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The Biology Model Examination For Grade 12 in 2009/2017

This document provides the directions and 100 multiple choice questions for a Grade 12 biology exam in 2009/2017. The exam is focused on natural science and contains topics such as microorganisms, nutrient recycling, bacterial structure and types, human diseases, evolution, cell division, genetics, human evolution, and biochemical processes. Students are allowed 2 hours to complete the exam and must blacken the corresponding circle on an answer sheet for each of the 100 questions.

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koket negash
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100% found this document useful (2 votes)
2K views16 pages

The Biology Model Examination For Grade 12 in 2009/2017

This document provides the directions and 100 multiple choice questions for a Grade 12 biology exam in 2009/2017. The exam is focused on natural science and contains topics such as microorganisms, nutrient recycling, bacterial structure and types, human diseases, evolution, cell division, genetics, human evolution, and biochemical processes. Students are allowed 2 hours to complete the exam and must blacken the corresponding circle on an answer sheet for each of the 100 questions.

Uploaded by

koket negash
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 16

THE BIOLOGY MODEL EXAMINATION FOR GRADE 12 IN 2009/2017

DIRECTIONS: THIS BOOKLET CONTAINS BIOLOGY EXAMINATION


FOR GRADE 12 FOR NATURAL SCIENCE ONLY
THE EXAMINATION CONTAINS 100 ITEMS. THERE IS ONLY ONE
BEST ANSWER FOR EACH ITEM. CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER
FROM THE GIVEN ALTERNATIVE AND BLACK THE CIRCLE
CORRESPONDING TO YOUR ANSWER ON THE SEPARATE
ANSWER SHEET.
YOU ARE ALLOWED TO WORK ON THE EXAM FOR 2: 00 HOURS
1. Which of the following pairs of the organisms are the key in returning
nutrients to the ecosystem?
A. Plants and animals C. Viruses and algae
B. Bacteria and fungi D. Algae and plants
2. Which of the following is a field tool?
A. Centrifuges B. Pipettes C. Syringes D. Theodolite
3. Which of the following main group of the microorganisms is the border
line between living and non-living things?
A. Algae B. Bacteria C. Fungi D. Viruses
4. The molecule that stores the genetic information in nearly all organisms?
A. DNA B. RNA C. Chromatins D. Chromatids
5. Which one of the following is NOT the importance of the nutrient
recycling in nature?
A. Provides nutrients for living organisms
B. A natural way to rid the Earth of wastes
C. Produce principal energy transfer molecule
D. Provides a solution to waste removal problems

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6. Decomposers feed by which of the following method:


A. Heterotrophic nutrition C. Parasitic nutrition
B. Autotrophic nutrition D. Saprobiotic nutrition
7. The cycle of infection, reproduction and destruction of infected cells
repeats itself for as long as the body can keep replacing the CD4 lymphocyte
is called:
A. Latency phase C. Entry phase
B. Binding phase D. Acute phase
8. The natural process by which bare land turns out to be productive is called:
A. Colonization B. Conservation C. Recycling D. Succession
9. Which of the following is the NOT the role that the bacteria play in every
ecosystem?
A. Disease causing agents C. Key in ecological succession
B. Cycling of mineral elements D. Used in the industrial process
10. Which of the following is the NOT the characteristics of the Gram negative
bacteria?
A. Causes more serious diseases
B. Stained pink by Gram’s stain
C. Their outer membrane secretes endotoxin
D. Have more peptidoglycan in their cell walls
11. The structure that found in few bacterial types only?
A. Cell wall B. Cytoplasm C. Capsules D. Ribosomes
12. Which of the following is multi-factorial disease?
A. Anemia B. Haemophilia C. Hypertension D. Tuberculosis
13. Which of the following are spherical shaped bacteria?
A. Bacillus B. Coccus C. Spirilla D. Spirochaetes
14. The two main human activities affecting biodiversity are:
A. Construction and mining C. Reforestation and conservation
B. Agriculture and deforestation D. Monoculture and over-hunting
15. Which of the following are NOT the ecosystem services?

