s3 Resto Commdent2

RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS

SY. 2016-2017
1. In establishing cavity form for a Class II in that tooth wasloose and it was removed.
amalganm it is IMPORTANT to, No pulp exposure was evident, but the
I. limit the isthmus width to 1/4 tooth was sensitive. The patient cannot be
the intercuspal distnace whenever possible seen again for two weeks. The treatment
II. consider the depth rather than at this time would be to
width in order to prevent fracture of the filling a. smooth the rough edges and reappoint
material b. place a zinc phosphate cement
III. use pins to protect the large temporary restoration
amalgam restoration from fracture c. place a zinc oxide-eugenol cement
IV. have slight rounding of internal temporary restoration
line angles to relieve stress areas in the tooth d. cement on a metal band or shell with
The CORRECT answer is: reinforced zinc oxide-eugenol cement
e. dismiss the patient without further
a. I,II,III,IV intervention until the next scheduled visit which
b. I,II,III,V would provide sufficient time for the obviously
c. I,II,IV,V involved treatment
d. I,III,IV,V 5. A cavity prepared for a powdered gold
e. II,III,IV,V restoration on the proximal surface of an
anterior tooth ALWAYS
2. The use of composite resin for Class I a. includes contact area
restorations is not generally recommended b. extends beneath the crest of the
because its clinical performance is inferior gingival tissue
to amalgam with respect to: c. contains, 2-planed lingual wall and 2-
a. creep planed facial wall
b. fracture d. ends in the facial embrasure to
c. occlusal wear facilitate finishing and maintenance of
d. marginal breakdown the margins
e. decay e. has enamel walls which meet the
3. In the practice of preventive dentistry, surface of the tooth by following the
PRIMARY prevention refers to those general direction of the enamel rods
measures taken to 6. The MOST frequent complaint of pain after
a. prevent development of disease in the placement of an amalgam restoration is
primary dentition related to
b. prevent disease before evidence of its a. cold
occurrence is detected b. heat
c. prevent incipient disease from c. sweets
progressing to destructive activity d. galvanic shock
d. focus priority on those practices which e. biting pressure
minimize the loss of teeth 7. Cuspal reduction DECREASES
e. Ensure emphasis on prevention in all a. retention form
dental treatment at any time b. resistance form
4. A patient telephoned that she broke off a c. convenience form
big piece of her upper left back tooth. An d. pulpal involvement
emergency office visit between patients e. withdrawal form
revealed that the facial portion of the 8. An endodontically trated maxillary central
maxillary left second molar was sheared off incisor with medorated sized mesial and
level with the gingival tissue. A MOD inlay distal composite resin restorations
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
involving the facial surface and a heavy c. evaluate each patient only after total
occlusion would BEST be treated by patient treatment has been completed
restoring it with d. occasionally spot evaluate patients
a. post--retained porcelain metal full only after total patient treatment
crown rendered at the next recall
b. post-retained porcelain jacket crown e. evaluate the treatment rendered at
c. composite resin the next recall appointment in order
d. 3/4 gold crown to benefit from the service of an
e. none of the above expanded-function auxiliary
9. The location of the gingival margin in the 13. A split tooth will frequently display which
preparation of proximal cavities is of the following symptoms and signs?
influenced by the I. no radiographic evidence
I. need for retention of a cast II. moderate pain, transient in nature
restoration III. sensitivity to pressure
II. amount of gingival recession IV. thermal sensitivity
III. need to extend gingivally to clear the The correct answer is:
contact area
IV. convenience form of the cavity a. I,II
The correct answer is: b. II,III
c. III,IV
a. I,II d. II,III,IV
b. I, III e. all of the above
c. II,III 14. Of the following, the PRINCIPAL objective
d. II,IV of interproximal wedging when placing a
e. III,IV restoration is to
10. Inflammation of the pulp is MOST often a. obtain the desired separation of the
associated with teeth
a. trauma b. mark the gingival extent of the
b. galvanism restoration
c. occlusion c. control gingival hemorrhage
d. dental caries d. depress the gingival tissue
e. gingivitis e. increase the pulp
11. Pit and fissue caries is USUALLY 15. In planning the location fro placement of
characterized by cones of decay that pins for a pin-retaining amalgam, one
a. are apex to base at the DEJ should provide for
b. are base to base at the DEJ a. at least 3mm of pin extension into the
c. are apex to apex to DEJ amalgam
d. have no general pattern at the DEJ b. parallelism of the pins if more than
e. are unrecognizable one is used
12. An expanded-function dental auxiliary has c. a pin in the central dentin area of each
demonstrated to you that he can regularly cusp to be restores
complete a procedure at an acceptable d. 1mm of dentin between the pin and
quality level. Unless specifically requested the DEJ
to aid in a procedure, you should 16. One of the advantages of a cast gold inlay
a. continue to evaluate all treatment is
rendered by the auxiliary a. highly pleasing aesthetic qualities
b. occasionally spot evaluate procedures b. superior caries inhibitory qualities
as a quality control
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
c. allowance for a cementing medium to b. provided by a steep cavosurface bevel
be used of the enamel margin
d. capability of restoring anatomic form c. unnecessar since the remaining tooth
e. that it prevents further decay structure is strong
17. What happens to the surface hardness of d. provided by a steep cavosurface area
gold foil during condensation? to remove enamel prisms not
a. is increased supported by dentin
b. is decreased e. not recommended
c. remains unaltered 22. An ACCEPTABLE medicament for treating
d. either increases or decreases sensitive eroded areas in anterior teeth is
depending upon the size of condenser a. phenol
point used b. precipitated silver nitrate
e. either increases or decreases c. eugenol or other essential oils
depending upon the force applied to d. a paste composed of sodium fluoride,
the condenser kaolin and glycerin
18. When using acid-etch technique with e. a ten percent stannous fluoride
composite resins, one solution used to etch solution
enamel is 23. Which of the following statements are
a. 50% silicophosphoric acid CORRECT?
b. 75% phosphoric acid I. Dental hand instruments are divided
c. 25% hydrofluoric acid in a buffer into the ff. parts: handle, shank, blade,
d. 50% phosphoric acid in water cutting edge, nib,and face or point
e. 30% hydrochloric acid in salt water II. Cutting instruments have a handle, a
19. The shape of cavity preparation that best shank, a blade, and a cutting edge
resists displacement of the restoration in III. Noncutting instruments have a
any direction is called _____ form . handle, a shank, a nib, and a face or
a. outline point
b. resistance IV. Dr. Black also evolved the instruments
c. retention according to order names, suborder
d. convenience names, class names, and sub-class
e. restraining names.
20. One of the claims for the superiority of V. Dr. Black also evolved the instrument
composite resin restorations over silicate formula by which instruments could
cement restorations is that resin be really duplicated anywhere.
restorations VI. For example, the number of a gingival
a. final outline form of the cavity has margin trimmer is given as 15-95-8-
been established 12R. The first 2 digits(15) of the
b. resistance and retention form has formula designate the width of the
been established blade in tenths of mm, the 3rd and 4th
c. rubber dam has been placed digits (95) its length in mm, and the 5th
d. cavity has been sterilized digit(8) represents the angle which the
e. non of the above blade forms with the axis of the
21. Finishing the enamel at the gingival handle expressed in hundredths of a
cavosurface angle of a Class II cavity circle(centigrades). WIth the
preparation for amalgam is instruments in which the cutting edge
a. contraindicated because of the low is at an angle to the length of the
edge strength of amalgam blade, the 6th and 7th digits represent
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
the angle made by the edge with the d. Excavate all carious lesions and place
axis of the handle, expressed in intermediary restorative ZOE before
centigrade. The letter (R or L) signifies completing a treatment plan.
that the instrument is one of a pair e. Restore all teeth as slowly as possible
made in rights and lefts in order to using silver amalgam
work more efficiently. 27. The dietary carbohydrate most likely
The correct answer is: involved in the etiology of dental caries in
man is
a. I,III,V a. glucose
b. II,IV,VI b. sucrose
c. I,II,III,IV c. dextran
d. I,II,III,IV,V d. polysaccharide
e. I,II,III,IV,V,VI e. that produced by Streptocooccus
24. Which of the following procedures should mutans
be accomplished after an inlay is cemented 28. The potential for marginal leakage related
permanently and before the cement has to temperature change occurs to the
set? greatest extent with
a. Remove occlusal interferences a. amalgam alloy
b. Deepen the occlusal sluiceways b. silicate cement
c. Polish the inlay with sand paper disks c. unfilled resin
d. Burnish all margins for final d. composite resin
adpatation e. direct filling gold
e. Complete the polishing by use of 29. Dental wax patterns should be invested as
rubber cups and fine abrasive soon as possible after fabrication in order
25. Which of the following materials has to minimize change in the shape caused by
fluorides incorporated into it by the use of a. reduced flow
a fluoride flux in its manufacture? b. drying out of the wax
a. Zinc silicophosphate cement c. relaxation of internal stress
b. zinc phosphate cement d. continued expansion of the wax
c. polycarboxylate cement e. increased flow
d. BIS-GMA cement 30. Which of the following agents may be used
e. EBA-alumina cement on dentin as a cavity medicament because
26. After a thorough examination, a teen-aged it does not irritate the dental pulp?
patient is found to have numerous carious a. silver nitrate
lesions . Most of the proximal surfaces of b. phenol
the molars and the premolars are carious c. prednisolone
to the extent that much of the occlusal d. alcohol
enamel appears to be undermined. Of the e. chloroform
following courses of treatment, which f. ethyl chloride
would be the wisest to follow? 31. Which of the following agents may be used
a. Restore all teeth as rapidly as possible, on dentin as a cavity medicament because
using silver amalgam it does not irritate the dental pulp?
b. Place patient on a prevention regime g. silver nitrate
and delay treatment until h. phenol
effectiveness of home care is i. prednisolone
evaluated j. alcohol
c. Restore all teeth with gold inlays to k. chloroform
utilize the strength of this material
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
l. ethyl chloride b. Chemical adhesion to hard tooth
32. In working as a team, the position of the tissue under oral conditions does not
chairside assistant should be exist
a. lower than the dentist to facilitate c. Recent techniques of acid etching of
visibility enamel have produced chemical
b. at the same height as the dentist adhesion to enamel in the mouth
because they are working as a team d. Chemical adhesion is demonstrated in
c. higher than the dentist for proper clinical performance of
access and visibility to the patient’s polycarboxylate cements
oral cavity e. None of the above
d. varied, dependeing upon where the 37. Use if a rubber dam is most indicated for
dentist is working which of the following procedures?
e. none of the above I. Removal of carious dentin from deep
33. In restoring a Class II cavity, an onlay is lesions
indicated when the II. pulp capping
a. need for extra retention exists III. placement of direct filling gold
b. patient has a high caries index IV. removal of an old amalgam
c. opposing tooth has full coverage restoration
d. dentinal support of the cusps is V. opening into the pulp chamber to
questionable drain an acute periapical abscess
e. tooth is erupting but has not reached The correct answer is:
functional occlusion
f. all of the above a. I,II,III
34. A posterior tooth under a heavy occlusal b. I,II,V
load has cusps undermined with caries. The c. I,III,IV
restorative material of choice would be d. II,III,V
a. cast gold e. IV,V
b. silver amalgam 38. The anterior determinant of occlusion is
c. composite resin the
d. direct filling gold a. horizontal and vertical overlap
e. pure resin relation of anterior teeth
35. Pulpal irritation would not be expected b. horizontal overlap relation of anterior
from any restorative material provided the teeth only
minimal thickness of the material was c. vertical overlap relation of anterior
a. 0.2mm teeth only
b. 0.5mm d. cuspal inclinationin dergees
c. 1.0mm e. cuspal declination in degrees
d. 2.0mm 39. A frequent cause of interdental papillae
e. 3.0mm protruding from beneath the rubber dam is
36. Which of the following statements is true a. edematous gingival tissue
regarding chemical adhesion in clinical b. holes place too far apart
restorative materials? c. using a light-weight dam
a. Resins exhibit chemical adhesive d. holes placed too close together
properties to hard tooth structure in e. not using individual ligation of each
the mouth tooth
40. The use of functional occlusal registration
presupposes that
a. the teeth to be restored are extruded
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
b. the opposing teeth are in need of III. to furnish nerve and blood supply of
major restoration teeth
c. it is impossible to make use of an IV. cementum formation
anatomic registration V. periodontal ligament formation
d. the opposing teeth are in harmony The correct answer is:
with the remaining dentition
e. the opposing teeth are in need of a. I,II,V
minor restoration b. II,III
41. The purpose of prednisione in conjunction c. II,III,IV
with operative properties is to d. II,III,V
a. reduce the tendency for an acute e. III,IV,V
inflammatory response within the f. all of the above
pulp 45. The greatest precentage of tooth loss in
b. promote healing of the irritated pulp the first two decades of life (except natural
tissue loss of deciduous teeth) is due to
c. serve as an obtundent a. a peridontal disease
d. delay healing of the irritated pulp b. treated dental caries
tissue c. untreated dental caries
e. all of the above d. trauma to tooth from accidents
42. The property which most closely describes e. non of the above
the ability of a cast-gold inlay to be 46. What is added to render the surface of
burnished is impression hydrophilic?
a. elastic limit a. Base
b. ultimate strength
b. Catalyst
c. percentage of elongation
d. modulus of resilience c. Plasticizer
e. modulus of elasticity d. Surfactant
43. The form of a Class II cavity preparation for e. Reactors
an amalgam restoration inlcudes:
I. Extending the cavity to the line angles
of the tooth or beyond Rationale: Surfactant allows the
II. Beveling all enamel walls impression material to wet soft
III. Removing unsupported enamel along tissue better and to be poured in
the gingival wall
stone more effectively.
IV. rounding the axiopulpal line angle
The correct answer is:
47. Which of the following are
a. I,II,III
b. I,II,IV characteristic features of proximal
c. II,III,V caries on premolars and molars:
d. II,IV,V a) Spreading-cone shaped into
e. III,IV,V enamel, the base of the cone being
f. all of the above
44. Direct functions of the mature dental pulp the deepest part.
include: b) Spreading-cone shaped into
I. enamel formation enamel, the apex of the cone being
II. formation of dentin structure
the deepest part
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
c) Spreading-cone shaped into dentin point. In two surface Class two
in a conical form, the apex pointing preparation, there are 6 point
toward the pulp angles. They are:
d) Spreading-cone shaped into dentin 1. Distofaciopulpal
in a conical form, the base pointing 2. Distolinguopulpal
toward the pulp 3. Axiofaciopulpal
Rationale: Smooth surface caries 4. Axiolinguopulpal
and pit and fissure caries 5. Axiofaciogingival
progression is illustrated below. 6. Axiolinguogingival
49. The gold alloys used for casting

