EXAM – Paper 020

1. What is the approach system minima for VOR/DME approach?

a. 200 ft
b. 250 ft
c. 300 ft

2. What is the meaning of a flashing red light signal from ATC to an aircraft
on the ground?
a. Clear the landing area
b. Hold position
c. Return to the starting point on the airfield

3. Referring to the FBMN NDB RWY 26 approach plate. When approaching

MN at 100 QDM what sector are you entering from to determine hold
entry?
a. Sector 1
b. Sector 2
c. Sector 3

4. In what aircraft is an automatic ELT required?

a. All aircraft in commercial operations
b. All aircraft
c. All aircraft above 5700 kg

5. Referring to the FBMN NDB RWY 26 approach plate. When approaching

on the R060 towards MN, can the pilot make a procedure turn?
a. A procedure turn is allowed
b. A procedure turn is allowed ONLY with ATC permission
c. A procedure turn is not permitted

6. Referring to the FBSK ILS/DME RWY 08 approach plate, when

approaching on the R080 the pilot may?
a. Do a procedure turn approach
b. Use his discretion
c. Request circle to land

7. Approaching GSV on 100° mag at 12 nm, what is the MSA?

a. 5400 ft
b. 6000 ft
c. 5100 ft

8. An aircraft is flying VFR 000° mag and another aircraft is flying IFR 180°
mag, what is the minimum separation?
a. 500 ft
b. 1000 ft
c. 1500 ft
9. You are flying 174° true, magnetic variation is 10°W, wind is 070/15.
What altitudes are applicable for IFR flight?
a. 180, 240, 280
b. 170, 240, 310
c. 170, 230, 310

10. You are flying 355° true, magnetic variation is 7°W, wind is 290/20. What
altitudes are applicable for IFR flight?
a. 140, 240, 310
b. 130, 230, 310
c. 130, 240, 310

11. You are flying along UT??? Between ETMIR & UTBIN?? (Namibia). What
kind of route are you on?
a. Airway UA202 (upper airway)
b. Advisory route W94F (Information route)
c. Information route A242D (Advisory route)

12. What is the minimum height AGL above a national park?

a. 2000 ft
b. 500 ft
c. 1500 ft

13. The governing authority of a country is responsible for defining minimum

separation in its airspace. The minimum VFR visibility, distance and
height at FL200 in Botswana is?
a. 5 km, 1500 m, 1000 ft
b. 5 km, 1500 ft, 1000 ft
c. 8 km, 1.5 km, 1000 ft

14. When entering a traffic pattern at an uncontrolled aerodrome it is the

pilot’s responsibility to?
a. Make a left hand traffic pattern if other aircraft are observed
doing so
b. Use his discretion
c. Make a right hand traffic patter if aircraft observed doing so

15. Under Instrument Flight Rules the MEA and MOCA provide what
separation within what distance of a Very high frequency Omni-direction
Radio-range beacon?
a. 2000 ft over mountainous terrain within 8 km
b. 2000 ft over mountainous terrain within 7.99 km
c. 1500 ft within 5 km

16. When overtaking an aircraft in a right hand traffic pattern the aircraft
overtaking should pass?
a. To the right of other aircraft
b. To the left of other aircraft
c. Over the other aircraft
17. Referring to the FBSK ILS/DME RWY 08 approach plate, when flying the
missed approach you reach 3.8 nm GSV at 4500 ft. The pilot should?
a. Continue climbing until reaching 4.5 nm GSV and commence a left
hand turn to GSV
b. Turn left towards GSV
c. Level off at 4500 ft and make a level turn to GSV once reaching
4.5 nm GSV

18. The validity of a pilot’s medical is?

a. 6 months PPL above 40
b. 12 months CPL below 40
c. 24 months PPL above 50

19. The transition altitude in Botswana is?

a. 3000 ft
b. 5000 ft
c. 7000 ft

20. A flight folio is required for?

a. All commercially operated aircraft
b. All aircraft
c. No aircraft

21. A turbo prop aircraft under IFR is required to carry what fuel reserves?
a. 2 hours total
b. To fly an instrument approach, execute a missed approach, fly for
45 minutes at normal cruising speed and hold over a fix for 45
mins
c. To fly an instrument approach, execute a missed approach, fly
for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed and hold over a fix
for 30 mins

22. How long must a pilot’s logbook be retained for?

a. 24 weeks
b. 6 months
c. 24 months

23. An approach speed of an aircraft is 120 kts. What approach category is it?
a. Category II
b. Category I
c. Category III

24. In an aircraft in which smoking is permitted, during which stages of the

flight is smoking allowed?
a. All stages
b. After landing
c. Once cruising altitude is reached
25. What items are included on the list of requirements for commercial IFR
operations?
a. Two landing lights with separately energized filaments, anti-
collision, touch, navigation and position lights, flashlight, and
illumination for essential flight instruments
b. Two landing lights with separately energized filaments
c. Two landing lights with separately energized filaments

26. Two aircraft are operating under IFR. Aircraft one is at 170° mag FL290
and aircraft two at 290° mag. What with the separation be if aircraft two
is at the next available flight level?
a. 500 ft
b. 1000 ft
c. 2000 ft

27. If you experience a communication failure under IFR under what

circumstances would it be appropriate to continue?
a. At the point of communications failure ATC had provided a
clearance, vectoring you direct to a fix, route or airway
b. ATC provided a clearance, vectoring you direct to the point of
communications failure
c. ATC provided a clearance and assigned flight level to the point of
communications failure as expected

28. When two aircraft are approaching in the air, which aircraft as the right of
way?
a. The aircraft with the other aircraft in it’s right
b. The aircraft with the other aircraft on it’s left
c. The aircraft traveling faster

