09 Capital Budgeting KEY PDF
09 Capital Budgeting KEY PDF
09 Capital Budgeting KEY PDF
I TRUE OR FALSE
#1 investment years
year recovered unrecovered recovered
at y-0 105,000.00 -
1 50,000.00 55,000.00 1
2 45,000.00 10,000.00 1
3 10,000.00 - 0.25 (P10,000 / P40,000) = .25
2.25 payback
or
2 years + (P105,000 - P95,000) = 2.25 years
P 40,000
#10 Accounting Rate of Return (ARR) = P20,000 / (410,000 / 2) = P20000 / P200,000 = 10%
#26 Investment / annual cash flow = Factor of Time Adjusted Rate Of Return
PROBLEMS
c Both are acceptable, however, Cool is preferred as it has higher NPV ang PI
9.6
a Machine 1
Present values (P50,000 - P15,000) x 4.486 = 157,010.00
Cost 152,000.00
Net present values 5,010.00
Machine 2
Present values (P60,000 - P20,000) x 4.486 = 179,440.00
Cost 170,000.00
Net present values 9,440.00
c IRR
Machine 1 PV Factor = P152,000 / P35,000 = 4.34 PV Factor at 6 years of 4.355 is at 10%
c Additional benefits would need to have a total present value of at least P658 in order for the van to be purchased.
If # of campers attending each week is only 80, NPV decreases by P510,840, that is from positive P179,880 to a
negative P330,960. Investment should not be made unless attedees is closer to 100.
9.11 a Old loss (2,000.00)
New Net income (loss) Receipts P20,000 x 5% = 1,000.00
Depreciation P12,000 / 10 years = 1,200.00
Net income (Loss) (200.00)
Net difference (1,800.00)
relevant payback:
Payback Change in cash flow is P3,000 = salary of employee terminated
P12,000 / P3,000 = 4.00
c
1 Present value of inflows P3,000 x 4.195 = 12,577.50
Cost of investment 12,000.00
Net present value 577.50
d yes, acceptable
9.14
1 Use table PV of Ordinary Annuity of P1
P200,000 = Annual Payments x the factor at interest rate at 30 years
a AP = P200,000 / 11.2578 17,765.46
b AP = P200,000 / 9.4269 21,215.88
c AP = P200,000 / 8.0552 24,828.68
b Use table PV of Ordinary annuity of P1. The P100 million is a uniform periodic payment at the
end of series of years. Therefore it is an annuity.
PV of Annuity = P100,000,000 x 3.6048 = 360,480,000.00
In particular, note that Prudential is willing to lend more than in No. 1 even though the interest rate
is the same. Because the company will get its money back more quickly.
9.16 a PV = P30,000 x .6302 18,906.00
b PV = P30,000 x ..4104 12,312.00
c Halves the rates and double the number of periods. Present values decline:
PV = P30,000 x .6246 18,738.00
9.17
a P80,000 = Future amount x .3050 FA = P80,000 / .3050 262,295.08
b P80,000 = Future annual amount x 4.3436 FAA = P80,000 / 4.3436 18,417.90
The trade-allowance really consists of a P3,000 adjustment of the selling price and a bonafide
P6,000 cash allowance for the old equipment. The relevant amount is the incremental cash outlay
of P33,000. The book value is irrelevant.
9.19 The quickest solution is to get the "net" inflows for each year:
1 End of year Inflows Outflows net flows
1 200,000.00 150,000.00 50,000.00
2 250,000.00 200,000.00 50,000.00
3 300,000.00 250,000.00 50,000.00
4 400,000.00 300,000.00 100,000.00
5 450,000.00 350,000.00 100,000.00
c at a 12% rate, NPV is positive, Therefore, to get an exact IRR, try a higher rate then interpolate.
9.21
Old machine:
Operating cash outflows P50,000 x 3.00 (150,000.00)
Investment in inventories - outflows P200,000 x 1 (200,000.00)
Liquidation value of inventories at terminal date P200,000 x .40 80,000.00
Disposal value of machine * P4,000 x .40 1,600.00
(268,400.00)
New machine
Net cash outlay (P62,000-P15,000) P47,000 x 1.00 (47,000.00)
Operating cash outflows P40,000 x 3 (120,000.00)
Investment in inventories - outflows P160,000 x 1 (160,000.00)
Liquidation value of inventories at terminal date P160,000 x .40 64,000.00
Disposal value of machine * P4,000 x .40 1,600.00
(261,400.00)
PV in favor of new machine - minimizes the PV of future costs 7,000.00
* could be excluded from both alternatives as they have the same amounts - irrelevant cost
Using the incremental cost analysis approach:
Net cash outlay (P62,000 - P15,000) P47,000 x 1 (47,000.00)
Liquidation value of inventory at time zero P40,000 x 1 40,000.00
Difference in recovery of cash from inventory
liquidation value at terminal date P40,000 x .40 (16,000.00)
Operating savings (P50,000 - P40,000) P10,000 x 3 30,000.00
Net present value in favor of new machine 7,000.00
2 IRR Alternative 1 could also be interpreted at cash inflows received at P1,000 for the next 10 years
plus P1,000 for the first 5 years.