contain at least percent of precious
metals
a) 55%
b) 65%
c) 75%
d) 85%
Rationale: According to ADA

Specification no. 5
50. If a gold alloy has a fineness of 750, it
has how many carats?
a) 14
b) 16
c) 18
d) 20
Rationale: A 24 carat gold is

pure gold and the equivalent of 1000 fine.
48. In MO preparation, there are how 51. What ADA Specification number is for
many point angles? casting investments for dental gold
a) 2 alloys?
b) 4 a. 1
c) 6 b. 2
d) 8 c. 3
Rationale: A point angle is a d. 4
junction of three walls forming a e. 5
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
Rationale: The American Dental
Association (ADA) Specification
54. Which is true about hardness?
No. 2 for casting investments for
dental gold alloys encompasses a. Predicts the wear resistance of a
three types of investments. (Type material and its ability to abrade
I, II, III). The types are opposing dental structures
determined by whether the b. Based on its ability to accept
appliance to be fabricated is scratching
fixed or removable, and the c. Yield to indentation
method of obtaining the d. B & C only
expansion is required to e. All of the above
compensate for the contraction
Rationale: Hardness pertains to
of the molten gold alloy during
Choice A; Choice B and Choice C
solidification.
is a negation of the
characteristics of hardness which
52. Geriatric population group considered are: Based on its ability to RESIST
as the young-old: scratching and RESISTANCE to
a. 55-64 years old indentation.
b. 65-74 years old
c. 75-84 years old
d. 85 years and above 55. What is added to render the surface of
e. None of the above impression hydrophilic?
a) Base
Rationale: Ages 65-74 are
considered to be young old. Old for b) Catalyst
75-84 years old and old-old for 85 c) Plasticizer
years and above. d) Surfactant
e) Reactors
53. Special problems that will have a high
dental impact on the geriatric patient
EXCEPT: Rationale: Surfactant allows the
a. lack of adaptive potential impression material to wet soft
b. poor plaque control
tissue better and tbe poured in
c. root caries
d. periodontal breakdown and levels stone more effectively.
of toothwear.
e. None of the above
f. All of the above 56. Enamel bonding in the placement of
resin restoratives:
Rationale: All will have a high dental
impact to geriatric patients. a. greatly reduces marginal leakage
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
b. conserves tooth structure c. ability of the material to prevent
c. gives complete permanency to the postoperative discomfort
restoration d. effect of material in clinical
d. results in a smooth surface finish success of restoration
with composite e. all of the above
Rationale: Marginal leakage is Rationale: The reason for using

essentially eliminated if the enamel bonding traditional liners of bases is to either protect
technique is utilized in conjunction with the pulp or aid the pulp in recovery or both.
placement of a composite. The preparation
outline form for reception may be minimal. 59. If a body is placed under a load that
Even if a glazed would be applied its tends to shorten it, the internal
longevity is limited and the basic underlying resistance to such a load is called:
composite is not an will not remain smooth
nor will it endure permanently.
a. Compressive Stress
57. Setting time of zinc phosphate cement
b. Tensile Stress
may be increased by:
c. Sheer Stress
a. using a slab cooled to just above d. Flexural Stress
the dew point e. None of the above
b. using a lower ratio of liquid to
powder Rationale: The definition pertains to
c. using a longer mixing time compressive stress. It is associated with
d. adding the increments of a powder compressive strain. Example includes
slowly mincing of garlic.
e. a,b,c
f. a,c,d 60. A patient reports a serious allergic
g. b,c,d reaction to Oil of Cloves. Which of the
h. all of the above are correct following cements should be avoided?
a. BIS GMA
Rationale: The more liquid employed b. Glass Ionomer
to the ratio of the powder, the slower is the c. Phosphoric acid
setting rate. d. Ethoxybenzoic acid
e. Zinc oxide eugenol
58. In selecting intermediate base the 61. Which of the following statements is true
following criteria should be regarding Class IV Composite
considered: restorations?
a) A final veneer layer of microfilled
a. ability of the material to protect resin will help create a smooth,
the pulp glossy surface.
b. It is recommended to use retentive
b. ability of the material to
pins for support on Class IV
eliminate postoperative discomfort
restorations.
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
c. No answer apply resin restorations with minimal cavity
d. Tooth fragments should never be preparations except one.
reattached to the remaining tooth a) Improved esthetic outcomes
structure b. Improved retention of the
62. To extend the life of a tungsten carbide restoration
bur, the bur should c. Maximum conservation of tooth
a) Be moving fast before contacting structure
tooth structure d. Improved access for finishing of
b. Be moving slow before contacting the restoration
tooth structure 67. Which of the following does not damage
c. Contacting tooth structure before soft tissue?
rotating a) Home bleaching tx
d. Be sterilized with heat sterilization b. Placement of a matrix band in a
63. The perceived form of a restoration is tofflemire
affected by its surface characteristics in c. Placement of gingival retraction
which of the following? cord
a) Surface smoother than usual will give d. Use of an interproximal carver
the impression of a larger size e. Topical fluoride treatment
b. Teeth appear smaller when the 68. Each of the following statements
value is increased regarding sealants is true except one.
c. The illusion of increased length Which is the exception?
can be achieved with horizontal a) They are considered a non invasive
highlights procedure
d. The illusion of increased width can b. They perform as a physical barrier
be achieved with vertical highlights c. They prevent biofilm from
64. Each of the following is an indication for collecting within a pit or fissure
the placement of placing a base except d. They should be used on all
one. Which is the exception? patients teeth
a) All answer apply
b. Prevent or decrease marginal 69. Each of the following statements
leakage regarding sealants is true except one.
c. Prevent other dental materials Which is the exception?
form irritating the pulp a) They are considered a non invasive
d. Replacing missing tooth structure procedure
e. Thermal protection for the pulp b. They perform as a physical barrier
65. Each of the following is an indication for c. They prevent biofilm from
the placement of placing a base except collecting within a pit or fissure
one. Which is the exception? d. They should be used on all
a. All answer apply patients teeth
b. Prevent or decrease marginal leakage 70. Which of the statement is correct?
c. Prevent other dental materials form a) All answer is correct
irritating the pulp b. Finish diamond burs impart less
d. Replacing missing tooth structure surface damage than carbide burs
e. Thermal protection for the pulp c. Metamerism aids the dentist while
66. Each of the ff is an advantage of using selecting a shade
the acid-etch technique for composite d. Rebonding decreases both
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
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marginal integrity and color stability both the mesial and distal marginal
e. Retentive pins should be used in ridges.
class IV restorations 74. After recurrent class V caries were found
71. If a rubberdam is abnormally wrinkled on a molar that extends subgingivally,
between teeth, the probable reason is… crown lengthening surgery was
a) Overlapping and/or crowding of the performed to expose 3+mm of root
teeth involved structure. The best design feature would
b. Teeth with abnormally broad include
contacts a) Cervical line must be established in
c. The holes were punched too the restoration
closely b. The gingival margin of the
d. The holes were punched too far restoration must be placed at the
e. The holes were not punched large new gingival line
enough c. The gingival restorative margin
should be move apically until it is in
72. Each of the ff is a criteria when sound tooth structure
determining the effectiveness of a visible d. The restoration should be over
light-curing unit except one. contoured to maintain the protection
the gingival provided by buccal bulge
a) Fluoride releasing ability of the of the crown
composite being cured 75. Each of the following are TRUE regarding
b. Light exposure time self-curing sealants except ONE..
c. Shade of composite
d. Wavelength Benzoyl peroxide or aromatic tertiary amines
are components
73. A carious lesion is detected clinically and
b. Late manipulation may disrupt
is confirmed radiographically extending polymerization
from the distal pit to the central fossa c. They cure by an endothermic reaction
along the central groove of tooth #36. d. They have 2 components
The planned amalgam preparation and
restpration should… 76. sIntra-enamel preparation (or the
a) Extend from the distal pit to the roughening of the surface in under-
central fossa along the central contoured areas) before placing a
groove. It should include any enamel veneer is recommended for the
undermined by the removal of following reasons:
carious tooth structure. I. To provide space for bonding
b. Extend from the distal pit to the and veneering materials for
maximal esthetics without over-
mesial pit, along the central groove
contouring
c. Extend from the distal pit to the II. To remove the outer, fluoride-
mesial pit, along the central groove. rich layer of enamel that may be
Buccal and lingual extension should more resistant to acid-etching
be prepared as well, from the central III. To create a rough surface for
fossa along the buccal and lingual improved bonding
grooves IV. To establish a definite finish line
d. Span the entire occlusal surface, a. I, II, III
along the central groove, including b. I, II, III, IV
c. II, III, IV
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
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d. I, IV c) Quality of the restorative
material -blocks of “machinable
ceramics” or “machinable
77. The lightening of the color of a tooth
composites” specifically for
through the application of a chemical
computer-assisted milling
agent to oxidize the organic
devices.
pigmentation in the tooth is referred to
d) None of the above
as:
a. Sodium perborate
83. The rubber dam is removed before all
b. Polymethyl methacrylate
of the excess resin cement has been
c. Walking bleach
removed, marginal integrity has been
d. Bleaching
verified, and the restoration has been
polished, as needed.
78. Pulpal protection requires consideration
a) True
of the following except:
b) False
a. Mechanical protection
c) Maybe
b. Thermal Protection
c. Pulpal Medication
84. In indirect tooth restorations, the
d. All of the above
occlusal portion of the preparation
should be 2mm deep. Isthmus should
be at least 2mm wide to decrease the
79. Attrition of the incisal edges causes
possibility of fracture of the restoration.
closed incisal embrasures and angular
a) The first statement is correct, the
incisal edges.
second is wrong.
a. True
b) The first statement is wrong, the
b. False
second is correct.
c. Maybe
c) Both correct.
d) Both wrong.
80. Other term for color modifiers…
a. Hue 85. These are contraindications of tooth
b. Value colored restoration except:
c. Tints a) Heavy occlusal forces
d. Chroma
b) Deep subgingival preparation
c) Inability to maintain a dry field
81. These are causative factors of intrinsic
discoloration except: d) Large defects or previous
I. Iron deficiency restorations
II. High fevers
III. Excess fluoride 86. These are the artistic elements of
IV. Hereditary disorders conservative esthetic procedure except:
a. I, II, III a) Large restoration
b. I, II, IV b) Translucency
c. II, III, IV c) Shape or form
d. I, III, IV d) Position and alignment
82. These are disadvantages of chairside 87. What is Eame’s Technique in

