Class 11 Final Exam 2018-2019 PDF
Class 11 Final Exam 2018-2019 PDF
Class 11 Final Exam 2018-2019 PDF
1. Read the passage and on the basis of your understanding of the passage answer the questions
given below: (20)
1. Every Republic Day security in the city is beefed up. You can see a lot more of the four-legged, furry
'canines on duty' everywhere from the Metro to the airport. While these trained dogs are sniffing around your
- - bags, you might be tempted to pet them, but the CISF officials accompanying them do not approve of such
" .• ~ behaviour on the commuters' part. As one official puts it, "People fawn over them and ask us questions, but
we don't entertain anyone. Our dogs are soldiers, not showpieces."
2. The CISF headquarters in Delhi have three breeds German Shepherds, Labrador Retrievers and Cocker
Spaniels, and the officials claim that these are the best-trained dogs in the country.
3. We have seen Metro commuters fighting, shouting and arguing for seats and space. But if you have ever
seen these four-legged soldiers in the Metro, you must have noticed how they don't bark or even look at the
commuters. Even in packed Metros, they never lose their cool. A CISF official says, "They won't bark at or
bite people. These dogs don't bite anyone, unless given the command to attack by their trainers."
4. Usually transported in the women's coaches of the Metro, it is not uncommon to see girls and children
going crazy as soon as they make an entrance. But they just ignore everyone and move only at the handler's
command. An official says, "A dog is obedient by nature. Our dogs and their handlers share a special bond,
which is so strong that if the handler is on leave, the dog won't even eat. They are trained to not touch or listen
to anyone's command except their handlers'. They also don't eat anything given by someone else. We train
three handlers with two dogs, so that when one handler is on leave, the dog doesn't face an emotional crisis
and stops eating or working."
5. Talking about the training procedure, a CISF official says, "We procure the puppies when they are only six
months old and then they are sent to the Border Security Force Academy, Tekanpur, Gwalior, for a six-month
training period with their handlers (both are trained together). After the training, when the dog is a year old, he
is sent for the appointed service, which he continues for the next nine years. Each dog is named by his handler
and like soldiers, these dogs also have their certificates and service records."
6. If you think these canines lead a dog's life, you are mistaken. Says a CISF official, "He is not a dog for us;
he is a soldier who assists us in our operations." The official adds, "All the dogs in the kennel are trained twice
a day morning and evening. They have a fixed diet and feeding time what the dog will eat at what time of the
day is decided by doctors. As these dogs have to carry out several duties and have to stand and move for hours,
they need to eat healthy."
7. Pet parents should learn how to take care of their dogs from these CISF officials, who consider the members
of the dog brigade their colleagues. The CISF has four kennels in Delhi and each dog gets a separate room,
which it doesn't have to share with another dog. Each dog also has its own belongings a blanket, shampoo,
towel with its name on it. During the winter, they have heaters and during the summer, they have a personal
cooler.
8. A soldier needs to be fit and if a dog soldier is not fit, its service has to be discontinued. Says an official,
"We can't help it. Ifa dog becomes bulky, we can't take it for duty because it has to travel a lot and won't be
fit enough for all the activities. At present, we have divided all the Metro lines in two-three sub-divisions, and
each dog has a four-hour duty daily."
1.1.On the basis of your understanding of the above passage, complete the statements given below with the
help of options that follow: (bS=S)
a) People are forbidden to pet sniffer dogs as they are .
(i) ferocious creatures (ii) their officials' pets
(iii) not metro commuters (iv) soldiers, not showpieces
b) These dogs do not bite anyone unless .
(i) they are given a command to do so (ii) they are bungry
(iii) someone irritates (iv) their trainers beat them
c) When their handler is on leave they .
(i) are given a day off (ii) do not work willingly
(iii) do not eat (iv) eat a lot
d) The diet and timing of meals is decided by their .
(i) handlers (ii) appetites
(iii) duties (iv) doctor
e) 'People fawn over them and ask us questions.' Fawn over in the above line refers to .
(i) try to cheat someone (ii) try to please someone
(iii) hate someone (iv) both (i) and (ii)
b) Whatkind of behaviour is portrayed by the fair-legged soldiers while on duty in the metro?
c) Whatkind of a bond is shared betweenthe dogs and the handlers?
d) What kind of a life do these trained dogs lead? Whathave they been compared to?
1.4.Find words from the passage which mean the same as:
a) order (para 3) b) obtain (para 5) (1x3=3)
c) dogs (para 6)
2. Read the following passage carefuJJy and answer the questions that follow:
(10)
I.Salt, a miraculous gift of nature, is one of most useful and amazing minerals on Earth derived from
the sea and rocks. Do you know that it is the only rock that humans can eat? Salt has seasoned our
history, language and food, besides making nutritious food more palatable. Used in all bakery
products, prepared food, sauces, soups, spices, cereals, dairy foods, meats, poultry, it is also an
extraordinary effective food preservative, retarding the growth of spoilage by micro-organisms and
making food storage possible long before refrigeration.
2.How much salt is necessary for human consumption? Medical experts agree that everyone should
practice some reasonable 'moderation' in salt consumption. For the average person, a moderate
amount might run from 4 to 10 grn a day, or roughly half to one and one-third teaspoons. The
equivalent of one to two gm of this salt allowance would come from the natural sodium in food. The
rest would be added in processing, preparation or at the table.
3.Common salt, a chloride of sodium, is chemicaJJy represented by the symbol NaCI. The human
body has a continual need for salt. Sodium chloride or the common salt is 39 percent sodium and 61
percent chloride. Forming a solution in the body, these two components separate into sodium and
chloride ions, each with a different task. Chloride maintains the balance of water between the living
cell and its environment, plays a part in digestion, and pairs with sodium to maintain the blood's acid-
base balance, critical for life. Sodium assists in regulating the volume of blood and blood pressure. It
facilitates the transmission of nerve impulses and is necessary for heart and muscle contractions.
4.Although the popular conception is that salt is a flavour enhancer, a recent American study Material
suggests that it functions as a flavour filter on food, selectively enhancing and suppressing various
tastes. Other studies showed that the use of salt suppresses the bitter of dark green vegetables like
bitter gourd (Karela). Salt's functions in the body are already elucidated. Deficiency signs include
lethargy, dizziness, cramps and palpitation. In women excessive-salt intake promotes fluid retardation
and can cause breast pain. But what the good salt can do, in the right dose, is unequalled. Snorers
should try spraying their nose with a salt water to moisten mucous membrane and make it easier to
breathe. To invigorate the body when tired 'or to remove dead skin cells, rub a handful of salt all over
your body before having a bath. Salt baths encouragedetoxification and greatlyhelp muscle and joint
pains. Add a pound of salt to a comfortably hot bath and lie in it for 20 minutes, add hot water as it
cools. Wrap up in cotton towels and get intoa warm bed. You should perspire freely, sleep well and
feel much better in the morning. Remove all the congestion in your throat by saline gargles.
5.The recommendation that no one should exclude. salt totally from the diet is awfully wrong.
Scientists are of the view' that salt is an invisible killer and, therefore, a health hazard. As new
evidence piles up; alarm bells have started ringing. And the next battle might just be against salt!
- Specialists,are.corisinced.that a.diet, high. in salt causes high blood pressure, a disorder that afflicts
one third of people above the age of 60. Moreover, this is a risk factor for two big killers - Coronary
heart disease and stroke.
a) On the basis of your reading of the above passage make notes on it, using headings and sub-
headings. Also use recognizable abbreviations,wherever necessary. (5)
b) Write a summary of the above passage in about 100 words. (5)
SECTION B - WRITING
3. You have a commercial property suitable for bank / office. You wish to rent it out. Draft an
advertisement in not more than 50 words to be published in the classified columns of a newspaper
giving all the necessary details. You are Kavi / Kavya Vaid of34 Lodhi Estate, Pune. (4)
OR
Government Model Senior Secondary School, Chandigarh is organizing its Annual Day next month
in one of the prestigious auditoriurns of your.city. Draft an invitation to be sent to the parents in not
more than 50 words giving all the necessary details. Also inform them that the use of mobile phones
and cameras is prohibited.
4. You are living in a village along a National Highway. The State Roadways bus does not stop near
your village. Write a letter in 120-150words to the General Manager, State Roadways requesting him
to make provision for a bus stop near your village giving reasons for the same. You are Omar /
Amna, District Gopalpur, Ramnagar, Uttrakhand. (6)
OR
You are Tarun / Taruna. You recently purchased a Luminous Inverter for your home from RK
Electronics, Noida but found many functional problems in it. Write a letter of complaint to the
Proprietor asking him to replace the product as it is still under guarantee period.
5. Aman / Ameena a reporter for a National Daily has been asked to report a train accident that took
place in Jalandhar, Punjab. Write a report to be published in the newspaper in 120-150words.
(10)
OR
You are Neeraj / Neerja a reporter for a leading National Daily. Write a newspaper report about the
ScholarBadge Ceremonyorganized by St. John's School, Chandigarhin 120-150words.
SECTION C - LITERATURE
6. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: (1:13=3)
A sweet face,
My mother's, that was before I was born.
And the sea, which appears to have changed less,
Washed their terribly transientfeet.
a) Name the poem and the poet.
b) What has not changed much and why?
c) What is indicated by the phrase, 'Terribly transient feet'?
OR
Yet have J killed
The seed J spent or sown it where
The land is his and none of mine?
We speak like strangers, there is no sign
Of understand in the air.
a) Name the poem and the poet.
b) Who is 'I'?
c) Why is 'I' feeling helpless?
SECTION A
1. Write the general term in the expansion of (xi _ y)6.
2. Find equation of parabola with vertex (0,0), passing through (5,2) and symmetric with respect to x-
axis.
3. Eva Iuate s:10IIowing
. I'"
units: Lt 1-cos2x
2
x-+() X
OR
Differentiate the following functions .../2x + 3
4. Write contrapositive of following statements: "If a number is divisible by 9, then it is divisible by 3."
--'§E&.~QN-B
5.. Howmany arrangements can be. made with the letters of the word 'MATHEMATICS'? In how'rnany
ot:them=v.ov/els aRH0getner-'?
A gentleman has 6 friends to invite. In how many ways can he send initiationcards to them, ifhe has
three servants to carry the cards?
6. Find a positive value ofm for which the coefficient OfX2in the expansion of (1 + x)" is 6.
7. Solve: ~~ 2
x-2
8. Let A and B be two-sets such that A x B consists of 6 elements. If three elements of A x B are: (1,4) ,
(2,6) , (3,6). Find A x B and B x A.
9. Find demaia and.range of real function: f{x) = ~16-~
. sin 38 x9+a9
10. Evaluate Lt OR If Iimx-+-a -- = 9, find the real value of a.
8-+0 tan 28 x+a
-----:.i":J4_L!:-let R be a relation from N to N defined by R = { (x, y) : x, yeN and x = y }.Are ilip following
true?
a) (x, x) e R 't/ x e N b) (x, y) E R => (y, x) e R c) (x, y) e R, (y, z) e R => (x, z)
----
eR
Justify your answer-in-each case.
21. Calculate the mean and standard deviation of tirst n natural numbers: '
23.Do as directed: (a) f(x) = ,x2 sin x ,find df(;:~ {b) Evaluate Lt log(4 + x) -Iog{4 - x)
srn x s- cos x dx x-+o X
SECTIOND
24. If in !1ABC, cos A + 2 cos B + cos C = 2 prove that the sides of the triangle are in A.P.
25. The 3rd, 4th& 5thterms in the expansion of (x+a)" are 84, 280 & 560 respectively. Find the value of x,
a&n ..
OR
26. Calculate the mean, variance and standard deviation of the followin
Class 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40
11 29 18 4
SECTION A
1. Find the perpendicular distance of the point P(6,7,8) from XY-Plane.
·
2. Eva Iuate IImx sinx
-+1l'-
1l'-X
3. Find the general solution of the following trigonometric equation 2sinx+ 1=0
OR
Convert the product cos ~; cos ~ into sum or difference of sines or cosines.
4. Give P(E) = % and P(F) = ~ find P(E or F) ifE and F are mutually exclusive events.
SECTIONB
5. Given below are two statements.
p : 80 is multiple of 5 q : 80 is multiple of 4
Write the compound statement connecting these two statements with 'and' also check its validity.
6. Let A and B be two sets and U is universal set such that n(A) = 25 nCB)= 28 and n(U) = 50. Find
least value of n(AnB). .
OR
In a survey of700 students in a collage, 180 were listed as drinking Limca, 275 as drinking Miranda
and 95 were listed as both drinking Lirnca as well as Miranda. Find how many students were drinking
neither Limca nor Miranda.
7. In a class of 10 students there are 3 grits A, B, C. In how many different ways can they be arranged in
a row such that no two of three girls are consecutive.
8. A coin is tossed. If the result is a head, a die is thrown. If the die shows up an even number, the die is
thrown again. What is the sample space for this experiment.
