1.

If you fly across the isobars towards a region of high pressure in the Northern Hemisphere, you will:
A) experience no drift but experience a tailwind.
B) drift to the left.
C) experience no drift but experience a headwind.
D) drift to the right.

2.At altitude, the atmospheric pressure in a column of warm air is likely to be:
A) lower than at the same height in a column of cold air.
B) depends on the relative humidity.
C) higher than at the same height in a column of cold air.
D) the same irrespective of the temperature.

3.State the definition for QFF:

A) QNE reduced to MSL, using standard temperature gradient.
B) QFE reduced to MSL, using standard temperature gradient.
C) QNH reduced to MSL, using standard temperature gradient.
D) QFE reduced to MSL, using actual temperature gradient.

4.At an altitude of 25000ft when the temperature is -40C and the pressure is 375 mb, the height interval
corresponding to 1mb decrease in pressure is:
A) 60ft.
B) 62ft.
C) 56ft.
D) 65ft.

5.At an airport (400 m AMSL), a QFF of 1016 hPa and a temperature 10° C lower than ISA is observed:
A) The QNH is higher than 1016 hPa.
B) The QNH cannot be determined.
C) The QNH is lower than 1016 hPa.
D) The QNH equals 1016 hPa.

6.Ground level pressure is 1000hPa and the temperature 13C. At a certain height the temperature is 10C
and pressure equals 975hPa. The value of " feet per hPa" in this atmosphere is:
A) 26.76 ft per hPa.
B) 29.87 ft per hPa.
C) 27.67 ft per hPa.
D) 28.76 ft per hPa.

7.In the troposphere the decrease of pressure per 100 m increase in height:
A) remains constant at all levels.
B) is smaller at higher levels than at lower levels.
C) is in the order of 27 hPa near MSL.
D) is greater at higher levels than at lower levels.

8.Select the correct statement regarding the wind directions in connection with the high and low pressure
systems in the Northern Hemisphere:
A) the winds blow clockwise in a high and counter clockwise in a low.
B) the winds blow counter-clockwise around a high a clockwise in a low.
C) the winds blow clockwise in both highs and lows.
D) the winds blow counter-clockwise in both highs and lows.
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9.Pressure falls as height increases in the atmosphere. The rate of fall is ... and is ... in cold air than in
warm air.
A) logarithmic, higher.
B) linear, higher.
C) linear, lower.
D) logarithmic, lower.

10.In general, if the air mass temperature is higher than ISA, the pressure at any given height will be ...
and the tropopause will be...
A) low, low.
B) high, high.
C) low, high.
D) high, low.

11.When flying from high to low contour values, which of the following is incorrect?
A) the indicated height of the aircraft will be constant.
B) the pressure altimeter will indicate a constant value.
C) the indicated height of the aircraft will only be true if 1013,25 mb is set.
D) the true height of the aircraft will be falling.

12.A rising parcel of air which has no heat entering or leaving it, will:
A) maintain volume, decrease in density, reduce in pressure.
B) reduce in pressure, rise in temperature, decrease in density.
C) maintain pressure, reduce in density, increase in volume.
D) reduce in pressure, decrease in density, increase in volume

13.According to definition, flight levels are surfaces with constant air pressure determined from a certain
pressure value. Which is this value?
A) 1013,25 hPa
B) Actual QNH
C) Actual QFE
D) 1025,13 hPa

14.The station pressure used in surface weather charts is:

A) QNE.
B) QFE.
C) QFF.
D) QNH.

15.A pressure difference of 10 hPa close to the ground corresponds to a height difference of:
A) about 30 ft.
B) about 300 ft.
C) about 150 m.
D) about 50 m.

16.An isohypse (contour):

A) indicates the altitude of the zero degree isotherm.
B) is the longest slope line of a frontal surface.
C) is the limit between two air masses of different temperature.
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D) indicates the true altitude of a pressure level.

17.Contour heights are:

A) true heights AMSL.
B) do not indicate heights at all.
C) indicated heights above 1013,25 mb.
D) true heights AGL.

18.Pressure altitude is:

A) the height indicated on a pressure altimeter when the sub-scale is set to QNH.
B) the height indicated on a pressure altimeter when the sub-scale is set to QFE.
C) the standard pressure prevailing at official airfield level.
D) the height in the standard atmosphere at which the aircraft ambient pressure would be experienced.

