A Synthesis of The Theory of Corporate Finance: Iwedi Marshal
A Synthesis of The Theory of Corporate Finance: Iwedi Marshal
A Synthesis of The Theory of Corporate Finance: Iwedi Marshal
Introduction
Over the years, the field of finance has remained dynamic and has received considerable
attention from academic researchers keen on understanding issues likes:
How do individuals and society allocate scare resources?
How do people make choices?
How should capital budgeting decision be made?
What dividend policy should the firm follow?
How efficiently does capital market function?
What is the cost of capital? How is it affected by project risk? and by project debt
capacity?
How should financial assets be valued?
It is on this basis this synthesis is carried out to proffer answers to this questions thereby
reviewing some equations, graphs, theories and models relating to corporate finance and
it implication for corporate survival.
C1
C1a A
C1b B
Co
C0a C0b
Marginal rate
of return
r1 B
C
Investment
The above shows a situation where productive opportunities abound, which allows a unit
of current savings/investment to be turned into more than one unit of future consumption.
At any given point an individual will make all investments which have rate of return
higher than his subjective rate of time preference.
C1
C B
1
1
Y1 A
C0 Y0 C0
C1
MRS = MRT = - (1+r1)
Individual 2
Y1
Individual 1
Co
Y0
Fig. 4 Equilibrium in a Robinson Crusoe World
Individual 1 consumes more than individual 2 in period one since no capital market,
individuals with the same endowment and the same investment opportunity set may
choose completely differed investments because they have different indifference curve.
C1
W1
*B
A U2
*
U1
Co
W0
Fig. 5 Capital market line
With capital market, an individual can move from A to B, reaching a higher utility. On
the capital market line, one’s wealth does not change but consumption differs. The slope
of the capital market line is given as:
C1*
W0 C 0* - - - - - - - (3)
1 r
Equation 3 can be rewritten to give the CML equation as
C1* W0 1 r 1 r C0* - - - - - - (4)
C1 POF
W1*
W1
P1
B*
C1 * *C
D* CML
Y1 *
A
P 0 C0 * Co
Y0 W0 W0*
Fig. 6 Joint effect of Production/Investment and Capital Market
Both POF and CML offer a high rate of return than his subjection time preference, but
production offers higher return, therefore, an agent chooses to invest and move along the
production frontier.
C1
W1
Individual 2
*
X
P1 B
Individual 1
Y
Co
P0 W0
Fig.7 Investment Decision is Independent of Individual Preferences
2. Investment Decisions
A. Under the Certainty Assumption:
The following assumptions are made:
The interest rate is known in all time periods
All future payoffs from current investment decision are know
There are no imperfections to capital markets.
C1
W1
Individual 1
P1
Individual 2
Co
P0 W0
Fig. 8 Separation of Shareholder Preferences from the Production Investment Decision
In the graph, P0, P1 maximizes the present value of the shareholders wealth Wo. The
separation principle implies that the maximization of the shareholders wealth is identical
to maximizing the present value of their life time consumption. Mathematically, this is
demonstrated as
C1
W0 C 0 (6)
1 r
C. Definition of Profit
To an economist profits mean cash flow. In making decision, the profits to be used are
the discounted stream of cash flows to shareholders (dividend) =
Dt = Rt – (W&S)t – It (9)
We can rewrite shareholders wealth as
Rt W & S t I t
S=
t 0 1 k t
(10)
Since At is different from Dt, it can be adjusted by subtracting net investment. This is
done in eq (12)
Rt W & S t Z t I 1 Z t
S=
t 0 1 k t
At N t
= 1 k
t 0
t
(12)
n
EBIT t 1 T / n
ARR
t 1
(15)
I 0 I n / 2
4. Internal Rate of Return (IRR): It is the rate which equates the present value of
the cash flows and inflows.
