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FM II Assignment 17 Solution 19

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Lahore School of Economics

Financial Management II
Capital Structure and Leverage – 3
Assignment 17 Solution
Problems for Assignment
Q1) a. WACC = wdrd(1 – T) + wcrs
= (0.2)(8%)(1 – 0.4) + (0.8)(12.5%)
= 10.96%.

b. The firm's current levered beta at 20% debt can be found using the CAPM formula.
rs = rRF + (rM – rRF)b
12.5% = 5% + (6%)b
b = 1.25.

c. Using Hamada equation’s:


bL = bU[1 + (1 – T)(D/E)]
1.25 = bU[1 + (1 – 0.4)(0.2/0.8)]
1.25 = bU(1.15)
bU = 1.086957.

d. bL,40% = bU[1 + (1 – T)(D/E)]


bL,40%= 1.086957 [1 + (1 – 0.4)(0.4/0.6)]
bL,40% = 1.086957(1.4)
bL,40% = 1.521739.

The firm's cost of equity is derived using the CAPM equation.


rs = rRF + (rM – rRF)b
rs = 5% + (6%)1.521739
rs = 14.13%.

e. The relevant before-tax cost of debt is now 9.5% and the cost of equity is 14.13%.
WACC = wdrd(1 – T) + wcrs
= (0.4)(9.5%)(1 – 0.4) + (0.6)(14.13%)
= 10.76%.

f. The firm should be advised to proceed with the recapitalization as it causes the WACC to decrease
from 10.96% to 10.76%. As a result, the recapitalization would lead to an increase in firm value.

Q2) Without new investment:


Sales $12,960,000
VC 10,200,000
FC 1,560,000
EBIT $ 1,200,000
Interest 384,000*
EBT $ 816,000
Tax (40%) 326,400
Net income $ 489,600

*Interest = 0.08($4,800,000) = $384,000.

EPSOld = $489,600/240,000 = $2.04.


With new investment:
Debt Stock
Sales $12,960,000 $12,960,000
VC (0.8)($10,200,000) 8,160,000 8,160,000
FC 1,800,000 1,800,000
EBIT $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000
Interest 1,104,000** 384,000
EBT $ 1,896,000 $ 2,616,000
Tax (40%) 758,400 1,046,400
Net income $ 1,137,600 $ 1,569,600

**Interest = 0.08($4,800,000) + 0.10($7,200,000) = $1,104,000.

EPSD = $1,137,600/240,000 = $4.74.

EPSS = $1,569,600/480,000 = $3.27.

EPS should improve, but expected EPS is significantly higher if financial leverage is used.

Examples
Q1) a) Market value of equity = Market price of share x Number of shares outstanding
= $2 x 190,000
= $380,000
Debt = $95,000
Total Assets = 95,000 + 380,000 = $475,000

 wd = 95000/475000 = 0.2 ws = 380000/475000 = 0.8

rs = Rrf + RPM*b
= 5% + 6%*1.2
= 12.2%

WACC = wdrd(1 – T) + wsrs


= (0.2)(8.5%)(1 – 0.4) + (0.8)(12.2%)
= 10.78%.

b) WACC will change after recapitalization due to change in weights as well as cost of capital.

Increase in debt = $95,000


New debt level = 95000 + 95000 = $190,000

Decrease in equity = $95,000


New equity level = 380,000 – 95000 = $285,000

Number of shares repurchased = Decrease in equity/Price of share = 95000/2 = 47,500


New number of shares outstanding = 190,000 – 47,500 = 142,500

New wd = 190000/475000 = 0.4 new ws = 285000/475000 = 0.6

New rd = 10%
To calculate new rs, the new levered beta is needed.
To calculate the new levered beta, the unlevered beta has to be calculated first at existing D/E using Hamada’s
equation.

bL = bU[1 + (1 – T)(D/E)]
1.2 = bU[1 + (1 – 0.4)(95000/380000)]
1.2 = bU(1.15)
bU = 1.04347.

The new levered beta now is:


bL = bU[1 + (1 – T)(D/E)]
bL = 1.04347 [1 + (1 – 0.4)(190000/285000)]
bL = 1.46086.

The firm's cost of equity is derived using the CAPM equation.


rs = rRF + (rM – rRF)b
rs = 5% + (6%)1.46086
rs = 13.765%.

WACC = wdrd(1 – T) + wsrs


= (0.4)(10%)(1 – 0.4) + (0.6)(13.765%)
= 10.659%.

c) The market price of the share will also change after recapitalization.
As growth rate is 0%, EPS = D1

EPS = (EBIT – rd*Debt level)(1 – T)


Number of shares
= (89000 – 0.1*190000)(1 – 0.4)
142,500
= $0.2947 per share

Therefore, D1 = EPS = $0.2947


P0 = D1/rs = 0.2947/.13765 = $2.14

Q2) From the Hamada equation, b = bU[1 + (1 – T)(D/E)], we can calculate bU as bU = b/[1 + (1 – T)(D/E)].

bU = 1.2/[1 + (1 – 0.4)($2,000,000/$8,000,000)]
bU = 1.2/[1 + 0.15]
bU = 1.0435.

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