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A. Eradicate disease causing microorganisms


B. Support nutrient recycling and soil formation
C. Provide fresh water, food, fuel, wood and fiber
D. Regulate climate, disease and water purification
Question number 16 is to be answered using the following table by calculating
the Simpsons’s index of diversity for the given areas.
Specie Number of organisms
s
Area 1 Area 2 Area 3 Area
4
A 20 10 15 7
B 17 8 12 5
C 13 32 9 27

16. Which of the given area have the highest biodiversity?


A. Area 1 B. Area 2 C. Area 3 D. Area 4
17. Which of the following is NOT the factor that cause change in the genetic
composition of a population, and lead to evolution?
A. Mitosis B. Meiosis C. Mutation D. Hybridisation
18. Which of the following is NOT one of the four gases in Stanley Miller’s
experiment simulation of the synthesis of organic compounds on the primitive
Earth?
A. Methane B. Nitrogen C. Ammonia D. Hydrogen
19. Which of the following is FALSE about the main differences between the
meiosis I and meiosis II cell division? In meiosis II:
A. no crossing over in prophase C. chromatids separation in
anaphase
B. chromosomes align in metaphase D. chromosomes duplicate in
telophase
20. Which of the following does not describes the homologous chromosomes?
A. They are paternal and maternal pairs C. Their centromers at the
same position

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B. They have the same length and width D. They have different
number of genes
21. Which of the following organisms has no sex determination system,
because an individual posses both males and females sex organs?
A. Birds B. Alligators C. Earthworms D. Grasshopper
22. Which of the following molecule serve as a source of energy in the
translation of mRNA code into a protein molecule?
A. ATP ADP + Pi + energy C. ADP AMP + Pi + energy
B. GTP GDP+ Pi + energy D. GDPGMP + Pi + energy
23. A man with homozygous blood group A and a woman with homozygous
blood group B could potentially have offspring with blood type____________?
A. Blood type A B. Blood type B C. Blood type O D. Blood type AB
24. Which of the following includes the others?
A. DNA B. Genes C. Alleles D. Chromosomes
25. Which of the following is a eubacteria?
A. Sulphobacteria B. Methanobacteria C. Halophilic bacteria D.
Cyanobacteria
26. When two heterozygous individuals are crossed, the percentage the
offspring that are true breeding for dominant traits is _____________?
A) 25 B) 50 C) 75 D) 100
27. Which of the following major races of human has the largest proportion of
the world’s population?
A. Caucasoids B. Mongoloids C. Australoids D. Negroids
28. If a cell having 2n=120 chromosomes divides by mitosis, how many
chromosomes are expected in the daughter cells?
A. 120 chromosomes B. 60 chromosomes C. 40 chromosomes D.
30 chromosomes
29. Identify the ones that have identical DNA fingerprints?
A. Fraternal twins C. Father and children
B. Identical twins D. Mother and children

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30. Which of the following is common to nucleotides of DNA and RNA?


A. Amino group C. Phosphate group
B. Pentose sugars D. Nitrogenous bases
31. Which one of the following mutation is non heritable?
A. Mutation in somatic cells C. Mutation in egg cells
B. Mutation in pro-gamete sex D. Mutation in sperm cells
32. In the process of evolution of life on earth, which one of the following four
processes evolved first?
A. Photosynthesis C. Respirations
B. Chemosynthesis D. Endosymbiosis
33. The paper entitled “origin of species by natural selection’’ was written in
1858 by:
A. Darwin and Lamarck C. Aristotle and Miller
B. Oparin and Haldene D. Darwin and Wallace
34. Which of the following is an educated guess as to how the biologist thinks
the experiment will turn out?
A. Conclusion B. Observation C. Hypothesis D. Prediction
35. In what two ways does bonding between the carbon atoms in the fatty acid
chain affect the hydrocarbon chains?
A. The number of double bonds and the number of single bonds
B. The number of carbon atoms and the number of hydrogen units
C. The number of carbon atoms and the number of different bonds
D. The number of different bonds and the number of hydrogen atoms
36. Who discoveries the occurrence of respiration in both plants and animals?
A. Robert Hooke C. Louis Pasteur
B. Rene Dutrochet D. Zacharias Jansen
37. Why are enzymes perfect catalysts?
A. Its small amount affects a large amount of substrate
B. Reduce the kinetic energy of the reactant molecules
C. Increase the required amount of activation energy

