NIMHANS PREVIOUS QUESTION

NIMHANS 2007 DM /MCh PAPER FOR MBBS

1. Which nerve is affected in L4L5 lateral disc prolapse?

a. L3
b. L4
c. L5
d. S1

2. Blood brain barrier is formed by

a. Endothelium
b. Astrocytes
c. Oligodendrocytes
d. Microglia

3. Which of the following is not ectodermal in origin

a. Astrocytes
b. Melanocytes
c. Microglia
d. Oligodendrocytes

4. Blood brain barrier is not present at

a. Area postrema
b. Pineal body
c. Mamillary body

5. What percentage of cardiac output goes to the brain

a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40

6. What is the volume of CSF produced everyday

a. 100 ml
b. 200 ml
c. 550 ml
d. 1000 ml

7. At what viral load of HIV is HAART started (in copies/ml)

a. 5,000
b. 10,000
c. 20,000
d. 50,000

8. PML is caused due to

a. CMV
b. HIV
c. JC virus
d. H.Influenza B

9. where is cervicodorsal sympathectomy most indicated

a. Hydradenitis Suppurativa
b. Primary Hyperhidrosis
c. Raynaud’s phenomena
d. Causalgia

10. Where is interferon used

a. HIV
b. HCV
c. CMV
d. JC Virus

11. Where do you find erythema migrans

a. PTB
b. Leprosy
c. Rhematic fever
d. Lyme’s disease

12. Acanthosis Nigricans is seen in

a. DM
b. HIV
c. PTB
d. HTN

13. Pyoderma gangrenosum is typically seen in

a. Pseudomonas aerogenosa
b. Ulcerative colitis
c. Crohn’s disease
d. IBS

14. A patient in the ICU was treated with ampicillin. Soon after which he developed
diarrhea and on colonoscopy yellowish patches were seen. What is the next line of
management?
a. Vancomycin
b. Amoxicillin
c. Ticarcillin
d. 5 ASA

15. A middle aged woman presents with pain in RIF and deep dyspareunia with fever and
vomiting. She is suffering from
a. Appendicitis
b. Diverticulitis
c. Ovarian torsion
d. PID

16. A female patient presented proximal muscle weakness with bluish purple
discolorations over her eyelids with oedema is probably suffering from
a. Polymyositis
b. Dermatomyositis
c. Inclusion body myositis
d. DMD

17. a young man come to the emergency room with an history of assault over his
forehead around 15 minutes back and complains of total blindness in his left eye. O/E
bilateral papillary reflexes, direct and consensual are intact. Where is the site of lesion
a. optic nerve
b. left optic tract
c. right occipital lobe
d. functional

18. what is not seen in Colles’s fracture

a. Sudek’s osteodystrophy
b. shoulder hand syndrome
c. non-union
d. dinner fork deformity

19. A patient present to you with fracture shaft of humerus. How do you confirm that his
radial nerve is severed
a. paralysis of wrist flexion
b. weakness of finger flexors
c. weakness of wrist extension with Anaesthesia over anatomical stuff box
d. atrophy of hypothenar muscles

20. A patient present to you with ataxia and hemiparesis. Where is the site of lesion
a. cerebellum
b. midbrain
c. pons
d. medulla

21. what is the treatment for causalgia

a. alpha blockers
b. beta blockers
c. NSAIDS
d. Opioids

22. Astasia abasia is seen in

a. Parkinsonism
b. Wilson’s disease
c. Hysteria
d. Alzheimer’s disease

23. Lhermitte’s sign is seen in

a. AD
b. DMD
c. Multiple sclerosis
d. AML

24. Herpes lesions of 7th nerve is called

a. GBS
b. Heerfordt syndrome
c. Melkerson Rosenthal syndrome
d. Ramsay Hunt syndrome

25. Where is Ach is principally involved

a. Locus ceruleus
b. Substantia nigra
c. Raphe nucleus
d. Nucleus of Meyenert

26. Weight gain is not a side effect of

a. Topiramate
b. Valproate
c. Phenytoin
d. Clobazam

27. Seizures occurring during every menstrual cycle is called

a. Petit mal
b. Grand mal
c. Catamenial epilepsy
d. Kindling

28. Which is the most common hallucination in schizophrenia

a. Auditory
b. Visual
c. Olfactory
d. Gustatory

29. ECT is most useful in

a. P.schizophrenia
b. hebephrenic schizophrenia
c. catatonic schizophrenia
d. simple schizophrenia
30. A female presents with bilateral breast tenderness during every menstrual cycle. She
is suffering from
a. fibro adenoma
b. duct cell papilloma
c. fibrocystic disease
d. conversion disorder

31. where is unilateral tremours not seen

a. intentional
b. resting
c. essential
d. Parkinson’s

32. Diaphysis is involved in

a. giant cell tumour
b. osteosarcoma
c. Ewing’s sarcoma
d. osteoma

33. metaphyseal tumours are

a. giant cell tumour
b. osteosarcoma
c. Ewing’s sarcoma
d. osteoma

34. A 21 year old male presents with a benign bone tumour. Tumour is
a. giant cell tumour
b. osteosarcoma
c. osteochondroma
d. multiple myeloma

35. the most common bladder carcinoma

a. SCC
b. Adeno Ca
c. TCC
d. Leiomyoma

36. RBC casts are a feature of

a. Glomerular nephritis
b. Tubular disease
c. Interstitial nephritis
d. Collecting duct necrosis

37. Which drug causes granulomatous lesion

a. CPZ
b. Clozpine
c. Olanzapine
d. Risperidone

38. What is specific for DLE

a. Anti smith
b. Anti DNA
c. Anti Rho
d. Anti-histone

39. Side effect of hydralazine are a/e

a. Headache
b. Bradycardia
c. Angina pectoris
d. DLE

40. When do you suspect breast Ca o/e

a. Skin oedema with dimpling
b. Serous discharge per nipple
c. Mouse in the breast
d. Nipple retraction

41. Mammography is most useful in

a. Differentiation in benign and malignant tumours
b. Screening of breast Ca
c. Prognosis of breast Ca
d. Confirmatory test for Ca

42. A patient has the following test reports

HIV Elisa – negative
Western Blot-positive
How will you confirm that he has got HIV infection?
a. Northern blot
b. Southern blot
c. PCR
d. Eastern blot

43. Carnitine is involved in

a. Beta oxidation of FA
b. Synthesis of FA
c. Protein metabolism
d. Carbohydrate metabolism

