Nursing Test Series - 11S: Dr. SANJAY 7014964651

NURSING TEST SERIES – 11s
Dr. SANJAY 7014964651
Assessment of Newborn
1. Hirschsprung’s disease is most commonly associated with

a) Pyloric stenosis
b) Down syndrome
c) tuberculosis
d) Turner syndrome
2. Pentavalent vaccine or 5 in 1 vaccine provides protection against
a) Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Hepatitis-B, Influenza
b) Polio, Tuberculosis, Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus
c) Measles, Mumps, Rubella, TB, Polio
d) Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Polio, Measles
3. Who is the father of pediatrics?
a) Abraham Jacobi
b) Hippocrates
c) Marion
d) Lillian weld
4. What is the age of Early neonate period?
a) 0 – 8 days
b) 0 – 12 days
c) 0 – 7 days
d) 0 – 28 days
5. frozen DPT vaccine should be
a) can be used later
b) discard it
c) we can use, after normal temperature of it
d) Immersed in hot water
6. A preterm baby is a baby born before how many weeks of
gestation?
a) 40 weeks
b) 32 weeks
c) 42 weeks
d) 37 weeks
7. Normally the umbilical cord contains how many arteries and how
many veins?
a) 1 vein and 2 arteries
b) 1 vein and 1 artery
c) 2 arteries and 2 vein
d) 1 artery and 2 veins
8. The lifespan of RBC’S in neonates is:
a) 120 days
b) 20 days
c) 120 – 180 days
d) 60 – 80 days
9. Which drug is administered at birth to prevent the potential
problem of abnormal bleeding?
a) Inj. Tranexamic acid
b) Inj. Vitamin K
c) inj. Streptokinase
d) Inj. Ethamsylate
10. A communicable disease included in six killer disease is:
a) Chicken pox
b) Typhoid
c) tuberculosis
d) hepatitis
11. Measles vaccine is given at the age of
a) 10 weeks
b) 9 months
c) 16 – 24 months
d) 14 weeks
12. What is the meaning of infant - a baby of age group?
a) 0 – 28 days
b) 0 – 3 months
c) 0 – 7 days
d) 0 – 1 year
13. Recommended daily intake of vitamin B12 in an infant is?
a) 1 mcg
b) 2 mcg
c) 0.8 mcg
d) 0.2 mcg
14. Vitamin B2 is also known as:
a) Riboflavin
b) Biotin
c) Niacin
d) Thiamine
15. Average blood pressure in a term baby is around
a) 60/40 mmHg
b) 80/50 mmHg
c) 100/50 mmHg
d) 40/20 mmHg
16. The average head circumference is between
a) 33 – 35 cm
b) 32 – 36 cm
c) 33 – 35.5 cm
d) 32 – 35 cm
17. Down syndrome is also known as:
a) trisomy 21 syndrome
b) Mongolism
c) Trisomy G
d) Cretinism
18. Protruding abdomen and tongue, short and broad feet and hands
are the symptoms of
a) Down syndrome
b) Cerebral palsy
c) Meningitis
d) Scurvy
19. Etiological factor for down syndrome is
a) unhygienic condition
b) mother above 35 years of age
c) mother above 25 years of age
d) poor intake of vitamin C
20. Electro- encephalography is performed for assessing?
a) Heart problem
b) Neurological problem
c) respiratory problem
d) Digestive problem
21. Causes of Cerebral Palsy includes
a) Brain injury
b) Brain anoxia
c) Immaturity at birth
d) all the above
22. Most common type of Cerebral Palsy is?
a) Spastic Cerebral Palsy
b) Dyskinetic Cerebral palsy
c) Ataxia cerebral palsy
d) Mixed type
23. Phimosis is characterized by:
a) Absence of penis
b) condition when site of urethral meatus is on penile ventral
surface
c) condition when site of urethral meatus is on penile dorsal
surface
d) condition in which the foreskin is narrowed & can not be
retracted over glans
24. Treatment of Phimosis include:
a) Antibiotic therapy
b) anti-inflammatory drugs
c) Incision of the foreskin of the glans penis
d) Removal of glans
25. Complications of undescended testes includes:
a) Atrophy of testes
b) Sterility
c) Strangulated hernia
d) All the above
26. Wilms tumor is the tumor of
a) Lungs
b) Brain
c) Kidney
d) Intestine
27. What do you mean by orchidoplexy:
a) Mobilization of testes into the scrotum
b) Removal of testes
Inflammation of testes
Removal of Ovary
28. Management of nephrotic syndrome include except
a) Low sodium & high protein diet