N
NCFt
NPV = 0 = 1 IRR
t 1
t
I0 (17)
5. Profitability Index (PI): This is the ratio of the present value of the cash flows to
the initial outlay. Mathematically we have
PV of annual cashflows
PI =
Initial investment
N
NCFt
PI = 1 k
t 1
t
(18)
I0
Firms are always concerned about the impact of inflation on the project’s profitability.
The capital budgeting results will be biased if the impact of inflation is not correctly
factored in the analysis. Since the opportunity cost of capital or the discount rate is a
combination of the real rate (say K) and the expected inflation rate (call it alpha ). This
relationship, long ago recognized in the financial economic theory is called the Fisher’s
Effect. It may be stated as follows.
Nominal discount rate = (1 + Real discount rate) x (1+ inflation rate) – 1
K 1 K 1 1 (19)
The NPV formula can be written as follows when cash flows and discount rates are
expressed in normal terms.
NCFt 1
n t
NPV = 1 k 1
t 1
t t
I0 (20)
1
Where PVFA =
1 K n
AEV for perpetuities
When we assume that projects can be replicated at constant scale indefinitely, we imply
that an annuity is paid at the end of every n years starting from the first period. This can
be written as
NPV n NPV n
NPV NPV n ..... (22)
1 k n
1 k 2n
Solving this series, we get
1 k n
NPV NPV n (23)
1 k 1
n
Where
NPV is the present value of the investment indefinitely
NOTE: The procedure of comparing AEVs can be followed while replacing an existing asset by new asset.
The NPV rule also proves handy in resolving the timing problem of an investment.
C. Capital Rationing
Capital rationing occurs because of either the external or internal constrain on the supply
of funds. In capital rationing situation, the firm cannot accept all profitable projects.
Therefore, the firm will aim at maximizing NPV subject to the funds constraint.
In simple one-period capital rationing situations, the profitability index (PI) rule
can be used. PI rule breaks in the case of multi-period funds constraints and
project indivisibility. The PI under capital rationing situation is as
n
Ct
1 K
t 1
t
PI = (24)
I0
i.e. the ratio of the present value of cashflows to the initial outlay.
A more sophisticated approach either linear programming or integer programming
can be used to select investment under capital rationing. However, two factors
limit the use of these approaches in practice. First, they are costly and second they
assume investment opportunities as known.
between U and a second gamble, this time between X (with probability 2 ) and Z,
then if 1 is greater than 2 , Y is preferred to U. If X>Y>Z and X>U, then if Y-
G(X, Z: 1 ) and U-G (X, Z: 2 ), it follows that if 1 > 2 then Y >U or if 1 = 2
then Y-U.
However, given the five axioms of rational investor behavior and the additional
assumption that all investors always prefer more wealth to less, we can say that investors
will always seek to maximize their expected utility of wealth.
In general, we can express the expected utility of wealth as
U(w) U(w)
U(b) U(b)
U(a)
U(a)
w w
a b a b
Fig 9 Risk lover Fig10 Risk Neutral
U(w)
U(b)
U(a)
a w
b
E X
N
P X
i 1
i i (26)
VAR X E X 1 E X
2
(29a)
Recalling the definition of the mean as the sum of the probabilities of events times the
value of the events the variance can be rewritten as
VAR X P X E X
N
2
i i (29b)
i 1
The standard deviation which is the square root of the variance, is often used to
express dispersion and his given as
P VAR P (30)
Cov X , Y E X EX Y EY
D. The Correlation Coefficient
The correlation rxy, between two random variables is defined as the covariance divided by
the product of the standard deviations.
CoV X , Y
Vx, y (33)
x y
This graph shows independent returns of two assets. A situation where the covariance is
zero, the correlation between them is also zero.
An opposite situation occurs when the returns are perfectly correlated. Here the
returns of the assets fall on a strength line, perfect correlation will result in a correlation
coefficient which is equal to 1
6. Market Equilibrium
Means Variance Uncertainty and Asset Valuation
In order to determine the market price for risk and the appropriate measure of risk for a
single asset, the economic model of the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) is used to
solve this problem.
