x+ 1 = 0
Set: A www.vedantu.com 37
JEE Mains 2018
1 3
x , 2
2
and 2
2 101 214 2 1
101 107
x 4 2x 2x
64. If 2 x x 4 2 x = ( A Bx)( x A)2 , then the ordered pair (A, B) is equal to :
2x 2x x 4
(1) (-4, -5)
(2) (-4, 3)
(3) (-4, 5)
(4) (4, 5)
66. From 6 different novels and 3 different dictionaries, 4 novels and 1 dictionary are to
be selected and arranged in a row on a shelf so that the dictionary is always in the
middle. The number of such arrangements is :
(1) at least 1000
(2) less than 500
(3) at least 500 but less than 750
(4) at least 750 but less than 1000
67. The sum of the co-efficients of all odd degree terms in the expansion of
x
5 5
x3 1 x x3 1 ,( x 1) is:
(1) -1
(2) 0
(3) 1
(4) 2
Set: A www.vedantu.com 38
JEE Mains 2018
12
68. Let a1 , a2 , a3 ,......, a49 be in A.P. such that a
k 0
4 k 1 416 and a9 a43 66 .
Solution:
a1 a5 a9 416 a 24d 32 ..............i
a9 a43 66 a 25d 33 ...............ii
From (i) and (ii) d = 1 and a = 8
Now, a12 a22 ....... a172 140m
17 17
8 r 1 7 r 140m m 34
2
r 1 r 1
69. Let A be the sum of the first 20 terms and B be the sum of the first 40 terms of
the series
12 2 22 32 2 42 52 2 62 .....
If B-2A=100 , then is equal to:
(1) 232
(2) 248
(3) 464
(4) 496
Solution:
A = 12 + 2.22 + 32 + 2.42+ ………+ A2+2.202
= (12 + 2.22 + 32 + 42+ ………+202)+ (22+ 42+ ………+ 202)
20 21 41 10 11 21
4 2870 1540 4410 2870 1540 4410
6 6
40 41 81 4 20 21 41
B 540 41 41 280 41 820 33620
6 6
33620 8820 100
100 24800
248
70. For each t R, let [t] be the greatest integer less than or equal to t. Than
1 2 15
lim x ......
x0
x x x
(1) is equal to 0
Set: A www.vedantu.com 39
JEE Mains 2018
(2) is equal to 50
(3) is equal to 120
(4) does not exist (in R)
71. Let S={t R:f(x)= x • (e 1)sin x is not differentiable at t}. Then the set S is
x
equal to:
(1) (an empty set)
(2) {0}
(3) {}
(4) {0, }
72. If the curve y2 = 6x, 9x2 + by2 = 16 intersect each other at right angles, then the
value of b is:
(1) 6
7
(2)
2
(3) 4
9
(4)
2
Solution:
2yy’= 6
6 3
y'
2 y y1
18 x1 9 x1 27 x 27 x
18 x1 21 1 b 2 1
2by1 by1 by1 y1
9
y12 6 x1 b
2
1 1 f ( x)
73. Let f ( x) x2
2
and g ( x) x , x R 1,0,1 . If h( x) , then the local
x x g ( x)
minimum value of value of h( x) is :
(1) 3
(2) -3
(3) 2 2
2
(4) 2
Set: A www.vedantu.com 40
JEE Mains 2018
sin 2 x cos2 x
dx
sin x cos3 x sin 2 x sin 3 x cos2 x cos5 x
2
74. The integral 5 is equal to :
1
(1) c
3 1 tan 3 x
1
(2) c
3 1 tan 3 x
1
(3) c
1 cot 3 x
1
(4) c
1 cot 3 x
Solution:
sin 2 x cos2 x
dx
sin cos x sin 2 x sin3 x cos2 x cos2 x cos5 x
5 3 2
tan 2 x sec6 x
tan5 x tan2 x tan3 x 1 dx
dt
Put tanx = t sec2 x
dx
t 2 1 t 2
2
dt
t 3 1 t 2 1
2 2
T3 +1=y
dy
3t 2
dt
1 dy 1 1
3 y 2
3 y
C
3 tan 3 x 1
C
2
sin 2 x
75. The value of
1+2x
dx is:
2
(1)
8
(2)
2
(3) 4
(4)
4
Set: A www.vedantu.com 41
JEE Mains 2018
(1)
1
2
3 1
(2)
1
2
3 1
(3)
1
2
3 2
(4)
1
2
2 1
Solution:
g x cos x 2
f x x
g f x cos x
given, 18 x 2 9 x 2 0 6 x 3x 0
x ,
6 3
/3
3 1
Area
cos x dx
/6 2
Solution:
dy
y cot x 4x cos ec x d y sin x 4xdx
dt
Integrating both sides we get y sin x 2x2 C
2
Also, y 0 c
2 2
Set: A www.vedantu.com 42
JEE Mains 2018
2 8 2
y sin x 2x2 y
2 6 9
78. A straight line through a fixed point (2, 3) intersects the coordinate axes at distinct
points P and Q. If O is the origin and the rectangle OPRQ is completed, then the locus of
R is:
(1) 3x 2 y 6
(2) 2x 3y xy
(3) 3x 2 y xy
(4) 3x 2 y 6xy
Solution:
Let R = (h,k)
P = (0, k)
Q = (h,0)
Equation of line would be,
x y
1 ........ i
h k
2 3
1