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D. Increase the turnover rate of the chemical reactions


38. Which of the following NOT describes reasons why ATP is an energy
transfer molecule?
A. It releases small amounts of energy C. It is immediate source of
energy
B. It is able to release energy quickly D. It can move around the
cell freely
39. Glucose and galactose have the same chemical formula with C 6H12O6 , but
different in their structure in the position of hydroxyl (-OH) group at:
A. Carbon one C. Carbon three
B. Carbon two D. Carbon four
40. The unknown food sample was tested with iodine in potassium iodide
solution and gives a blue-black colour. This indicates that the food sample
contains:
A. Sucrose B. Proteins C. Glucose D. Starches
41. Research, minimum intervention and repair rather than replace are:
A. Ecological principles of conservation C. Guiding ideas for
conservation of species
B. Significance of the local biodiversity D. Interdependence of local
and global biodiversity
42. What proportion the world’s mammal species is estimated to occur in
Africa?
A. 15% B. 20% C. 25% D. 30%
43. The type of succession that starts with the colonization by organisms on
newly emerging land forms and water bodies?
A. Early succession C. Primary succession
B. Later succession D. Secondary succession
44. Why the Gregor Mendel to be considered as a father of Genetics? Because
he:
A. identify the distinguishable contrasting traits

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B. choose garden pea plants for experimentation


C. laid down foundation for the rules of heredity
D. succeeds an examination for a teaching certificate
45. Refers to the offspring’s from a cross between different parents with
different traits:
A. the fourth filial generation C. the second filial generation
B. the third filial generation D. the first filial generation
46. Which of the following sequence shows the correct outline of the
fossilization process of any organisms?
A. Upliftpermineralizationsedimentationdeath without decomposition
B. Death without decomposition sedimentation permineralization uplift
C. Sedimentation permineralization uplift death without decomposition
D. Permineralization uplift death without decomposition sedimentation
47. With which of the following plants, humans share 50% of our DNA?
A. Tomato B. Oranges C. Potato D. Bananas
48. Which of the following is NOT the characteristic of the analogous
structure?
A. They have similar functions C. They have different morphology
B. They show common ancestor D. They have different evolutionary
origin
49. Which of the following is the major criterion in classifying the human races
into Negroid, Caucasoid and Mongoloid?
A. Brain size C. Genetic analysis
B. Fossil records D. Life diversity

50. Which of the following is NOT the current contribution of the knowledge of
biology to fight against HIV/AIDS?
A. Provide information regarding HIV structure

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B. Provide information about its existence mode


C. Provide vaccine to eliminate the HIV/AIDS
D. Develop responsible sexual behavior in community
51. The odd results that do not fit the general pattern in the results of
experiment are called:
A. Average results C. Normal results
B. Accurate results D. Anomalous results
52. Which of the following contains the four most common elements in living
organisms?
A. Carbon, Oxygen, Hydrogen and Nitrogen C. Boron, Phosphorus,
Potassium and Oxygen
B. Nitrogen, Hydrogen, Oxygen and Boron D. Hydrogen, Oxygen,
Carbon and Phosphorus
53. Which of the following cooking fatty acids advice to use to prevent
cholesterol being laid down in the linings of arteries and so help to prevent
heart disease?
A. Monosaturated fatty acids C. Monounsaturated fatty acids
B. Polysaturated fatty acids D. Polyunsaturated fatty acids
54. The protein part of an enzyme is known as:
A. Coenzymes B. Apoenzymes C. Holoenzymes D. Isoenzymes
55. Transport of molecules across the plasma membrane against its
concentration gradients:
A. Active transport C. Simple diffusion
B. Passive transport D. Facilitated diffusion
56. Which of the following molecules in the plasma membrane allows for the
entry and exit of substances?
A. Glycolipids B. Proteins C. Phospholipids D. Cholesterols
57. Which of the following is NOT the product of glycolysis stages of the cellular
respiration?
A. Hydrogen ions C. ATP molecule