CAD/CAM except: manipulating amalgam?
a) High initial cost a) Do not use squeeze cloth
b) Need for special training technique for low Hg-alloy
mixture
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
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b) Use squeeze cloth technique for c. eugenol or other essential
low Hg-alloy mixture oils
c) Do not use squeeze cloth d. a paste composed of sodium
technique for high Hg-alloy mixture fluoride, kaolin, and glycerin
d) Use squeeze cloth technique for e. a ten percent stannous
high Hg-alloy mixture
fluoride solution
88. Which is NOT true about Low Copper 92. A cavity prepared for a powdered gold
Amalgam? restoration on the proximal surface of
a) Contains 6% copper
b) Eliminates Gamma 2 resulting to an anterior tooth always
a superior property of amalgam. a. includes the contact area
c) Larger concentration of Tin- b. extends beneath the crest of
Mercury (Sn-Hg) cmpd which are
responsible for increased the gingival tissue
susceptibility to corrosion c. contains a 2-planed lingual
d) Softer than the rest of the amalgam wall and a 2-planed facial
resulting to deformation or occlusal
stress wall
d. ends in the facial embrasure
89. Which is not an element contained in to facilitate finishing and
an amalgam which improves strength
and corrosion resistance? maintenance of the margins
a) Palladium e. has enamel walls which meet
b) Indium the surface of the tooth by
c) Copper
d) None of the above following the general
direction of the enamel rods
90. Which is NOT true about glass 93. . Class II cavities prepared for cast gold
ionomers?
a) Mechanically adhesive has the differ from those prepared for
more biocompatible amalgam in
characteristic of polyacrylic acid a. principles of proximal
b) Powder: Aluminosilicate glass and extension
fluoride b. principles of resistance form
c) Liquid: Polyacrylic acid
c. use of hand cutting
d) Hybrids of silicate and
polycarboxylate cement
instruments
d. use of bevels
94. A patient has a toothache.
91. An ACCEPTABLE medicament for Radiographs show a deep carious
treating sensitive eroded areas in lesion. There is no detectable pulpal
anterior teeth is exposure upon excavation of decay.
a. phenol The best treatment as this time is
b. precipitated silver nitrate a. direct pulp capping
b. root canal therapy
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c. a permanent restoration d. have a higher coefficient of
after placing a suitable base thermal expansion
d. placement of a zinc e. expedite galvanic action
phosphate cement 98. Cohesion of direct filling gold at room
temporary restoration temperature is an example of the
e. placement of two coats of principle of
cavity varnish and an a. wedging
amalgam restoration b. annealing
95. . A patient complains of sensitivity in a c. adaptability
mandibular premolar. A well- d. atomic attraction
condensed Class V amalgam restoration e. differentiation
was placed in that tooth five months 99. . A casting is maintained in position on
previously, with no discomfort for the the tooth during chewing load primarily
first four months. Since then, it has by virtue of
become increasingly sensitive. The a. cement seal
problem probably relates to: b. retention and resistance
a. marginal leakage forms
b. fractured restoration c. sharp cavosurface angle
c. irreversible pulpal damage d. all of the above
d. toothbrush abrasion e. none of the above
e. none of the above 100. . An MO amalgam restoration is
96. . A decrease in which of the following more resistant to fracture if
properties of saliva is likely to cause a a. pins are placed in the dentin
decrease in caries activity? of the cavity preparation
a. pH b. an occlusal dovetail is
b. flow present
c. viscosity c. the unsupported enamel at
d. minimal content the gingivo- cavosurface
e. buffering capacity margin is planed
97. . one of the claims for the superiority of d. the axiopulpal line angle
composite resin restoration over angle is beveled
silicate cement restorations is that the e. the axio-pulpal line angle is
resin restorations reduced
a. prevent galvanic reaction 101. the permanent teeth which exhibit
b. are practically insoluble in the HIGHEST incidence of dental
oral fluids carious involvement are the
c. adapt to the walls of the a. maxillary first molars
cavity better b. maxillary second molars
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c. mandibular central incisors 105. . Basically, the faciolingual plane of
d. mandibular second the axial wall of a Class II cavity
premolars preparation should be
102. The optimal amount of fluoride for a. parallel to the dentino-
public drinking water of most enamel junction
communities is ___ ppm. b. placed at the dentino-
a. 0.7 enamel junction
b. 0.8 c. straight
c. 1.0 d. concave
d. 2.0 106.Acid-etching, removes the smear layer,
e. 4.0 opens the dentinal tubules, and
103. When pins are included in an demineralizes the intertubular and
amalgam restoration, there is an peritubular dentin. Drying the area is
increase in not necessary before it’s done.
I. retention a. 1st statement is correct
b. 2nd statement is correct
II. compressive strength
c. Both statements are correct
III. tensile strrength
d. Both statements are incorrect
the correct answer is: 107.In laser restorative dentistry Er:Yag
laser is attracted to haemoglobin and
a. I only melanin. Er:YAG laser is also suited for
b. I, II use in hard tissue treatment.
c. I, III a. 1st statement is correct
d. all of the above b. 2nd statement is correct
104. Strength properties of zinc oxide- c. Both statements are correct
eugenol cements for permanent d. Both statements are incorrect
cementation are upgraded by which of 108.Diode lasers allow the practitioner to
the following agents: remove gingival tissue to expose root
I. Feldspar caries, esthetically recontour gingival
II. Polymers tissues, to treat periodontal pockets and
III. Ortho- ethoxybenzoic acid a range of other applications that
IV. zinc acetate present daily in the typical practice. It
has superior coagulation benefits.
the correct answer is: a. 1st statement is correct
b. 2nd statement is correct
a. I,II
c. Both statements are correct
b. I, III
d. Both statements are incorrect
c. II, III 109.Caries lesion located at the gingival 3rd
d. II, IV of anterior teeth is classified as Class V
e. III, IV in G.V Black Classification. In treating
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the case placement of Calcium b) 2nd statement is correct
Hydroxide if mandatory to avoid c) Both statements are correct
sensitivity. d) Both statements are incorrect
a) 1st statement is correct 114.The use of hydrogen peroxide as
b) 2nd statement is correct bleaching agent is safer than using
c) Both statements are correct carbamide peroxide. Because the
d) Both statements are incorrect hydrogen peroxide has bigger particles
110.Caries found in the mesioocclusal compare to carbamide peroxide.
marginal ridge of maxillary first molar a) 1st statement is correct
and was classified as Class 1 dental b) 2nd statement is correct
caries lesion in G.V black classification. c) Both statements are correct
It is then classified as Class II caries d) Both statements are incorrect
lesion when it as lingual or buccal pit 115.Bleaching has no effect in filing
involvement. materials. The shade of the filling
a) 1st statement is correct material will still follow the shade of
b) 2nd statement is correct the teeth when bleaching was done.
c) Both statements are correct a) 1st statement is correct
d) Both statements are incorrect b) 2nd statement is correct
111.ICDAS stands for International Carious c) Both statements are correct
Dentin Assessment System. It has 6 d) Both statements are incorrect
codes. 116.Amalgam filling material is better
a) 1st statement is correct compare to composite in longevity.
b) 2nd statement is correct Amalgam also has excellent wear
c) Both statements are correct resistance compare to composite.
d) Both statements are incorrect a) 1st statement is correct
112.In ICDAS if the tooth is healthy and b) 2nd statement is correct
frees from any carious lesions it is c) Both statements are correct
classified as code 1. Placement of d) Both statements are incorrect
sealant is an optional treatment. 117.Amalgam filling is composed of silver
a) 1st statement is correct that increases strength, corrosion and
b) 2nd statement is correct expansion. It also contains tin that
c) Both statements are correct increases strength and hardness.
d) Both statements are incorrect a) 1st statement is correct
113.In esthetic dentistry, microabrasions are b) 2nd statement is correct
done in patients with orthodontic c) Both statements are correct
problem to increase bond strength and d) Both statements are incorrect
avoid chipping of restorative filling 118.In Class Two cavity preparation round,
material. Microabrasion are done using straight and inverted burs are used.
any types of burs. Round bur is used to create initial depth
a) 1st statement is correct measured 1mm in cavity preparation.
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a) 1st statement is correct d. The amalgam was not condensed with
nd the recommended pressure
b) 2 statement is correct
c) Both statements are correct e. The amalgam was condensed after its
d) Both statements are incorrect working time elapsed
119.Sex, age and complexion are factors to
consider in shade selection. Shade 123. Which type of glass filler is the most
selection in canine is avoided because radiopaque?
of prominent color appearance. a. Barium
a) 1st statement is correct b. Quartz
b) 2nd statement is correct c. Silicate
c) Both statements are correct d. Fumed silica
d) Both statements are incorrect
124. The day after a routine Class V composite
120. Fluoride release, esthetics and high
was placed, the patient reports discomfort
bond strength are the advantages of a
from the tooth. Which of the following is
Glass Ionomer cement. Glass Ionomer
most likely responsible for this complaint?
Cement type 1 can be use in class V
a. No liner or based used
restoration.
b. Over-etching with phosphoric acid
a) 1st statement is correct
c. Too deep an axial depth of the
b) 2nd statement is correct
preparation
c) Both statements are correct
d. Exposure of root dentin during the
d) Both statements are incorrect
finishing procedures
121. A freshly condensed Class II amalgam

125. Which of the following factors is of
restoration has a deficient margin at the
greatest importance in selecting a
proximogingival cavosurface angle. This
restorative material for a Class V cavity on
might have been caused by which of the
the facial surface of a mandibular
following?
premolar?
a. Overtightening the matrix band
a. Reaction of gingival tissue
b. Neglecting to wedge the matrix band
b. Resistance to stress
c. Neglecting to contour the matrix band
c. Ease of manipulation
d. Using too large an initial increment of
d. Esthetics
amalgam
126. A patient complains that a tooth with

122. A newly condensed amalgam restoration
recently placed large MOD restoration is
seems to chip away when being carved.
tender to mastication and exhibits
What is the likely cause of this problem?
occasional thermal sensitivity. Which of the
a. A low-copper alloy was used
following is the most likely cause?
b. Moisture contamination occurred
a. Microleakage
c. The alloy was incompletely wetted with
b. Recurrent caries
mercury
c. Gingival recession
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d. Premature occlusion d. Rinse away the saliva with water, dry the
preparation with air, then repeat the
127. Before beginning tooth preparation, the etching procedure
dentist should visualize the outline form to
a. Establish the convenience form 131. How should the margins of a dental
b. Establish the resistance and retention amalgam restoration be trimmed?
form a. By carving along the margins with a
c. Prevent overcutting and overextension sharp instrument that rests on the tooth
d. Aid in the finish of enamel walls and surface
margins b. By carving from the restoration to the
tooth with a sharp instrument
128. A dentist inadvertently sealed a small c. By carving from the tooth to the
carious lesion in the occlusal surface of a restoration with a sharp instrument
maxillary first molar. This would most likely d. By burnishing from the tooth to the
result in restoration until the amalgam is trimmed
a. Arrested caries to the margin
b. Extension of caries
c. Discoloration of the tooth 132. In preparing a Class I cavity for dental
d. Increased microleakage amalgam, the dentist will diverge the
mesial and distal walls toward the occlusal
129. Each of the following determines the surface. This divergence serves to
outline form for a Class III composite a. Prevent undermining of the marginal
restoration EXCEPT one. Which one is this ridges
EXCEPTION? b. Provide convenience form
a. Convenience for access c. Resist the forces of mastication
b. Extension for prevention d. Extend the preparation into areas more
c. Size, shape, and location of caries readily forward
d. None of the above
133. Each of the following describes the
130. After a dentist has completed an etching properties of improved zinc oxide-eugenol
procedure on a Class III composite materials EXCEPT one. Which one is this
preparation, the preparation becomes exception?
contaminated with saliva. In response, the a. They provide an excellent marginal seal
dentist should do which of the following? b. They have a palliative effect on the
a. Blow away the saliva with air, then dental pulp
proceed. c. They have thermal insulation qualities
b. Rinse away the saliva with water, dry the that compare to those of dentin
preparation, then proceed d. They are easily removed from the cavity
c. Wipe away the saliva with a cotton preparation
pellet, rinse the preparation with water,
dry it with air then proceed
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134. A patient presents with slight chipping of 139. States that a smile when viewed from the front
the enamel along the incisal edges of teeth is considered to de esthetically pleasing if each
tooth in that smile (starting from midline) is
#8 and #9. When choosing between approximately 60% of the size of the tooth
restoring the incisal edges or reshaping by immediately mesial to it.
selective grinding, which of the following
important factors should the dentist a. position and alignment b. shape or
form c. Golden proportion d.
consider?
Euclid’s element e. C and D*
a. Location of proximal contacts
b. Shape of incisal embrasures 140. In Metamerism the problem in color perception
c. Amount of translucent enamel present occurs due to:
d. All of the above
a. different perception of color
produced by various light
135. The reduction of which of the following sources. b. effect of the
represents the MOST significant advantage surrounding environment. c.
of the acid-etch technique? Physiologic limitations of the
eye – extended viewing – color
a. Microleakage fatigue- loss of sensitivity to
b. Pulpal irritation yellow and orange shade. d. all
c. Setting shrinkage of the matrix of the above* e. none of the
d. Coefficient of thermal expansion above
141. It relates to the degree of how deeply light