OR
A and B are events such that peA) = 0.42, PCB) = 0.48 and peA and B) = 0.16. Determine
(i) P(not A), (ii) P(not B) and (iii) peA or B)
9. Differentiate (..fX + Jx)2 w.r.t. x.
10. Find the equation of the ellipse if the vertices are (±5, 0) and foci (±4,0)
11. Find the domain and range of relation R = [(x,y):y = Ix - 21,x E Z, [x] :5 3
. :.T' X4 ....l ~~. x'<k'
12. Find the value ofK if hrnX-.l -
x-l
= hrnx-.k-k
x
2
2-
OR
x9+a9
Iflirnx-+_a --x+a = 9 find real values of a.
SECTIONC
13. Find the domain and range off(x) = ~
2-sm3x
OR
Find the domain and range of function f = {( x: 1~XJ) : X E R, x '* ± 1}
14. Solve 2sin2x + sin22x = 2
OR
Solve cotx+cosecx=vs
15. Prove that (2n+7) < (n+3)2 for all natural number, n EN.
16. Prove that the point (3,2,-4) (5,4,-6) and (9,8,-10) are collinear. Find the ratio in which second point
divides the join of the other two points.
17. For sets A, B, C using properties of sets prove that:
a) A - (B U C) = (A-B) n(A-C)
b) (AnB) - C = (A-C) n (B-C)
18. Show that 9n+1 - Bn-9 is divisible by 64, whenever n is a positive integer.
OR
Show that the middle term in the expansion of (1 + x)2n is 1.3.S...(2n-1) 2n z", where n is a positive
n!
integer.
19. A beam is supported at its ends by supports which are 12 metres apart. Since the load is connected at
its centre, there is a deflection of 3 em at the centre and deflected beam in the shape of a parabola.
How far from the centre is the deflection 1 cm?
20 . Eva Iuate: (I.) }'im,.... (x+x2+x3...+xn)-n (..) I' (
1
x-1
II lmx~
2
secx - tanx )
21. Find the mean derivation about the median for the given data:
I j,' I~ I~ I; W I ~2 I ~5
22. In a relay race there are five teams A, B , C , D and E.
a) What is the probability that A, B and C finish first, second and third respectively?
b) What is the probability that A, B and C are first three to finish (in any order)?
23. Solve: (i) 2cos2x+3sinx=0 (ii) Prove: cotx cot2x - cot2x cot3x - cot3x cotx= 1
SECTIOND
.
24 F'10d mean, vanance an d s tandard devia
. fIon usmg sh0rt -cu t me th 0d
Height 70-75 75-80 80-85 85-90 90-95 95-100 100- J 05 105-110 110-
in (em) 115
No of 3 4 7 7 15 9 6 6 3
Children
OR
The mean and S.D of 100 observation were calculated as 40 and 5.1 respectively by a student who
took by mistake 50 instead of 40 for one observation. What are the correct mean and S.D?
SECTION A
1. Find the distance of the point (x, y, z) from origin.
2. Evaluate cosec (-14lO0)
OR
Find general solution of cosecx = -2
. sinax
3. Evaluate lim, ....o --
bx
4. Consider the experiment in which a coin is tossed repeatedly until a head comes up. Describe the
sample space.
SECTION B
5. Write the contrapositive and converse of the following statement.
P : Something is cold implies that it has low temperature.
6. Using laws of sets, prove that (AU B) - (A-B) = B
OR
Draw appropriate venn diagram for (a) A'nB'
7. We wish to select 6 persons from 8 but if the person A is chosen then B must be chosen. In how
many ways can the selection be made?
8. An integer is chosen at random from first one hundred positive integers. Find the probability that the
integer is chosen is a multiple of 5 or a multiple of 7.
OR
A box contains 10 red marbles, 20 blue marbles and 30 green marbles. 5 Marbles are drawn from the
box, what is the probability that at least one will be green.
9. Differentiate xl-3
~ w.r.t x and find the value of derivative at x = O.
10. Find the equation of hyperbola if its vertices are (± 7, 0) and e =~.
. 3
11. Find domain and range off(x);'" I-Ix - 21
" X1S-1
12. Evaluation lim; ....1-10
x -1
OR
" ..,f3-x-.,J3+x
Evaluation lim; ....o .:...:....-=-..:...:....:...:.:.
x
SECTION-C
13. Let N be the set of natural numbers and relation R defined on N such that R ={(x, y) : y=2x; x, y E
N} what is the domain, co-domain and range ofR. Is this relation a function.
sin (B-C) b2_C2
14. For any MBC prove that . (B ) = -2-
sin +C a
OR
A
For any MaC, prove that a(cos C-cos B) = 2(b-c) cos" '2
15.Prove that (1 + x)" ~ 1+nx for all natural numbers n, where x> -1.
16. Show that the points A(l,2,3) B(-I,-2,-I) C(2,3,2) and 0(4,7,6) are the vertices ofparaUelogram
ABCD, which is not a rectangle.
17. In a survey of 100 persons it was found that 28 read magazine A, 30 read magazine B, 42 read
magazine C, 9 read magazine A and B, 11 read magazine A and C, 6 read magazine B & C and 4
read all the three magazines.
a) Find how many read none of the three magazines.
b) Find how many read magazine Conly?
18. Ifthe coefficients of three consecutive terms in the expansion of (1 + x)" are in the ratio 1:7:42.
Find 'n'.
OR
Find n if the ratio of fifth term from the beginning to the fifth term from the end in expansion
(Vi + ~) is ..f6 : 1
19. The foci of a hyperbola coincide with the foci of the ellipse x'
- 2S
+ Y'9 = 1 find the equation of
hyperbola if its eccentricity is 2.
OR
Show that four points (1,0) (2,-7) (8,1) and (9,-6) are con-cyclic.
- - - ~- _- x(eX-l) ,----~- -~ -~ - _ - - "tanx-stnx' --.- ~->-
20. a) Evaluate limx-+o l-cosx b) Evaluate limx-+o x
J
21. The mean and standard deviation of6 observations are 8 and 4 respectively. Ifeach observation is
multiplied by 3, find new mean and new S.D of resulting observations.
22. A fair coin is tossed four times, and a person wins Rs. 1 for each head and loose Rs. 1.50 for each tail
that turns up. From the sample space calculate how many different amount of money you can have
after four tosses and the probability of having each of these amounts.
3 37r • X X x
23. If tan x = 4' tt < X < 2' find the value ofslfl2" cos 2" tan 2"
SECTION D
24. The mean and standard deviation of20 observations are found to be 10 and 2 respectively. On
rechecking it was found that an observation 8 was incorrect. Calculate the correct mean and standard
deviation in each of the following cases.
a) If wrong item is omitted.
b) If it is replaced by 12
OR
x, y ~ 0
26. One card is drawn from well shuffled deck of 52 cards. If each outcome is equally likely, find total
sample points and calculate the probability that card will be.
a) A diamond d) Not an ace
b) A black card e) Not a black card
c) Not a diamond
27. Find the number of arrangements of the letter of the word INDEPENDENCE. In how many these
arrangements.
a) do the words start with P? c) do all the vowels always occur together?
b) do the vowels never occur together? d) do the words begin with I and end in P?
28. Differentiate sin -Vxw.r.t x using first principle of derivative.
OR
Iff(x)=lxl+1,x<0 O,x=O ; Ixl-1,x>0
For what value (s) of 'a' does lirnx-+a f(x) exist.
29. If the coefficients of aT-l, a", aT+1 in the expansion of (1 + a)" are in Arithmetic Progression,
prove that n2 - n (4r+ I) + 4r2 -2 = 0
OR
Find a, b, n is expansion of (a + b)" if the first three terms of the expansion are 64,576 and 2160
respectively.
DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL DWARKA
FINAL TERM EXAMINATION [2018- 2019]
SUB: BIOLOGY
CLASS: XI
Time: 3 Drs M.M: 70
General Instructions:
1. Questionpaper consists of 27 questions divided intofour sectionsA, B, C and D.
2. SectionA consists of 5 questions of 1mark each.
Section B consists of7 questions of2 marks each.
Section C consists of 12 questions of 3 marks each.
Section D consists of 3 questions of 5 marks each.
3. Supportyour answers with well labelled diagram.
SECTION A
1. Whichtype of life cycle shows Zygotic meiosis?
2. Name the structure found at the junction of midgut and hindgut of cockroach. What are they meant
for?
4. Why is it considered that the content of nucleolus is continuous with that of nucleoplasm?
.S. Name the parts labelled as a a & b shown in the given figure.
e,
SECTIONB
6. Differentiatediagrammaticallybetween anabhase-I and anaphase-II of meiosis.
7. What is the activation center ofan enzyme? Is it the lock or key of the lock & key model?
8. Vagus nerve decreases the heart rate while the sympatheticnerve enhances it. How?
9. The vascularbundle is shown below. Identify its type and label. 1,2,3.
Q.. 0)
'~~~-b-c.2)
c. (.3)
•
SECTIONC
13. The thyroid gland is an organ in the neck. The diagram shown the process in which epithelial cells
from the thyroid gland make and secrete a protein called thyroglobulin.
a) Name the organelle A.
b) Name the process by which thyroglobulin is secreted from the cell at C.
c) Describe the part played by the organelles B.
Organelle A
Organelle B
f
I
,
14. Give diagram of a monocot seed and also identify the part: !
a) that separates the embryo from endosperm
b) the cotyledons is also called as.
16. Why are animals of platyhelminthes known as flatworms while animals of aschelminthes are called
roundworm? Describe their symmetry.
18. Give the characteristic features of phylum to which sepia & octopus belong to.
OR
Give the characteristic feature of phylum to which Culex & Locusta belong to.
19. a) Due to development abnormality the wall of left ventricle of an infant's heart is as thin as that of
right ventricle. What would be its specific effect on circulation of blood.
b) What causes the first heart sound?
22. The diagram below shows a single sarcomere just before contraction?
a) Name the filaments A and B.
b) What stimulus causes the immediate contraction of sarcomere?
c) What happens to each type of filament during contraction?
Filament B I
Sarcomere
24. Write the main modification in the plant parts of opuntia, garden pea and Bougainvillea. State the
significance of these modifications.
SECTIOND
25. What are sub-aerial modification of stems? Explain briefly with the help of diagram.
27. a) Double fertilization is unique event to angiosperms. Explain the event and its possible significance.
b) Both gymnosperms and angiosperms bear seed. Then why are they classified separately.
OR
a) Give the distinguishing features of the family Fabaceae.
b) Describe some plants of economic importance of the family.
DE LID PUBLIC SCHOOL, DW ARKA
Time 3 Hrs.
GJ
General Instructions
POST MID TERM EXAMINATION [2018-20191
2. There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in two questions of I mark, two
questions of 2 marks,four questions of 3marks & three questions of 5marks each. You have to attempt only
one of choices in such questions.
3. Question numbers I to 5 are very short answer questions carrying I mark each. These are to be answered in
one word or a sentence.
4. Questionnumbers 6 to 12 are short answer questionscarrying 2 marks each. Their answers may not normally
exceed 40 words each.
5. Question numbers 13 to 24 are also short answer questions carrying 3 marks each. Their answers may not
normally exceed 60 words each.
6. Question numbers 25 to 27 are long answer questions carrying 5 marks each. Their answers may not
normallyexceed 100 words each.
7. Write question number clearly on left margin of answer sheet. Marks will be deducted for unnumbered
question.
8. All parts of same question must be answered at sameplace, else marks will be deducted.
9. Withoutwritingformula, numerical should not be answered
10. Use of calculators is notpermitted However,you may use log tables, if necessary.
SECTION-A
1. Why are stringsof different thickness and materialsused in the sitar?
OR
does sound travel faster on a rainy day than on a dry day?
W1:).y
2. How does the power of a convex lens vary if the incidentred light is replaced by violet light?
3. Which of the three elastic moduli, Young's, Bulk's or Modulus of rigidity arevalid in all the three
states of matter?
4. Why does the angular velocity of air ina tornado increasesas we moved towards its centre?
OR
Does the centre of mass of a body necessarily lie inside the body? Justify with example.
5. A truck and a car moving with the same kinetic energy on a straight road. Their engines are
simultaneouslyswitched off. Which one will stop at a lesserdistance?
SECTION-B
6. A locomotiveof mass M starts moving so that its velocity increases according to the law V= K S112
where K is a constant and S is the distance covered, find the total work done by all the forces which
are acting on the locomotive during the first three secondsafter the beginningof motion.
OR
A body is moved from rest along a straight line by machinedelivering constant power.Calculate the
velocity and distance moved by the body as a function oftime?
7. Write four necessaryconditions under which a satellite remains stationary with respectto earth?
8. To what temperature must a black body be raised to double its intensity of radiation if its original
temperature is 727°C?
9. A spring of force constant 1200 N/m is mounted on a horizontal table as shown, a mass of 3kg
attached to the free end of spring is pulled sideways to a distance of 2 em and released
Determine: t::.
a) the freq~encyof oscillation ~
b) the maxunum speed of the mass. _~!n_ ,.-=_--- -~ _
~~-,~/-,7-J~/rLT,r/T77~JT1)~/7jr7
10. A sound wave of frequency 1000Hz is passing through air at pressure of 1.013xl05Pa. Find the
wavelength of the wave? Given 'Y for air is 1.4 and density for air is 1.293 kg 1m3•
11. State the conditions for total internal reflection to occur? Write the relation between the refractive
index and critical angle for a given pair of optical media.