P10,000 = PV pf P1,000 at X% for 10 years + PV of P1,000 at X% for the first 5 years.
Let F1 = be the value of X% for 10 years and F2 be the value of X% for 5 years
P10,000 = P1,000 (F1) + P1,000(F2)
P10,000 = P1,000 ( F1 + F2)
F1 + F2 = P10,000 / P1,000 = 10
F1 at 8% for 10 years = 6.7101 F2 at 8% for 5 years = 3.9927
F1 at 10% for 10 years = 6.1446 F2 at 10% for 5 years = 3.7908
at 8% (P1,000 x 6.7101) + (P1,000 x 3.9927) = P10,703
at 10% (P1,000 x 6.1446) + (P1,000 x 3.7908) = P9,935
Alternative 2
P10,000 = PV pf P1,500 at X% for 10 years
P10,000 = P1,500 (F)
F = P10,000 / P1,500 = 6.6667
At 8% F = 6.7101 6.7101 6.7101
true rate 6.6667
At 10%, F = 6.1446 6.1446
0.5655 0.0434
True rate = 8% + (.0434 / .5655) x 2% = 8% + .15% = 8.15%
3 The difference between the 9.83% return on Alternative 1 and the 8.15% return on alternative 2 is from the
fact that under Alt. 1, there are greater cash inflows during the first 5 years than under Alt. 2. Under the
Discounted Cash Flow (DCF) method, early cash inflows are weighted more heavily than inflows of later
years since this method considers the time value of money.
9.23
1 PV of annual cash inflows P50,000 x 3.8887 194,435.00
PV of salvage value of machine at end of 6 years P22,000 x .4556 10,023.20
PV of salvage value of parts at end of 6 years P15,000 x .4556 6,834.00
Total present values 211,292.20
Initial investments 202,000.00
Net present value 9,292.20
2 IRR IRR will be greater than 14% because the net present value is positive, try 16%
PV of annual cash inflows P50,000 x 3.6847 184,235.00
PV of salvage value of machine at end of 6 years P22,000 x .4104 9,028.80
PV of salvage value of parts at end of 6 years P15,000 x .4104 6,156.00
Total present values 199,419.80
Initial investments 202,000.00
Net present value negative (2,580.20)
Therefore, the IRR is just below 16%
3 ARR
a Average annual income 50,000.00
Less, Depreciation (P187,000 - P22,000) / 6 years 27,500.00
Net annual income 22,500.00
Initial investment (P187,000 + P15,000) 202,000.00
ARR on initial investment 11.14%
9.25
Sales 520.00
less, expenses excluding depreciation 350.00
Depreciation 100.00
Total expenses 450.00
Income before income taxes 70.00
Income taxes at 40% 28.00
Net income 42.00
Cash effects of operations:
Cash inflows from operations less cash expenses P520 -350 170.00
Less, Income tax outflow without depreciation ( P170 x .40) 68.00
102.00
Effect on deprection as savings on income tax
Depreciation P100 x .40% 40.00
Total after tax effect on cash 142.00
9.27
1 New machine 120,000.00
Disposal value of old machine (20,000.00)
Incremental tax on gain on disposal (P20,000 - P16,000) x 35% 1,400.00
Net cost of investment 101,400.00
9.28
1 Net income before depreciation 12,000.00
Less Depreciation expense (P60,000 / 10 years) (6,000.00)
Net income after depreciation 6,000.00
Less Income tax (P6,000 x .35) (2,100.00)
Net income after tax 3,900.00
9.29
Purchase price 100,000.00
Start up costs 3,000.00
Trade in value of fold machine (15,000.00)
Salvage values of other assets (6,000.00)
Tax savings on loss on retirement (800.00)
Repair cost saved (8,000.00)
Additional working capital 24,000.00
Net initial cost of investment 97,200.00
3 Payback period
Net investment cost a 100,000.00
Net annual cash inflows b 37,000.00
Payback period (a / b) 2.7027
4 Internal rate of return IRR
Them IRR is over 24.75%.