136. These are the artistic elements except:
penetrates into the tooth o restoration before
the light is reflected outward.
a. shape or form b.
symmetry and
a. color b. translucency* c.
proportionality c.position
Both A and B d. none of
and alignment d. all of the
the above
above* e. none of the
above
142. These are used to create illusions of
translucency to enhance realism of restoration:
137. These are the artistic element for a youthful,
incorporated in the restoration to stimulate
feminine smile except:
maverick colors, check lines or surface spots for
further characterization.
a. round incisal angle b. a) Color b. shade selection c. Color
more close incisal angles* modifiers(tints)*
c.soften facial line angles 143. In question number 7, what color that reduces,
d. all of the above e. none brightness and intensity of underlying yellow
of the above dentin?
a) violet b. blue* c. green d. pink
138. These are the artistic element for a masculine 144. A video image of the prepared tooth is
smile except: displayed to ensure proper positioning of the
scanning device.
a. Prominent, less rounded incisal a) CAD/CAM b. Optimal impression* c. cerec
angles b. prominent facial line system
angle c. open incisal and facial 145. These are the indication of indirect tooth-
embrasures d. soften facial line colored restoration EXCEPT:
angle e. C and D*
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a) large defects or previous restoration b. preparation for composite and for
esthetics c. heavy occlusal forces* amalgam is in:
146. These are the contraindication of indirect
tooth-colored restoration EXCEPT: a) Proximal box
a) inability to maintain a dry field b. deep b) Pulpal wall
subgingival preparation c. large defects* c) Axial wall depth
147. These are the advantages of indirect tooth- d) None of the above
colored restoration EXCEPT:
a) improved physical properties b. wear
resistance c. increase auxillary support d.
NOTA* 153. Proper pulpal depth of all restoration may
148. These are the disadvantage of indirect tooth-
colored restoration EXCEPT:
be considered as:
a) increase cost and time b. technique a) Convenience form
sensitivity c. short clinical track record d. b) Outline form
reduced polymerization shrinkage c) Retention form
149. An intracoronal dental restoration, made
outside the oral cavity to conform to the d) Resistance form
prepared cavity, which restores some of the e) None of the above
occlusal surface of a tooth, but does not
restore any cusp tip.
a) crown b. inlay* c. onlay
154. Resistance forms is the ability to withstand
150. A dental restoration made outside the oral
cavity that covers one or more cusp tips and masticatory stress and this is established
adjoining occlusal surfaces but not the entire by:
external surface. a) Bulk of the restorative material
151. ZINC OXIDE AND EUGENOL SHOULD NOT b) Strength of the restorative materials
BE USED UNDER: c) Compressiveness
a) Porcelain filling material d) Compactness
b) A resin filling material
c) Gold inlays
d) Amalgam restorations 155. A newly condensed amalgam restoration
e) None of the above seems to chip away when being carved.
What is the likely cause of this problem?
a) A low-copper alloy was used
152. Silicate Cements is: b) Moisture contamination occurred
a) Do produce an irritating effect on c) The alloy was incompletely wetted
pulp with mercury
b) Do not produce an irritating effect on d) The amalgam was not condensed with
pulp the recommended pressure
c) Are harmless e) The amalgam was condensed after its
d) Are innocuous working time elapsed
e) None of the above
156. Gingival cavosurface margin is beveled in a

1. 3.. A notable difference in class II cavity class II cavity for amalgam restoration to:
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a) Get a lap joint on the cavosurface 2. towards the occlusal surface to:
angle i. provide convenience form
b) Remove the unsupported enamel ii. provide resistance form
rods iii. afford support for the mesial and
c) Get burnishable thickness of amalgam distal marginal ridges
d) Move the cavosurface away from the iv. make condensing of the amalgam
contact easier
157. Affected dentin differs from infected 161. The position of the gingival margin of a
dentin in that it has: class II amalgam preparation is dictated
a) Been invaded by microorganisms primarily by:
b) Are precisely the same i. aesthetics
c) Not been invaded by microorganisms ii. the location of the gingival margin
d) A soft texture iii. the extent of carious lesion
e) None of the above iv. the thickness of the enamel
158. Streptococcus mutans is considered to be a 162. Which line angle below is rounded when
principal etiologic agent of caries because preparing a class II amalgam preparation
it produces organic acids and it: i. axiobuccal
a) Forms a gelatinous matrix ii. axiolingual
b) Derives energy from constituents iii. axiopulpal
c) Metabolizes substrate from saliva iv. none of the above
d) Lives symbiotically with Lactobacillus
acidophilus
163. During the preparation of a Class II cavity,
which of the following permanent teeth
159. Restorative pins for amalgam restoration pulp horns will be the most subject to
should be placed: accidental exposure?
i. As close to the DEJ as possible i. Distofacial of a maxillary first
ii. In multiple numbers for retention molar.
iii. In line with the long axis of the ii. Facial of a mandibular first
tooth premolar.
iv. Parallel to the external surface of iii. Distofacial of a mandibular first
the tooth molar.
iv. Lingual of a mandibular first
premolar.
160. The mesial and distal walls of a class I
amalgam preparation should diverge
slightly 164. Which of the following is the most effective
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way to reduce injury to the pulp during a withstand masticatory stress and this is
restorative procedure? established by:
i. Prepare dentin with slow-speed a) Bulk of the restorative material
burs. b) Strength of the restorative materials
ii. Use anesthetics without c) Compressiveness
vasoconstrictors d) Compactness
iii. Minimize dehydration of the 173. Capping of cusp/s should be considered
dentinal surface. for an onlay restoration when:
iv. Keep the dentinal surface clean a) Occlusal outline is extended up to the
by frequent irrigation. cusp slopes more than ¼ the distance from
the primary grooves to the cusp tip
b) Occlusal outline is extended up to the
165. In Class II cavity preparation for amalgam, cusp slopes more than 2/3 the distance
the primary retention form is provided by: from the primary grooves to the cusp tip
i. occlusal convergence of facial and c) Occlusal outline is extended up to
lingual walls the cusp slopes more than ½ the distance
ii. dovetail design from the primary grooves to the cusp tip
iii. coving the internal line angles d) Occlusal outline is extended up to
iv. both A & B the cusp slopes more than 1/3 the distance
166. 1..Reasons for incorporating an enamel from the primary grooves to the cusp tip
cavosurface bevel in preparations for
bonded, direct, composite restorations: 174. Setting time of zinc phosphate cement
167. 1, provides more surface area for bonding may be increased by:
168. 2, allows for the more preferred end-on a. using a slab cooled to just above
etching of the enamel rods. the dew point
169. 3, increase retention b. using a lower ratio of liquid to
170. 4, reduce leakage powder
171. 5, provide greater potential for c. using a longer mixing time
strengthening the remaining tooth
d. adding the increments of a powder
structure
slowly
A. 1,2,3,4 B. 2,3,4,5 C. 1,2,3,5
D. 1,2,4,5 E. 1,2,3,4,5 e. a,b,c
172. .Basic preparation designs most frequently f. a,c,d
used for tooth-colored restorations of Class g. b,c,d
II cavities: h. all of the above are correct
A. conventional cavity design C.
modified design 175. patient reports a serious allergic reaction
B. beveled conventional design D. to Oil of Cloves. Which of the following
both A & B E. both B & C cements should be avoided?
a. BIS GMA
3.Resistance forms is the ability to b. Glass Ionomer
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c. Phosphoric acid d. Result in fracture after setting
d. Ethoxybenzoic acid e. None of the above
e. Zinc oxide eugenol 180. The greatest single factor in the strength
176. In selecting intermediate base the of a final amalgam restoration is:
following criteria should be considered: a. The residual mercury content
b. The lead content
a. ability of the material to protect the c. The silver content
pulp d. The copper content
b. ability of the material to eliminate
postoperative discomfort e. All of the above
c. ability of the material to prevent 181. Periodontal objectives prior to restorative
postoperative discomfort dentistry procedures are
d. effect of material in clinical success of a. Elimination of all diseased gingival
restoration attachments with the resultant crevicular
e. all of the above depth as close to zero as possible
b. Elimination of all diseased root
177. For amalgam restoration, the most structure utilizing resection techniques
frequent complaint of pain right after c. Elimination of all etiological factors
placement is associated with: responsible for periodontal disease
d. A and B
a. Cold e. A and C
b. Galvanism f. None of the above
c. Heat 182. In a Class II, MO inlay preparation the
d. Biting pressure gingival bevel should be placed at :
178. A gold inlay restoration has which of the a.) 40 – 60 degrees
following advantage? b.) 60 – 75 degrees
1 close adaption to cavity walls c.) 30 – 45 degrees
2. Indestructibility in oral fluids d.) 15 – 30 degrees
3. No volume change after placement 183. A cavosurface angle of prepared cavity is :
A.the angle of two walls along a line