OR
Draw a diagram to show the image formation by a concave mirror when the object is kept between
its focus and the pole. Write the magnification formula for the image formed?
12. A converging lens has a focal length of 20 ern in air and the lens is made of a material of refractive
index 1.5. If the lens is immersed in water of refractive index 4/3, what will be the new focal length
of the lens?
SECTION-C
13. Draw a ray diagram ofan astronomical telescope in near point adjustment.
OR
With the help of a suitable ray diagram derive the formula for refraction at spherical (convex) surface
when object is placed in rarer medium.
14. Derive the expression for the time period of a body of mass m when pushed through a tunnel dug
across the diameter of the earth.
15. The periodic time of a mass suspended by spring of force constant k is T. If the spring is cut into
three equal pieces and then joined in parallel and the same mass is suspended from the combination.
What will be the time period of oscillation now?
OR
.The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the moon is 1.7 mls2. What is the time period of
simple pendulum on the moon if its time period on the earth is 3.5 s.
16. Show that for an adiabatic change in a perfect gas, PV1= constant where P is the pressure, V is the
volume and 'Y is the ratio of the two molar specific heats of a gas.
17. If a ball is thrown and given a spin, then the path of the ball is curved more than in a usual spin free
ball. Why?
18. Define terminal velocity and derive the formula for terminal velocity for a sphere of radius r and
density p falling vertically through a viscous fluid of density (J having coefficient of viscosity 1'}.
OR
Deduce an expression for rise of a liquid in a thin capillary tube.
19. The volume of a solid is 5000 ern" underpressure of 1 atmosphere. Find the change in its volume
when subjected to a pressure of 101 atmospheres. Given bulk modulus ofthe solid = 1011N/m2•
20. Derive an expression for centre of mass of a solid cone of radius R and height H.
OR
Calculate the moment of inertia of a solid sphere of radius r about an axis passing through its
diameter.
21. The Sun rotates around its axis once in 27 days. What will be the period of its rotation if the Sun
were to expand to twice its present size? Consider the Sun to be a sphere of uniform density.
22. Discuss the motion of a point mass 'm' tied with a string and wound over the hollow cylinder of
radius R mass M and moment of Inertia I.
23. Find the gravitational potential energy of four particles of mass m placed at the vertices of a square
of side I? Also fmd the gravitational potential at the centre of the square?
24. What is the ratio of [mal kinetic energy to the initial kinetic energy in a perfectly inelastic collision
between two particles of masses ml& m2, when the target particle is at rest?
SECTION-D
25. a) Derive an expression for the change in the value of acceleration due to gravity at a place of
latitude '9' due to rotation of the earth.
b) At what height above the surface of the earth the acceleration due to gravity will be 50% of its
value on the surface of earth? Given radius of earth is 6400 km and acceleration due to gravity on
the surface of earth is 9.8 mls2•
OR
a) Derive an expression for escape velocity using the law of conservation of energy.
b) A remote sensing satellite of the earth revolves in a circular orbit at a height of 250 km above the
earth surface. What is the value of
i) orbital speed
ii) period of revolution of the satellite? Given radius of the earth is 6380 km.
26. a) Derive an expression for the pressure exerted by an ideal gas on the basis of kinetic theory of
gases.
b) A cylinder of fixed capacity of 44.8 litres contains helium gas at standard temperature and
pressure. What is the amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of the gas in the cylinder by
15°C given R=8.3IJ/mole-K
OR
a) Draw the P-V indicator diagram for a Camot cycle. Write the expression for work done for each
step involved in the cycle. Also obtain the net work done per cycle in a Camot engine.
b) A refrigerator, whose coefficient of performance is 5, extracts heat from the cooling
compartment at the rate of 250J/cycle. How much heat is discharged to the room?
27. a) Explain the formation of beats analytically. Prove that the beat frequency is equal to the difference
in frequencies of the superposing waves.
b) A note of unknown frequency produces 4 beats/s with the tuning fork of frequency 512 Hz and 6
beats/s with the tuning fork of frequency 514 Hz. Find the frequency of the note.
OR
a) Discuss the various modes of vibration of an air column in a closed organ pipe.
b) A steel wire 0.72 m long has a mass of 0.005 kg. If the wire is under tension of 16 N, what is the
speed of transverse waves on the wire?
DELm PUBLIC SCHOOL DW ARKA
FINAL TERM EXAMINATION [2018 - 2019]
SUB - CHEMISTRY
. CLASS- XI
Time: 3 Hrs. M.M: 70
General Instructions:
J. All questions are compulsory.
2. Questionnos. J to 5are very short answer questionsand carry J mark each.
3. Questionnos. 6 to J 2 are short answer questionsand carry 2 marks each.
4. Questionnos. J 3 to 24 are also short answer questions and carry 3 marks each.
5. Questionnos. 25 to 27 are long answer questionsand carry 5 marks each.
6. Useof calculators is not allowed. You may askfor log tables, if required.
1. Heat changes in chemical reactions are measured in terms of MI and not as ~U.Why?
OR
If ~=O for mixing of two gases, state whether the diffusion ofthese gases in a closed container is
spontaneous or not and why? .
6. 2.9 g of gas at 95°C occupied the same volume as 0.184 g of hydrogen at 17°C at the same pressure.
What is the molar mass of the gas?
7. a) Critical temperature of C02 and Cli. are 31.1°C and -81.9°C respectively. Which of these has
stronger intermolecular forces and why?
b) How does a liquid rise in a capillary?
OR
a) What type of intermolecular forces exist among the following molecules?
i) ci, and CCI4 molecules
ii) He atoms and HCl molecules.
b) Why vegetables are cooked with difficulty at a hill station?
8. Calculate the heat of hydrogenation of cyclohexene. Given the standard enthalpies of combustion at
25°C of hydrogen, cyclohexene (C~IO) and cyclohexane (C6H12)are -241, -3800 and -3920 kJ/mol
respectively.
9. a) The following system is in equilibrium: S02Ch +Heat ~ S02 + Clz . What will happen to the
temperature of system if some Ch is added into it at constant volume and why?
b) Through a solution containing Cu2+ and Ni2+ ions, H2S gas is passed adding dil. HCl, Cu2+ will
precipitate out first. Why?
"
10. Arrange the following in increasing order of the property indicated against them:
a) H-H, 0-0 and F-F (Bond dissociation enthalpy)
b) NaH, BeH2 and H20 (Reducing Property)
OR
What is syngas? What is water - gas shift reaction?
b) Use electronic effect to explain which one of the two carboxylic acids is stronger.
CICH2 COOH , CH3CH2COOH
13. The value of K, for the reaction - C02 (g) + C(s) ~ 2CO(g) is 3.0 at 1000K. If initially p. = 0.48
bar, p~= 0 bar and pure graphite is present, calculate the equilibrium partial pressures ofC~d
C02.
OR
13.8 g ofN204 was placed in 1L reaction vessel at 400K and allowed to attain equilibrium:
N204 (g) ~ 2N02 (g) . The total pressure at equilibrium was found to be 9.15 bar. Calculate K, ,
K, and partial pressure at equilibrium.
14. Derive a relation between heat of reaction at constant pressure and constant volume. State two
conditions when qp = qv .
15. 'An endothermic reaction may be non-spontaneous at low temperature may become spontaneous at
high temperature. Justify both the conditions on the basis of Gibb's - Helmholtz equation.
17. a) On the basis of VSEPR theory, predict the shapes of the following molecules / ions?
i) PF5 ii) NH2-
b) Write two resonating structure ofN20 that satisfy the octet rule.
c) Why is o-Nitrophenol steam volatile?
OR
a) On the basis of hybridization explain the structure of SF4.
b) Write resonance structure ofNOj"
20. a) Give a chemical reaction to show how does H202 act as an oxidizing agent in acidic medium if
~..... . added to Fe~ solution. - - -
b) What causes temporary hardness of water? Give one method to remove it.
23. a) Draw two resonance structures of CH3COOCH3 and explain why these structures are not the
major contributors to the actual structure?
b) Explain decreasing order of stability of 10, 20 and 30 free radicals with reason.
27. a) Explain giving resonance structures to show that - CI group is 0-, p-directing and slightly
deactivating towards electrophilic substitution in benzene.
b) How will you show reaction of But-I-ene with HBr in presence of peroxide? Explain giving all
the steps mechanism.
c) Arrange 2-Methylpentane, 2, 2 -Dimethylbutane and 2, 3-Dimethylbutane in order of increasing
boiling point giving reason.
OR
a) Explain with mechanism of chlorination of Benzene.
b) What happens when Ethene is treated with cold, dil KMn04 ? Give equation.
c) Arrange Butane, n-Pentane and n-Hexane in increasing order of melting point giving reason.
d) is aromatic and why?
DELID PUBLIC SCHOOL DW ARKA
FINAL TERM EXAMINATION [2018 - 2019]
Time: 3 Hrs.G1
GeneralInstructions:
SUB:ACCOUNTANCY
CLASS: XI
M.M: 90
1. All questionsare compulsory
2. Marks are indicatedagainst each question.
3. Draw properformat and give working notes.
4. Marks will be deductedfor cutting, overwritingand not writing the narration.
1. ·Mr.~jaspaf S-ingh-dealingin~ele~troni~ goods sold 20 TV sets costing Rs. 30,000 each at Rs. 40,000 each.
Out of this Rs. 5,00,000 were received in cash and the balance is not yet received. State the amount of
revenue. Also give reason for your answer. (2)
2. On I" January, 2017 Mr. Vadera was' appointed as Marketing Manager of the firm with a salary of
Rs. 50,000 per month. State whether this event will be recorded in the books of accounts. (2)
3. X Ltd. gets a contract of Rs. 100 crore to build a Shopping- Mall to be completed in three years. The
management of the company wants to ascertain profit or loss on this contract only when the contract is
completed. Is the management justified? (2)
5. A firm follows a practice of giving the figures of previous year along with the figures of current year.
Now the Accountant of the firm wants to discontinue this practice. Do you justify this decision? (2)
6. The Trial Balance of Man ish Sharma gives the following information as at 31 st March 2018: (5)
7. Enter the following transactions in the books of Luxmi traders assuming that all transactions have taken
in the state of Rajamhan. Assume CGST @ 9% and SGST @ 9%. (5)
2018 Particulars
Feb. 5 Purchased goods for 5,00,000 from Chauhan Traders, at 20% Trade Discount.
Feb. 18 Purchased Furniture for Rs. 50,000 and payment made by cheque.
Feb. 20 Paid for advertisement Rs. 20,000 by cheque
Feb. 22 Sold goods for Rs. 1,00,000 and received a cheque for the same. Cheque is sent to bank.
Feb. 25 Received commission Rs. 10,000
8. Enter the following transactions in a Cash Book with Cash and Bank Columns. Also record necessary
entries in Journal. (10) .
2017 Particulars
May 1 Balance of Cash - in - Hand Rs. 15,600; Overdraft at Bank Rs. 7,400.
May 2 Further Capital introduced Rs. 30,000, out of which Rs. 25,000 deposited into bank.
May 3 Purchased goods on credit from Mohan of the list price ofRs. 15,000.
Out of this amount he alJowed us a trade discount of 20%
May 6 Settled the account of Mohan by paying cash Rs. 11,600.
May 8 An amount of Rs. 2,500 due from Chaturvedi & Sons written off as bad-debts in the
'L - -----...... previous year,-n~wrecovered.------ --..._ - --
# - - - --
--
May 10 Cashed a cheque for Rs. 7,500.
Drew from bank for household expenses Rs. 3,000 and for Income Tax Rs. SOO.
May 14 Received Rs. 500 from the sale of old chairs.
May 15 Received from X on behalf of Y Rs. 2,200. Discount allowed Rs. 100.
May 20 Received a cheque from Naresh Rs. 4,210 in full settlement of his account ofRs. 4,400.
May 22 ;' Cheque received from Naresh sent to bank.
May 25 .".":.\ Sagar Chand, who owed us Rs. 10,000 became bankrupt and paid us 40 paisa in a rupee.
May 26 Received repayment of a loan of Rs. 3,600 and deposited out of it Rs. 2,000 into the
bank.
May2S Cheque received from Naresh dishonoured, Bank debits Rs. 20 in respect of this cheque
for Bank Charges.
May 31 Interest debited by bank Rs. 650. Deposited with the bank the entire balance after
retaining Rs. 5,000 at office.
9. The following balance appear in the books of X Ltd as on 1st April, 201S. (10)
Machinery Alc Rs. 5,00,000
Provision for Depreciation Rs. 2,25,000 _
The machinery was depreciated at 10% p.a. on the Fixed Installment Method - the accounting year
being April-March.
On 01-10-2018 a machinery which was purchased on I" July, 2015 for Rs. 1,00,000 was sold for Rs.
42,000 and on the same date a fresh machinery was purchased for Rs. 2,00,000
Prepare the Machinery Account and Provision for Depreciation Account for the year 2017-18.