The factor is to be determined using the payback period which2.703
Because 2.7027, the closest factor in the five-year row of Table II is 2.745 at 24% and 2.689 at 25%.
(Remember, the higher the rate, the lower the factor.)
Get interest rates where the factor is in between.
To determine the exact or true rate:
6 The only change required is the determination of the present value of the salvage value
less the tax on the gain.
NOTE: We did not have to recompute annual net cash flows. The company still used P20,000 for
Depreciation expense, therefore at end of year 5, the book value is zero and there will be
a gain equal to the salvage value.
9.31
annual net cost of internal rate Net present
Cases cash inflows investments capital of return value
CASE B 1 Investment
Annual net cash inflows a 180,000.00
PV factor at 18% for 10 years b 4.4941
Present value of net cash inflows ( a x b) 808,938.00
2 Cost of capital
Investment 600,000.00
Net present value 162,880.00
Total PV of cash inflows a 762,880.00
Annual net cah inflow b 124,141.36
Present value factor (which at 10% for 10 years) (a /b) 6.14525
nearest is 6.1446
9.32
1 Annual profit net of tax
Process 1 Process 2
Sales ( 100,000 @ P50) 5,000,000.00 5,000,000.00
Less, Variable costs at P20 and at P10 (2,000,000.00) (1,000,000.00)
Contribution margin 3,000,000.00 4,000,000.00
Less, Variable
Fixes
costs
costs:
at P20 and at P10
Cash fixed costs 400,000.00 600,000.00
* Depreciation expense on the investment for 4 yrs. 1,000,000.00 1,500,000.00
Total 1,400,000.00 2,100,000.00
Net income before income tax 1,600,000.00 1,900,000.00
Income tax at the rate of 32% (512,000.00) (608,000.00)
Net income after tax 1,088,000.00 1,292,000.00
* Cost of investment / 4 years
4 Payback period
Investment a 4,000,000.00 6,000,000.00
Annual cash inflow b 2,088,000.00 2,792,000.00
Payback period (a / b) 1.92 2.15
5 Recommendation:
Net income 1,088,000.00 1,292,000.00
ARR 0.544 0.431
Net present value 1,842,224.00 1,812,016.00
Payback 1.92 2.15
Comparing the different measures, it seems that Process I has more advantanges over
Process 2, so most likely it would be Process I. However, the management
must also consider the effects of qualitative issues that could be associated to the
two processes.
9.33
a Cost of new equipment 175,000.00
Cost of removing old equipment 5,000.00
Resale value of old equipment (40,000.00)
Net cost of investment 140,000.00
c The investment should be made since the NPV has a positive results.
9.34 Analysis of Cash Flows
PRESENT PROPOSED DIFFERENCE
Revenue 200,000.00 15,000.00 *
Expenses:
Miscellaneous 100,000.00 -
Salaries 110,000.00 13,000.00
210,000.00 13,000.00
Net cash flows (10,000.00) 2,000.00 (12,000.00)
Required Investment:
Equipment - 19,000.00 **
Termination pay - 28,000.00
- 47,000.00 (47,000.00)
* 10% x P150,000 = P15,000 comission
**An acceptable alternative would be to show P3,000 and P22,000 resprectively. The incremental investment
would still be P19,000.
a Present value of P12,000 per year for 10 years at P12,000 x 6.000 72,000.00
Required investment 47,000.00
Net present value 25,000.00
The requirements of the problem focus on the incremental approach. The total project apporach could
view the problem as choosing the alternative that minimizes the net present value of the future costs:
Present:
Operating cash outflows, P10,000 x 6.00 (60,000.00)
Proposed:
Operating cash inflows, P2,000 x 6.00 12,000.00
Termination pay (28,000.00)
Equipment (19,000.00)
Total (35,000.00)
Difference in favor of proposed investment 25,000.00
b The minimum amount of annual revenue that the company would have to receive to justify the
investment would be theat amount yielding an incremental net present value of zero. As the initial
investment is constant, any change in the incremental net present value is due solely to a change in the
amount of revenue. Therefore, the maximum drop in the incremental net present value of P25,000 equals
the maximum drop in the present value of the revenue stream. This implies a maximum drop of
P25,000 / 6 = P4,167 in annual revenue and a minimum amount of annual revenue of P15,000 - P4,167 =
P10,833
Part 2 demonstrates sensitivity analysis, where the manager may see the potential impact of the
possible errors in the forecasts of revenue. Such analysis shows how much of a margin of safety is
available. In this case, his "best guess" is revenue of P15,000 ( in part 1). Sensitivity analysis shows
him that a decline of revenue would have to occur from P15,000 to P10,833 before the rate of return on the
project would decline to the minimum acceptable level.