19.Which of altimeter settings is used when flying in flight levels?

A) QFE.
B) 1013,25 hPa.
C) QFF.
D) 1025,13 hPa.

20.When flying towards high contour values an aircraft will experience:

A) port drift.
B) tailwind.
C) headwind.
D) starboard drift.

21.Lines joining points of equal pressure are known as:

A) Isobars.
B) Isotherms.
C) Isotachs
D) Isopleths.

22. Atmospheric density at 40.000 ft is approximately:

A) half the mean sea level value .
B) the same as the mean sea level.
C) one quarter of the sea level value.
D) four times the mean sea level value.

23.24.Stratiform clouds indicate stable air. Flight generally will be:

A) Smooth with low ceiling and visibility.
B) Rough with good visibility.
C) Smooth with good visibility.
D) Smooth with moderate turbulence and good visibility.

25.A temperature increase with increasing altitude is called:

A) Adiabatic.
B) Advection.
C) Inversion.
D) Subsidence.

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26.Which of the following statements regarding the density of the air is correct?
A) Density decreases when the temperature is constant and the air pressure increases.
B) Density decreases when the temperature is constant and the air pressure falls.
C) Density increases when the temperature rises and the air pressure falls.
D) Density decreases when the temperature falls and the air pressure is constant.

27.On the Earth's surface, points of nil variation are:

A) agonic.
B) isogonal.
C) aclinic.
D) isoclinals.

28.What do you expect with fair weather Cumulus clouds?

A) Smooth flight below the cloud level.
B) Turbulence in and above the clouds up to approximately FL 250.
C) Turbulence at and below the cloud level.
D) Continuous rain.

29.Flying conditions associated with cumulonimbus (cb) at summertime are:

A) Bad visibility, continuous rain and little turbulence.
B) Bad visibility in showers and pronounced turbulence.
C) Hazy weather combined with drizzle and turbulence.
D) Good visibility, intervals of fine weather and little turbulence.

30.What is the cause for a surface temperature inversion?

A) By heavy radiation cooling at night of the lowest layer of air, or if warm air moves in over a colder
surface.
B) The presence of a high pressure area.
C) Moist, unstable air, and a lifting action.
D) The presence of a polar front depression.

31.Which of the following statements regarding density is correct?

A) A decrease in density will result from an increase in humidity.
B) A rise in pressure will result in a fall in density.
C) Relative density at 20,000 ft is about 20%.
D) A fall in temperature will cause a fall in density.

32. The barometric pressure at the airfield datum point is:

A) QNE.
B) QFA.
C) QNH.
D) QFE.

33. Buys Ballots Law implies that:

A) the wind blows clockwise round a depression in the southern hemisphere only.
B) the wind blows clockwise round an anticyclone in the southern hemisphere.
C) the wind blows anti-clockwise round depressions in both hemispheres.
D) the wind blows anti-clockwise round anti-cyclones in the Northern hemisphere.
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34. How does the geostrophic wind force change with latitude?
A) Increase with increasing latitude to a certain latitude.
B) Increase with decreasing latitude.
C) Decrease with increasing latitude to a certain latitude.
D) Latitude does not affect wind force.

35.The greater the pressure gradient the:

A) further the isobars will be apart and the weaker the wind.
B) closer the isobars and the lower the temperatures.
C) closer the isobars and the stronger the wind.
D) further the isobars will be apart and the higher the temperature.

36.Assuming a constant pressure gradient, the gradient wind speed would be slowest:
A) at 50 N around an anticyclone.
B) at 30 N around an anticyclone.
C) at 30 N around a depression.
D) at 50 N around a depression.

37.Under anticyclone conditions in the northern hemisphere, with curved isobars the speed of the gradient
wind is:
A) proportional only to the Coriolis force.
B) the same as the thermal component.
C) less than the geostrophic wind.
D) greater than the geostrophic wind.

38.The wind speed in a system with curved isobars compared to a system with straight isobars is (other
conditions being the same):
A) higher if curvature is cyclonic.
B) higher if curvature is anticyclonic.
C) always lower.
D) always higher.