10. On 31st January 2017 my Cash Book showed a Bank overdraft ofRs. 12,500. On comparing it with the
Pass Book, the following differences were noted: (10)
a) Cash and Cheques amounting to Rs. 1,340 were sent to Bank on 27th January but Cheques worth Rs.
230 were credited on 2nd February and one Cheque for Rs. 45 was returned by them as dishonored
on 4thFebruary.
b) During the month of January, I issued cheques worth Rs. 1,670 to my creditors. Out of these
Cheques worth Rs. 1,370 were presented for payment on 5th February.
c) According to my standing orders, the Bankers have paid during the month of January the folJowing:
i) Life Insurance Premium Rs. 170
ii) Television Licence Fee Rs. 120
iii) Driving Licence Fee Rs. 22
d) My bankers have collected Rs. 150 as dividend on the shares.
e) My bankers have given me wrong credit for Rs. 150.
f) Interest charged by the bank Rs. 125.
Prepare a Bank Reconciliation Statement as on 31 st January, 2017.
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DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL DWARKA
FINAL TERM EXAMINATION [2018 - 20191
SUB: BUSINESS STUDIES
CLASS: XI
Time: 3 Hrs. M.M: 90
1. A lady exchanges old clothes for utensils on a regular basis. Is it a business activity? Give reasons.
(1)
2. Ramesh gets a loan from Suresh against the security of his godown. Can Suresh get this godwon
insured against fire with General Insurance Company? (1)
3. Vimal got his factory insured for Rs. 1 crore and later suffered a loss of Rs. 20 lac. He got full
compensation of Rs. 20 lac from the insurance company and later sold some half-burnt goods for Rs.
50,000. Who has the right over the sale proceeds any why? (1)
4. A company took fire insurance policy for Rs. 5 lakh. After four months, a fire occurred in the
company's premises and the company incurred a loss ofRs. 2 lakh. How much compensation will the
company get and why? (1)
5. What are the investment limits for micro manufacturing enterprises and micro service enterprises
under the MSMED Act, 2006? (1)
6. Explain the meaning of tax holiday as an incentive provided to small scale industries. (1)
7. What is an Automatic Vending Machine? (1)
9. "A departmental store is a welcome change in big cities but an unwanted guest in small towns." .
Comment. Why do people in small towns not prefer shopping from a departmental store?
(3)
10. "International trade is beneficial for both the nations involved." Do you agree with this statement?
Explain any three reasons for it. (3)
11. Name and explain the following:
a) A corporation established under a special law of Parliament.
b) An organization run by a department of the Government.
c) A company whose 51% of equity share capital is contributed by the Government. (3)
12. XYZ Ltd. wants to top international source of finance for funding its upcoming project. As the
Finance Manager of the company, suggest any three instruments of international source of business
&an~ ~
13. "Business is an institution organized and operated to provide goods and services under the incentive
of private gain."Comment. (4)
14. Coca Cola is a global enterprise which has its operations including production and marketing in many
countries to the world. It has its headquarters in the USA where it was registered as a company. Top
management at the headquarters exercises control over the company's branches and subsidiaries in
different countries. It does so within its broad policy framework. To serve the customers better and to
manage the operations of branches and subsidiaries, it employs professionally trained managers and
uses sophisticated technology that helps in attaining higher productivity and better quality.
a) What is a global corporation?
b) Mention two features of global corporations based on the above para.
c) Give names of two other global corporations. (1+2+1=4)
15. The board of directors of Simran Industries have decided to modernize company's plant and
machinery at an estimated cost of Rs. 10 crores. For financing this, the Directors have decided to
issue debentures. Do you agree with this decision? Give reasons for your answer. (4)
16. A small entrepreneur has started a cottage industrial unit in a rural area by availing government loans
at concessional rates. He has engaged ten workers from the nearby locality and give priority to local
suppliers for getting inputs for his unit. He also sells the finished goods at concessional rates in the
neighbourhood area. I
a) What role the entrepreneur is playing for rural development?
b) What values are being pursued by the entrepreneur? (3+1=4)
17. "A public company has to file certain documents with the Registrar of Companies before obtaining
the certificate to commence business." Briefly explain any two such documents. (4)
18. Bhavna is running a sole proprietorship business. Over the past decade, her business has grown from
a small neighbourhood Icroner shop selling accessories such as artificial jewellery, ladies bags, hair
clips and nail art to a ~ig retail business house with their branches in different parts of the city.
Although she looks after varied functions, management of expanded business has become a
challenging task. She is wondering whether she should form a company for better management of the
business.
a) Explain two benefits of remaining a sole proprietor.
b) Explain two benefits of converting it to a joint stock company.
c) State any two legal documents Bhavna will have to prepare to convert her sole proprietorship
business to ajoint stock company. (2+2+1=5)
19. ABC Ltd. is engaged in lhe production and distribution of personal care products. It has. total annual
turnover ofRs. 900 crores. Last year, it introduced two new products. The first was protein shampoo
for hairs and the second was face cream. The protein shampoo picked up the market quickly and its
sales touched the figure Rs. 50 crores during the last quarter. But the face cream could not get the
favour of the consumers. As a result, the company accumulated huge stock of face cream.
In order to dispose of the stock of face cream, the company decided to offer a pack of face cream free
with every purchase of'[a shampoo bottle whose price was increased by 25 %. This strategy was
followed to maximize profit while disposing of the unsold stock of face cream. To make the offer
attractive, the company advertised the cream as sun cream, through it was an ordinary cream.
a) In profit maximization justified in the above case?
b) What values have been ignored by the company? (4+1=5)
20. A leading business house is operating a network of retail shops under the name •Yours' Store'. These
shops are located in diff~rent parts of NCR, Delhi. Since these shops have the same appearance and
identical layout, one carl easily identify these shops. The headquarters are located at Delhi. All the
supplies to the stores arb routed through the headquarters. The stores follow uniform policies laid
down by the headquarters, Most of the goods are sold at uniform prices throughout the region.
a) Identify the type of retail store mentioned in the above case.
b) Briefly explain any four features of such stores. (1+4=5)
21. Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIe) is a household name because millions of people are its
policy holders. It offers a number of life insurance policies to suit the requirements of children, youth,
elders, women, professionals , etc.
LIe was established by the enactment of LIe Act, 1956 by the parliament. The Act prescribes its
powers, duties and functions. Being a body corporate, it has a separate legal entity, perpetual
succession and common seal. It can sue and be sued, can enter into contracts, acquire/ hold property
in its own name. It is wholly owned by the government and the entire equity capital is in the
government's name. It has an independent financial policy and can rise funds by borrowing from the
public and the governmcr.nt. Moreover, LIe is not subject to any budgetary, accounting and audit
controls as applicable to the government departments. However, its Annual Report is laid on the table
of the Parliament every year to fulfill its accountability to the government.
a) Identify and explain the category of public enterprise to which it belongs.
b) Give the names of any two enterprises of this category.
c) Explain any two salient features of the above enterprise. (2+1+2=5)
22. Tania and Suraj are qualified chartered accountant and lawyer respectively. They joined hands to
form a consultancy firm. They entered into a written agreement which specifies terms and conditions
that will govern their firm. They also got the firm registered. Both of them false part in carrying the
business activities. Their professional attitude helped them in gaining success within a limited time.
a) Who governs lawyers in India?
b) Which form of business organization is referred to in the above case?
c) What is the written agreement between Tania and Suraj known as? List any two terms of it.
d) Give two consequences of non-registration ofa firm. (1+1+2+2)
23. On November 8, 2016, the Government of India demonetised Rs. 500 and Rs. 1000 currency notes to
curb the social evils of corruption, black money and terrorism. The Government also announced
various incentives for general public for using digital cash and various other means of electronic
payments. Moreover, the shortage of cash immediately after demonetization also led to increase in
the use of plastic money.
a) What is digital cash? Explain.
b) Explain the meaning of plastic money? Give two examples.
c) What value is implied in the above case? (2+3+1)
24. Growfast Co. Ltd. has decided to expand its scale of operations for which it needs funds. A major
portion of funds is required for purchasing plant and machinery, while the requirement of funds for
its day to day operations will also increase due to such decisions. The sources of funds are generally
classified into owner's funds and borrowed funds. Growfast Co Ltd. can raise required funds by
employing both the above mentioned sources to fulfill its needs.
a) Which two types of capital requirements of Growfast Co. Ltd. are discussed above? Give
example of each.
b) Name the explain the two sources of owner's funds which Growfast Co. Ltd. could use to raise
finance.
c) Name anyone source of borrowed funds and give its one limitation. (2+2+2)
26. Manoj Oswal started a hosiery factory with just two workers to manufacture inner wears for men. He
tasted success in business and installed new machines and hired more workers and engaged
supervisors. Though his business was expanding, he was able to manage the marketing part of the
business. He sold directly to customers and also to retailers in his city.
About six months back, Manoj admitted two partners into the business to expand the business further.
Both the partners contributed capital of Rs. 20 lakh each. Fresh funds were used to acquire advanced
machines and purchase raw materials and other inputs. The production has increased five times but
difficulties are being faced in marketing of finished products. The new partners want appointment of
wholesalers to distribute the products though Manoj is not in favour of this idea.
a) What marketing options are available with the firm?
b) Should wholesalers be appointed to sell the products? Why? (2+4)
...
PART A-STATISTICS
1. Whatdoes wholesaleprice index measure? (1)
3. The unit of correlation between height in feet and weight in kg's is: (1)
a) Kg / feet c) feet / kg
b) Percentage d) non existent
4. The arithmetic mean of 9 observations is 100 and that of 6 is 80. The combined mean of all 15
observations will be: (1)
a) 100 c) 80
b) 90 d) 92
6. Mention two steps required in the construction of consumerprice index. How do you think the
current rise in price affects the poor sections of the society? (3)
OR
Explain three problems in construction of Index number.
7. Find Arithmetic Mean from the following data using step- deviation method: (4)
TempeC) -40 to -30 -30 to -20 -20 to -10 -10 to 00 o to 10 10 to 20 20 to 30
No of 10 28 30 42 65 180 10
days
I; I; 1: 1!5 1;0 I
0
OR
Calculatemean deviation from Median and coefficient of Mean Deviation from the data:
I ~d points
12. Calculate coefficient of correlation by means of ranking method from the following data and interpret
the result: (6)
a) Differentiate between perfect positive and perfect negative correlation. Give one example of each.
b) What is scatter diagram? State two merits and two demerits of scatter diagram. (3+3=6)
13. State any two central problems under 'problem of allocation of resources' . (1)
17. What is Marginal of Transformation? Explain with the help of numerical example. (3)
18. A consumer buys 18 units of a good at a price Rs. 9 per unit. The price elasticity of demand for the
good is (-) 1. How many units will the consumer buy at a price of Rs. 10 per unit? Calculate elasticity
of demand. (3)
OR
Price elasticity of demand of a good is (-) 1. Calculate the percentage change in price that will raise
the demand from 20 units to 30 units.
19. Give any two difference between: (4)
a) Perfect competition and monopoly
b) Monopolist competition and oligopoly
20. Define a production function. Distinguish between returns to a variable factor and returns to scale.
(4)
OR
Giving reasons, justify the following statements:
a) Law of production in short run is termed as law of variable proportions.
b) AC can decrease even ifMC increases with increase in level of production.
21. Explain how the following factors determine the elasticity of demand of a good? (4)
a) Proportion of income spent on a good by a consumer.
b) Nature of commodity.
22. a) After reaching the point of equilibrium, consumer would not like to change his allocation of
expenditure on Goods X and Y even if price of Good X changes. Do you agree? Comment.
b) Define a budget line. When can it shift to the right? (3+3=6)
•
Units of Labour TP MP AP
0
I
0
20
-- 0
2 22
3 22
4 88
5 17
6 20
24. 'As apple crop got damaged due to bitter cold, so its price soared in Delhi.' Use a diagram and
economic theory (chain effect) to analyse the statement. (6)
OR
'Households in Delhi started to prefer Pepsi as the price of Fanta and Limca have risen.' Use a
diagram and economic theory (chain effect) to analyse the impact of the rise in the price of Fanta and
Limca on the market for Pepsi.
DE LID PUBLIC SCHOOL DWARKA
FINAL TERM EXAMINATION [2018 - 20191
SUB:IDSTORY
CLASS: XI
Time: 3 Hrs.
M.M: 80
General Instructions:
1. Answer all the questions. Marks are indicated against each question.
2. In Part A answer to questions carrying 2 marks should not exceed 40 words each.
3. In Part B answer to questions carrying 4 marks should not exceed 150 words each.
4. In Par! C answer to questions carrying 8 marks should not exceed 350 words each.
5. Part D has questions based on a source carrying 5 marks each.
6. Part E is a map based question carrying 5 marks and has to be attached with the answer sheet.
PART A
1. Discuss the major changes during late antiquity. (2)
2. What are the sources of history of the Central Islamic Lands. (2)
4. What were the new developmentshelping European navigation in the 15th Century? (2)
PARTB
(ANYFIVEl
5. What is significanceof the 3rd century in the history of Roman Empire? Discuss the factors
responsible for the 3rd century crisis in the Roman Empire. (4)
8. Describe any four technological changes in cotton spinningand weaving industry. What were its
effects? (4)
9. What do you understand by 'Imperialism'? Name a few countries who encouraged imperialism.
(4) .