Recall that the slope of the capital market line is
E Rm R f
(34)
m
Equating this with the slope of the opportunity set we have
E Rm R f E Ri E Rm
(35)
m
im m2 / 6m
This relationship can be rearranged to solve for E(R1) as follows:
E Ri R f E Rm R f i (36)
Equation 7.3 is known as the capital asset pricing model and it is shown graphically
below
E(Ri)
SML
E(Rm)
Rf
im
Pm i
m2
Note: The required rate of return on any asset, E(Ri) in eq. 36 is equal to the risk-free rate of return plus a
risk premium. The risk premium is the price of risk multiplied by the quantity of risk. In CAPM, the price of
the risk is the slope of the line, the difference between the expected rate of return on the market portfolio
and the risk-free rate of return. The quantity of risk is often called beta, i it is the covariance.
im CoV Ri , Rm
i (37)
m2 VAR R m
Between returns on the risky asset; I, and market portfolio, M divided by the variance of
the market portfolio. The risk-free asset has a beta of zero because its covariance with the
market of portfolio is zero. The market portfolio has a beta of one because the covariance
of the market portfolio with itself is identical to the variance of the market portfolio:
E Rm R f
Where
VAR Rm
Note that can be described as the market price per unit risk. We can equate the
expected return Eq. (39) with the expected return in Eq (40):
E Pe Po
R f CoV R j Rm (41)
Po
We can now interpret Po as the equilibrium price of the risk asset. Rearranging the above
expression, we get
E Pe
Po (42)
1 R f CoV R j , Rm
Equation (42) is often referred to as the risk-adjusted rate of return valuation formula.
The numerator is the expected end of period price for the risky asset and the denominator
can be thought of as a discount rate.
The certainty – equivalent valuation formula is given
Po
E Pe CoV Pe , , Rm (43)
1 Rf
Note: That the risk-adjusted rate of return and the certainty equivalent approaches are equivalent for one-
period valuation models.
If it is possible to estimate the systematic risk of a company’s equity as well ask the
market rate of return then E(Rj) is the required rate of return on equity i.e. the cost of
equity for the firm. If we designate the cost of equity as Ke then
E(Rj) = Ke (45)
Graphically it is represented as
E R
E K k
Rk *K
K E R j
L
Rf
j k
The expected rate of return on project K is higher than the cost of equity for the firm. But
the project also is riskier than the firm because it has greater systematic risk.
E R p
E(Rm) M
*
E(Rz) B A
* *
m R p
The above graph shows the capital market line with no risk-free rate. Portfolio M is
identified by all investors as the market portfolio which has on the efficient set. Portfolio
A and B are both uncorrelated with the market portfolio M and have the same expected
return, E(Rz). However, only one of them, portfolio B lies in the opportunity set.
Pj , t 1 E Pj t 1 / nt
=
Pj t
Where:
Pjt + 1 = the actual price of security j next period
E(Pjt + 1/nt) = the predicted end-of-period price of security j givens the current
information structure.
Ej, t+1 = the difference between actual and predicted returns
Note that equation 46 is written in returns form. If we let the one-period return be defined
as
Pj , t 1 Pjt
r j , t 1 (47)
Pjt
The martingale model is also a fair game, however, with a martingale tomorrows price is
expected to be the same as today’s price. Mathematically, this is
E Pj t , 1 / nt Pj t (51)
The random walk model says that there is no difference between the distribution of
returns conditional on a given information structure and the unconditional distribution of
returns.
f Plt ,......... .. Pnt / ntm 1 f Plt ,......... .. Pnt / nt 1 (53)
Equation 53 is a random walk in prices while equation 54 is a random walk in returns:
Random walks are much stronger conditions than fair games or martingales because they
require all the parameter of a distribution (like the mean, variance, skewness and
kurtosis) to be same (identical) if returns follow a random walk, then the mean of the
underlying distribution does not charge over time, and a fair game will result.
A. Relevance Theory
The proponents of these theories are Professor J.E. Walter called the Walters model and
Myron Gordon with the popular Gordon’s dividend-capitalization model.