h k
2k + 3h = hk
Locus of (h, k) is 2y + 3x = xy
79. Let the orthocenter and centroid of a triangle be A(-3, 5) and B(3, 3) respectively. If
C is the circumcentre of this triangle, than the radius of the circle having line segment
AC as diameter, is :
(1) 10
2
(2) 10
5
(3) 3
2
3 5
(4)
2
Set: A www.vedantu.com 43
JEE Mains 2018
(1) 195
(2) 185
(3) 85
(4) 95
81. Tangent and normal are drawn at P(16, 16) on the parabola y 2 16 x , which intersect
the axis of the parabola at A and B, respectively. If C is the centre of the circle through
the points P, A and B and CPB , then a value of tan is :
1
(1)
2
(2) 2
(3) 3
4
(4)
3
Solution:
The equation of tangent at P
1
y 16 x 16 A 16, 0
2
The normal is y = y – 16 = -2(x – 16)
B = (24, 0)
Since APB
2
AB is the diameter
Centre of the circle C = (4, 0)
Slope of PB = -2 = m1
4 m m1
Slope of CP = m2 tan 2 2
3 1 m2m1
82. Tangents are drawn to the hyperbola 4x2 y2 36 at the points P and Q. If these
tangents intersects at the point T(0, 3) then the area (in sq. units) of PTQ is :
(1) 45 5
(2) 54 3
(3) 60 3
(4) 36 5
Set: A www.vedantu.com 44
JEE Mains 2018
Solution:
Equation of PQ,
4x.(0) -3y = 36
Y = -12
1
Area of TPQ 15 6 5 45 5
2
1
(1) 4 2
1
(2) 3 2
1
(3) 2 2
1
(4) 2
84. The length of the projection of the line segment joining the points (5, -1, 4) and (4, -
1, 3) on the plane, x + y + z = 7 is :
2
(1)
3
2
(2)
3
1
(3)
3
2
(4)
3
(1) 336
(2) 315
(3) 256
(4) 84
Set: A www.vedantu.com 45
JEE Mains 2018
Solution:
u a b 0; u.a 0 and u.b 24
Let b b.a a. b.u u
b.a b. u
2 2 2
b
2
b. u
2 2
b b.a 2
u
2 24
2
2
2 2
u 336
7 u
86. A bag contains 4 red and 6 black balls. A ball is drawn at random from the bag, its
colour is observed and this ball along with two additional balls of the same colour is
returned to the bag. If now a ball is drawn at random from the bag, then probability that
this drawn ball is red, is:
3
(1)
10
2
(2)
5
1
(3)
5
3
(4)
4
9 9
87. If (x 5) 9 and (x 5)
i 1
i
i 1
i
2
45 , then the standard deviation of the 9 items
1
88. If sum of all the solution of equation 8cos x. cos x .cos x 1 in
6 6 2
[0, ] is k ,then k is equal to :
2
(1)
3
13
(2)
9
Set: A www.vedantu.com 46
JEE Mains 2018
8
(3)
9
20
(4)
9
89. PQR is a triangular park with PQ=PR=200 m. AT.V. tower stands at the mid-point
of QR. If the angle of elevation of the top of the tower at P,Q and R are respectively 450 ,
300 and 300 then the height of tower (in m) is :
(1) 100
(2) 50
(3) 100 3
(4) 50 2
Solution:
h 1
x 3
x 3h
200 3h2 h2
4h2 200
2
4h2 40000
h 100
Solution:
( p q) ( p q)
P q ( p q) pq
T F F F
T F F F
F T F T
F F T F
Set: A www.vedantu.com 47
JEE (Main) 2018
BOOKLET CODE : A
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1. (3) 31. (4) 61. (2)
2. (2) 32. (3) 62. (3)
3. (2) 33. (4) 63. (3)
4. (3) 34. (1) 64. (3)
5. (2) 35. (4) 65. (2)
6. (4) 36. (4) 66. (1)
7. (1) 37. (2) 67. (4)
8. (3) 38. (3) 68. (3)
9. (3) 39. (1) 69. (2)
10. (3) 40. (3) 70. (3)
11. (1) 41. (3) 71. (1)
12. (2) 42. (3) 72. (4)
13. (1) 43. (4)* 73. (4)
14. (2) 44. (3) 74. (2)
15. (1) 45. (2) 75. (4)
16. (2) 46. (3) 76. (1)
17. (2) 47. (3) 77. (3)
18. (2) 48. (4) 78. (3)
19. (3) 49. (3) 79. (3)
20. (1) 50. (2) 80. (4)
21. (3) 51. (1) 81. (2)
22. (3) 52. (3) 82. (1)
23. (1) 53. (2) 83. (2)
24. (1) 54. (1) 84. (4)
25. (4) 55. (3) 85. (1)
26. (1) 56. (4) 86. (2)
27. (3) 57. (3) 87. (3)
28. (3) 58. (3) 88. (2)
29. (2) 59. (4) 89. (1)
30. (3) 60. (2) 90. (1)
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