39.For a similar pressure gradient, the geostrophic wind speed will be?
A) the same at all latitudes north or south of 15° .
B) greater at 30° N than at 60° N.
C) equivalent to gradient wind ± thermal component.
D) greater at 60° N than at 30° N.

40.An aircraft flying in the southern hemisphere at 2000 feet, has to turn to the right in order to allow for
drift. In which direction, relative to the aircraft, is the centre of low pressure?
A) To the right.
B) In front.
C) Behind.
D) To the left.

41.The pressure gradient force acts:

A) perpendicular to the isobars with low pressure behind it.
B) perpendicular to the isobars and away from the high pressure.
C) parallel to the isobars with low pressure on its left (in the Northern hemisphere).
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D) parallel to the isobars and towards the low pressure.

42.The geostrophic wind depends on:

A) geographic latitude, centripetal force, height.
B) centripetal force, height, pressure gradient.
C) density, earths rotation, geographic latitude.
D) earths rotation, geographic latitude, centripetal force.

43.In the Northern hemisphere, surface friction causes the geostrophic wind to:
A) back and increase.
B) veer and increase.
C) back and decrease.
D) veer and decrease.

44.The gradient wind is:

A) less than the geostrophic wind around a low.
B) none of the above.
C) more than the geostrophic wind around a low.
D) less than the geostrophic wind around a high.

45. In a land- and sea-breeze circulation the land-breeze blows:

A) during the day and is weaker than the sea-breeze.
B) during the night and is stronger than the sea-breeze.
C) during the day and is stronger than the sea-breeze.
D) during the night and is weaker than the sea-breeze.

46.An katabatic wind is a wind which:

A) flows up a hill or mountain mainly during the night.
B) flows up a hill or mountain mainly during the day.
C) flows down a hill or mountain mainly during the night.
D) flows down a hill or mountain mainly during the day.

47. The most frequent wind direction in a valley caused by thermal effects is toward the:
A) valley during daylight hours.
B) mountain during daylight hours.
C) mountain at night.
D) valley during daylight as much as at night.

48. The dewpoint temperature:

A) is always higher than the air temperature.
B) can not be equal to the air temperature.
C) is always lower than the air temperature.
D) can be equal to the air temperature.

49. From which of the following can the stability of the atmosphere be determined?
A) Surface pressure.
B) ELR.
C) Surface temperature.
D) DALR.

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50. If Relative Humidity is low, you would expect a... cloud base. The cloud top would be when the...
meets the...
A) low, SALR, ELR
B) high, ELR, DALR
C) low, SALR, DALR
D) high, SALR, ELR

51. An air parcel on the ground is not saturated. As it rises, the temperature reduces at the..., the wet bulb
temperature reduces at the... and the dew point temperature...
A) DALR; SALR; rises
B) SALR; DALR; falls
C) DALR; SALR; falls
D) SALR; DALR; rises

52.If the relative humidity of a sample of air is 100%, then the actual amount of water vapour present
would be:
A) greater at the Equator than at the poles.
B) greater at 10000ft than at mean sea level.
C) greater at the poles than at the Equator.
D) the same at the Equator as at the poles.

53.Describe how a cold high pressure changes at altitude:

A) strengthens.
B) no change.
C) impossible to predict.
D) weakens and may transfer into a low pressure.

54.Humidity is measured by means of a psychrometer. This compares dry bulb temperature with:
A) the lowest temperature to which air is cooled by the evaporation of water.
B) the latent heat of evaporation.
C) the temperature of water in a container beside the dry bulb.
D) the Dew Point temperature.

55. In still air a lapse rate of 1.2 deg C/100m refers to:
A) DALR.
B) ELR.
C) SALR.
D) ALR.

56.Which process causes adiabatic cooling?

A) Release of latent heat during the vaporization process.
B) Movement of air over a colder surface.
C) Expansion of air as it rises.
D) Expansion of air as it descends.

57.Relative humidity at a given temperature is the relation between:

A) water vapour weight and humid air volume
B) dew point and air temperature
C) water vapour weight and dry air weight
D) actual water vapour content and saturated water vapour content
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58.Dew point is defined as:
A) the temperature below which the change of state in a given volume of air will result in the absorption
of latent heat.
B) the temperature to which moist air must be cooled to become saturated at a given pressure.
C) the lowest temperature at which evaporation will occur for a given pressure.
D) the lowest temperature to which air must be cooled in order to reduce the relative humidity.