Another approach to solve requirement 2 could be:
If 10% is the minimum acceptable rate of return, the minimum acceptable net present value must
be zero, using the 10% rate:
NPV = PV if future cash flows - initial investment
Let X = Annual cash inflow
Then 0 = 6.00(X) - 47,000
X = P47,000 / 6.00
X = P7,833
Present value of P7.833 per year for 10 years at 10% P7,833 x 6.00 47,000.00
Required investment 47,000.00
Net present value (0.00)
Note that the requirement asks for the minimum amount of revenue, as distinguished from the difference
in cash flows.
The following analysis shows that revenue can fall toP10,833. Note also that there can be negative
cash flows under both alternatives; the alternative with the least negative cash flow is preferable
9.35
1 Payback period P200,000 / P40,000 5 years
2 Present value of cash inflow at 10% for 8 years P40,000 x 5.335 213,400.00
Investment 200,000.00
Net present value 13,400.00
3 Yes Assuming that the only criteria is the NPV because it has a positive NPV
9.36
a P1,000 is being compounded for 3 years, so your balance on January 1, 2011 is P1,259.71
longway
a b c d e
(bxc) ( b + d)
end of beginning interest interest ending
year balance rate amount balance
2009 1,000.00 0.08 80.00 1,080.00
2010 1,080.00 0.08 86.40 1,166.40
2011 1,166.40 0.08 93.31 1,259.71
shortcut formula
FV = PV(1 + k )4 P1,000(1 + .08)4 = P1,259.71
b The effective annual rate for 8 percent, compunded quarterly
longway
a b c d e
(bxc) ( b + d)
end of beginning interest interest ending
year balance rate amount balance
2009-1st 1,000.00 0.02 20.00 1,020.00
2nd 1,020.00 0.02 20.40 1,040.40
3rd 1,040.40 0.02 20.81 1,061.21
4th 1,061.21 0.02 21.22 1,082.43
2010- 1st 1,082.43 0.02 21.65 1,104.08
2nd 1,104.08 0.02 22.08 1,126.16
3rd 1,126.16 0.02 22.52 1,148.69
4th 1,148.69 0.02 22.97 1,171.66
2011-1st 1,171.66 0.02 23.43 1,195.09
2nd 1,195.09 0.02 23.90 1,218.99
3rd 1,218.99 0.02 24.38 1,243.37
4th 1,243.37 0.02 24.87 1,268.24
shortcut
use FV for % at 12 periods (4 quarters is x 3 years)
FV = P1,000(1.2682) = P1,268.20
c as you solve this problem, keep in mind that the tables assume that payments are made at the end
of each period. Therefore, you may solve this prblem by finding the future value of an annuity of P250
for 4 years at 8 percent.
longway
a b c d e
(bxc) ( b + d)
beginning beginning additional interest interest ending
of year balance investment rate amount balance
2008 250.00 0.08 20.00 270.00
2009 270.00 250.00 0.08 41.60 561.60
2010 561.60 250.00 0.08 64.93 876.53
2011 876.53 250.00 1,126.53
shortcut
FV = P250(4.5061) = P1,126.53
FV of annuity of P250 for 4 years at 8 percent is 4.5061
d An amount is deposited in 4 equal payments in the account at 8% interest rate to obtain balance similar to the amount
equal to requirement letter a (P1,259.71)
longway
a b c d e
(bxc) ( b + d)
beginning beginning additional interest interest ending
of year balance investment rate amount balance
2008 279.56 0.08 22.36 301.92
2009 301.92 279.56 0.08 46.52 628.00
2010 628.00 279.56 0.08 72.61 980.17
2011 980.17 279.56 1,259.73
shortcut formula
P1,259.71 = Amount(4.5061)
Amount = P1,259.71 / 4.5061
= 279.56
9.37
a Alternative a - Investment in the Project
1 2 3 (1 +2 ) 4 5 (3 - 4)
Loan balance Interest at Accumulated Cash for Loan Balance
beginning of 10% per amount at Repayment at end of
Year the year year End of year of loan Year
0 -
1 100,000.00 10,000.00 110,000.00 45,000.00 65,000.00
2 65,000.00 6,500.00 71,500.00 45,000.00 26,500.00
3 26,500.00 2,650.00 29,150.00 45,000.00 (15,850.00)