A. 1 and 2
B. the angle formed by the junction of three
B. B. 2 and 3 walls
C. C. 1 and 3
C. the junction of the walls of cavity with
D. D 1,2 and 3
the surface of the tooth
179. Overtrituration of alloy and mercury will:
D.all of the above
a. Result in shrinkage of the mass
E.none of the above
during set
14. The retention form in an amalgam
b. Result in expansion of mass during
restoration
set
A.· Is always parallel to the horizontal axis
c. Cause no shrinkage during set
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B.·Should be parallel to the roof of the 190. A notable difference in Class II cavity
pulp chamber preparation for composite and for
C.·Neither of the above amalgam preparation is in:
a) Proximal box
184. different types of restorative material
b) Pulpal wall
A. are placed in the same cavity outline c) Axial wall depth
extensions d) None of the above
B. Are used with different cavity outline 191. Zinc oxide eugenol should not be used
extensions under:
C. can be mixed in the same cavity a) Porcelain filling material
preparation b) Resin filling material
c) Gold inlays
D. should never be used on the same
d) Amalgam restorations
tooth. e) None of the above
185. The reduction of which the following 192. Capping of cusp/s should be considered for
represents the most significant advantage an onlay restoration when:
of acid-etch technique? a) Occlusal outline is extended up to the
a) Microleakage cusp slopes more than ¼ the distance
b) Pulpal irritation from the primary grooves to the cusp
c) Setting shrinkage of the matrix tip
d) Coefficient of thermal expansion b) Occlusal outline is extended up to the
186. In a Class III composite preparation, cusp slopes more than 2/3 the
retention should be placed: distance from the primary grooves to
a) In the axial wall the cusp tip
b) At the DEJ c) Occlusal outline is extended up to the
c) Entirely in dentin cusp slopes more than ½ the distance
d) At the expense of facial and lingual from the primary grooves to the cusp
walls, but not the axial wall tip
187. Proper pulpal depth of all restoration may d) Occlusal outline is extended up to the
be considered as: cusp slopes more than 1/3 the
a) Convenience form distance from the primary grooves to
b) Outline form the cusp tip
c) Retention form 193. Which of the following represent the
d) Resistance form fundamental grasp/s for hand instruments:
e) None of the above a) Pen grasp
188. The axial wall of the Class V cavity b) Inverted pen grasp
preparation is: c) Modified palm and thumb grasp
a) Flat d) Palm and thumb grasp
b) Concave e) All of the above
c) Convex 194. Resons for incorporating an enamel
d) Convex only incisocervically cavosurface bevel in preparations for
189. The restorative material that is bonded, direct composite restorations:
anticarcinogenic is: I. Provides more surface area for
a) Composite Resin bonding
b) Dental Amalgam II. Allows for more preferred end-
c) Calcium Hydroxide on etching of the enamel rods
d) Glass Ionomer cement III. Increase retention
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IV. Reduce leakage 200. The metal in dental amalgam alloy in which
V. Provide greater potential for mercury would dissolve maximum is:
strengthening the remaining a) Silver
tooth structure b) Tin
A. I, II, III, IV c) Copper
B. II, III, IV, V d) Zinc
C. I, II, III, V 201. The ideal enamel-amalgam interface
D. I, II, IV, V a) butt-joint
E. I, II, III, IV, V b) lap-joint
195. Basic preparation designs most frequently
c) sliding lap-joint
used for tooth-colored restorations of Class
II cavities: d) sliding butt-joint
a) Conventional cavity design
b) Beveled conventional design 202. Sensitivity can be felt in enamel due to the
c) Modified design presence of
d) Both A & B a. enamel lamellae
e) Both B & C b. enamel tufts
196. The gingival-to-occlusal divergence per wall
c. enamel spindles
from the line draw of an inlay or onlay
tooth preparation is: d. enamel sheath
a) 2-3 degrees
b) 2-4 degrees 203. Restorative pins for amalgam restoration
c) 2-5 degrees should be placed:
d) 3-5 degrees a. As close to the DEJ as possible
e) None of the above b. In multiple numbers for retention
197. Shallow retention grooves on facioaxial
c. In line with the long axis of the tooth
and linguoaxial line angles are usually
indicated if tooth is short for inlay/onlay d. Parallel to the external surface of the
restoration, this can be achieved by using: tooth
a) #33 ½
b) #253 204. Alloy-Hg ratio volumetrically
c) #169L a. 1:1
d) Flame shaped diamond bur
b. 5:7
e) #271
198. The amount of occlusal marginal metal c. 1:3
bevel for inlay d. 7:5
a) Less than 30 degrees 205. The pulp protection agent contraindicated
b) 30-40 degrees under composites
c) More than 40 degrees
d) None of these a. Calcium hydroxide
199. Which of these principles of the cavity
b. cavity varnish
preparation is of least importance for the
reception of silicate? c. glass ionomer cement
a) Extension for prevention
b) Resistance form d. zinc oxide eugenol
c) Finishing of enamel
d) Debridement
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206. The mesial and distal walls of a class I c. after the final carving of the
amalgam preparation should diverge restoration
slightly d. none of the above
towards the occlusal surface to:
a. provide convenience form 211. Butt joint margins are recommended in an
b. provide resistance form indirect composite inlay preparation for
c. afford support for the mesial and the following reasons, except:
distal marginal ridges A. beveled margins remove less tooth
d. make condensing of the amalgam structures
easier B. thin beveled margins can break off
during sealing
C. beveled margins are more likely to
fracture under occlusal force
207. The position of the gingival margin of a D. beveled margins are more difficult to
class II amalgam preparation is dictated prepare in the mouth.
primarily by: E. Beveled margins are more difficult to
a. aesthetics finish in the lab.
b. the location of the gingival margin
c. the extent of carious lesion 212. During the preparation of a Class II cavity,
d. the thickness of the enamel which of the following permanent teeth
pulp horns will be the most subject to
208. Which line angle below is rounded when accidental exposure?
preparing a class II amalgam preparation a. Distofacial of a maxillary first molar. C.
a. axiobuccal Distofacial of a mandibular first molar.
b. axiolingual b. Facial of a mandibular first premolar.
c. axiopulpal D. Lingual of a mandibular first premolar.
d. none of the above
209. The outline form of the classical class V 213. Which of the following is the most effective
amalgam preparation is way to reduce injury to the pulp during a
a. square restorative procedure?
b. deformed trapezoid a. Prepare dentin with slow-speed burs.
c. triangle b. Use anesthetics without
d. rectangle vasoconstrictors
210. When is the matrix band removed from c. Minimize dehydration of the dentinal
surface.
the tooth
a. prior to the final carving of the d. Keep the dentinal surface clean by
restoration frequent irrigation.
b. as soon as the amalgam has been
condensed into the prep
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214. In Class II cavity preparation for amalgam, a) Both statement and the reason are
the primary retention form is provided by: correct and related
a. occlusal convergence of facial and b) Both statement and the reason are
lingual walls correct but not related
b. dovetail design c) The statement is correct, but the
c. coving the internal line angles reason is not
d) The statement is not correct, but the
d. both A & B
reason is correct
e. both B & C
e) Neither the statement nor the reason
is correct
215. Used to prepare a retentive lock in the
220. Which of the following materials can be
axiolingual line angle to enhance retention used to cement a bridge and fill a cervical
form of the proximal box. lesion?
1. #33 ½ 2. #245 3. a) Glass ionomer
#169L 4. # ¼ b) ZOE
A. 1,2,3 B. 1,3,4 C. 1,4 D. c) Zinc polycarboxylate
3,4 E. 3 only. d) Zinc phosphate
216. nThe ideal amount of dentin required 221. When removing caries, which of the
between an amalgam restoration and the following layer of dentin are affected, but
pulp for insulation is: not infected, and therefore do not need to
a) 0.5 mm be removed?
b) 1.0 mm a) Turbid dentin
c) 1.5 mm b) Infected dentin
d) 2.0 mm c) Transparent dentin
217. Class V amalgam restorations rarely require d) Normal dentin
retention grooves, but if they are used, e) Subtransparent dentin
they are placed at the incisoaxial and 222. Which property of filled resins is primarily
gingivoaxial line angles. to blame for the failure of Class II
a) Both statements are true composite restorations?
b) Both statements are false a) Low flexural strength
c) The first statement is true, the second b) Low compressive strength
is false c) Low tensile strength
d) The first statement is false, the d) Low wear resistance
second is true 223. A gold onlay you placed last week fails.
218. What distinguishes a base from a cement, Which of the following reasons is most
and from a cavity liner? likely to responsible for the failure?
a) Final application thickness a) You “capped” the functioning cusp
b) Degree of pulpal protection b) You “shoed” the functioning cusp
c) Biocompatibility of material c) You “capped” the nonfunctioning cusp
d) Degree of hardness d) You “shoed” the nonfunctioning cusp
219. Zinc phosphate cement can cause 224. Rapid cooling(by immersion in water) of
irreversible pulpal damage because it dental casting from high temperature at
shrinks slightly on setting. which it has been shaped is referred to as:
a) Annealing
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b) Tempering d) The statement is not correct, but the
c) Quenching reason is correct
d) NOTA e) Neither the statement nor the reason
225. High gold alloys used for cast restorations are correct
are: 230. The Young rubber dam is used more than
a) Greater than 20% gold or other noble the Woodbury version, because it provides
metals less soft tissue retraction.
b) Greater than 30% gold or other noble a) Both the statement and reason are
metals correct and related
c) Greater than 50% gold or other noble b) Both the statement and reason are
metals correct but not related
d) Greater than 75% gold or other noble c) The statement is correct, but the
metals reason is not
226. When attempting to remove a hard brittle d) The statement is not correct, but the
material, like amalgam, you would prefer a reason is correct
bur with a: e) Neither the statement nor the reason
a) Zero rake angle are correct
b) Positive rake angle 231. Generally, Glass ionomer cements contain:
c) Negative rake angle a) Zinc oxide and distilled water
227. Which of the following would NOT b) Fluoro alumino-silica powder
necessarily indicate the need for root canal and orthophosphoric acid
treatment or extraction of a carious tooth? c) Zinc oxide and polyacrylic acid
a) Lingering pain after 15 seconds d) Fluoro alumino-silica powder
b) Negative electric pulp test
and polyacrylic acid
c) Frank apical radiolucency
d) Percussion sensitivity
232. If a zinc phosphate cement base is used
228. The ideal amount of time from placing an
when restoring a tooth, when should the
indirect pulp cap until reopening the tooth
to remove the remaining decay is: varnish be applied?
a) 7-10 days a) Prior to placement of the base
b) 2-3 weeks b) After placement of the base
c) 1 month c) Makes no difference when the
d) 3-4 months varnish is applied
e) 1 year d) Varnish should not be used in
229. The most retentive style of pin is the self- conjunction with zinc
threading pins because they are cemented phosphate cement
into pinholes that are smaller than the pin
itself. 233. The thermal insulating capacity of a
a) Both the statement and reason are cement base is principally related to:
correct and related
I. Thickness of the base placed
b) Both the statement and reason are
II. Coefficient of thermal
not correct
expansion of the base
c) The statement is correct, but the
reason is not
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III. Thermal conductivity of the set a) Dental caries is an infectious
base microbiological disease of the
IV. Powder/ liquid ratio of the teeth that results in localize
cement mix dissolution and destruction of
V. Density of the base placed the calcified tissues
b) The evidence for the role of
a) I, II, III bacteria in the genesis of dental
b) II, IV, V caries is overwhelming
c) I, III, V c) Mutans streptococci is the
d) I, III, IV principal etiological agent of
dental caries
234. The main function of cavity liners is to: d) Organisms which cause caries
a) Act as thermal insulators are called “cariostatic”
b) Provide a barrier against e) Lactic acid produced by
chemical irritation acidogenic bacteria is the main
c) Produce a structural form for cause of enamel decalcification
the cavity preparation
d) Resist forces applied during Topic: Composite
condensation of the restorative
material 238. Which property of filled resins is primarily
to blame for the failure of class II
235. Cavity varnishes used in conjunction with composite restorations?
amalgam restorations: a) Low flexural strength
a) Provide thermal insulation b) Low compressive strength
b) Act as antibacterial agent c) Low tensile strength
c) Promote healing of the pulp d) Low wear resistance
d) Reduce microleakage
239. What mixture of different size particles
allows advantages of higher filler levels and
Topic: Caries good finishing?
236. What is the outermost zone of carious a) Micro-filled resin based
dentin which still capable of composites
remineralization? b) Flowable resin based
a) Normal dentin composites
b) Sub-transparent dentin c) Packable resin based
c) Transparent dentin composites
d) Turbid dentin d) Hybrid resin based composites
e) Infected dentin
240. Which component of a dentin bonding
237. All of the following are true concerning system functions primarily to penetrate
dental caries except: through the remnant smear layer and into
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the intertubular dentin to form an 245. The minimal reduction of working cusps for
interpenetrating network around dentin protection from the forces of mastication
collagen? should be?
a) Etchant a) 2.5 to 3 mm for both amalgam
b) Primer and cast gold restorations
c) Adhesive b) 1.5 to 2.0 mm for both
d) None of the above amalgam and cast gold
restorations
c) 2 mm for amalgam and 1 mm
Topic: Gold for cast gold restorations
d) 2.5 to 3 mm for amalgam and
241. With respect to onlay preparations, 1.5 mm for cast gold
“Shoeing “ of a functional cusp is: restorations
a) Sometimes indicated
b) Always indicated
c) Never indicated 246. Finish of the enamel margin at the gingival
cavosurface on a cavity prepared for
amalgam is
242. Surrounding the wax pattern with a a) not indicated because of the poor
material which can accurately duplicate its tensile strength of amalgam
shape and anatomical feature is referred to b) accomplished by creating a steep
as: cavosurface bevel
a) Investing c) not required since no stress is placed
b) Burnout on the restoration in the region
d) accomplished by removing all
c) Casting
unsupported enamel rods or prisms
d) Pickling
243. Copper’s major effect on a gold casting 247. Posterior teeth that have been
alloy is: endodontically treated are better restored
a) Corrosion resistance by a cast gold onlay because
b) To increase the hardness a) gold is more aesthetic than amalgam
c) To offset the color b) gold renders the tooth more resistant
to recurrent caries
contributions of copper
c) maximum protection is afforded to
d) To elevate the melting range the tooth
d) gold is likely to disturb gutta percha
244. The process of annealing gold foil is more filled canals than amalgam
commonly referred to as:
a) pickling 248. Stainless steel pins are principally used in
conjunction with amalgam restorations to
b) tempering
enhance the
c) compacting a. retention b. strength c. resistance
d) degassing form d. all of the above
249. Retention form for composite resin