44. Earliest manifestation of tuberous sclerosis in a 2 year old child

a. Adenoma sebaceum
b. Ash leaf spots
c. Shagreen patches
d. Heliotrope rash

45. M/c childhood tumour

a. brain tumours
b. ALL
c. Wilm’s tumour
d. Neuroblastoma

46. Which enzyme is involved in Tay-Sach’s disease

a. Sphingomyelinase
b. Hexosaminidase
c. Glucosidase
d. Galactocerebrosidase

47. 2 year old child presents with hepato-splenomegaly, mental retardation, seizures and
foam cells in bone marrow, diagnosis is lysosomal storage disorder and the enzyme
involved is
a. Glycosyl cerebrosidase
b. Ceremidase
c. Beta-galactosidase
d. Sphingomyelinase

48. A patient presents with severe headache, vomiting, sudden blindness and o/e her right
eye is reddish and your next line of management is
a. CT scan
b. MRI
c. x-ray skull
d. tonometry

49. which is the investigation of choice in SAH

a. CT scan
b. MRI
c. x-ray skull
d. radio nucleotide scan

50. 2 villages A and B is reported to have cholera epidemic. You are posted as a
epidemiologist to study about it. You are supposed to pick people at random from both
the villages and study. This type of study is called
a. Case history
b. Cohort study
c. Cross sectional study
d. Case control study

51. Increased perinatal morbidity is due to

a. Birth trauma
b. Congenital birth defects
c. Infections
d. HIV

52. DNA double during which stage of cell cycle.

a. G1
b. G2
c. M
d. S

53. Which is the antagonist for diazepam

a. Flumazenil
b. Flupenthixol
c. Fluperazine
d. Fluoxetine

54. A female housewife washes her hands ritualistically five times so that she wont be
infected by HIV before every meal. She has
a. OCD
b. p. schizophrenia
c. lack of knowledge of transmission of HIV
d. histrionic personality disorder

55. which cell identifies self from non-self antigens

a. t-cell
b. b-cell
c. macrophage
d. eosinophils

56. what is not a feature in Brown sequard syndrome

a. contra lateral pain and temperature loss below the lesion
b. ipsilateral pain and temperature loss below the lesion
c. anesthesia in the dermatome at the site of the lesion
d. ipsilateral joint and vibration sensory loss below the lesion

57. m/c association with Arnold Chiari malformation

a. cauda equina syndrome
b. Brown Sequard syndrome
c. AMLS
d. Syringomyelia

58. Proptosis is seen in

a. Down’s syndrome
b. Turner’s syndrome
c. Crouzon syndrome
d. Kline Levine syndrome
59. m/c vertebra involved in rheumatoid arthritis
a. sacral
b. lumbar
c. thoracic
d. cervical

60. m/c site for cerebral embolism from atherosclerosis

a. ECA
b. At the origin of ICA from common carotid artery
c. Subclavian artery
d. Inomminate artery

61. A patient after a motorcycle accident is breathless with pulse rate 120/min, muffled
heart sounds and feeble pulse. The diagnosis is
a. Cardiac tamponade
b. Pulmonary embolism
c. Tension pnumothorax
d. Pericarditis

62. Water bottle heart is seen in x-ray of

a. Truncus arteriosus
b. TOF
c. TGA
d. Pericardial effusion

63. Firm warty vegetations along the lines of closure of valves is characteristic in
a. Infective endocarditis
b. Libman sachs endocarditis
c. Fungal endocarditis
d. SABE

64. m/c pancreatic Ca is

a. VIPoma
b. Glucogonoma
c. Metastasis
d. Ductal adenocarcinoma

65. Acute pancreatitis is caused by

a. Hyperthyroidism
b. Hypothyroidism
c. Hyperparathyroidism
d. Hypoparathyroidism

66. Which structure is not cut in grid iron incision

a. Skin
b. External oblique muscle
c. Transversalis fascia
d. Rectus abdominis

67. Laparoscopy is absolutely contraindicated in

a. Mild to moderate dyspnoea
b. Pregnancy
c. Appendicitis
d. Infected gall bladder

68. Bacteremia is seen in infection of

a. E coli
b. Shigella
c. Klebsiella
d. Salmonella

69. Large anion gap is not seen in

a. Lactic acidosis
b. Diabetic ketoacidosis
c. Distal RTA
d. Ethanol poisoning

70. Which nerve is a direct branch of roots forming the brachial plexus
a. Nerve to rhomboideus
b. Long thoracic nerve
c. Subscapular nerve
d. Radial nerve

71. Late manifestation of congenital toxoplasmosis are a/e

a. Choreoretinitis
b. Mental retardation
c. Hydrocephalus
d. Hepato spleno megaly

72. Consecutive optic atrophy occurs in

a. Optic neuritis
b. Methanol poisoning
c. Retinitis pigmentosa
d. Leber’s optic neuritis

73. 5HT3 agonist is

a. Ondansetron
b. Cisapride
c. Metoclopramide
d. Clozapine
74. Which is the most common complication seen in patients with bladder catheterization
during the second week
a. Infection
b. Stone formation
c. Rupture of urethra
d. Hematuria

75. Casal’s necklace is characteristic in

a. Vit D
b. Vit A
c. Vit B6
d. Pellagra

76. DM is aggravated due to

a. Niacin
b. Thiamine
c. Riboflavine
d. Biotin

77. HMG Co-A reductase inhibitor is given in

a. Type II DM at 60 years
b. Hypertension
c. Pancreatitis
d. Insulinoma

78. Which is the agent used for prevention of ischaemic stroke

a. Aspirin alone
b. Ticlopidine
c. Clopidogrel
d. Aspirin and clopidogrel

79. A patient presents with dilated tortuous veins of the lower limb and on venous
Doppler there is back flow of blood. All are advised expect
a. Glove stocking
b. Aspirin
c. Mesh in IVC
d. Surgical intervention

80. all are used as criteria to determine in brain dead individual except
a. corneal reflex
b. light reflex
c. cessation of breathing
d. deep tendon reflex

81. which enzyme is diagnostic of alcoholic liver disease

a. ALP
b. GGT
c. LDH
d. SGOT

82. Which is the gold standard for diagnosis of GERD

a. Barium swallow
b. Oesophagoscopy
c. 24 hr pH monitoring
d. CT abdomen

83. All are precancerous conditions except

a. Villous adenoma
b. Tubular adenoma
c. Familial polyposis
d. Ulcerative colitis

84. Which enzyme is increased in lead poisoning?

a. Delta ALA
b. Coproporphyrinogen 3
c. Heme
d. Protoporphyrin

85. Which is a atypical antipsychotic

a. Loxapine
b. CPZ
c. Zuclopenthixol
d. Risperidone

86. Pramipexole is
a. D2 agonist
b. D2 antagonist
c. Ach agoist
d. Anti choline esterase

87. Which is the definitive host for tinea solium

a. Dog
b. Sheep
c. Pig
d. Man

88. AFP levels increased upto 500 iu/ml in

a. Hepatocellular carcinoma
b. Testicular cancer
c. Cholangio carcinoma
d. Pancreatic cancer
89. Which is not a protein peptide or a.a
a. Substance p
b. Endorphins
c. Dynorphins
d. Serotonin