59.In an air mass, if the ... is higher than the ... and lower than the ... the air mass is conditionally
unstable.
A) SALR, DALR, ELR
B) ELR, DALR, SALR
C) ELR, SALR, DALR
D) DALR; SALR; ELR

60. The DALR is:

A) variable with latitude.
B) fixed.
C) variable with temperature.
D) variable with time.

61.With decreasing temperature and unchanged dew point:

A) The relative humidity will decrease.
B) The relative humidity will increase.
C) Water Vapor will decrease.
D) Water Vapor will increase.

62.Dewpoint is defined as:

A) the lowest temperature at which evaporation will occur for a given pressure.
B) the temperature below which the change of state for a given volume of air will result in an absorption
of latent heat
C) the lowest temperature to which air must be cooled in order to reduce the relative humidity.
D) the temperature to which moist air must be cooled to reach saturation.

63. Supercooled droplets are always:

A) large and at a temperature below freezing.
B) small and at a temperature below freezing.
C) at a temperature below freezing.
D) at a temperature below -60° C.

64. Sublimation is how material changes from...

A) solid to vapour.
B) liquid to vapour.
C) liquid to solid.
D) vapour to liquid.

65.As air is cooled to below its dew point temperature:

A) the actual water vapor content increases to remain equal to the saturated water vapor content.
B) the actual water vapor content decreases to remain equal to the saturated water vapor content.
C) the saturated water vapor content remains constant as the air is at 100% relative humidity.
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D) the saturated water vapor content increases as precipitation takes place when the temperature drops.

66.When water vapor condenses into water droplets, there is a:

A) release of heat energy that makes the surrounding air warmer.
B) none of the above.
C) sublimation.
D) release of heat energy that increases density of the surrounding air.

67.What is the result when water vapor changes to the liquid state while being lifted in a thunderstorm?
A) Latent heat is absorbed from the surrounding air by the water droplet.
B) Latent heat is released to the atmosphere.
C) None of the above.
D) Latent heat is transformed into pure energy.

68.Supercooled droplets can occur in:

A) clouds but not in fog.
B) clouds but not in precipitation.
C) clouds, fog and precipitation.
D) precipitation but not in clouds.

69. Clouds, fog or dew will always be formed when:

A) water vapour is present.
B) water vapour condenses.
C) temperature and dew point are nearly equal.
D) relative humidity reaches 98%.

70. The height of the lifting condensation level is determined by:

A) temperature and dewpoint at the surface.
B) wind and dewpoint at the surface.
C) temperature at surface and air pressure.
D) wet adiabatic lapse rate and dewpoint at the surface.

71.At lower altitudes, the SALR differs from the DALR. The reason is due to:
A) the lowering of the saturation vapour pressure of water with altitude.
B) the absorption of latent heat.
C) the release of latent heat.
D) none of the above.

72.If in a 100 m thick layer the temperature at the bottom of the layer is 10° C and at the top of the layer
is 8° C then this layer is:
A) absolutely unstable.
B) neutral.
C) absolutely stable.
D) conditionally unstable.

73.A layer in which the temperature increases with height is:

A) absolutely stable.
B) absolutely unstable.
C) neutral.
D) conditionally unstable.
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74.The rate of cooling of ascending saturated air is less than the rate of cooling of ascending unsaturated
air because:
A) water vapour absorbs the incoming heat from the sun.
B) water vapour doesn't cool as rapidly as dry air.
C) moist air is heavier than dry air.
D) heat is released during the condensation process.

75.An inversion is:

A) a conditionally unstable layer.
B) an absolutely stable layer.
C) an unstable layer.
D) a layer that can be either stable or unstable.

76.During an adiabatic process heat is:

A) added but the result is an overall loss.
B) neither added nor lost.
C) added.
D) lost.

77.A mass of unsaturated air is forced to rise till just under the condensation level. It then settles back to
its original position...
A) the temperature will be the same at the end of its journey.
B) the temperature will be less than before it started on its journey.
C) the temperature of the parcel of air is greater than before at the end of its journey.
D) it depends on QFE.