restorations is achieved by
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a) chemical bond with the tooth c) 50-55%
b) adhesion to the enamel and dentin d) 55-60%
c) mechanical undercuts
d) all of the above 255. Tin is incorporated into an amalgam alloy
for the purpose of
250. The primary factor in developing the a) increasing expansion and strength
outline form for a composite restoration is b) reducing expansion and hardness
a) position of the contact c) increasing strength
b) relationship of the adjacent tooth d) acting as a scavenger
c) esthetics required
d) extent of caries involvement 256. Most amalgam alloys are comprised of
approximately what percentage of silver?
251. Preparation for porcelain-bonded to metal a) 50%
restorations should have a b) 70%
a) shoulder all around the tooth c) 80%
b) shoulder on the lingual and proximal d) 90%
chamber on the labial
c) beveled shoulder on the labial 257. When an amalgam is prepared using the
chamfer on the lingual minimal mercury technique and compared
d) feather edge around entire tooth to with a high mercury content technique, it is
facilitate finishing found to
a) have low 1-hr strength
252. The margins of a porcelain inlay are fragile b) set less rapidly
and must be considered in the design of a c) require less pressure in condensation
class V preparation. This is accomplished d) eliminate the need for a squeeze cloth
by
a) preparing walls with a labial 258. the principal reason for using a wedge in
convergence conjunction with a matrix preparatory to
b) preparing walls with a large labial condensing a class II amalgam is except:
convergence a) retract the gingival tissue
c) deepening the axial wall b) separate the tooth minimally to insure
d) preparing the cavosurface angles to the creation of a proper contact
approximate 90 degrees c) adapt the matrix band firmly against
the tooth cervical to the gingival
253. Gold foil, mat gold, and powdered gold margin
differ from each other by d) none of the above
a) percentage of pure gold present
b) degree of cohesiveness 259. Silver amalgam should be condensed
c) method of fabrication within 4 minutes following trituration
d) all of the above because
a) excess will be more easily removed
b) the final set takes place within
254. A minimal mercury level for amalgam 5minutes
varies with the brand of alloy used but it c) time studies indicate that this is the
falls within the range of mose efficient working time
a) 40-50% d) beyond this time the residual mercury
b) 46-53% retention is markedly increased.
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preparation because failure to do this will
260. Commonly used acid for etching teeth in result in a nonretentive temporary
conjunction with pit and fissure sealant is: a) both statement and reason are correct
a) hydrochloric acid b) statement is correct but reason is
b) acetic acid wrong
c) phosphoric acid c) statement is wrong reasons is correct
d) sulfuric acid d) both statement and reasons are
261. The proper zone of gas- air flame used for incorrect
melting casting gold alloy is:
a) The zone closest to the nozzle 266. Calium hydroxide is regarded as a good
b) A combination of oxidizing and pulp capping agent because
reducing zones a) the pulp responds by forming
c) The reducing zone secondary dentin
d) The oxidizing zone b) it’s alkaline nature is non irritating to
the pulp
262. The outline form of the cavity preparation c) creates a better seal than other
is: materials
a) 1st step in cavity preparation after d) it has a sedative effect on the pulp
removal of carious dentin
a. b.final step in cavity 267. When a metal casting is prepared to
preparation receive a porcelain veneer, the interior
b. shape of the preparation on the angles of the area to be veneered should
surface of the tooth a) have sharply defined undercuts to
c. shape of the cavity after carious help retain the porcelain
dentin has been removed b) have rounded channels to enhance
porcelain retention
263. The interim restoration of choice for c) not have undercuts but sharply
placement between completion of the defined angles for uniform thickness
cavity preparation and the seating of the d) have a rounded interior angles to
cast MOD inlay restoration is enhance adaptation
a) ZOE
b) zinc phosphate 268. Matrix bands have following essential
c) polycarboxylate cement characteristics except:
d) acrylic onlay cemented with ZOE a) Can be contoured accordingly
b) easy to adopt and fix to the teeth
264. Cavity varnish is desirable under amalgam c) yields easily and breaks on the
restorations because it slightest pressure
a) eliminates the possibility of galvanic d) capable of easy introduction and
shock removal
b) improves the marginal seal of the
restoration 269. Compared to unfilled resins, composites
c) effective thermal insulator resins have:
d) all of the above a) greater compressive strength
b) less solubility
265. An interim dressing cement is condensed c) smother finished surface
down into the pin holes of a pin ledge inlay d) greater color stability
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270. During condensation the surface hardness d) dentin need not be supporting the
of a direct filling gold rods forming the enamel margin
a) increase e) Tome’s fibers would be strengthened
b) decrease
c) remains the same 275. In restoring the distal surface of
d) increase or decrease in relation force mandibular first molar, how should the
applied distal marginal ridge be restored in relation
to the mesial marginal ridge of the
271. Metal instruments are contraindicated for mandibular second molar provided the
use with composite resin because maxillary molars are ideally shaped and
a) monomer reacts with metal and forms aligned?
corrosive products which affect the a) Lower
final shade b) Higher
b) metal is abraded by the filler and c) Same height
discolors the restoration d) marginal ridges unrelated
c) polymer reacts with the metal to e) At right angles
affect shade f)
d) metal inhibits the polymerization 276. In class II cavity preparation for
amalgam, the isthmus usually includes
272. The margin of preparation for casting one fourth of the cusp tip to cusp tip
should NOT be placed in which of the distance of the tooth. The facial and
following areas: lingual walls diverge slightly toward the
a) Wear facet occlusal surface.
b) Marginal ridge
c) Gingival sulcus a) Both statements are true
d) Lingual bevel b) First statement is true, second is
false
273. She best surface finish on a composite c) First statement is false, second is
resin restoration is created by true
a) the 12 fluted finishing burs d) Both statements are false
b) fine silica grit disks
c) lubricated cuttle disks 277. All of the following includes in the
d) the matrix band with no additional resistance form in class I preparation
finish except;
a) Pulpal floor is flat and smooth and
274. In an occlusal cavity prepared for amalgam, is perpendicular to the long axis of
the tooth
facial and lingual walls which slightly
b) Isthmus width is ¼ the intercuspal
converge occlusally would NOT create
distance
weak enamel margins because: c) Presence of mesial and distal
a) enamel rods forming the margins occlusal dovetails
would still be full length and d) Pulpal floor is 0.5-1.00 mm in
supported on dentin dentin or 1.5 mm
b) the amalgam will support the enamel
at the margins 278. These includes the matrix phase of
c) enamel rods forming the margins need composite except;
not be in full length a) EDTA
b) BisGMA
c) TEGDMA
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d) UDMA 283. The thermal insulating capacity of a
cement base is principally related to:
279. Cavity preparation design typical for i. Thickness of the base placed
class III, IV, V restoration. ii. Coefficient of thermal
a) Modified preparation design expansion of the base
b) Beveled conventional design iii. Thermal conductivity of the set
c) Box only design base
d) Conventional design iv. Powder/ liquid ratio of the
cement mix
280. Advantages of an enamel bevel a. v. Density of the base placed
1. Increased surface area to be
etched a. I, II, III
2. Increases strength of the b. I, IV, V
composite c. I, III, V
3. Stronger enamel-to-resin bond d. I, III, IV
which increases retention and
reduces marginal microleakage 284. The minimal reduction of working
4. Blends more esthetically with the cusps for protection from the forces of
coloration of the surrounding mastication should be?
tooth structure a) 2.5 to 3 mm for both amalgam and
cast gold restorations
a) 1, 2 b) 1.5 to 2.0 mm for both amalgam
b) 1,3, 4 and cast gold restorations
c) 1,4 c) 2 mm for amalgam and 1 mm for
d) 1,2,3 cast gold restorations
d) 2.5 to 3 mm for amalgam and 1.5
281. Each of the following can be mm for cast gold restorations
achieved with a properly trimmed
wooden wedge except; 285. 10. Retention form for composite
a) Provides space for the matrix band resin restoration in Class III
b) Protect the gingival preaparations is achieved by
c) Prevent over-contouring of the a. Sharp, well-defined line angles
contact b. Parallel walls
d) Reduce leakage of moisture into c. Rounded undercuts at the
the cavity preparation incisal and gingival point angles
d. Sharp, acute point angles at the
incisal, labioaxiogingival , and
linguoaxiogingival
282. ZOE cement make good temporary
sedative restorations because their pH 286. In tipping the cups for a complex
is very basic. amalgam restoration, the cups should
a) Both the statement is correct and be reduced
related a) 0.5-1mm
b) Both the statement is correct but b) 1.1-5mm
not related c) 1.5-2mm
c) The statement is correct but the d) 2-3mm
reason is not e) 3-4mm
d) The statement is not correct but the
reason is correct
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287. With the total-etch system when d) The 1st statement is false, the 2nd is
bonding to dentin, one pf the following true
statement is true. Which one?
a) The dentin surface should be
thoroughly dried after etching and 291. Streptococcus mutans is considered to be
rinsing? a principal etiologic agent of caries because
b) The surface of the etched, it produces organic acids and it:
washed, and dried dentin should A. forms a gelatinous matrix C.
be "glistening" metabolizes substrate from saliva
c) The surface of the prepared dentin B. derives energy from constituents
should have visible water droplets D. lives symbiotically with
d) Once you have dried the etched Lactobacillus acidophilus
surface, bonding is hopeless
288. All of the following are true 292. In a Class III composite preparation,
concerning a class V amalgam retention should be placed:
preparation except: A. in the axial wall C. entirely in
a) The outline form is determined dentin
primarily by the located of the B. at the DEJ D. at the expense
free gingival margin of facial and lingual walls, but not
b) The mesial, distal, gingiva and the axial wall
incisal walls of the cavity
preparation diverge outward
c) The retention form is provided by 293. Reasons for incorporating an enamel
the gingival retension groove along cavosurface bevel in preparations for
the gingivoaxial line angle and an bonded, direct, composite restorations:
incisal retension groove along the
incisoaxial line angle
d) a cervical clamp is usually to retract 1, provides more surface area for
gingival tissue bonding
289. The main function of cavity liners is 2, allows for the more preferred end-on
to: etching of the enamel rods.
a) Act as thermal insulators
b) Provide a barrier against 3, increase retention
chemical irritation
c) Produce a structure form for the 4, reduce leakage
cavity preparation
d) Resist forces applied during 5, provide greater potential for
condensation of the restoration strengthening the remaining tooth
material structure
290. Chisels are used primarily to cut A. 1,2,3,4 B. 2,3,4,5 C. 1,2,3,5

enamel, hatchets are primarily used to D. 1,2,4,5 E. 1,2,3,4,5
cut dentin
a) Both statements are true
b) Both statements are false
c) The 1st statement is true, the 2nd
is false
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294. Basic preparation designs most frequently 299. Primarily indicated for the initial
used for tooth-colored restorations of Class restoration of smaller, cavitated, carious
II cavities: lesions usually surrounded by enamel and
A. conventional cavity design C. for correcting enamel defects.
modified design A. conventional preparation design
D. beveled conventional preparation
B. beveled conventional design design
D. both A & B E. both B & C
B. modified preparation E.
box-only preparation
295. The gingival-to-occlusal divergence per wall C. facial / lingual slot preparation
from the line draw of an inlay/onlay tooth
preparation is:
A. 2 to 3 degrees C. 2 to 5
degrees 300. Primarily indicated on preparations located
on root surfaces.
B. 2 to 4 degrees D. 3 to 5 A. conventional preparation design
degrees E. none of these.
B. beveled conventional preparation
design
C. modified preparation
296. Shallow retention grooves on facioaxial D. box-only preparation

and linguoaxial line angles are usually
indicated if tooth is short for inlay/onlay E. facial / lingual slot preparation
restoration, this can be achieved by using:
A. # 33 ½ B. # 253 C. # 169L D.
flame shaped diamond bur E. # 271. 301. In pin-retained amalgam restoration, the
direction of retention pin holes should be:
A. parallel to the long axis of the tooth
297. Used in preparing occlusal and gingival B. parallel to the nearest external
bevels: surface
A. # 33 ½ B. # 253 C. # 169L D.
flame shaped diamond bur E. # 271. C. at right angles to the dentinal
tubules
D. perpendicular to the occlusal or the