90. Unconjugated bilirubinimea is seen in a/e

a. Criggler najjar syndrome
b. Gilberts syndrome
c. Dubin johnson’s syndrome
d. Budd chiari syndrome

91. 0.45% NaCl is used in

a. Cerebral salt wasting
b. Hyperkelemia
c. Hyponatremnia
d. Adipsic hypernatremia

92. Impaired naming, intact comprehension and repetition is seen in

a. Wernicke’s aphasia
b. Transcortical sensory aphasia
c. Transcortical motor aphasia
d. Broca’s aphasia

93. Site of action of loop diuretics

a. PCT
b. DCT
c. Ascending Loop of Henle
d. Loop of Henle

94. Not a NRTI

a. Zidovudine
b. Nevirapine
c. Stauvidine
d. Lamivudine

95. m/c fungal infection is seen in aids

a. candida
b. blastomycosis
c. Cryptococcus
d. Mucormycosis
96. Delta waves in ECG is seen in
a. Hypothermia
b. Wpw syndrome
c. Hypokelemia
d. Dysarrhythmia
97. Acute changes in ECG in hyperkelemia
a. U waves
b. Prolongation of QT interval
c. QRS widening
d. ST segment elevation

[snip]. Which of the following is a exotoxin

a. E coli toxin
b. Proteus
c. Pseudomonas
d. Tetanus toxin

99. Which is the m/c cause of stroke

a. DM
b. Myocardial infarction
c. Rhd
d. Non rheumatic atrial fibrillation

100. Urinary stones which are hexagonal in shape

a. Cysteine
b. Urate
c. Calcium oxalate
d. Triple phosphate

101. Which ca doesn’t spread by lymphatic route predominantly

a. Breast ca
b. Medullary ca of thyroid
c. Papillary ca of thyroid
d. Follicular ca of thyroid

102. Thyrotoxicosis causes

a. Hyperkelemic periodic paralysis
b. Hypokelimic periodic paralysis
c. Normokelemic periodic paralysis
d. Myotonia

103. Atonic colon is due to

a. Bisacodyl
b. Lactulose
c. Cellulose

104. Fear of open spaces is

a. Agoraphobia
b. Acrophobia
c. Cynophobia
d. Generalized anxiety disorder

105. Csf findings of a person is as follows

Neutrophils=500/ml
Decreased glucose
Increased proteins
This is characteristic of
a. Viral meningitis
b. Bacterial
c. Tb
d. Malignancy

106. Which is essential in DM

a. Zinc
b. Copper
c. Iron
d. Chromium

107. Which is the centre regulating circadian rhythm

a. Preoptic nucleus
b. Tegmentum
c. Basal ganglia
d. Supra chiasmatic nucleus

108. Lathyrism is due to

a. Aflatoxin
b. BOAA
c. Sanguinarine
d. Mercury

109. LE cells are

a. Eosinophils
b. Macrophages
c. Neutrophils
d. Basophils

110. Cherry red spot is seen in

a. CRVO
b. CRAO
c. Retinitis Pigmentosa
d. Vitreous hemorrhage

111. Which of the following has got very high glucocorticoid potency
a. Cortisol
b. Dexamethasone
c. Betamethasone
d. Prednisolone

112. Which is not a human Prion Disease?

a. CJD
b. Kuru
c. Fatal familial insomnia
d. Scrapie

113. What is not seen in Reye’s syndrome?

a. Vomiting
b. Hyperglycemia
c. Cerebral edema
d. Fatty changes in renal tubular cells

114. Which of the following is an example for secondary prevention?

a. Cholesterol control in IHD
b. Rehabilitation of residual polio
c. Health education
d. Iron prophylaxis in anemia

115. Pure red aplasia is

a. Heerfordt syndrome
b. Kline Levine syndrome
c. Diamond blackfan syndrome
d. Von villebrandt syndrome

116. Early manifestation of vitamin A deficiency

a. Corneal scarring
b. Bitot’s spots
c. Xerophthalimia
d. Decreased dark adaptation

117. Which vaccine is contra indicated in pregnancy

a. Measles
b. Tetanus
c. Rubella
d. Hib

118. Which of the following is used for staging secondary sexual characteristics?
a. Tanner staging
b. Tnm staging
c. Ann arbor staging

119. Nissl’s granules are found in

a. Dendrites
b. Axons
c. Schwann cells
d. Cell body

120. Inulin is used for estimation of

a. Renal plasma flow
b. Gfr
c. Total body water
d. Ecf

121. Which is the drug of choice in refractory SIADH

a. Demeclocycline
b. Lithium
c. Desmopressin
d. Rennin

122. Lewi bodies are seen in

a. Alzheimer’s
b. Huntington’s
c. Tourette’s
d. Parkinson’s

123. Which of the following feature is not seen in neonatal meningitis

a. Vomiting
b. Hypothermia
c. Nuchal rigidity

124. Which is not the treatment for lumbar puncture headache?

a. Caffeine
b. Blood patch
c. Bed rest
d. Mannitol

125. A pt has visual hallucinations, parkinsonism n altered sensorium diagnosis is:

a. Corticobasal Dementia
b. Dementia with Lewy Bodies
c. Alzhiemers
d. Fronto temporal Dementia

126. Mainly responsible 4 horizontal conjugate gaze:

a. Sup. Colliculi
b. Lateral Geniculate Body
c. Median longitudinal Fasciculus
d. Cerebellum
127. Tri nucleotide repeats occcur in all except:
a. Alzheimers
b. Fragile X Syndrome
c. Huntintons Chorea
d. Fredrich's Ataxia

128. Which of the following tests 4 the parasympathetic response:

a. Tilt table test
b. Response to Phenyl ephrine
c. Heart rate response to deep breathing

129. MC Site 4 aneurysm:

a. Vertebral a.
b. Post. Cerebral a.
c. Mid. Cerebral a.
d. Ant. communicating a.

130. Which happens in Medial medullary syndrome

a. I/L Horners syndrome
b. I/L Hypoglossal Palsy
c. C/L Horners syndrome
d. C/L Hypoglossal palsy

131. Receptor 4 Vibration:

a. Pacinian corpuscles
b. Raffini endings
c. Meissners Corpuscles
d. Free nerve endings

132. Hepato duodenal ligament doesnt contain:

a. Portal vein
b. Bile Duct
c. Hepatic vein
d. Cystic Duct

133. Meralgia Paresthetica is due to invlovement of:

a. Medial cutaneous n. of thigh
b. Ilioinguinal n.
c. Lateral cutaneous n.of thigh
d. Femoral n.