10. What were the major developmentsbefore the Meiji restoration that made it possible for Japan to
modernize rapidly? (4)
PARTC
(ANY FOURl
11. Discuss in detail the First Order of the Feudal society. (8)
12. What were the causes that led to rise of Protestant Reformationin the 16th century? Whatwere its
results? (8)
13. What do you understand by Industrial Revolution? When and where did it being? What sort of
reforms through laws were made by the British governmentto improve the condition of workers?
What were the weaknesses of these measures? (8)
PARTD
16. Read the following paragraph and answer the questions below:
Thomas Jefferson, third President of the United States of America and a contemporary of
Wordsworth, spoke of the natives in words that would lead to a public outcry today:
"This unfortunate race which we have been taking so much pains to civilise... have justified
extermination. '
a) Who according to Europeans were 'civilised'? (1)
b) How do Wordsworth describe natives? (1)
c) How did natives perceive Europeans? (1)
d) Why did groups of Europeans move to America in 17th century? (2)
17. Read the following paragraph and answer the questions below:
Fukuzawa yuki chi (1835-1901)
Born in an impoverished samuraj family, he studied in Nagasaki and Osaka learning Dutch and
Western sciences and, later, English. In 1860, he went as a translator for the first Japanese embassy to
the USA. This proved material for a book on the west, written not in the classical but in the spoken
style that became extremely popular. He established a school that is today the Keio University. He
was one of the core members of the Meirokusha, a society to promote Western learning.
In The Encouragement to Learning (Gakumon no susme, 1872-76) he was very critical of Japanese
knowledge: 'All that Japan has to be proud of is its scenery'. He adovated not just modem factories
and institutions but the cultural essence of the West-the spirit of civilization. With this spirit it would
be possible to build a new citizen. His principle was: 'Heaven did not create men above men, nor set
men below men.'
18. Read the following paragraph and answer the questions below:
a) Who wrote this? Write the name of the book from which it is taken. (1)
b) What do you understand by the Enclosure Movement? (1)
c) What were the effects of this movement? (3)
PARTE
19. I) On the map of world locate/shade the region and label the following.
a) Italian States
b) England
c) Mayan Civilization
II) On the given map are the two places marked as A and B identify them and write their names on
the lines drawn near them.
a) The capital of Abbasids
b) The place that was bone of contention between Christians and Muslims.
" .... --.
DELID PUBLIC SCHOOL, DW ARKA
FINAL TERM EXAMINATION [2018-20191
SUBJECT: GEOGRAPHY
CLASS: XI
Time: 3 hrs
M.M.70
(i) There are 22 questions in all divided into three sections A, Band C.
(ii) All questions are"compulsory.
(iii) Marksfor each question are indicated against it.
(iv) Question numbers 01 to 07 are very short answer questions carrying 01 mark each. Answer to each of these questionsshould not
exceed 40 words.
(v) Question numbers 08 to 13 are short answer questions carrying 03 marks each. Answer to each of these Questions should not
exceed 80-100 words.
(vi) Question numbers 14 to 20 are long answer questions carrying 05 marks each. Answer to each of these questions should not
exceed 150 words.
(vii) Question number 21 and 22 are map and diagram based carrying5 marks each.
SECTION A
1. What we study in demography? (1)
2. Which planets are called inner planets? Not their name. (1)
3. Name three types of convergent plate boundaries. (1)
4. How does the lower atmospheric layer get heated up? (1)
5. About how much percent of the total volume of water is found above the Thermocline in the deep oceans?
(1)
6. Name the corresponding Hindi month (Indian calendar) for January - February. (1)
7. According to ICAR (Indian Council for Agricultural Research) as per USDA (United States Department of
Agriculture) soil taxonomy, which order of soil has the maximum area coverage? (1)
SECTIONB
8. The following meteorological data is given here and answer the following questions: (3)
Place New Delhi (Safdarjung)
Latitude 28°35°' N
Observations: 1951 - 1980
Altitude : 216 m above mean sea level
19. Write three features of the northern plains of India arid differentiate between the Eastern Ghats and the
Western Ghats of India. (2+3)
20. How monsoon affectsthe economic life in India. Give five points. (5)
21. On the givenpolitical outline map of the world mark and label the following: (5)
A. Labrador current
B. Falkland current
C. Auglhas current
D. Humboldt current
E. Oyashio current
22. On the given politicaloutline map of India mark and label the following. (5)
A. The Northern Circar plains of India.
B. The state of Nagaland and its capital.
C. An area of annual Rainfall more than 200cm in south India.
D. An area of Montane forest in north India.
E. An area of Arid soil.
Q.21
Time: 3 Hrs.
t
General Instructions
FINAL TERM EXAMINATION [2018-2019]
SUB : POLITICAL SCIENCE
CLASS: XI
2. Answers to question carrying 2 marks may not normally exceed 40 words each.
3. Answers to question carrying 4-5 marks may not normally exceed 100 words each.
4. Answers to question carrying 6 marks may not normally exceed 150 words each.
In the parliamentary form of executive, it is essential that the Prime Minister has the support of the
majority in the Lok Sabha. This support by the majority also makes the Prime Minister very powerful.
The moment this support of the majority is lost, the Prime Minister loses the office. For many years
after independence,the Congress party had the majority in the Lok Sabha and its leader would become
the Prime Minister. Since 1989, there have been many occasions when no party had majority in the
Lok Sabha. Various political parties have come together and formed a coalition that has majority in the
House. In such situations, a leader who is acceptable to most partners of the coalition becomes the
Prime Minister. Formally,a leader who has the support of the majority is appointed by the President as
Prime Minister.
a) What is the role of the Prime Minister in the Parliament? How his position is determine by the
majority in the Parliament?
b) What is known as coalition government?
OR
Most of the Muslim majority States joined Pakistan but J&K was an exception. Under these
circumstances, it was given much greater autonomy by the Constitution. According to Article 370, the
concurrence of the State is required for making any laws in matters mentioned in the Union and
Concurrent lists. This is different from the position of other States. In the case of other States, the
division of powers as listed through the three lists automatically applies. In the case of Jammu and
Kashmir, the central government has only limited powers and other powers listed in the Union List
and Concurrent List can be used only with the consent of the State government. This gives the State of
Jammu and Kashmir greater autonomy. In practice, however the autonomy of Jammu and Kashmir is
much less than what the language of article 370 may suggest. There is a constitutional provision that
allows the President, with the concurrence of the State government, to specify which parts of the
Union List shall apply to the State. The President has issued two Constitutional orders in concurrence
with the Government of J&K making large parts of the Constitution applicable to the State. As a
result, though J&K has a separate constitution and a flag, the Parliament's power to make laws on
subjects in the Union List now is fully accepted.
a) How the government Jammu and Kashmir is different from the other states?
b) What is the tension between the Central Governmentand the State of J & K.
18. Read the given paragraph and answer the following questions: (2Y2+2Yz=5)
To achieve socialjustice in society, governments might have to do more than just ensure that laws and
policies treat individuals in a fair manner. Social justice .also concerns the just distribution of goods
and services, whether it is between nations or between different groups and individuals within a
society. [fthere are serious economic or social inequalities in a society, it might become necessary to
try and redistribute some of the important resources of the society to provide something like a level
playing field for citizens. Therefore, within a country social justice would require not only that people
be treated equally in terms of the laws and policies of the society but also that they enjoy some basic
equality of life conditions and opportunities. This is seen as necessary for each person to be able to
pursue his/her objectives and express himself. In our country for instance, the Constitution abolished
the practice of untouchability to promote social equality and ensure that people belonging to 'lower'
castes have access to temples, jobs and basic necessities like water. Different state governments have
also taken some measures to redistribute important resources like land in a more fair manner by
instituting land reforms.
a) What is known as 'just distribution' ?
b) Is it appropriate to reserve sets in the educational institution or in government employment in our
country? Discuss.
OR
Among other groups of people who are becoming marginalisedin our society are the tribal people and
forest dwellers. These people are dependent on access to forests and other natural resources to
maintain their way of life. Many of them face threats to their way of life and livelihood because of the
pressure of increasing populations and the search for land and resources to maintain them. Pressures
from commercial interests wanting to mine the resources which may exist in forests or coasts poses
another threat to the way of life and livelihoodof forest dwellers and tribal peoples, as does the tourist
industry. Governmentsare struggling with the problem of how to protect these people and their habitat
without at the same time endangering development of the country. This is an issue that affects all
citizens, not just tribal people. To try and ensure equal rights and opportunities for all citizens cannot
be a simple matter for any government. Different groups of people may have different needs and
problems and the rights of one group may conflict with the rights of another. Equal rights for citizens
need not mean that uniform policies have to be applied to all people since different groups of people
may have different needs. If the purpose is not just to make policies which would apply in the same
way to all people, but to make people more equal, the different needs and claims of people would have
to be taken into account when framing policies.
19. Read the given paragraph and answer the followingquestions: (2Y2+2Y2=5)
Perhaps one way of preventing religious discrimination is to work together for mutual enlightenment.
Education is one way of helping to change the mindset of people. Individual examples of sharing and
mutual help can also contribute towards reducing prejudice and suspicion between communities. It is
always inspiringto read stories of Hindus saving Muslims or Muslims saving Hindus in the midst of a
deadly communal riot. But it is unlikely that mere education or the goodness of some persons will
eliminate religious discrimination. In modem societies, states have enormous public power. How they
function is bound to make a crucial difference to the outcome of any struggle to create a society less
ridden with inter-community conflict and religious discrimination. For this reason we need to see what
kind of state is needed to prevent religious conflict and to promote religious harmony. How should a
state prevent domination by any religious group? For a start, a state must not be run by the heads of
any particular religion. A state governed directly by a priestly order is called theocratic. Theocratic
states, such as the Papal states of Europe in medieval times or in recent times the Taliban-controlled
states, lacking separation between religious and political institutions, are known for their hierarchies,
and oppressions, and reluctance to allow freedom of religion to members of other religious groups. If
we value peace, freedom and equality, religious institutions and state institutions must be separated.
a) What is secularism?
b) How can we reduced a communal violence?
OR
The nineteenth century German philosopher Friedrich Nietzsche was one of those who glorified war.
Nietzsche did not value peace because he believed that only conflict could facilitate the growth of
civilisation. Several other thinkers have similarly condemned peace and commended strife as a vehicle
of individual heroism and social vitality. The Italian social theorist, Vilfredo Pareto (1848-1923),
argued that people who were able and willing to use force to achieve their goals constituted the
governing elites in most societies. He described them as 'lions'. This is not to suggest that the cause of
peace had no champions. In fact, it occupied a central. place in the original teachings of almost al1
rel igions. The modem era too has witnessed ardent advocates of peace, both in the spiritual and
secular domains. Mahatma Gandhi would figure prominently among them. However, the
contemporary preoccupation with peace can be traced to the atrocities of the twentieth century, which
resulted in the death of millions of human beings. You may have read about some of these events in
your history textbooks: the rise of Fascism, Nazism and the World Wars. Closer home in India and
Pakistan we have experienced the horrors of Partition.
20. Look at the map given below and answ(!r the following questions: (3+2=5)
J
I
a) Name the five state of India and :pakistan after the partition.
b) Name the three states of India with the political parties which made demands of autonomy from
the to time.
21. Observing the cartoon below and answer the following questions: (2Yz+2Yz=5)
22. Several reports show that caste groups previously associated with scavenging are forced to continue in
this job. Those in positions of authority refuse to give them any other job. Their children are
discouraged from pursuing education. Which of their Fundamental Rights are being violated in this
instance? (6)
OR
What is the difference between the system of reservation of constituencies and the system of separate
electorate? Why did the Constitution makers reject the latter?
23. How has the system of parliamentary committee affected the overseeing and appraisal of legislation by
the Parliament? (6)
OR
In what way can public interest litigation help the poor?
24. Explain the reason for requiring special majority for amending the Constitution. (6)
OR
Why is it said that the making of the Indian Constitution was unrepresentative? Does that make the
Constitution unrepresentative? Give reasons for your answer.
25. There is a view that absolute economic equality is neither possible nor desirable. It is argued that the
most a society can do is to try and reduce the gaps between the richest and poorest members of
society. Do you agree? (6)
OR
Briefly discuss the three principles of justice outlined in the chapter? Explain each with examples.
26. Differentiate between political, economic and cultural rights. Give examples of each kind of right.
(6)
OR
All citizens may be granted equal rights but all may not be able to equally exercise them. Explain.
Time: 3 Hrs.
t
General Instructions
FINAL TERM EXAMINATION (2018-2019)
SUB: POLITICAL SCIENCE (6th SUBJECT)
CLASS: XI
2. Answers to question carrying 2 marks may not normally exceed 40 words each.
3. Answers to question carrying 4-5 marks may not normally exceed 100 words each.
4. Answers to question carrying 6 marks may not normally exceed 150 words each.
6. What are the main consideration of the definitionof the 'country'? (2)
9. Who is the Chief officer of the Municipal Corporation?Mention one of his function. (2)
14. What are the hindrances in the way of citizenship? Suggest ways to remove them. (4)
17. Read the given paragraph and answer the followingquestions: (2Yz+2Yz=5)
There are two sets of government created by the Indian Constitution: one for the entire nation called
the union government(central government)and one for each unit or State called the State government.