298. The amount of occlusal marginal metal
gingival floor of the preparation
bevel for inlay is:
A. less than 30 degrees C. more than E. at a 15 degree angle to the long axis
40 degrees of the tooth.
B. 30 to 40 degree D. 140 to
150 degrees
302. The initial procedure in preparing the
outline form of the proximal box of a Class
II cavity preparations for amalgam is the
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isolation of the proximal enamel by the c. Zinc silicophosphate
proximal ditch cut. The ideal bur to used is: d. Carboxylate cement
A. #33 ½ B. # 2 C. 309. A solution for one or more resins from the natural
gums, the synthetcis resins, and rosin in a organic
#245 D. #169L E. # ¼ solvent is called a
a. Cavity varnish*
b. Carboxylate cement
c. Liner
303. Ideally, in a MO Class II cavity preparation d. Cyanoacrylate cement
for amalgam, the mesiofacial and
310. A buffering agent for the phosphoric acid is silicate
mesiolingual margins of a conservative cement is
preparation should clear the adjacent a. SiO2
tooth by only: b. AlPO4*
A. 0.1 to 0.2mm B. 0.2 to 0.3mm C. c. Al2O3
d. CaF2
0.3 to 0.4mm D. 0.4 to 0.5mm
311. When a silicate restoration dissolves in the oral fluids
the portion of the set restoration that disintigrates is
a. Gel matrix*
304. Indicated when deep gingival extension of b. SiO2 Particles
c. CaF2 flux
proximal box is anticipated: d. Zn3PO4 buffer
A. round wedge B. triangular wedge
312. The only real advantage in properties the glads
C. both A & B D. none of these ionomer cement has over a silicate cement is that gi
has
a. Shorter setting time
b. Greater compressive strength
305. Used to cleaved away the remaining c. Slighty less solubility*
undermined proximal enamel to establish d. Less optical opacity.
properly the direction of the mesiolingual 313. The initiator of the autopolimerizing resins is
and mesiofacial walls: a. Benzoyl peroxide*
A. enamel hatchet C. angle b. Hydroquinone
c. Methyl methacrylate
former d. P-tolouene sulfinic acid
B. binangle chisel D. 314. The initiator or the ultraviolet ligth activiated BIS
GMA resin is
both A & B E. all of them a. Tertiary amine
b. Peroxide
c. Methyl ether*
d. Hydroquinone
306. The higher the mercury alloy ratio in dental amalgam 315. The common inorganic phases used in the
a. Higher the strength compound is/are
b. The more the matrix will be formed* a. BIS GMA resin
c. The more the y phase will be available b. Lithium aluminum silicate
d. Lower creep value c. Poly methyl methacrylate*
e. NOTA d. Borosilicate
307. In Zinc phosphate cement liquid the buffering e. Quartz
agents are zinc and f. Organic silane
a. Magnesium 316. Body and strength are given to the reversible
b. Bismuth hydrocolloid by
c. Aluminum* a. Potassium sulfate
d. Silicon b. Lead peroxide
308. The most effective dental cement in stimulating c. Agar
growth of secondary dentine is one of the d. Borax*
a. zinc phosphate cements
b. CaOH*
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317. The fact that the temprature of gelation of reversible d) one should place locks 0.2mm inside
hydrocolloid is lower than the temperature of
liquefaction is known as
the DEJ to ensure that the proximal
a. Synersis* enamel is not undermined.
b. Gelling 323. the success of an amalgam restoration is
c. Hysteresis
d. Polymerization dependent on all of the following features
318. Calcium sulfate in the alginates is a of tooth/ cavity preparation except
a. Retarder a) butt joint cavosurface margin that
b. Reactor*
c. Neither
results in a 90 degree margin for the
d. Both 1 and 2 amalgam
319. The warm water has w/c of the following effects on b) adequate tooth removal for
alginate appropriate strength of the amalgam
a. No effect
b. Increase in gelation time c) divergent (externally) preparation
c. Decrease in the gelation time* walls
320. . Composite materials; Polymerization. Amalgam; d) adequate retention form features to
a. Galvanic formation
b. Compression alloy mechanically lock the amalgam in the
c. Ionization preparation
d. Amalgamation*
324. a “skirt” feature for a gold onlay
preparation
321. when preparing a Class III or IV composite
a) has a shoulder gingival margin design
tooth preparation, which of the following is
b) is prepared by a diamond held
false regarding placement of retention perpendicular to the long axis of the
form?
crown
a) often involves gingival and incisal
c) is used only for esthetics areas of a
retention tooth
b) is placed at the axiogingival line angle
d) increase both retention and resistance
regardless of the depth of the axial
form
wall 325. causes of post operative sensitivity with
c) may be needed in large preps
amalgam restorations include all the
d) is usually prepared with a no. ¼ round
following except
bur a) lack of adequate condensation,
322. when placement of proximal retention
especially lateral condensation in the
locks in Class II amalgam preparations is
proximal boxes
necessary, which of the following is
b) voids
incorrect?
c) extension onto the root surface
a) one should not undermine the
d) lack of dentinal sealing
proximal enamel
326. the setting reaction off dental amalgam
b) one should not prepare locks entirely proceeds primarily by
in the axial wall
a) dissolution of the entire alloy particle
c) even if deeper than ideal, one should
into mercury
use the axial wall as a guide for b) dissolution of the Cu from the particle
proximal lock placement.
into mercury
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
c) precipitation of Sn-Hg crystals 331. when comparing pin retention with slot
d) mercury reaction with Ag on or in the retention for a complex amalgam
alloy restoration, which of the following is false?
327. a major difference between total-etch and a) slots are used where vertical walls
self etching primer dentin bonding system allow opposing retention locks
include all of the following except b) slots provide stronger retention than
a) the time necessary to apply the pins
materials c) slots and grooves can be used
b) the amount of smear layer removed interchangeably
c) the bond strengths to enamel d) pin retention is used primarily where
d) the need for wet bonding there are few or no vertical walls
328. the principal goals of bonding are 332. restoration of an appropriate proximal
a) sealing and thermal insulation contact results in all of the following except
b) strengthening teeth and esthetics a) reduction/ elimination of food
c) esthetics and reduction of post impaction at the interdental papilla
operative sensitivity b) provide appropriate space for the
d) sealing and retention interdental papilla
e) retention and reduction of the tooth c) provide increased retention form for
flexure the restoration
329. which of the following statements is not d) maintenance of the proper occlusal
true regarding bonding system? relationship
a) even though dentin bonding occurs 333. it is generally accepted that the maximum
slowly, it results in a stronger bond thickness of a composite increment that
than to enamel allows for proper cure is
b) enamel bonding occurs quickly, is a) 1-2mm
strong, and is long lasting b) 2-4mm
c) one bottle dentin bonding systems c) 4-6mm
may be simpler but are not necessarily d) there is no maximum thickness
better. restriction
d) denting bonding is still variable 334. bonding of resins to dentin is best
because of factors such as sclerosis, described as involving
tubule size, and tubule location a) mechanical interlocking
330. for a gold casting alloy, which of the b) ionic bonding
following is added primarily to act as c) covalent bonding
scavenger for oxygen during the casting d) Van der Waals force
process? 335. which of the following statements is true
a) copper regarding the choice between doing a
b) palladium composite or amalgam restoration?
c) silver a) establishing restored proximal contact
d) zinc is easier with composite
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
b) the amalgam is more difficult and e. None of the above
technique sensitive
c) the composite generally uses a more 338. What is the composition of the
conservative tooth/ cavity preparation smear layer?
d) only amalgam should be used for class I. film of nanocrystalline
II restorations debris that remains on
336. Streptococcus mutans is the most enamel after it is cut with
cariogenic with contributions from rotary instruments.
S.sanguis and S. salivarious. Root II. film of microcrystalline
surface caries are initiated by debris that remains on
Actinomyces viscus on accumulated dentin after it is cut with
plaque deposits. rotary instruments.
a. First statement is true. III. film of macrocrystalline
Second statement is false. debris that remains on
b. First statement is false. dentin after it is cut with
Second statement is true. rotary instruments.
c. Both statements are IV. film of microcrystalline
true. debris that remains on
d. Both statements are false. enamel after it is cut with
rotary instruments.
a. I and III only
337. What is the mechanism of action
b. II and IV only
of Hydrogen in lightening teeth?
c. II only
I. oxidizes and removes
d. III only
inorganic matter to lighten
the tooth.
II. removes intraprismatic
organic matter within the
tooth to lighten the shade. 339. The choices below are
III. oxidizes and removes compound/s stimulate dentin
interprismatic inorganic bridging except:
matter within the tooth to a. Zinc phosphate cements
lighten the shade. b. Calcium Hydroxide
IV. oxidizes and removes c. Eugenol
interprismatic organic d. Resin Composite systems
matter within the tooth to
lighten the shade. 340. The following are chemical
a. I and III only component/s of composite resins
b. II and IV only except:
c. II only I. Coupling agents
d. IV only II. Principal and diluent
monomers
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
III. Polymerization initiator 343. What options are available for
IV. Radiation absorbers amalgam restorations?
a. IV only I. Cast gold
b. II only II. Cast, fired, and pressed
c. Any of the above ceramics
d. None of the above III. Direct, direct-indirect,
indirect placement
341. How are glass ionomer cements composite resins
(GIC) classified? IV. CAD-CAM and
a. Slow setting, fast setting, mechanically milled
light-cured glass ionomers restorations
b. Capsule, filled, unfilled, a. I, II, IV
light-cured b. I, III, IV
c. Hydrous, anhydrous, c. All of the above
hybrid, light- cured d. None of the above
d. Restorative, Luting, Liner,
Sealant 344. All are the benefits of cast gold
inlays and onlays except:
342. What are compomers? a. Low restoration
I. are low-viscosity, visible wear
light-cured, radiopaque, b. Low wear of
composite resins, often opposing teeth
containing fluoride. c. Lack of breakage
II. single light-cured d. Negligible
component made by polymerization
adding glass ionomer shrinkage
particles to acidic e. Burnishable and
polymerizable monomers malleable
in a resin matrix. restoration
III. Simply the combination of f. Proven long-term
composite and glass service
ionomer. g. Bonded cast gold
IV. primary function is to restoration
enhance the marginal seal improves their main
of the restoration. weakness
a. I and II only
b. II and III only 345. All are indications of porcelain
c. III and IV only veneer restoration except:
d. I and IV only I. Stained teeth or
teeth in which color
changes are desired
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
II. Enamel defects b. First statement is false.
III. Malposed teeth Second statement is true.
IV. Malformed teeth c. Both statements are true.
V. Replacement for d. Both statements are false.
multisurfaced
composite 348. The functional advantage of a
restoration when low copper content in dental
adequate tooth amalgam is, copper contents over
structure remains 6% eliminate the gamma-2 phase
(at least 30%) and result in alloys of much better
a. II only marginal stability.
b. V only a. True
c. I, IIII, IV b. False
d. All of the above
e. None of the above 349. An adverse pulpal reaction is
most likely to occur when which of
346. What is the purpose of finishing the following materials is placed
and polishing amalgam restoration? directly into a deep cavity
I. To reduce marginal preparation?
discrepancies and create a a. Silver amalgam
more hygienic restoration b. Zinc oxied eugenol
II. To reduce marginal c. Polycarboxylate cement
breakdown and recurrent d. Silicate cement
decay e. Zinc phosphate cement
III. To prevent tarnishing and f. Calcium hydroxide
increase the quality of
appearance of the 350. What is the major constituent of
restoration. inlay wax pattern?
a. I and II only a. Ceresin
b. II and III only b. Carnauba
c. III only c. Beeswax
d. All of the above d. Paraffin
347. In amalgam, smaller particle size e. Microcrystalline wad
results in higher strength, lower
flow, and better carvability.
Spherical amalgams high in silver 351. This is the primary causative agent of initial
and tin usually have the best tensile caries
and compressive characteristics. a) Lactobacillus
a. First statement is true. b) Sugar acid
Second statement is c) Streptococcus mutans
false.
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
d) Plaque c) First stament is false. Second
352. In the antimicrobial action of saliva, what statement is true
component binds iron and destroys the d) First statement is true. Second
agent that causes dental caries statement is true
a) Lysozyme 356. The first number found on hand cutting
b) Lactoferrin instruments indicates the:
c) Lactoperoxidase a) Primary cutting edge angle
d) Buffers b) Width of the blade
353. This is a natural sigar from birch trees (5- c) Blade length
carbon sugar) which can be used to d) Blade angle
prevent caries formation because the 357. The third number found on hand cutting
agent cannot ferment it instruments indicates the:
a) Sucrose a) Primary cutting edge angle
b) Xylitol b) Width of the blade
c) Fructose c) Blade length
d) Galactose d) Blade angle
354. Bateriostatic agent kills bacteria. They can 358. How much inorganic content does enamel
be used to further disrupt the growth of has?
the bacteria a) 95-98%
a) First statement is true. Second b) 78-90%
statement is the definition of the c) 89-95%
subject d) 56-60%
b) First statement is wrong. Second 359. Hybrid layer is formed when dentin is cut.
statement is not the definition of the This is removed by acid etching.
subject a) First statement is true. Second
c) First statement is true. Second statement is false
statement is not the definition of the b) First statement is false. Second
subject statement is false
d) First statement is wrong. Second c) First stament is false. Second
statement is the definition of the statement is true
subject d) First statement is true. Second
355. White spots on intact, hard proximal statement is true
surface enamel adjacent to and usually 360. Self threading pin is the most retentive pin
gingival to the contact area are often seen used for complex amalgam restoration
in older px whose caries activity is low. a) True
These discolored extrinsic stains are often b) False
results of remineralized initial lesions 361. Minikin pin size
a) First statement is true. Second a) 0.024 in 0.61 mm
statement is false b) 0.019 in 0.48 mm
b) First statement is false. Second c) 0.015 in 0.38 mm
statement is false d) 0.031 in 0.78 mm
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
362. Regular pin size
a) 0.024 in 0.61 mm 366. The cavosurface margin of an amalgam
b) 0.019 in 0.48 mm preparation:
c) 0.015 in 0.38 mm a) Should not be planed
d) 0.031 in 0.78 mm b) Never contains unsupported enamel
363. Macrofill inorganic filler c) Does not require a right angle margin
a) 75-80% d) Must be planed to remove unsupported
enamel
b) 35-60%
c) 75-85% a.
d) 45-60%
364. Nanofill particle size b. An occlusal cavosurface bevel
a) 0.4-1 micrometer is contraindicated in the cavity
b) 3.5-4 micrometer preparation for an amalgam
c) 0.003-0.005 micrometer restoration. Attempt to provide a
d) 0.005-0.01 micrometer 90°-100° cavosurface angle
results in a 80-90% of amalgam
365. For a moderate amalgam filling, what is the
at the margins. The butt joint of
recommended steps of treatment?
enamel and amalgam creates the
a) Liner/sealer, filling strongest margin.
b) CaOh, base, liner/sealer, filling c. Reference: The Art and Science
c) Base, liner/sealer, filling of Operative Dentistry by
d) Filling Sturdevant p.196
367. An occlusal outline that has been prepared