Recall of NIMHANS june 2008

1. no of rbc excreted daily in urine

A. 2 million
B 3 million
C 4 million
D 5 million
answer...

2which of the following is ht-3 antagonist

A ondansentron
B orlestat
c..

answer ondansentron

3.characterstic of gesterman syndrome

A. aphonia - aonmic
B. right and left

4not a feature of ventilator associate d pneumonia

a. purulent sputum
b tachycardia
c. new shadows on chest x- ray
d leucocytosis

Most distinguishing feature between AICA and PICA infarction is

1.Dizziness
2.Cerebellar symptoms
3....
4....

selenium deficiency causes;

a) cardiomyopathy
b)neuropathy?
c)?
d)?
ans: cardiomyopathy

which vitamin def causes aphonia in children?

a) vit a
b)vit b1
c)vit c
d)pyridoxine

which of the following is not true for duodenal ulcers?

a) poterior ulcers r ass with bleeding
b)h.pylori is causative in more than [snip]% of duodenal ulcers
c)pts wit NSAIDS ass ulcers can continue takin nsaids,if pt is maintained on high dose of
pantop?
d)NSAID INTAKE IS ASS WIT PLATELET DYSFUNCTION

following is absent in smooth muscles

a)actin
b)myosin
c)troponin
d)myosin adenine triphosphatase?
ans- troponin

a 30 yr old male, labourer, chronic smoker, alcoholic, presents wit acute chest pain,
knifelike, radiatin to interscapular area.. diagnosis is
a)myocardial infarction
b)ruptured aortic aneurysm
c)pericarditis????????
d)tension pneumothorax
ans- i maked ruptured aortic aneurysm.

definitve host in toxoplasmosis

a)cat
b)man
c)pig
d)dog

a pt aged 50yrs, wit downs syndrome, prsents wit difficulty in speech, ?,?,?<?
wot is the diagnosis
a) ?
b)?
c) senile dementia alzheimers type
d) alzheimer with prion ?

ans - c)

a 5 yr child presents wit mental retardation, seizures n a fair? white? complexion..

diagnosis?
a)maple syrup urine disease
b)albinism
c)phenyl ketonuria
d)alkaptonuria

which metabolic disorder presents wit features of rheumatoid arthritis?

a)fabry disease
b)faber disease
c)neiman picks disease
d)gauchers disease

which of the followin infection is NOT seen in spleenectomized pts?

a)plasmodium malariae
b)pneumococcal
C)heamophilus influenza
d)staph aureus

fetal hydantoin syndrome is ass wit which cardiac defect?

a)asd
b)vsd
c)pda
d)ps

one of the risk factor for alzhiemers is presence of apo-e ... it is present on which
chromosome?
a)chr 19
b)chr 21
c)?
d)?

ans -a) chr 19

vitamin b1 cuses aphonia

one of the risk factor for alzhiemers is presence of apo-e ... it is present on which
chromosome?
a)chr 19
b)chr 21
c)?
d)?

ans - chromosome 21.

grave prognostic factors of woman with sle precnancy

a)quesent for 6mon
b)s.creat >1.5mg
c)
d)

What is the percentage of anorexia nervosa ?

a. 2
b. 1
c. 0.5
mucormycosis causes ?
invasive sinusities

Tzank smear is for

herpes
true regarding postmenopasal yterus
false about brestfeedin jaundice

which doesn form a part of thoracic outlet ?

a)brachial plexus
b)subclavian vein
c)apex of lung
c)second rib

ans- second rib..

sympathectomy is useful in-

a)allodynia
b)casualgia
c)neuropathic pain
d)all of the above?

ans- neuropathic pain

bacterial vaginosis false statement is-

a)ph<4.5
b)presence of clue
c)positive amine test
d)decreased lactobacillus

ans-a)ph<4.5

purkinje fibres, all r true except :

situated betn molecular and granular layer

only output of cerebellum
always excitatory
???
ans : always excitatory

Night terrors r seen in:

slow wave sleep
REM sleep
??
??
ans : slow wave sleep

which of t followin is not criteria for severe pre eclampsia?

a)bp >160/90 (?)
b)proteinuria <5g
c)pulmonary edema
d)?

which is the treatment of choice for uncontrolled eclampsia in pregnancy?

a)termination of pregnancy
b)mgso4 treatment
c)?
d)?

a female with essential hypertension bp recorded ....150/90 with 12 weeks pregnancy

already on treatment with atenlolol...now
a)continue treament wit atenolol
b)switch to methyldopa
c)hydralazine
d)?

drug not used in treatment of alcohol dependence

a)bupropion
b)disulfiram
c)acamprosate
d)?
grave prognostic factors of woman with sle precnancy
a)quiesent for 6mon
b)s.creat >1.5mg
c)absent antiphospholipid antibody
d)

anisocoria increasib in bright light,can be due to?

a)sympathetic lesion
b)parasympathetic lesion
c)both sympatheic and parasympathetic lesions
d)none of the above

b-answer

patient had circumduction and loss of ankle jerk--might have whch of the following
injury?
a)anterior tibial nerve
b)common peroneal nerve below the head of fibla
c)common peroneal nerve above the head of fibula
d)sciatic nerve

a person believes he is suffering from an illness inspite of all the investigations being
negative.diagnosis is-
a)neurosis
b)hypochondriasis
c)?
d)?

hyperpolarization is due to--

a)opening of voltage gated k channels
b)k+ leakage
c)opening of Na channels
d)?

a propagated action potential in a neuron does not travel backwards because-

a)refractoriness of the membrane
b)all or none phenomenon
c)?
d?

watson crick model of dna was proposed on the basis of-

a)x ray crystallography
b)
c)
d)

investigation for acute hepatitis a and e is-

a)IgG antibodies
b)IgM antibodies
c)presence of virus in the stool sample
d)?

in sickle cell anemia change in the amino acid is-

a)valine instead of glutamic acid in the 6th pos of beta chain
b)
c)
d)

in PNH what is not found?

a)polycythemia
b)bone marrow dysplasia
c)hemolysis
d)?
most commonly repeated factor among ths is-
a)mean
b)median
c)mode
d)?

whch of these is responsible for atherosclerosis?

a)arginine
b)aspartate
c?
d?

inhibitory neurotransmittor in spinal cord is-

a)glycine
b)gaba
c)glutamate
d)Ach

whch vitamin excess causes peripheral neuropathy?