Both of these have a constitutional status and clearly identified area of activity. If there is any dispute
about which powers come under the control of the union and which under the States, this can be
resolved by the Judiciary on the basis of the constitutionalprovisions. The Constitution clearly
demarcatessubjects, which are under the exclusive domain of the Union and those under the States.
One of the importantaspects of this division of powers is that economic and financial powers are
centralisedin the hands of the central government by the Constitution. The States have immense
responsibilitiesbut very meagre revenue sources.
a) Define the division of the powers of the Indian government?
b) Define union list, state list, concurrent list and residuary powers?
OR
In the middle of the 1960s Congress dominance declined somewhat and in a large number of States
opposition parties came to power. It resulted in demands for greater powers and greater autonomy to
the States. In fact, these demands were a direct fallout of the fact that different parties were ruling at
the centre and in many States. So, the State governments were protesting against what they saw as
unnecessary interference in their governments by the Congress government at the centre. The
Congress too, was not very comfortable with the idea of dealing with governments led by opposition
parties. This peculiar political context gave birth to a discussion about the concept of autonomy under
a federal system. Finally, since the I990s, Congress dominance has largely ended and we have entered
an era of coalition politics especially at the centre. In the States too, different parties, both national and
regional, have come to power. This has resulted in a greater say for the States, a respect for diversity
and the beginning of a more mature federalism. Thus, it is in the second phase that the issue of
autonomy became very potent politically.
a} Discuss the reason for the decline of the Congress in 1960s and 1990s.
b} What was the system of the canalisation government in India?
18. Read the given paragraph and answer the following questions: (lYz+lYz=5)
In modern times, elected local government bodies were created after 1882. Lord Rippon, who was the
Viceroy of India at that time, took the initiative in creating these bodies. They were called the local
boards. However, due to slow progress in this regard, the Indian National Congress urged the
government to take necessary steps to make all local bodies more effective. Following the Government
of India Act 1919, village panchayats were established in a number of provinces. This trend continued
after the Government of India Act of 1935.
a) What was the type of a self governing body in the village level?
b) Mention the amendments made in India in local government in villages and town?
OR
All States now have a uniform three tier Panchayati Raj structure. At the base is the 'Gram Panchayat'.
A Gram Panchayat covers a village or group of villages. The intermediary level is the MandaI (also
referred to as Block or Taluka). These bodies are called Mandai or Taluka Panchayats. The
intermediary level body need not be constituted in smaller States. At the apex is the Zilla Panchayat
covering the entire rural area of the District. The amendment also made a provision for the mandatory
creation of the Gram Sabha. The Gram Sabha would comprise of all the adult members registered as
voters in the Panchayat area. Its role and functions are decided by State legislation.
a) Why the three tier structure was required in the system of the government?
b) What is the election system in the gram sabha?
19. Read the given paragraph and answer the following questions: (lYz+lYz=5)
For some articles of the Constitution, special majority is not sufficjent. _When an amendment aims to
modify an article related to distribution of powers between the States and the central government, or
articles related to representation, it is necessary that the States must be consulted and that they give
their consent. We have studied the federal nature of the Constitution. Federalism means that powers of
the States must not be at the mercy of the central government. The Constitution has ensured this by
providing that legislatures of half the States have to pass the amendment bill before the amendment
comes into effect. Apart from the provisions related to federal structure, provisions about fundamental
rights are also protected in this way. We can say that for some parts of the Constitution, greater or
wider consensus in the polity is expected. This provision also respects the States and gives them
participation in the process of amendment. At the same time, care is taken to keep this procedure
somewhat flexible even in its more rigid format: consent of only half the States is required and simple
majority of the State legislature is sufficient. Thus, the amendment process is not impracticable even
after taking into consideration this more stringent condition.
a) How does the Indian state participate in the process of amendment?
b) What is the role of the central government in federalism?
OR
Amendments made so far may be classified in three groups. In the first group there are amendments,
which are of a technical or administrative nature and were only clarifications, explanations, and minor
modifications etc. of the original provisions. They are amendments only in the legal sense, but in
matter of fact, they made no substantial difference to the provisions. This is true of the amendment that
increased the age of retirement of High Court judges from 60 to 62 years (15th amendment). Similarly,
salaries of judges of High Courts and the Supreme Court were increased by an amendment (55th
amendment). We may also take the example of the provision regarding reserved seats in the
legislatures for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes. The original provision said that these
reservations were for a period of ten years. However, in order to ensure fair representation of these
sections, it was necessary to extend this period by ten years. Thus, after every ten years an amendment
is made to extend the period by another ten years. This has led to five amendments so far. But these
amendments have not made any difference to the original provision. In this sense, it is only a technical
amendment.
a) Why there was need for amendment in the constitution?
b) What are the provision made in the 55th amendment?
20. Look at the map given below and answer the following questions: (5)
611·
INDIA
AOJM":ENT r:Ot JNTRIES
I:"
800.em
9.2'
a) During discussion on the national language in the Constituent Assembly, Nehru had to appeal to
the Hindi-speaking province. What was the reason for the appeal? Discuss.
22. Why is it necessary for a country to have a clear demarcation of powers and responsibilities in the
constitution? What would happen in the absence of such a demarcation? . (6)
OR
Which of the Fundamental Rights is in your opinion the most important right? Summarise its
provisions and give arguments to show why it is most important.
23. Why do you think is the advice of the Council of Ministers binding on the President? Give your
answer in not more than 100 words. (6)
OR
How has the system of parliamentary committee affected the overseeing and appraisal of legislation by
the Parliament?
24. What are the demands raised by States in their quest for greater autonomy? (6)
OR
Many amendments to the Constitution of India have been made due to different interpretations upheld
by the Judiciary and the Parliament. Explain with examples.
25. A government report on farmers' problems says that small and marginal farmers cannot get good
prices from the market. It recommends that the government should intervene to ensure a better price
but only for small and marginal farmers. Is this recommendation consistent with the principle of
equality? - (6)
OR
What are generally considered to be the basic minimum requirements of people for living a healthy
and productive life? What is the responsibility of governments in trying to ensure this minimum to all?
26. What do you think are the limitations of nationalism? (6)
OR
Explain the concept of principled distance.
27. Use of violence does not achieve just ends in the long run. What do you think about this statement?
OR
In your view how successful have popular struggles like been in making the state responsive to the
social and environmental costs of development? Discuss with examples. (6)
DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL DWARKA
FINAL TERM EXAMINATION 2018-19
SUB: PSYCHOLOGY
CLASS: XIA&C
GENERAL INSTRUCtiONS
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Q. Nos. 1 to lOin Part A carry 1 mark each.
3) Q. Nos. 11 to 16 in Part B carry 2 marks each. Answer to each question
should not exceed 30 words.
4) Q. Nos. 17 to 20 in Part C carry 3 marks each. Answer to each question
should not exceed 60 words.
5) Q. Nos. 21 to 26 in Part D carry 4 marks each. Answer to each question
should not exceed 100 words.
6) Q. No 27 & 28 in Part E carry 6 marks each. Answer to each question
should not exceed 200 words.
TIME: 3 Hrs. M.M: 70
SECTION A
SECTIONC
17)How do socio-cultural factors influence our perception?
18)Explain the stage model of memory.
19)Why does forgetting take place?
20) What is the relationship between culture and thinking?
SECTION D
21) What are the different kinds of psychological data collected by researchers?
22) What is a neuron? Explain their functions with the help of a diagram.
23)Discuss the acculrurative strategies adopted by individuals during the course of
acculturation.
24) What are the factors influencing sustained attention?
25)Explain the different forms of cognitive learning.
26)Does physiological arousal precede or follow an emotional experience? Explain.
SECTION E
27) What are the steps in conducting scientific research?
28)How does the autonomic m:1"Iuus system help us in dealing with an emergency
situation? Explain.
OR
Describe the main agents of sociulization,
****************
DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL DW ARKA
FINAL TERM EXAMINATION 2018-19
SUB: PSYCHOLOGY
CLASS: Xl H&I
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Q. Nos. 1 to lOin Part A carry 1 mark each.
3) Q. Nos. 11 to 16 in Part B carry 2 marks each. Answer to each question
should not exceed 30 words.
4) Q. Nos. 17 to 20 in Part C carry 3 marks each. Answer to each question
should not exceed 60 words.
5) Q. Nos. 21 to 26 in Part D carry 4 marks each. Answer to each question
should not exceed 100 words.
6) Q. No 27 & 28 in Part E carry 6 marks each. Answer to each question should
not exceed 200 words.
TIME: 3 Hrs. M.M: 70
SECTION A
1) When variables cannot be manipulated in a laboratory setting, we adopt the
method.
-----
2) and work together to allow behavior to unfold within
and across societies.
3) The general measure of the stimulus magnitude of sound is known as _
4) When the onset of conditioned stimulus precedes the onset of unconditioned
stimulus, and the CS ends before the end of US, it is called _
conditioning.
5) The process through which certain stimuli are selected from a group of others is
generally referred to as _
6) The two types of unconditional stimuli are and _
conditioning.
7) "Children are born with universal grammar". This was proposed by
II )Differentiate between a speed test and a power test. Give an example for each.
12)What does 'evolution' refer to?
13)DitTerentiate between absolute and ditference threshold.
14)Explain 'category clustering'.
15)What are the determinations of verbal learning?
16)Explain any two-control process of LTM.
SECTIONC
SECTION D
21) What are the aspects a researcher keeps in mind while collecting data?
22) Apart from random assignment. what are the other methods used to control
relevant variables by experuucutersv Explain.
23)How does the autonomic nervous system help us in dealing with an emergency
situation?
24)Explain the determinants of operant conditioning.
25) What is the relationship between language and thought?
26) Why is it important to manage negative emotions? Suggest ways of enhancing
positive emotions.
SECTION E
27) With the help of a diagram, explain how neurons transmit information.
28) Why does forgetting take plucc? How is retrieval related forgetting different from
forgetting due to interference?
OR
Describe the hierarchical organization in LTM.
****************
DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL DW ARKA
FINAL TERM EXAMINATION [2018 - 2019)
SUB: PHYSICAL EDUCATION
• CLASS: XI
Time: 3 Hrs. M.M: 70
1. Write the first central government physical education committee. When was it established? (1)
3. What are Stoke Mandeville Games? In which year these games were started? (1)
7. Write any two disabilities which come under adaptive physical education. (1)
12. What are the various principles of integratedphysical education? (Any four) (2)
13. How many constituents of pranayama are there? Explain them with their meanings. (2)
14. What is Olympic Motto? In which year the Motto was given? (4)
15. Write any ten objectives ofNetaji SubhashNational Institute of Sports. (5)
17. Discuss any five measures adopted by the government for better implementation of inclusive
education. (5)
20. Elaborate on any two behavioural techniques for physical activity. (5)
3. Name the agency which is responsible for preparing sports competition calendar for whole year.
16. What are the various rules of Ancient Olympic Games? (5)
20. What are adventure sports? Explain any four objectives of adventure sports. (5)
21. Discuss any three preventive measures and two management measures of back pain. (5)
3. Who refused to honour Jasse Owens during 1936 Berlin Olympic Games? (1)
4. When did the Paralympic Games events of amputees and visually impaired athletes were organized
for the first time. (1)
S. Name one nutritional ingredient which was used by the athletes in the 3rd century BC to enhance the
performance during Olympic competition which were held between 776 BC and 393 AD. (1)
12. Why hormones and metabolic modulators are prohibited at All Time or In and out of competition.
Give two examples of metabolic modulators. (2)
20. What are the various principles of integrated physical activity? (5)
21. Explain any two behavioural change techniques for physical activity. (S)
22. What is yoga nidra? Discuss any four advantages of yoga nidra. (S)
23. What do you mean by adventure sports? Explain trekking in detail. (S)
24. What is the importance of test, measurement and evaluation is sports? (S)
2S. Answer the following: . (2x5=10)
a) Role of various professional for children with special need.
b) Five anti-doping rules.
c) Importance of sports psychology.