too wide:
a) Will not give the amalgam as much
strength as a slight increase in depth
1. C
b) Will cause fracture of the amalgam
2. B
c) Will not cause fracture of the cusp
3. B d) Will cause corrosion of the amalgam
4. D
5. C
6. B e) The cavity preparation shouldn’t be
7. C wider than necessary especially on
8. A smaller teeth, when the occlusal
9. C portion may have a small distal tilt.
10. A This objective will help conserve the
dentinal support and strength of the
11. B
tooth and help minimize marginal
12. D
deterioration of the restoration
13. A f) Reference: The Art and Science of
14. D Operative Dentistry by Sturdevant p.
15. C 202-203
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
properties as trituration does, because
there is more resistance to the crystal
368. Moisture in an amalgam causes: displacement during condensation than
a) Increase in strength during trituration.
b) Shrinkage in filling g) Reference: Operative Dentistry:
c) No marginal breakdown Modern Theory and Practice by
d) Excessive delayed expansion with Marzauk, A.L. p.109
protrusion of the filling
f) 370. Overtrituration of alloy and mercury will:
a) Result in shrinkage of the mass during
g) Moisture contamination can create an set
expansion of such magnitude that it b) Result in expansion of mass during set
may not always be directed toward the c) Cause no shrinkage during set
outer surface of the restoration. Axially d) Result in fracture after setting
or pulpally directed expansion will e) None of the above
exert tremendous pressure in the pulp-
dentin organ. This can precipitate
changes in the position and the f) Trituration makes a more coherent
environment of odontoblasts and mass of amalgam mix which
surrounding tissues. contributes to the greater strength
h) Reference: Operative Dentistry: pattern in the restoration. On the other
Modern Theory and Practice by hand, if trituration is continued after
Marzauk, A.L. p.117 complete formation of the matrix
crystals, the excess energy will create
cracks in these crystals and their
interphases leading to a drop in the
strength of the set amalgam.
369. The greatest single factor in the strength of g) Reference: Operative Dentistry:
a final amalgam restoration is: Modern Theory and Practice by
a) The residual mercury content Marzauk, A.L., p.109
b) The lead content
c) The silver content
d) The copper content 371. A chalky appearance of the marginal ridge
e) All of the above suggests;
a) No need for radiographic examination
b) Underlying dental carries
c) No need for visual examination
f) The more energy used in condensation,
the less will be the residual mercury, d) Loss of translucency
which results in a higher relative e) None of the above
percentage of the strong original
particles in the restoration.
Condensation of an amalgam mass f) Cavitation of the surface occurs when
after formation of the matrix crystals the subsurface demineralization is so
does not diminish the strength extensive that the tooth structure
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
collapses. Cavitation of enamel is capillary dilation, local edema and
irreversible and is usually associated stagnation of blood flow.
with an acceleration in the process of h) Reference: Operative Dentistry:
carious destruction of the tooth. Modern Theory and Practice by
g) Reference: Operative Dentistry: Marzauk, A.L., p50
Modern Theory and Practice by
Marzauk, A.L., p. 51
374. A visual inspection of restoration should
attempt to find the following anatomic
372. The loss of translucency in a tooth or its defects:
discoloration suggests: a) Absence of contour
a) Pulpal hyperemia b) Overcontour
b) Pulpal death c) Poor contact form
c) Pulpal abscess d) Faulty margins and overhangs on
d) Internal resorption restorations
e) None of the above e) All of the above
i.
f) The areas of enamel that lose their f) All of the choices given should not be
transluscency are products of extensive present whenever a restoration is
subsurface porosity caused by made. It is important that there should
demineralization. It means there is be correct contour, absence of
stagnation of blood flow which in overhangs and proper contact with the
return results to necrosis or pulpal adjacent tooth.
death. g) Reference: Operative Dentistry:
g) Reference: Operative Dentistry: Modern Theory and Practice by
Modern Theory and Practice by Marzauk, A.L., p. 51
Marzauk, A.L., p 50
375. Percussion produces pain when:

373. A yellowish appearance to a tooth may a) There is inflammation in the pulp
suggest: b) There is any degree of inflammation of
a) Secondary dentin deposition periodontal or periapical tissues
b) Enlarged pulp chamber c) A pulp stone is present
c) Enlarged root canals d) Swelling is present
d) Necrosis of pulp e) None of the above
f)
g) Acute, rapidly advancing caries with The pains are due to the stimulation of
very high levels of acid production pulp tissue by movement of fluid
overpowers dentinal defenses and through dentinal tubules that had been
results in infection. Small localized opened to the oral environment by
infections in the pulp produces cavitation.
inflammatory response involving
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
Reference: Operative Dentistry: Modern g) Reference: Operative Dentistry:
Theory and Practice by Marzauk, A.L., Modern Theory and Practice by
p. 52 Marzauk, A.L., p.75
376. An irritated or inflamed pulp responds to

the electric pulp test: 378. Use of anesthesia for cavity preparation is
a. Later than normal pulp contraindication in the following:
b. Earlier than normal pulp a) Cardiovascular disease
c. The same as the normal b) Hyperthyroidism
pulp c) Allergies
d. Fails to respond at all d) Emotional instability
e. None of the above e) All of the above
a) Since there is an existing bacterial f) The components of the anesthetic, e.g.

infection close to the pulp, the reaction epinephrine, may trigger one or two of
would be more sensitive than a normal the diseases given. This in turn will be
pulp. very hard to manage once anesthetic
b) Reference: Operative Dentistry: was given without any history taking.
Modern Theory and Practice by It is best to take down patient’s
Marzauk, A.L., p.55 medical history for the safety of the
patient’s wel-being.
g) Reference: Operative Dentistry:
377. Operative dentistry is: Modern Theory and Practice by
a) Purely mechanical Marzauk, A.L., p.83
b) Treating a tooth h)
c) Devoid of physiologic and psychologic
aspects 379. The compound cavity involves:
d) Treating the person a) Two surfaces of the tooth
e) None of the above b) Only one surface
c) More than three surfaces
d) Three surfaces
f) Operative dentistry does not only e) None of the above
confine itself in the mechanical aspect
of treating the tooth. It abides with the
patient’s well-being as the clinician f) Simple cavity denotes preparation on
treats a problem. It treats the physical one surface of the tooth, while a
as well as psychological aspect of the compound cavity denotes
patient. preparationon two surfaces of the
tooth.
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
g) Reference: Operative Dentistry:
Modern Theory and Practice by
Marzauk, A.L., p.77 382. The microorganism most
commonly associated with root
surface caries is:
380. Radiographic examination reveals: a) Actinomyces viscosus
b) Streptococcus mutans
a. Caries and indicates depth c) Streptococcus salivarius
of caries to a degree
d) Lactobacillus acidophilus
b. The extent of periodontal
and periapical bone loss to a
degree
383. What is Enameloplasty?
c. Unerupted and impacted a) Extension of outline form
teeth b) Adding synthetic enamel to
d. Number, size and shape of surface
roots and roots canals c) The procedure of reshaping
grooves with rotary cutting
e. All of the above
instruments
d) Removal of the entire thickness
of enamel
The radiograph is one of the most e) None of the above
helpful diagnostic tool in analyzing a
tooth. A full-mouth radiographic
examination will be a great device in
384. Sensitivity can be felt in enamel
locating caries, abnormalities and other
pathologic findings and therefore
due to the presence of:
making a better treatment plan. a) Enamel lamellae
b) Enamel tufts
Reference: Operative Dentistry: Modern
c) Enamel spindles
Theory and Practice by Marzauk, A.L.,
p.53 d) Enamel sheath
381. Streptococcus mutans is

considered to be a principal etiologic 385. What class/ classes of cavities
agent of caries because it produces is/are found on the all teeth (
organic acids and it: anterior or posterior)
a) Forms a gelatinous matrix a) Class I, II
b) Derives energy from b) Class III, IV
constituents c) Class I, V, VI
c) Metabolizes substrate from d) Class II, IV, V
saliva
d) Lives symbiotically with
Lactobacillus acidophilus
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
389. Discoloration of the tooth under
big amalgam restoration can be
prevented by:
386. All enamels must consists of : a) Using cavity varnish
a) A cluster of enamel rods b) Using correct alloy: mercury
protruding from cavity ratio
b) Full length enamel rods or full- c) Using zinc phosphate cement
length rods supported by shorter base
rods terminating on sound d) Washing the prepared cavity
dentin with NaOCl3
c) Cavity outline placed on rough
curve
d) Cavity outline placed on 390. Gingival cavosurface margin is
irregular lines beveled in a class II cavity for
e) None of the above amalgam restoration to:
a) Get a lap joint on the
cavosurface angle
387. Affected dentin differs from b) Remove the unsupported
infected dentin in that it has: enamel rods
a) Been invaded by c) Get burnishable thickness of
microorganisms amalgam
b) Are precisely the same d) Move the cavosurface away
c) Not been invaded by from the contact
microorganisms
d) A soft texture
e) None of the above 391. The position of the gingival
margin of a class II amalgam
preparation is dictated primarily by:
388. Which of the following is the most a) Aesthetics
effective way to reduce injury to the b) The location of the gingival
pulp during a restorative procedure? margin
a) Prepare dentin with slow-speed c) The extent of carious lesion
burs. d) The thickness of the enamel
b) Use anesthetics without
vasoconstrictors
c) Minimize dehydration of the 392. A marginal ridge wall in a
dentinal surface prepared cavity for amalgam is:
d) Keep the dentinal surface clean a) At right angles to the pulpal floor
by frequent irrigation b) Parallel to the long axis of the
tooth
DMD4A CEU MALOLOS
SY. 2016-2017
c) At an obtuse angle to the pulpal air, then repeat the etching
floor procedure
d) Determined by the extent of the
fissures of the central groove
e) None of the above 395. 15. Resistance forms is the ability
to withstand masticatory stress and
this is established by:
393. A newly condensed amalgam a) Bulk of the restorative material
restoration seems to chip away b) Strength of the restorative
when being carved. What is the materials
likely cause of this problem? c) Compressiveness
a) A low-copper alloy was used d) Compactness
b) Moisture contamination
occurred
c) The alloy was incompletely
wetted with mercury
d) The amalgam was not
condensed with the
recommended pressure
e) The amalgam was condensed
after its working time elapsed
394. After the dentist has completed

an etching procedure on a Class III
composite preparation, the
preparation becomes contaminated
with saliva. In response, the dentist
should do which of the following?
a) Blow away the saliva with air,
then proceed
b) Rinse away the saliva with
water, dry the preparation, then
proceed
c) Wipe away the saliva with a
cotton pellet, rinse the
preparation with water, dry it
with air, then proceed
d) Rinse away the saliva with
water, dry the preparation with

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RESTO SEMINAR II BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS

DMD4A CEU MALOLOS

49. The gold alloys used for casting

Rationale: According to ADA

Rationale: A 24 carat gold is

Rationale: Marginal leakage is Rationale: The reason for using

82. These are disadvantages of chairside 87. What is Eame’s Technique in

121. A freshly condensed Class II amalgam

126. A patient complains that a tooth with

141. It relates to the degree of how deeply light

156. Gingival cavosurface margin is beveled in a

A.the angle of two walls along a line

249. Retention form for composite resin

290. Chisels are used primarily to cut A. 1,2,3,4 B. 2,3,4,5 C. 1,2,3,5

296. Shallow retention grooves on facioaxial D. box-only preparation

D. perpendicular to the occlusal or the

367. An occlusal outline that has been prepared

375. Percussion produces pain when:

376. An irritated or inflamed pulp responds to

a) Since there is an existing bacterial f) The components of the anesthetic, e.g.

381. Streptococcus mutans is

394. After the dentist has completed

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