a)vit a
b)vit b1
c)pyridoxine
d)vit b12

petechiae,ecchymosis,joint effusion r all symptoms of defwciency of-

a)vit c
b)vit d
c)vit b1
d?

hemolytic jaundice is not found in

a)sickle cell anaemia
b)thalassemia
c)pyruvate kinase deficiency
d)G6PD deficiency

petechiae,ecchymosis,joint effusion,poor wound healing r all symptoms of deficiency of-

a)vit c
b)vit d
c)vit b1
d?

ans--vit c???

whch of these is responsible for atherosclerosis?

a)arginine
b)aspartate
c)homocysteine
d

ans homocysteine

mucormycosis in diabetics causes

1)sinusitis
2)asom
?
?

answer is sinusitis

serum iron levels was asked- 50- 150 microg/dl

slow wave sleep most predominantly seen in - childhood, ref: harrison

chromium def causes impaired glucose tolerance

support of uterus- cardinal ligament

dry beri beri- peripheral neuropathy

excessive pyridoxine causes - peripheral neuropathy

obesity- > 30 BMI

Glycine- inhibitor - spinal cord

farber's disease manifests similar to RA

5 year old child, fair, mental retardation- phenyketonuria

lesh-nyhan syndrome all except- ans: enzyme was given wrongly

apo E- ch 19 rightly said by fariza

A question A/E 40 yr man, 75 kg etc. copied from harrison charts given in the end
ans: FEV was 2 litres, its 4 litres

MSLT- is multiple sleep latency test- ref : harrison

Breast feeding causes unconjugated bilirubinemia unlike asked in question as conjugated

wets nile fever- mosquito- will never forget this in my life now thanks to NIMHANS
exam

sympathectomy helps relief in causalgia

most commonly repeated - mode

In colle’s fracture, following is the most common complication-

a. non union
b. mal-union
c. sudeck’s dystrophy
d. volkmann’s ischemic contracture

Ans- b
Yr- 2002

Cerebral edema is associated with all except-

a. craniostenosis
b. lead intoxication
c. vitamin a over dosage
d. adrenal corticosteroid therapy

Ans- a
Yr- 1984.

Which adjustment disorder is most commonly employed by the children?

a. aggression
b. fantasy
c. somatization
d. projection

Ans- a

Lucid interval is seen in

a. insanity
b. syphilis
c. malignant disease
d. electrical shock
Ans. A
Yr. 1986
T1/2 of I 131 is

a. 8 hours
b. 2 days
c. 5.5 days
d. 8 days

Ans- d
Yr- 1987
In normal adults, a breath holding time below _______ indicates leak of cardio
respiratory reserve-

a. 8 seconds
b. 15 seconds
c. 10 seconds
d. 18 seconds
e. 20 seconds

Ans. C
Yr. 1986.

Ototoxic drugs are all except-

a. kanamycin
b. gentamicin
c. streptomycin
d. ampicillin

ans. D
yr. 1987.

Unilateral nasal obstruction in a child is most often due to-

a. foreign body
b. choanal atresia
c. polyps
d. fungal infection
Ans. A
Yr. 1987.

The first CT scan was manufactured by-

a. Hitachi, Japan
b. Mitsubishi, Japan
c. Electro musical instruments, England
d. General electrical, USA
Ans- c
Yr- 1987.

no of rbc excreted daily in urine

A. 2 million
B 3 million
C 4 million
D 5 million
which of the following is ht-3 antagonist
A ondansentron
B orlestat
characterstic of gesterman syndrome
A. aphonia - aonmic
B. right and left

definitve host in toxoplasmosis

a)cat
b)man
c)pig
d)dog
30 yr old male, labourer, chronic smoker, alcoholic, presents wit acute chest pain,
knifelike, radiatin to interscapular area.. diagnosis is
a)myocardial infarction
b)ruptured aortic aneurysm
c)pericarditis????????
d)tension pneumothorax
following is absent in smooth muscles
a)actin
b)myosin
c)troponin
d)myosin adenine triphosphatase?
ans- troponin
which vitamin def causes aphonia in children?
a) vit a
b)vit b1
c)vit c
d)pyridoxine
a pt aged 50yrs, wit downs syndrome, prsents wit difficulty in speech, ?,?,?<?
wot is the diagnosis

5 yr child presents wit mental retardation, seizures n a fair? white? complexion..

diagnosis?
a)maple syrup urine disease
b)albinism
c)phenyl ketonuria
d)alkaptonuria

which metabolic disorder presents wit features of rheumatoid arthritis?

a)fabry disease
b)faber disease
c)neiman picks disease
d)gauchers disease

which of the followin infection is NOT seen in spleenectomized pts?

a)plasmodium malariae
b)pneumococcal
C)heamophilus influenza
d)staph aureus

fetal hydantoin syndrome is ass wit which cardiac defect?

a)asd
b)vsd
c)pda
d)ps

one of the risk factor for alzhiemers is presence of apo-e ... it is present on which
chromosome?
a)chr 19
b)chr 21

colorectal ca

a>hamartamatous polyp

b>tubular
c>tubulovillous
d>villous

1.Following is not a respiratory complication of SLE:

a.fibrosing alveolitis
b.upper lobe fibrosis
c.vascular infarct
d.pleursy,effusion

2.pain over thyroid seen in:

a.hashimoto’s thyroiditis
b.Deqeurvain’s thyroiditis
c.simple toxic goitre
d.grave’s disease

3.Acute pancreatitis caused by a/e:

a.Azathioprine
b.methotrexate
c.thiazides
d.sodium-valproate

4.Polyuria in nephrogenic DI is treated with a/e:

a.Bendroflumethiazide
b.amiloride
c.indomethacine
d.phenylbutazone

5.Asbestosis is a/w a/e:

a.central emphysema
b.interstitial fibrosis
c.pleural effusion
d.ca-larynx

6.ATOMIC ABSORPTION INDUCTIVELY COUPLED PLASMA MASS

SPECTROSCOPY(ICP-MS) is used to measure/detect :
a.Hb-derivatives
b.immunoglobulins
c.organic compounds
d.trace & metal elements

7.MC PNET tumor is:

a.neuroblastoma
b.medulloblastoma
c.ependymoblastoma
d.hemangioblastoma

8.NOT PAIN SENSITIVE:

a.choroid plexus
b.dural sinuses
c.middle meningeal artery
d.scalp
9.High specificity detects:
a.high true negative
b.low true negative
c.high false positive
d.high true positive

10.Severe malaria in a child l/t all the following complication except:

a.coma
b.convulsion
c.hypoglycemia
d.acute renal failure

11.INFLIXIMAB is C/I in:

a.crohn’s disease
b.intestinal TB
c.ankylosing spondylitis
d.rheumatoid arthritis