29. When two aircraft are approaching an aerodrome, which aircraft has the
right of way?
a. The aircraft at the lower altitude
b. The faster aircraft
c. The larger aircraft

30. Outside controlled airspace what is the maximum speed below FL010?
a. 160 kts
b. 200 kts
c. 250 kts
FIRST ATTEMPT 63%
SECOND ATTEMPT 67% (20/30)

EXAM – Paper 021

1. Blood donation
a. 24 hrs
b. 48 hrs
c. 72 hrs

2. Alcohol consumption
a. 6 hrs
b. 8 hrs
c. 10 hrs

3. Supplementary oxygen –
a. Not required above 10,000ft in VMC
b. Not required above 10,000ft if no pax on board
c. Can fly between 10,000ft and 13,000ft for periods longer than
120 minutes if supplementary oxygen is carried

4. Maximum take off mass is not allowed to exceed limits in order for transit
operations
a. Takeoff roll must not be longer than the length of the runway
b. Takeoff roll must be longer than the length of the runway
c. Takeoff roll must be longer than the width of the runway

5. ATSU must be informed if TAS and ETA changes exceed (3 questions in

exam)
a. 5% TAS or +/- 3 minutes

6. Notify ATC change of ETA

a. +/- 3 minutes

7. Notify ATC change in speed

a. 5%

8. The final approach segment is defined as:

a. Where the path is intercepted and decent down to threshold
b. Between the middle marker and the runway
c. When descent is initiated

9. Final approach starts when –

a. After the FAF
b. Once overhead the beacon
c. When descent is initiated
10. Flying over a crowed of people –
a. 2000ft
b. In an emergency can glide safely away from people
c. 1000ft

11. When must crew members wear seatbelts –

a. …
b. Take off landing and emergencies
c. Take off landing and whenever seated at station

12. Transition altitude at aerodrome in VMC, where no transitional altitude

has been published –
a. 3000ft (CAAB transition altitude is 7000ft but not an option)
check
b. 2000ft – SACAA law, Transition Alt, uncontrolled aerodrome
c. 1000ft

13. VFR minima in control zone (A&B correct SACAA law, point out to
examiner! will give extra mark)
a. 2000ft horizontally, 500ft vertically, 5km vis
b. 2000ft horizontally, 500ft vertically, 5km vis
c. 5000ft horizontally, 1000ft vertically,

14. Minimum IFR terrain clearance

a. 1000ft within 8km
b. 2000ft within 8km
c. 3000ft within 8km

15. IFR minimum cruising altitude at night, 10nm either side of track
a. 1000ft (SACAA law)
b. 2000ft
c. 3000ft

16. Max speed below FL100

a. 250kts

17. Max speed reciprocating engine within CTR

a. 160kts

18. IFR currency requirements within 6 months

a. 3 approaches
b. 6 approaches
c. 10 approaches

19. Two aircraft taxiing head on

a. Alter course to the right
20. Semicircular rule must be adhered to above what altitude
a. 2000ft (CAAB law: 3000ft but not an option)
b. 1500ft
c. 1000ft (SACAA law)

21. At stops when pax remain on board an aircraft

a. Shut down engines
b. One floor level emergency exit must be open
c. Engine remain running

22. Category of an aircraft

a. Single engine
b. Single engine land
c. Glider

23. SAR flight plan, controlled to controlled

a. SAR/NIL
b. SAR/NML
c. SAR not required

24. Flight plans must be filed:

a. All flights maun to maun don’t file except more than 1hour
then you file
b. International flights
c. Not required

25. Colour of runway markings

a. Yellow
b. White
c. Blue

26. Change from IFR plan to VFR flight plan:

a. Notify ATC request to change from IFR to VFR
b. Automatically when encountering VMC
c. No need to notify ATC

27. What is the missed approach point … RWY 08

a. 0.2 DME
b. THR 08
c. 2 DME

28. ALL OTHER QUESTIONS STRAIGHT FORWARD AND EASY, SEE EXAM
PAPER 020
CREW MEMBER OXYGEN SUPPLY
53. (1) A pilot-in-command shall not commence a flight to be operated at flight
altitudes at which the atmospheric pressure in personnel compartments is less
than 700 hPa unless sufficient stored breathing oxygen is carried to supply —

. (a)  all crew members and percent of the passengers for any period in excess
of 30 minutes that the pressure in compartments occupied by the crew
members and the passengers is between 700 hPa and 620 hPa; and

. (b)  the crew and passengers for any period that the atmospheric pressure in
compartments occupied by the crew members and the passengers is less
than 620 hPa.

(2) A pilot-in-command shall not commence a flight to be operated with a

pressurised aircraft unless a sufficient quantity of stored breathing oxygen is
carried to supply the crew, as is appropriate to the circumstances of the flight
being undertaken, in the event of loss of pressurisation, for any period that the
atmospheric pressure in any compartment occupied by such crew members and
passengers is less than 700 hPa.

(3) A pilot-in-command shall ensure that there is, at least, a 10 minute supply
of oxygen for the occupants of the passenger compartment, when an aircraft is
operated at flight altitudes at which the atmospheric pressure is less than 376
hPa, or which, if operated at flight altitudes at which the atmospheric pressure
is more than 376 hPa and cannot descend safely within four minutes to a flight
altitude at which the atmospheric pressure is equal to 620 hPa.

(4) A pilot-in-command shall ensure that the minimum supply of oxygen on

board an aircraft is not less than that prescribed by the Authority under the
Civil Aviation (Equipment and Instrument) Regulations.