DELID PUBLIC SCHOOL DW ARKA
FINAL TERM EXAMINATION [2018 - 2019]
. SUB: PHYSICAL EDUCATION
CLASS: XI
Time: 3 Hrs. M.M: 70
1. When was Indian Olympic Association established? Who was the first (IOC) member in India?
(1)
2. What do you mean by the term objectives of physical education? (1)
3. How many players were murdered in 1972 Munich Olympic Games? (1)
....:.._~_ c 4. Who started a sports competition for British World.War II veteran patients with spinal injuries? What
was the name given to these games? (1)
5. What is the full form of WADA? (1)
15. Whenwas InternationalParalympic committee was established? Where is its head quarter?
(2)
16. Writeany six materials required for surfing. (3)
17. Writeany six objectives ofNetaji SubhashNational Institute of Sports. (3)
18. Writea short note on Olympic motto. (4)
19. How many constituents of pranayama are there? Explain them. Also write six types of pranayama.
(5)
20. What are the various principles of adapted physical education? (5)
1. Mention any five paintings and their respective sub-school from the Rajasthan School of Miniature
~~~ ~
2. Evaluate the artistic achievements of Nihal Chand with special reference to his art work included in
your course of study. (5)
3. Which human life values are expressed in the painting - "Bharat Meets Rama at Chitrakut"? Explain
the painting and human life values. (5)
7. Appreciate the following paintings '00- the basis of arrlsrname, subject matter and composition.
(Attempt any One) (5)
a) Maru Ragini ..
b) Chaugan Players
8. Write an essay on origin and development of Rajasthani School of miniature painting. (10)
.HELm PUBLIC SCHOOL DW ARKA
FINAL TERM EXAMINATION [2018 - 20191
SUB : FINE ARTS (6th Subject)
CLASS: XI
Time : 2~ Hrs. M.M: 40
General Instructions:-
1. All questions are compulsory
2. Mention thetime period of each artwork
3. The word limitfor all questions is atleast 2()Owords.
1. Describe the origin and development of Rajasthani School of miniature painting. (5)
OR
Write the f-eaaues-of-Rajathan! school of miniature painting. (Mention names of few paintings too)
5. Discuss the architectural details and surface decorations of "Taj Mahal". (5)
a) -Bhal8t-Meet-s--at-Gnitralrut
b) Radha (Bani Thani)
--~~)- Raja Anirudha Singh Hara
d) Chaughan Players
< •
.DELID PUBLIC SCHOOL DW ARKA
FINAL TERM EXAMINATION [2018 - 2019)
SUB: FINE ARTS
CLASS: XI -: I
Time: 2~ Hrs. . M.M: 40
General Instructions:-
1. All questions are compulsory
2. Mention the timeperiod 0/ each artwork
3. The word limit/or all questions is atleast 200 words.
1. Appreciate the sculpture "Mara Vijaya" on the basis of its style and composition. (5~
2. Write an essay on origin and development of Rajasthani School of miniature painting. (5)
OR
Describe the features of Rajathani school of miniature painting. (Mention names of few painting too)
3. Rajasthani miniatures had simple and straight forward composition in which main figures standout
against a flat background in dark and bright colours. Explain a painting which shows the above
mentioned characteristic. (5)
_---
DELm PUBLIC SCHOOL DWARKA
FINAL TERM EXAMINATION [2018 - 2019]
SUB : FINE ARTS
CLASS: XI.~
Time: 2YzHrs. . M.M: 40
Generallnstructions:-
1. All questionsare compulsory
2. Mention the timeperiod of each artwork.
3. The word limitfor all questions is atleast 200 words.
1. Mention names of any five painters of Rajastbani School of miniature painting. (5)
2. Describe the features of Rajathani school of miniature painting. (Mention names of few painting too)
(5)
3. Discuss a Buddhist painting from Ajanta Caves. (5)
4. Describe the sculpture "Uma" on the basis on its medium, style and composition. (5)
\
5. What do you understand by the term "Indo Islamic Architecture"? Describe a monument from
Bijapur built in this style, .: (5)
6. Write a short note on compositional arrangement and colour scheme of following painting. (15)
(Mention the name of artist, su.b-scbooIAmedwGK),~g-) (-Atteft'\1'tany Three)
5. Consider the following string ''Empowerment'' and give the commands to do the following _ (2)
a) Slice the string into two halves
b) Convert the entire string in capital letters.
c) Command to check whether the string has all digits or not.
d) Concatenate the above string with the string "comes with responsibility"
~ ....
6.
....,.......,.._, ....~... - _ -._ _ .. -............ --- ---..-----~-
......... .. ....
Answer the following questions based on lists
--.,.~__... ........... ,.,~ ......,.,....-..........._, ......................... ;..,.,.-_.
10. a) Create a CSVfile that has data of your four friends in a file called friends.txt and read it to a data
frame. (2)
b) What is the difference between read_csvOand to_csvOfunctions? (1)
13. a) Program to read three numbers(integers) and printsthem in ascending order. (3)
b) Write a program that reads a line and then prints (3)
* No. of uppercase characters
* No. of alphabets.
I
DELID PUBLIC SCHOOL DWARKA
FINAL TERM EXAMINATION (2018-20191
SUBJECT: LmRARY AND INFORMATION SCIENCE
CLASS-XI
Time: 3 Drs M.M: 70
Genera/Instructions:
1. All Questionsare compulsory.
2. Answer should be precise and to thepoint.
3. No. of Questions t 17
SECTION A
1. How can library provide better information services in an automated enyironment? Discuss in detail,
(7)
OR
2. How can the librarian save the time of the users? Explain.
SECTIONB
5. Differentiate between (4x4= 16)
12. What do you mean by Modem? How does Modem work? (5)-
OR
What are the different types of online reference sources?
SECTIOND
14. Write the features of soul. (5)
15. What is the role of a Switch in a computer network? Discuss various types of switches. (5)
16. What are components ofRFID? Point out the advantages ofRFID. (5)
17. Explain the types of Documentary and Non Documentary sources. (5)
DELID PUBLIC SCHOOL DWARKA
FINAL TERM EXAMINATION (2018- 20191
SUB: WEB APPLICATIONS
CLASS: XI
Time: 3 Drs. M.M: 60
General Instructions:
Questions Paper is divided into Five Sections:
1. Section A - Questions 1 to 4 Contains MCQs (1 mark each) and 5to 7 Contains Very
2. Short Answer (2 marieseach) (GEM QUESTIONS)
3. Section B - Questions 8 to 17Contain MCQs (1 mark each) (TECHNICAL QUESTIONS)
4. Section C - Questions 18 to 24 Contain Very Short Answer (2 MariesEach)
5. Section D - Questions 25 to 31 Contain Short Answer (3 Marks Each)
6. Section E - Questions 32 to 35 Contain Long Answer (5 Marks Each)
7. All questions of that particular section must be placed in the correct order.
8. Please check that this question paper contains 35 questions.
SECTIONE(3X5=15 MARKS)
035 Write a program to create two buttons. Print the current time when the first button is clicked and
the current date when the second one is clicked. 5
DELm PUBLIC SCHOOL, DW ARKA
FINAL TERM EXAMINATION [2018 -2019]
SUBJECT: INFORMATICS PRACTICES
CLASS: XI
4. a) What is the difference between Break and Continue statements in Python? (2)
b) Write the program to find the sum alternate even numbers from 2 to 50. (2)
5. a) Consider the following string "Booksource" and reverse it and print. (1)
b) Slice the string "Millennium" into two halves (I)
b) Convert the string "DEFENCE" in small letters. (1)
c) Command to check whether the string has all digits or not. (1)
d) Command to slice the string SI from the 3rd position till 6th position (1)
b) Write the most appropriate list method to perform the following tasks. (2)
i) Delete a ~iven element from the list iii) Add an element in the end of the list
ii) Delete 3r element from the list. Iv) Add an element in the beginning of the list
9. a) What is the difference between NumPy array and Series object? (2)
b) Explain ndim and dtype attributes of Series object. (1)
c) What is a DataFrame? Explain the following DataFrame attributes. (3)
columns dtypes axes ndim
d) Explain the following data frame functions-
merget) and combine _firstt) (2)
e) Look at the following Data Frame and answer the questions -
i) Print the 2nd and 3rd row of the data frame (1)
ii) Insert a new column called SPhoneto store the student phone number (1)
iii) Sort the data frame basedon S_ID (1)
iv) Print the dtypes and axesof the Data Frame. (1)
v) WAPto iterate over this data frame and print each data value individually along
with its row index and column name usingiterrows() (2)
13. Write a Program to count frequency of a given element in a list of numbers. (3)
------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
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int sum(int arr[], int size)
{
for(int i=O, s=O; i<size;i++)
s += arr[i];
return 5;
}
Q5a) WAP that invokes a function satisO to find whether four integers a, b, c, d sent to satisO satisfy the [5]
equation a' + b' + c' = d' or not. The function satis() returns 0 if the equation is satisfied otherwise
it returns -I.
b) Write a function cater) which intakes two integers and an arithmetic operator and prints the [5]
corresponding result.
c) Write a function displayO to print print a string s, n number of times. The function takes [5]
character(s) and integer values for variables s and n respectively. Use a default value of I for n to
make the function display string once when this argument is omitted.
d) Write a function sqlargeO that is passed two int arguments by reference and then sets the larger of [5]
the two numbers to its square.
f) A, B, C are arrays of integers of size M, N and M+N respectively. The numbers in array A appear [5]
in ascending order while the numbers in array B appears in descending order. WAP that produce
third array C by merging arrays A and B in ascending order.
g) WAP to accept rollno. and name using structure for five students. And sort them in descending [5]
order of name.
h) Using structures, give necessary declaration for an array of20 voter records, each record of which [5]
consists of three data values viz. idno, name, age. Write a program that prints idno and name for all
those voters whose age exceeds 60.
DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL. DWARKA
FINAL TERM EXAMINATION [2018 - 2019)
SUBJECT: LEGAL STUDIES
CLASS: XI
Time: 3 Hrs. M.M:I00
General Instructions:
1. All questions are compulsory.
2. 1 mark questions are required to be answered in one sentence.
3. 2 marks questions are required to be answered in 3-4 sentences.
4. 4 marks questions are required to be answered in 80 words each.
5. 5 marks questions are required to be answered in 100 -130 words each.
6. 6 marks questions are required to be answered in 150-200 words each.
6. What are the grounds on which a person can be disqualified to vote? (1)
8. State the maximum sentence that can be given in a summons case. (1)
11. Who are Ascendants as heirs under the head Intestate Succession? (2)
12. Anglo Hindu Law can be divided into two phases. Mention those two phases. (2)
13. What do you understand by the term Independent Judiciary as a feature of the Indian Constitution?
(2)
14. Explain the concept of 'Dower' under Muslim Marriage. (2)
16. Discuss the scope and relevance of Dharmashastra texts in the Hindu religion. (4)
18. Sam is law abiding citizen. He fears wrongful implication in a case. How can he prevent his arrest?
. (4)
19. Rabek was acquitted of an offence committed in 2012, by a competent court. On disclosure of an
evidence in 2015 he is again charged of the same offence. Comment upon the validity of the action.
(4)
20. Define the following terms in brief:
(4)
a) Conjugal Rights
b) De-jure Guardian
22. The Preamble of the Constitution lays down the guiding principles and the philosophy for the
Constitution. Explain the ingredients of the Preamble in detail. (5)
23. Executive is often referred to as an organ of government. Discuss the role of executive as an organ of
government. (5)
24. 'F.I.R.' is the most important document based on which the investigation begins. Elucidate the same
and state why F.I.R. is important in a Criminal Case? (5)
25. Critically analyse the relationship between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of state
policy. (6)
26. What are the different types of trials recognised under CrPC? (6)
28. Explain the rules of Intestate Succession among Hindus and give examples. (6)
30. What do you understand by the term Divorce? What does the guilty theory speaks about? What are
the grounds for divorce under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
OELID PUBLIC SCHOOL, OW ARKA
FINAL TERM EXAMINATION [2018 - 2019)
SUBJECT: LEGAL STUDIES
CLASS: XI
Time: 3 Hrs. M.M:I00
General Instructions:
1. All questions are compulsory.
2. 1 mark questions are required to be answered in one sentence.
3. 2 marks questions are required to be answered in 3-4 sentences.
4. 4 marks questions are required to be answered in 80 words each.
5. 5 marks questions are required to be answered in 100 -130 words each.
6. 6 marks questions are required to be answered in 150-200 words each.
1. What does Article 226 of the Indian Constitution deals with? (1)
3. Write 2 grounds for divorce under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. (1)
4. State any 2 salient features of Protection of women from domestic violence Act, 2005 (PWDVA).
(1)
5. What is ILO? Explain in brief. (1)
6. What does Article 217 of the Indian Constitution deals with? (1)
9. Whatdo you understand by the term Textual Hermeneutics? Give an example. (2)
10. Article 50 of the Indian Constitution ensures the Independenceof judiciary. State any 2 provision of this
Article. (2)
12. Which landmarkcase limits the power of the Parliamentto amend the Indian Constitution?
(2)
13. Define the term Dower. (2)
14. Explain the rules relating to Intestate Succession. Under Hindu SuccessionAct, 1956. (2)
25. What does the theory of separation of power imply? How has the concept of separation of powers
originated? Write one function of each organ of the government. (6)
26. State and explain the different sources of the Indian Constitution. (6)
27. Romal was aggrieved by the decree passed by the Delhi High Court in a civil proceedings. (6)
a) Can Romal make an appeal against such decree? Explain.
b) State different jurisdictions of Supreme Court.