12.Infant of diabetic mother can have a/e:

a.hyperbilirubinemia
b.hypoglycemia
c.hyperglycemia
d.resp. distress

13.In human retina:

a.100 million rods & 5 million cones
b.5 million & 100 million cones
c.100 million rods & 100 million cones
d.5 million rods & 5 million cones

14.All shows strength of association except:

a.relative risk
b.odd’s ratio
c.incidence rate
d.coefficient of correlation

15.Risk factors for cerebral venous thrombosis are a/e:

a.dehydration
b.pregnancy
c.OCP’s
d.hypertension

16.To compare difference between two proportions:

a.Chi-square test
b.t-test
c.coefficient of correlation
d.coefficint of regeression

17.White centered haemmorrhage seen in :

a.SABE
b.leukemia
c.diabetes
d.all

18.D/D of red eye a/e:

a.photoretinits
b.acute congestive glaucoma
c.uvetis
d.keratitis

19.All involved in conductive deafness except:

a.auricle
b.8th nerve
c.middle ear
d.ext.auditary meatus

20.Following is involved in visual pathway:

a.Nucleus gracilis
b.medial geniculate body
c.lateral geniculate body
d.hypothalamus

21.Proteus infection l/t:

a.struate stones
b.uric acid stones
c.pigment stones
d.calcium/cholesterol stones

22.True about GALL-STONES except:

a.cholesterol stones are radiolucent
b.brown stones in sterile gall-bladder
c.black stones contain ca-carbonate
d.common in non-wetern population

23.True about endometriosis a/e:

a.common in 15% japenese population
b.common after menopause
c.a/w 20% cases of infertility
d.15% inheritable

24.Not a type of skull #:

a.simple linear
b.depressed
c.diffuse axonal
d.basal skull

25.Not a type of hernia:

a.obstructed
b.inflammed
c.irreuducible
d.infected

26.Trinucleotide repeat is seen in :

a.fragile X syndrome
b.Down/s syndrome
c.trisomy 13
d.tyrner’s syndrome

27.Jaris-Hexiemer’s reaction, true a/e:

a.occurs in late syphillis
b.acute febrile reaction
c.ophthalmic involvement worsens
d.prednisolone for 3 days given in treatment

28.STEVEN’S JOHNSON’S syndrome caused by:

a.sodium-valporate
b.lamotrigine
c.phenobarbitone
d.gabapentine

29.Bipolar mood disorder following are used in treatment except:

a.sodium-valporate
b.oxcarbazine
c.pregabaline
d.lamotrigine

30.Most prevalent psychiatric disorder in community is:

a.anxiety
b.depression
c.schizophrenia
d.dementia

31.Floowing drugs causes gynecomastia by directly acting on estrogenic substances

except:
a.ketoconazle
b.digitalis
c.OCP’s
d.Phytoestrogens
32.Secular trends relates with:
a.age
b.religion
c.time
d.place

3.Case control study is:

a.analytical
b.descriptive
c.experimental
d.interventional

34.In alcohol dependence used are a/e:

a.disulfiram
b.acamprosate
c.bupropion
d.naltrexone

35.Used in opioid dependence a/e:

a.LAAM
b.buprenorphine
c.methadone
d.nalophine

36.Atypical antipshchotic causing prolong QT interval is :

a.risperidone
b.ziprasidone
c.quitapine
d.olanzepine

37.Following factors predicts relapse of seizers except:

a.tonic clonic type
b.myoclonis
c.age>16yrs
d.seizure starting after treatment started

38.All are risk factors for severe hypoglycemia except:

a.sleep
b.short duration of D.M
c.ACE genotype
d.strict control of blood sugar level

39.Subnormal ferritin is seen in a/e:

a.iron deficinecy anemia
c.liver disease
d.hypothyroidism

40.soluble transferrin receptor in iron def.anemia is:

a.increased
b.decreased
c.normal
d.none

41.For initiation of HAART ,following is generally evaluated:

a.CD4 count
b.viral load
c.absolute lymphocyte count
d.all

42.pathological findings of sjogren’s syndrome are a/e:

a.keratoconj.sicca
b.glomerular lesion
c.renal tubules function defect
d.salivary gland germinal center lymphocyte deficient

43.Under the” NARCOTIC DRUGS & OSYCHOTROPIC SUBSTANCES ACT”

following drugs included except:
a.opium
b.hashis/heroin
c.amphetamine
d.alcohol

44.Biochemical markers of chronic alcoholism a/e:

a.MCV
b.uric acid
c.sr.creat
d.carbohydrate deficient transferrin

45.”SETTING SUN” sign seen in :

a.hydrocephalus
b.meningitis
c.brain abcess
d.cns-tumor

46.Craniotabes seen in :
a.rickets
b.ostegenesis imperfecta
c.hydrocephalus
d.all

47.Cell wall demontration is by a/e:

a.plasmolysis
b.microdissection
c.quellung reaction
d.antigen-antibody reaction

48.NOVOBIOCIN test differentiates:

a.s.saprophyticus & s.epidermidis
b.s.saprophyticus & s.aureus
c.s,aureus & s.epidermidis
d.

49.All are s/e of atypical antipsychotics except:

a.TypeII DM
b.wt-gain
c.hyperlipidemia
d.tardive dyskinesia

50.Homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing is d/t lesion of :

a.parietal lobe
b.occipital lobe
c.dominant temporal lobe
d.non-dominant temporal lobe

51.Correctly paired is:

a.cage:frontal lobe
b.broca: hypothalamus
c.moniz:ct scan
d.kreplin:ECT

52.Accidently discovered antidepressant is :

a.amitryptilline
b.imipramine
c.INH
d.alprazolam

53.Most active drug in leprosy :

a.rifampicine
b.dapsone
c.clofazamine
d.steroids

54.Growth stimulators & inhibitors are produced by:

a.eosinophil
b.RBC
c.macrophages
d.platelets
55.Most effective treatment of severe depression:
a.antidepressants
b.ECT
c.behavior therapy
d.psychotherapy

56.Classic tetrad of narcolapsy a/e:

a.hypnogogic hallucination
b.sleep attacks
c.sleep paralysis
d.catalepsy

57.Increase PTH is seen in a/e:

a.primary & sec.hyperparathyroidism
b.lithium indused hyperparathyroidism
c.thyrotoxicosis
d.familial hypocalciuric hypocalcemia

58.D/D of catatonia a/e:

a.wernick’s disease
b.hepatic encephalopathy
c.CNS neoplasm
d.Neuroleptic adverse effects

59.Fluent speech, impaired comprehension, but good repetition ,lesion is at:

a.Wernick’s aphasia
b.Broca’s aphasia
c.sensory subcortical aphasia
d.motor subcortical aphasia