78.A moist but unsaturated parcel of air becomes saturated by:

A) moving the parcel to an area with higher pressure and equal temperature.
B) lifting the parcel to a higher level.
C) moving the parcel to an area with lower pressure and equal temperature.
D) lowering the parcel to a lower level.

79. In an unstable layer there are cumuliform clouds. The vertical extent of these clouds depends on the:
A) wind direction.
B) pressure at different levels.
C) air pressure at the surface.
D) thickness of the unstable layer.

80.Which of the following cloud types is a medium level cloud?

A) AS
B) CS
C) ST
D) SC

81.What process in an air mass leads to the creation of wide spread NS, AS and ST cloud coverage?
A) Sinking.
B) Radiation.
C) Lifting.
D) Convection process.
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82.Stratus cloud of limited depth at a temperature of -5C will most likely give
A) moderate to heavy rime ice.
B) light to moderate glaze ice.
C) light to moderate rime ice.
D) moderate to heavy glaze ice.

83.Convective clouds are formed:

A) in summer during the day only.
B) in unstable atmosphere.
C) in stable atmosphere.
D) in mid-latitudes only.

84.Which of these clouds is most likely to be associated with thunderstorms?

A) Alto Stratus.
B) Stratus.
C) Nimbo Stratus.
D) Alto Cumulus Castellanus.

85.Low cloud in temperature climates, excluding heap, are those existing from:
A) The surface to 6500ft.
B) 1000ft to 6500ft.
C) The surface to 7500ft.
D) The surface to 7500 metres.

86.A cumulus cloud, base 3,000 ft has a base temperature of +16 deg C. The dewpoint temperature and
the dry bulb temperature at the surface are probably:
A) +25 deg C & +17.5 deg C.
B) +25 deg C & +20 deg C.
C) +17.5 deg C & +25 deg C.
D) +16 deg C & +16 deg C.

87.What are the typical bases of alto type cloud?

A) 1,000ft.
B) 6,500ft.
C) surface.
D) 16,500ft.

88.Which of the following are medium level clouds?

A) Altostratus and altocumulus.
B) Cirrocumulus and cirrostratus.
C) Cumulonimbus.
D) All convective clouds.

89.Fallstreaks or virga are:

A) water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that evaporate before reaching the ground.
B) strong downdraughts in the polar jet stream, associated with jet streaks.
C) gusts associated with a well developed Bora.
D) strong katabatic winds in mountainous areas and accompanied by heavy precipitation.

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90. The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is an indication of the:
A) presence of valley winds.
B) risk of orographic thunderstorms.
C) presence of mountain waves.
D) development of thermal lows.

91. Clouds classified as low level are considered to have a base height of:
A) the surface - 6500ft.
B) 500 - 1000ft.
C) 1000 - 2000ft.
D) 100 - 200ft.

92.What type of cloud is usually found at high level?

A) St
B) Cc
C) Ns
D) Ac

93.In which of the following conditions is moderate to severe airframe icing most likely to be
encountered?
A) In Nimbostratus cloud.
B) In clear air above the freezing level.
C) Below the freezing level in clear air.
D) Within cloud of any type.

94.From which cloud do you get hail?

A) Cb
B) Ns
C) Ts
D) Sc

95.Which types of clouds are typical evidence of stable air conditions?

A) CB, CC
B) ST, AS
C) CU, CB
D) NS, CU

96.The presence of altocumulus castellanus indicates:

A) instability in the middle troposphere.
B) stability in the higher troposphere.
C) subsidence in a large part of the troposphere.
D) strong convection at low height.

97.Which of the following clouds are classified as medium level clouds in temperate regions?
A) CI, CC.
B) SC, NS
C) AS, AC.
D) CS, ST.

98. With which of the following types of cloud is +RA precipitation most commonly associated?
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A) AC
B) ST
C) NS
D) SC

99.With what type of cloud is +TSRA precipitation most commonly associated?

A) NS
B) CB
C) AS
D) SC

100. Which of the following processes can produce both fog and clouds?
A) Divergence.
B) Advection.
C) Convection.
D) Radiation.

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