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B. Pyruvate molecule D. Carbon dioxide


58. Photorespiration:
A. Consumes O2 C. Produces O2
B. Consumes CO2 D. Releases H2O

59. Which of the following is FALSE about the Krebs cycle?


A. Produces ATP molecule C. Releases NADH and FADH
B. Releases CO2 molecule D. Phosphorylation of Acetyl group
60. How many ATP molecules are produced from one glucose molecule during
electron transport system?
A. 4 ATP B. 6 ATP C. 12 ATP D. 34 ATP
61. Which of the following provide the main direct evidence for evolution?
A. Study of fossils C. Study of anatomy
B. Study of embryo D. Study of biochemistry
Based on the following figures answer question number 62

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Figure 1.1 A chimpanzee assesses the problem Figure 1.2 Through


‘building’ the
chimpanzee achieves his
goal

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62. A chimpanzee concentrates to reach at a bunch of bananas hanging above


its head. What kind of behavior is this?
A. Latent learning C. Associative learning
B. Insight learning D. Sensitization learning
63. What are cylinders used to measure?
A. Mass B. Volume C. Length D. Diameter
64. The most important function of T-helper cells are:
A. Surrounds and destroys pathogens C. Kills disease causing
organisms in the body
B. Coordinators of the immune systems D. Avoid the attachment of
HIV on CD4 cells
65. All are non-cellulose cell wall organisms, EXCEPT?
A. Algae B. Bacteria C. Fungi D. Plants
66. The organism that causes malaria:
A. Amoeba B. Candida C. Plasmodium D. Paramecium
67. A large climatically and geographically limited ecological regions with
specific climate and soil type that consists of organisms which are adapted in
similar ways to the area is known as:
A. Biomes B. Biosphere C. Community D. Biodiversity
68. The use of Ligases enzymes:
A. Change of the molecular form of the substrates
B. Addition of nonhydrolytic a group to a substrates
C. Joining of two molecules by the formation of new bonds
D. Transfer of a specific group from one substrate to another
69. Which of the following theories of evolution has no need for an explanation
of life origin?
A. Special creation theory C. Cosmozoan theory
B. Eternity of life theory D. Biochemical theory
70. An important source of the genetic variation in gametes produced by
meiosis cell division is:

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A. Independent assortment and segregation C. Genetic linkage and


segregation
B. Crossing over and independent assortment D. Genetic linkage and
crossing over
71. Which of the following is the two main advantage of cross breeding of crop
plants and stock animals?
A. Increasing heterozygosity and increasing productivity
B. Increasing homozygosity and increasing productivity
C. Decreasing heterozygosity and increasing productivity
D. Decreasing heterozygosity and decreasing productivity
72. Which of the following traits can be inherited only by males?
A. a form of deafness controlling gene
B. a form of normal vision controlling gene
D. a gene controlling red-green color blindness
C. a gene controlling one form of haemophilia
73. The DNA triplet TAT would code for an amino acid carried by tRNA with the
anticodon:
A. AUA B. UAU C. TAT D. UUU
74. Which of the following alternative shows the gases that were believed to be
present in the primitive atmosphere before the origin of life on Earth?
A. Ammonia, Hydrogen and Oxygen C. Ammonia, Hydrogen and
Methane
B. Hydrogen, Oxygen and Methane D. Ammonia, Oxygen and
Methane
75. The genetic code is essentially the same for all organisms ranging from
bacteria to man. This means that the genetic code is:
A. Commaless B. Degenerate C. Universal D. Polarity
76. In which of the following organisms, both transcription and translation
processes occur in cytoplasm at the same time?
A. Algae B. Plants C. Bacteria D. Animals

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77. Identify a weakness of the lock-and-key model of enzyme action?