60.Carpopedal spasmwith normal sr.ionic calcium is d/t:

a.hypomagnesemia
b.hyponatremia
c.hypokalemia
d.acidosis

61.Circulatory collapse occurs after what % of burns of total body surface area:
a.5%
b.1%
c.10%
d.15%

62.MC congenital heart disease :

a.ASD
b.VSD
c.PDA
d.TOF

63.Least effective drug in Obsessive compulsive disorder is :

a.clomipramine
b.fluoxamine
c.fluoxetine
d.robexetine

64.Grahm’s steel murmur seen in :

a.aortic regurgiotation
b.pulmonary regurgitation
c.tricuspid incompetance
d.AS

65.Persistent belief of medical illness despite adequate investigation is :

a.hypochondriosis
b.delutional disorder
c.factitious disorder
d.conversion disorder

66.Correctly matched:
a.borderline personality=odd & eccentric
b.avoidant personality=fear & anxiety
c.narcissitive personality=aloofness
d.schizophrenia personality=emotional

67.True about WILLIAM’S syndrome a/e:

a.auto.domiannt
b.supravalvular aortic stenosis
c.hypocalcemia
d.mental retardation

68.True about IDIOPATHIC HIORSUITISM:

a.normal ovulatory/menstrual cycle
b.amenorrhoea
c.increased testerone
d.hyperinsulinemia

69.CA-19-9 seen in a/e:

a.braest ca
b.ovarian ca
c.colonic ca
d.pancreatic ca

70.True about hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a/e:

a.dilated ventricle
b.Increased muscle mass
c.LV outflow obstruction
d.diastolic failure

71.Major criteria of Framhington’s for cong.heart failure are a/e:

a.rales
b.positive hepatojugular reflex
c.cardiomegally
d.pleural effusion

72.Which of following is not sensitive to chemotherapy in advaced stage:

a.pancreatic ca
b.ewing’s ca
c.wilm’s tomor
d.ovarian cancer

73.Most sensitive of cardiac injury:

a.LDH
b.myoglobin
c.CPK-MB
d.Troponin

74.Acute viral hepatitis A & E is diagnosed by:

a.IgM A & IgM E
b.IgG A & IgG E
c.liver biosy
d.virus in stool

75.Carcinoid tumor is MC in :
a.foregut
b.mid-gut
c.hind-gut
d.all

76.Correctly matched except:

a.REED-STERNBERG CELLS: hodgkins
b.HAIRY CELLSeripheral T cell leukemia
c.RUSSEL BODIES: plasmocutic lymphoma
d.FLAME CELLS:multiple myeloma

77.True about mania:

a.defect in content of thought
b.expansion of mood
c.delusion of granduer
d.increased psychomotor activity
78.MENDELIAN’S GENETIC laws helps to describe:
a.single gene disorder
b.gene to environment disorder
c.multiple gene disorder
d.all

79.Least common complication of peptic ulcer:

a.bleeding
b.epigastic distress
c.gastric-outlet obstruction
d.perforation

80Hypertensive haemorrhage typically occurs in:

a.cerebellum
b.pons
c.basal ganglia
d.all

81.For vibration sense ,tuning fork used is of frequency of:

a.128 Hrz
b.512 Hrz
c.256 Hrz
d.1024 Hrz

82.All are motile except:

a.s.typhi
b.s.typhimurium
c.s.enteridis
d.s.gallinarum pullorum

83.Shrinking lung disease with diaphragmatic involvement is d/t:

a.Dermatomyositis/polymyositis
b.SLE
c.Systemic sclerosis
d.sjogren’s syndrome

84.Goitre a/w high altitude is an eg. of :

a.indirect association
b.spurious association
c.direct association
d.temporal association

85.True about ALPORT’S syndrome a/e:

a.renal agenesis
b.sensorineural deafness
c.anterior lenticonus
d.hematuria

86.Mucosal candidiasis is caused by:

a.candida albicans
b.candida tropicalis
c.candida guilliermondi
d.candida krusei

87.Pseudodementia is seen in :
a.alcoholism
b.depression
c.schizophrenia
d.mania

88.% of monozygotic twins with schizophrenia:

a.45-50%
b.70%
c.10%
d.20%

89.SINGLE GENE NUCLEOTIDE POLYMORPHISM constitute what % of genetic

code:
a.<1%
b.5%
c.15%
d.20%

90.MIYAGAVA’S CORPUSCLES seen in :

a.Psittacosis
b.LGV
c.trachoma
d.donovonosis

91.Asteroid bodies seen in :

a.sporotrichiosis
b.rhinocerebrosis
c.mucormycosis
d.cryptocosis

92.HERPANGINA is caused by:

a.cox-sackie virus A
b.echovirus 18
c.echovirus16
d.poliovirus
93.MC cause of community acquired meningitis in adult:
a.listeris
b.s.pnemococci
c.h-influnza
d.e-coli

94.All are supplied by oculomotor N. except:

a.sup.oblique
b.sup.rectus
c.inf.oblique
d.levator palpebra superioris

95.Definite C/I of thiopentone:

a.diabetic pt.
b.ECT
c.sarcoidosis
d.acute intermittant porphyria

96.Decreased ability to smell is :

a.anosmia
b.hyposmia
c.phantosmia
d.hyperosmia

97.Absense of taste sensation is termed as:

a.hypogeusia
b.ageusia
c.dusgeusia
d.partial ageusia

[snip].True about SEROTONIN SYNDROME a/e:

a.hyperthermia
b.bradycardia
c.hypertension
d.myoclonus

99.RAT BITE FEVER is cause by:

a.streptobacillus moniliformis
b.
c.
d.

100.Umbilical cord has:

a.2 artery & 2 vain
b.1 artery & 2 vain
c.2 artery & 1 vain
d.1 artery & 1 vain

101.VINCENT’S ngina is a/k/a:

a.trench mouth
b.
c.
d.

102.Rickettia prawazaki causes:

a.epidemic typus
b.endemic typhus
c.scub typhus
d.trench fever

103.WEIL’S disease is
a.leptospirosis
b.endemic syphillis
c.
d.

104.Lyme disease caused by:

a.borrelia burgdorferi
b.borrelia recurrantis
c.borrelia vincentis]
d.leptospira

105.Oroya fever is caused by:

a.bartonella henslae
b.bartonella quintana
c.bartonella bacilliformis
d.none

106.PLEOTROPISM is :
a.single mutant gene laeding to many end effects
b.mutataion at several genetic loci may produce

107.All are auto. Dominant except:

a.Friedrich’s ataxia
b.Huntington’s disease
c.myotonic dystrophy
d.tuberous sclerosis

108.An individual inherit the mutant auto. Dominant gene but phenotypically normal,it is
an eg. of:
a.Variable expressivity
b.reduced penetrance
c.Pseudodominance
d.