6. State any two criteria given by A.R. Desai to describe the performance of a welfare state. (2)
15. 'The ideology of competition is the dominant ideology in capitalism.' Explain. (4)
16. What are the advantages that the villages as a site of research offered to Indian Sociology?
(4)
17. Briefly discuss the Normative aspects of culture. (4)
18. Explain the two ways in which social order can be achieved. (2+2=4)
19. How was work carried out in agrarian society? Also, explain the concept of work through assembly
line production in post-industrial society. (2+2=4)
20. What are sub-cultures? How does social role impart identity to an individual? Explain. (1+3=4)
21. What do you understand by Anomie? Discuss the concept of social constraint as given by Durkheim.
(1+3=4)
22. Discuss the concept of Domain of Authority. (6)
23. How does Karl Marx co-relate the concept of economy with the mode of production? Explain.
(6)
24. Highlight caste as a system of social division as given by G.S. Ghurye. (6)
25. Read the following passage and answer the questions given below: (6)
In experiments lasting over a year, the team, led by Dr. Mike Bergin of the Georgia Institute of
Technology in Atlanta, collected airborne particulate matter (PM) in air filters at the site. These were
"found to contain relatively high concentrations of light - absorbing particles that could potentially
discolour the Taj Mahal marble surfaces, that include black carbon (Be), light absorbing organic
carbon (brown carbon, BrC), and dust".
Their analysis of particles deposited on marble "surrogate" samples suspended from the top of the Taj
indicate that a large proportion of the surface is covered with particles that contain both carbon
components and dust. The team developed a novel approach that estimated the impact of these
particles on the reflectance of visible light. This in tum was used to estimate the perceived colour by
the human eye.
a) Which form of environmental hazard has affected the glory of Taj Mahal? Why is environmental
management a complex and huge task for society? (1+3=4)
I'
DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL DW ARKA
FINAL TERM EXAMINATION (2018 - 20191
SUB: SOCIOLOGY
CLASS: XI
Time: 3 Hours M.M: 80
General Instructions:
1. There are 25 questions in all.
2. pAll questions are compulsory
3. Q. No. 1-14 are of 2 marks each, to be answered in about 30 words.
4. Q. No. 15-21 are of 4 marks each, to be answered in about 80 words.
5. Q. No. 22-24 are of 6 marks each, to be answered in about 200 words.
6. Q. No. 25 carries 6 marks, to be answered based on the passage given.
7. Answers should be precise and to the point.
12. Mention any two points of difference between Laws and Norms. (2)
15. Explain with the help of an example how cooperation entails conflict. (4)
17. In what way has ecology been modified by human action? Explain. (4)
20. Describe Weber's concept ofIdeal type with the help of appropriate examples. (4)
21. Explain the concept of Genetically Modified Organisms as an environmental problem. (4)
22. Discuss the snippets of the debate between G.S. Ghurye and Verrier Elwin. (6)
23. What according to Durkheim is a social fact? Describe Durkheim's vision of Sociology. (2+4=6)
24. How did the land reform movement impact rural societies after independence? Explain. (6)
25. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: (6)
PATNA: Stressing on the importance of girl education, CM Nitish Kumar on Monday said that the
state government would help to reduce population, stop female foeticide and end child marriage.
Inaugurating the three - day Shiksha Diwas, Kumar said that the government was emphasizing on
educating women as they, in tum, would educate the whole family.
In fact, in a bid to pacify disgruntled 'tola sewaks' who raised voices of protest during his speech,
Kumar said their post, it regularized, would also be open for general category and not just for the
reserved categories. "While the same number of posts is created, reservation rules would be applicable
and only a few of you would get appointed," the CM told them. He, however, said the state would
consider increasing their salary. Kumar said the salary of librarians would be fixed at Rs. 11,000.
a) "Emphasis should be on educating women as they, in tum, would educate the whole family."
Justify the statement. (2)
b) Suggest any four measures that can be taken for empowering women of our country. (4)
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(IT) ~ 3ltA llffiT-flmT q,') ~ ~ ~ ~ CflIT q;6~1Cf)~ ~ "® ~ ? (2)
8. ~k1~R~H1 If ~ ~ Gl ~ ~ \m'R ~ - (2x2=4)
1. ~ ~ 31r411'{ft' ~ ~ 1JG ~ 3frqR 1R m ~ ~ I
2. ~ ft ~ If 3TfW ct>T '~ ctft ~ ~ "fJlfR ct<if Cffi IT<rr ~?
3. ~ ~ ~ ~ cgc;r cpr o:rm ~ CJR~ ~ ?
9. ~~~~- (3x2=6)
1. ~ ~ 1JG ~ 3frqR 1R ~ ctft ~-~ 1R WPm ~ I
2. ~ 311«' ~ ~ 1Wr tffG<f 1R WPm ~ I
10. ~k1~itl(l 41G:lli~1q;l ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ \mR ~ -
~ 3l(>l)!ftcft1 ~ m~ I 411~(H'"11lf ~ If q;GI~q
lJif ~ I q~(lvfl ~ ~
~ ~ tT 3TCffR m fcp q~(lvfl ct>T ~ ~ Cf>OR iffil ~ ~ I ETGci 1W 3lrT ~ ~ mr
~ lfR <r6 m rJ S3IT fcp \FJCPT mw ~ ~ I q~(l\111 ol ~ em $f cpr ~ ~ -m
~ rJ ~ 2lT I f<fflR fcl;m <r6 3l'4T ~ ~ ~ I lJfllT-~ ~ ~ -q 3l'4T rJtl ~ I ~
~, Bl$lCf)(l1~ I ~ cft;r-1Wr xl' ~-fIT\ ~, ~ rJ ~, 6lf ~ ~ I~ ~ -q flR;r
~ I~ 31t1lJR m xl' mw CflIT ~ I 6lf ~ "ffi6 3ITtffi ~ ~ tr t I ~ ol
cpcffi ~ it Cffi - 6lf ~ fffil o:rnf ~ ~ I 31<;M'l<n1 ol ftm ~ cpr ~ ~ xm
m, <m tM ~ ~ ~ itl'tlCf)(l1 S3lTlIT<ff S3IT I ~ 3lR ~ ~ q,') ~ me c;rft I ~
3l'4T "(1Cf) tR q,') 'tl if&l~ ~ cpr ~ ~ 2lT I 3ltR ~ xl' ~ - <>nCfT \;ft, ~ ~ ~
-;fie ~ ~ em ~ CfRT, 3ITtJ ~ "W1ll" ~ ftt6 m ~ t I ~ ol TR11 ~ Cffi - ~
~ rJtl, ~ ~ '4T ~ ~ 1Wf ~ rJtl ~ ~ I
(cp) tio 3l(>l)!ftifl1~ ma
6ft cpr CflIT Cf)RUT m? (2)
(~) ~ ~ ~ cpr ~ ct<if 3fR qRl ~ ? (2)
(IT) 31(>1)cfIcfl1cpr -mm ctRt ~ IT<rr ? (2)
(tT) fliftc<1Cf)l~ cpr CflIT 3T~ ~ ? (1)
Page 3 of4
~ ~~c~ ~ '<j4Re;gc cpT ~, "3lTVf ~ ~ ~ ~ qrt:Rf 31T ~ ~ I 3lTGf ~
~ ~ ~ ~ ~ q,'l ~ ~ wFf W ~ I \ill ~ ~ "{IT, ~ ~ ~cpl~
~ I" "WI c$ ~ ~ ~ '<j4Re;gc ~ q,'l ~ WtR \ffiC6 llffi 3WIT, '1fffi m!" 3mf ~
Cffi" ~ ~ ~ cpT ~ ~ ~~I~I, '~ ~ ~ ~ cpT ~ 3lR ~
CJil ~ ~ ~,
~ q,'l "flRt 3ict~f~~ ~u1GI~ 3ltR fm ~ ~ ~ I Cf)('f ~ ~ m ~ ~, 3tR Wf ~
~ ~ qcC6F<1 6lfm;r CJR <WT I w=m m? 3TfGJ ~ ~ ~ m~ I"
(Cf» ~ ~ ~ m ~ ~' ~ ~ if "$A ~ GT 1fTCJ fbt) ~ ? (2)
(~) '<j4Re;gc ~ ~ em CflIT ~~I~~{I eft ? (2)
("IT) m ~~C~ ~ '{J4Re;gc cpT CflIT ~ ? (2)
(~) ~ ~ CflIT ~ ~ ? (1)
13. ~ ~ ~ ·11ftjct>1 ~ ~ -rurr ~~ ~Icp~c6 31TlT ~ \iJFT cpr CflIT Cf>NUT £Rmn' ~?
lITO c$ 3TrCTR tR \3GIi5~ol ti ~~ ~ I (4)
Page 4 of 4
DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, DW ARKA
FINAL TERM EXAMINATION 2018-19
SUB: FRENCH (6th SUBJECT)
CLASS XI
Time: 3 Hours M.M.-IOO
SECTION A (GRAMMAlRE)
1. Ecrivez la forme correcte du verbe entre parentheses au subjonctif present (5)
a) Nous sommes contents que Ie semestre (finir) bientot.
b) Je ne pense pas que vous (ecouter) Ie prof.
c) Le prof desire que nous (faire) tous les devoirs.
d) Danielle est ravie que son ami lui (ecrire) des cartes postales.
e) Je suis desolee que tu ne (pouvoir) pas venir.
t) Nous voulons qu'ils (aller) au cinema avec nous.
g) II vaut mieux que vous (venir) en classe Iejour de I'examen final.
a
h) J'aimerais que je (aller) Paris cet ete.
i) Je suggere que tu (finir) vite tes devoirs ..
j) Nous voudrions que nous (faire) la lecon.
5. Remplissez les tirets avec un temps convenable des verbes indiques : (2.5)
a) Elle veut que nous __ (allerja la campagne.
b) II faut que nous lui (apporter).
c) II a peur que je ne (vouloir).
d) lis (dire) qu'ils ont voulu voir ce film.
e) Avant Ie depart, j' (verifier) la meteo,
(1)
7. Remplissez les tirets avec un pronom relatif compose : (2.5)
a) Le chemin it va a l'hopital est glissant.
b) C'est I'entreprise les ouvriers sont bien payes.
c) L'herbe il marche, a beaucoup de fourmis.Les problemes il pense maintenant ont ete
bien expliques par Ie professeur. .
d) La poupee elle jouait pendant son enfance est tres joile.
A) «Aimer la France dit unjoumaliste anglais, c'est aimer les rivieres.Sont-elles done si variees ? Je crois bien!
Vous trouverez chez nous des rivieres navigables qui unissent les villes et les villages; des torrents qui bondissent
du haut de la montagne; des larges tleuves comme Loire, qui baignent les murs des chateaux ...J'aime beaucoup
arreter sur les ponts et suivre de I'oeitles oiseaux et les insectes qui jouent a la surface de l'eau ...Les ponts
doivent etre nombreux sur la riviere de la France? Certainement ! Les ponts detruits par la guerre ont ete repares
et, Dieu merci, il en reste beaucoup de tres beaux, qui ont ete construits il y a des siecles. Ils franchissent les
tleuves, les rivieres ou les ruisseaux : sous leurs arches I'eau gJisse parmi les herbes qui ondulent. Elle reflete Ie
ciel, les nuages, les collines. Elle fait tourner la roue des moulins ou les machines, des usines. Le soir, apres Ie
coucher du soleil, elle se voit encore a travers les arbres, car elle retient la lumiere du jour. »
Un matin, que Ie temps est particulierernent mauvais, que la pluie tombe a verses, qu'un vent glace souffle, ils se trouvent
juste devant les murs delabres d'un chateau. lis frappent a la porte mais personne ne vient leur ouvrir. l1s poussent Ie
vantail et entrent dans Ie chateau . Ils visitent toutes les pieces. Elles sont sales, couvertes de poussieres et de grosses toiles
desorganisees pendent du plafond.
En entrant dans la derniere piece, ils s'arretent stupefait : la piece est rangee, propre ....Au centre se dresse une table
admirablement gamie de sept assiettes en argent, de plats de viande, de sauces fumantes, de legumes les plus varies, de
sept verres en cristal, de pain frais..... Dans la cheminee iI y a des buches,
(2)
I. Repoindez aux questions suivantes: (4)
a. Quel temps faisait-t-il quand les freres sont arrives devant Ie chateau?
b. Que decouvrent les freres dans la derniere piece?
II. a
Le renard invite/ la Cigogne diner/ Cigogne accepte/ Le Renard presente de la sauce en assiette/ Cigogne, a
a a
cause de son bee, ne mange rien! Cigogne invite son tour Ie Renard/ arrive I'heure/ devant lui une carafe
pleine de nourriture/le col etroit de la carafe ernpeche Ie Renard de manger/ (120 mots) (10)
(3)
RCIcl) q~q; ~, C{ql~q;1
qlfi(f) ~ (2018-2019)
~ : 411NScft, ~ :~ 'c6~q;'
• q;qm \1lfq ~ ~ ltf m ~ -q ~ tpo 4 61
.m~~~ltf m~-q
.mmcpr\ffiR~~m~~,
13 m ~I
~cpr~~~ I
• ~ m ~ q;)~ cf; ~ 15 ~ cpr~ ~ 11m tl
~3lq;: 80
(1)
(1)
(1)
(1)
(1)
(1)
(3)
(3x2=6)
Page4 of 4