A. does not explain how the intermediate complex reduces activation
energy
B. does not explain how bonds under pressure require less energy to
break apart
C. does not explain how the shape of the active site can be altered by
the substrate
D. does not explain how an active site and its substrate form
complementary shape
78. Where does the Krebs cycle happen?
A. Cristae of mitochondria C. Permanent vacuole
B. Matrix of mitochondria D. Cytosol of cytoplasm
79. Which of the following pairs of processes requiring additional energy
from ATP metabolism of cells?
A. simple diffusion and active transport C. active transport and
protein synthesis
B. active transport and facilitated diffusion D. conduction of nerve
impulses and osmosis
80. The light-dependent splitting of water molecule is called:
A. Photolysis B. Hydrolysis C. Chemolysis D. Autolysis
81. What would happen to the concentration of carbon dioxide if the stomata
stay closed?
A. The concentration of carbon dioxide in the plant decreases
B. The concentration of carbon dioxide in the plant increases
C. The concentration of carbon dioxide in the plant fluctuates
D. The concentration of carbon dioxide in the plant stays constant
82. Which of the following enzymes converts viral RNA into host DNA genetic
material?
A. Transcriptase B. Isomerases C. Transferases D. Polymerases

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83. Which of the following does not take part in linking of the nucleotides in
the strands of DNA?
A. Nitrogenous bases C. Phosphate groups
B. Pentose sugars D. Hydrogen bonds
84. Which of the following of the processes form the basis of passing genetic
information in DNA molecule from one generation to the next generations?
A. Replication B. Transcription C. Translation D. Mutation
85. A molecule of DNA contains 30% Adenine. What percentages of the
Guanine nucleotides must it contain?
A. 20% B. 30% C. 50% D. 60%
86. If a cell contains 15NADH and 25FADH molecules, how many ATP
molecules are produced within the cell?
A. 40ATP B.8OATP C. 95ATP D. 105ATP
87. The goal of conservation of our biodiversity should be:
A. an optimum utilization of our resources
B. attaining the maximum population size
C. producing improved farm animals and plants
D. attaining the maximum utilization of resources
88. Which of the following is TRUE about the characteristics of the viruses?
A. Viruses can only infect people C. Viruses contain genetic
material
B. Viruses have major organelles D. Viruses can perform
photosynthesis
89. Which of the following chemical bond responsible for primary structure of
proteins?
A. Ionic bond B. Sulfide bond C. Peptide bond D. Hydrogen bond
90. What are the three organelles that convert phosphoglycolate to glycerate
phosphate (GP)?
A. Mitochondrion, chloroplast and peroxisome
B. Ribosomes, plasma membrane and cytoplasm

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C. Endoplasmic reticulum, lysosomes and cell wall


D. Chloroplast, vacuole and cell surface membrane
91. A double stranded DNA molecule has 80 Adenine and 120 Cytosine bases.
What is the total number of bases found in the DNA molecule?
A. 400 bases B. 240 bases C. 200 bases D. 160 bases

92. Which of the following is a polymer of -glucose molecules?


A. Amylose B. Amylopectin C. Cellulose D. Glycogen
93. Most enzymes operate efficiently at a pH between _________ and ________?
A. 2 and 4 B. 6 and 8 C. 8 and 10 D. 10 and 12
94. Which of the following includes the others?
A. Integral proteins C. Peripheral proteins
B. Carrier proteins D. Channel proteins
95. Where do light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis begin?
A. reaction centre molecules C. electron transport molecules
B. antenna complex molecules D. electron acceptor molecules
96. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of C3 plants?
A. The leaves on C3 plants are usually broad and large
B. They can absorb much less sunlight than C4 plants
C. Their stomata stay open to allow carbon dioxide to enter
D. Their chloroplasts located near the upper surface of the leaf
97. Which of the following figures describes the chance of two people
having the same genetic finger print?
A. One in hundred C. One in million
B. One in thousand D. One in billion
98. Which of the following represent correct back cross /test cross?
A. Tt x tt and TT x tt C. Tt x Tt and Tt x tt
B. tt x tt and TT x tt D. TT x TT and tt x tt
99. Which of the following pairs of molecules are storage carbohydrates?

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A. Starch and cellulose C. Starch and glycogen


B. Cellulose and glycogen D. Lactose and maltose
100. If it was found that a fossil contains only 1.562% of the original amount of
C-14, what will be the age of the fossils?
A. 34,380 years B. 22,920 years C. 17,190 years D. 11,460 years

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