Dividend Relevance Assumption
All-equity firm
No external financing
Constant return and cost of capital
100 percent payout or retention
Walter’s model to determine the market price per share is given below.
DIV ( EPS DIV ) / K
P r (55)
K K
Equation 55 shows that the market price per share is the sum of the present value of two
sources of income:
The present value of the infinite stream of constant dividends, DIV and
K
The present value of the infinite stream of capital gains, r ( EPS DIV ) / K / K
This equation (55) can be rewritten as follows:
DIV (r / K )(EPS DIV )
P (56)
K
Gordon’s Model
According to his model, the market value of a share is equal to the present value of an
infinite stream of dividends received by shareholders which is given as:
DIV1 DIV 2 DIV DIVt
P0
(1 K ) (1 K ) 2
......
(1 K )
t 1 1 K )
t
(57)
Note: That the dividend per share is expected to grow when earnings are retained. Hence when we
incorporate growth in earnings dividends, resulting from the retained earnings in the model, the present
value of a share is determined as follows:
DIV (1 g ) t
P0 (58)
t 1 (1 K ) t
When equation (58) is solve it becomes
DIV1
P0 (59)
kg
Substituting Eps1 (1-b) or DIV1 and br for g, equation 59 can be rewritten as:
EPS1 (1 b)
P0 (60)
k br
Equation 60 is particularly useful for studying the effects of dividend policy on the value
of the share.
If r k then r 1 and from eq (63) it follows that P0 is smaller than the firms
k
investment per share in assets A.
DIV1 P1 DIV1 P1
P0 (65)
(1 r ) (1 K )
Where P0 = is the market price per share at time 0
P1 = is the market price per share at time 1
DIV1= is the dividend per share at time 1
Since r = k in the assumed world of certainty and perfect markets. Both sides of equation
H can be multiplied by the number of shares outstanding, n, we obtain the total value of
firms if no new financing exist.
n( DIV1 P1 )
V nP0 (66)
(1 K )
Thus, there does not seem to be a consensus on whether dividend matter or not. In
practice, a number of factors will have to be considered before deciding about the
appropriate dividend policy of the firm.
No 1
Kc (70)
Vf
The firm’s overall cost of capital is the weighted average cost of capital (WACC).
Alternately it can be calculated as;
WACC = cost of equity x equity weight cost of debt x debt weight
VE VD
K C Ke Kd (71)
Vf Vf
Rearranging equation (5), we get
V V
WACC K C Ke 1 D Kd D
V Vf
f
V
WACC K C Ke ( Ke Kd ) D (72)
Vf
No 1
V f V1 Vu (73)
Ka
In the case of debt-equity firm, WACC = k0 or K1 thus
NOI
K 0 K1 (74)
VI
While the unlevered firm’s WACC or Ku we have
NOI
Ku (75)
Vu
The MM Hypothesis under Corporate Taxes:
In reality, corporate income taxes exist and interest paid to debt-holder is treated as a
deductible expenses. Thus, interest payable by firms save taxes. This makes debt
financing advantageous.
Interest tax shield = Corporate Tax rate x Interest
INTS = T x INT = T x KdD (76)
P
C
Value of
put option
Value of on
X
call option expiration
on date
expiration
date
C=0 P=0 S
C=0 S X
X Stock price on expiration date
Stock price on expiration date
D=B
B
E=0 B V
B V Fig. 19 Value of firm on
Fig. 18 Value of firm on maturity date maturity date
But, since the value of the firm is the sum of the value of the equity and the value of the
debt which is given as
V=E+D
11. Agency Theory and Analysis
Agency relationship is a contract in which one or more persons (the principals) engage
another person (the agent) to take action on behalf of the principal(s) which involves the
delegation of some decision-making authority to the agent.
C. Agency Cost
Jensen and Meckling (1976) defined agency costs as the sum of the out-of-pocket
costs of structuring, administering and enforcing contracts (both formal and
informal) plus the residual loss.
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