109.MC inherited bleeding disorder:

a.Von-willebrand’s disease
b.haemophilia-A
c.Glanzman’s thrombasthenia
d.haemophilia-B

110.In GLYCINURIA, glycine excreated is:

a.
b.
c.
d.

111.Inducing dose of propofol in adults:

a.
b.
c.
d.

112.Schwann cells are supporting cells of:

a.CNS
b.PNS
c.ANS
d.all

113.SALTATORY CONDUCTION IS:

a.Action potential thr’ myelin sheath
b.
c.
d.

114.Blockade of central retinal artery l/t temporory blindness is a/k/a:

a.Amaurosis fugox
b.
c.
d.

115.B12 def. L/t accumulation of:

a.methyl malonyl
b.
c.
d.
116.True about AIR-EMBOLISM a/e:
a.decreased end tidal CO2
b.decreased end tidal N2
c.
d.

117.Enzyme defect in PORPHYRIA CUTANEA TARDA:

a.
b.
c.
d.

118.True about ALZHIEMER’S disease a/e:

a.Donepezile & rivastigmine are used in treatment
b.2 times more common in men than women
c.
d.

119.Increased deposition of fat in liver in pt with alcoholism is d/t a/e:

a.Increased catabolism of fat peripherily
b.Increased F.A oxidation
c.
d.

120.Prophylaxis of migrain is a/e:

a.verapamil
b.propranolol
c.sumatriptan
d.

121.Prolactine is decreased by:

a.Dopamine
b.metoclopromide
c.
d.

122.Following is true:
a.Psychogenic seizure=increased prolactine
b.Organic siezure=normal prolactine
c.
d.

123.5HT3 antagonist is:

a.Ondansetron
b.Metoclopromide
c.domperidone
d.

124.Bradykinesia with resistance to passive extension of arm by examiner is d/t lesion at:
a.basal ganglia
b.internal capsule
c.mypneural junction
d.

125.Ketamine acts on:

a.NMDA receptor
b.Glycine receptor
c.GABAa receptor
d.Ach receptor

126.MC ovarian cause of increased androgenic state is:

a.PCOD
b.Premature adrenarch
c.Androgen secreting tumor
d.

127.Chorea with schizophrenic symptoms, diagnosis is:

a.C.Jacb disease
b.lewy body disease
c.parkinson’s
d.huntington’s

128.Single episode of depression shud be treated for:

a.7 days
b.2-3 wks
c.6-9 months
d.2 yrs

129.Investigation of choice for acute stroke:

a. CT scan
b. B.MRI angiography
c. C.Functional MRI
d.

130.In treatment of stroke, use of rTPa is true a/e:

a.Aspirin shud be witheld for 24 hrs
b.Better results/outcome with heparin used along with rtPa
c.best results when rtPa given within 3 hrs
d.

131.Correctly matched:
a.Schindler=first rank symptoms
b.
c.
d.

132.Lesion of fornix l/t disruption of connection between:

a.amygdyla & hippocampus
b.mammilary body & thalamus
c.
d.

133.All are seen in primary adrenocortical deficiency except:

aHyperpigmentation
b.Hypertension
c.Hyperkalemia
d.

134.TOC of SLEEP APONEA SYNDROME is:.

a.continous positive pressure ventilation
b.sedative
c.antidepressant
d.

135.Correctly matched is :
a.Phencyclidine=sedation
b.Venlafazine=hypotension
c.
d.

136.Treatment of enuresis:
a.desmopressin
b.imipramine
c.
d.

137.Posive symptoms of schizophrenia a/e:

a.Anhedonia
b.Hallucination
c.Delusion
d.Thought broadcast

138.NEGATIVE symptoms of schizophrenia is :

a.disorganised thought
b.thought block
c.
d.
139.In pregnancy all increased except:
a.blood volume
b.GFR
c.renal plasma flow
d.

140Ture about microalbuminuria a/e:

a.Predictor/indicator of renal failure in type-I DM
b.less reliable predictor in type II DM
c.indicates macrovascular complication
d.

141.Vertical diplopia with lateral deviation of head & double vision on looking down to
opposite site of lesion is d/t:
a.3 CN lesion
b.4 CN lesion
c.6 CN lesion
d.all

142.MC presentation MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS :

a.optic neurosis
b.internuclear ophthalmoplegia
c.transverse myelitis
d.

143.AGRANULOCYTOSIS is a classical s/e:

a.clozapine
b.
c.
d.

144.Gait apraxia is seen in :

a.cerebellar disease
b.post.column lesion
c.descending corticopinal tract
d.

145.CORRECTLY MATCHED:
a.circumduction gait=UMN
b.waddling gait=proximal muscle weakness
c.foot drop/stepping gait=LMN
d.

146.Following is caused by ARBOVIRUS:

a.Dengue
b.Measles
c.HIV
d.

147.True about pseudobulbar palsy a/e:

a.arise from UMN
b.wasted tongue with fasciculation
c.slow movements of tongue

148.Disability assesment in INDIA is done by:

a.INDIAN DISABILITY ASSESMENT SCALE
b.INDIAN GLOBAL DISABILITY SCALE
c.
d.

149.Renal biopsy is indicated in a/e:

a.CRF with normal size kidney
b.size<60%
c.glomerular disease in adults
d.

150.Rare exclusive infection of diabetes mellitus are a/e:

a.Mucormycosis
b.Atypical mycobacterial infextion
c.Emphysematous appendicitis
d.

151.Type II resp.failure is seen in a/e:

a.narcotic use
b.pulmonary embolism
c.M.gravis
d.

152.MC disorder a/w PANIC ATTACK:

a.OCD
b.Post0traumatic stress disorder
c.depression
d.

153.True about PHOBIA a/e:

a.generalised anxiety
b.avoiding particular situation
c.fear & anxiety of specific thing
d.

154.In mood disorder,rapid cyclers are defined as:

a.4-5 episodes/yr
b.Mania occuring during summer
c.Mania consistent during lunar yr
d.

155.True about ALZHIEMER’S a/e:

a.Down’s syndrome association is protective
b.neural plaque seen
c.hippocampus is severely affected
d.

156.True about neurolept.malignant syndrome a/e:

a.Decreased CPK
b.myoclonus
c.hyperthermia
d.

157.Not used in liver cirrhosis :

a.NSAIDS
b.INH
c.
d.all

158.Short bowel syndrome seen after :

a.H-pylori infection
b.After surgery for crohn’s
c.Peptic ulcer
d.all
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