b) complete bed rest
c) high sodium & low protein diet
d) care of oedematous skin
29. Causes of iron deficiency anaemia include except
a) Inadequate intake iron
b) Lack of absorption of iron
c) blood loss
d) poor intake of cow’s milk in diet
30. Manifestation of iron deficiency anemia include
a) pale skin and conjunctiva
b) fatigue
c) growth retardation of child
d) all the above
31. which vitamin is essential for normal vision
a) Vitamin C
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin A
d) Vitamin B3
32. Chest indrawing, nasal flaring & granting are the features of
a) Pneumonia
b) Pertussis
c) Mumps
d) Chicken pox
33. Which of the following suggest problem with hematological
system
a) Jaundice
b) Asthma
c) Renal Calculi
d) none of these
34. Which drug is given to prevent HIV Transmission from mother to
child
a) Nevirapine
b) Lamivudine
c) stavudine
d) Abacavir
Unit 3: Kangaroo Mother Care
1. Kangaroo mother care is a way of protecting the baby from:

a) hypoglycemia
b) hyperglycemia
c) hyperthermia
d) hypothermia
2. Components of KMC include:
a) Skin to Skin contact
b) exclusive breast feeding
c) Thermoregulation
d) both (a) & (b)
3. During KMC baby should be placed in position:
a) frog like
b) kangaroo like
c) both (a) & (b)
d) none of the above
4. When mother is not available who can provide KMC:
a) father
b) grandmother
c) other relatives
d) all the above
5. At home the mother can sleep with baby in which position during
KMC?
a) Reclined
b) Prone
c) Fowler’s
d) Supine
6. Standard criteria of the unit for transferring baby from the
nursery to the postnatal ward should be
a) Stable baby
b) Gaining weight
c) mother confident to look after the baby
d) all the above
7. KMC can be provided in following scenarios except when
a) baby on OG Tube
b) baby receiving IV fluids
c) baby is on ventilator
d) baby receiving free flow oxygen
8. Mother should practice KMC at least for _______ in one sitting
a) 1 hour
b) half an hour
c) 2 hour
d) 5 hour
9. benefits of breastfeeding to mother include
a) helps in involution of uterus
b) delays pregnancy
c) decreases mother’s workload
d) all the above
10. Kangaroo care is useful for the treatment of
a) Seizures
b) Hypothermia
c) enuresis
d) abdominal pain
Unit 4: Infant and Young Child Feeding and
Counselling
1. What is the full form of IMNCI?

a) International management of newborn and childhood
illness
b) Indian maintenance of newborn and childhood illness
c) Integrated management of newborn and childhood
illness
d) Incorporated management of neonatal and childhood
illness
2. What is the main purpose of baby friendly Hospital initiative?

a) Immunize all the babies
b) to provide adequate medicine
c) to improve breast feeding practices
d) to provide family planning services
3. Milk ejection occurs due to hormone:
a) Prolactin
b) Estrogen
c) vasopressin
d) oxytocin
4. Milk ejection reflex is also known as:
a) letdown reflex
b) Moro reflex
c) Oxytocin reflex
d) both (a) & (c)
5. The milk is secreted during the first week after delivery is called
a) Foremilk
b) Colostrum
c) mature milk
d) transitional milk
6. which is not key sign of good attachment of baby during
breastfeeding:
a) more areola is visible above
b) baby’s mouth is wide open
c) baby’s chin is touching the breast
d) baby’s lower lip is turned inward
7. The causes of poor attachment may be due to
a) use of feeding bottles
b) Inexperienced mothers
c) Inverted nipples
d) all the above
8. The time interval between each breastfeed should be about
a) 1 to 2 hour
b) 2 to 3 hour
c) 2 to 4 hour
d) 1 to 3 hour
9. The mother should provide breastfeed to their babies at
least _____ in 24 hours a) 6 – 8 times
b) 6 – 10 times
c) 8 – 10 times
d) 8 – 12 times
10. Breastfeeding is considered adequate if infant
a) passes urine 6 – 8 times in 24 hours
b) sleeps for 2 – 3 hours after feeding
c) gains weight adequately
d) all the above
11. Which among the following activity is compromised in a
newborn baby with cleft lip?
a) Sucking
b) Swallowing
c) Respiration
d) Facial expression
12. Parents are adviced to start supplementary feeding at
a) 5 month
b) 6 month
c) 3 month
d) 8 month
13. IYCF Practices includes
a) early initiation of breast feeding
b) feeding colostrum & don’t discard it
c) continued breastfeeding for 2 years or beyond
d) all the above
14. Causes of sore nipple include
a) Incorrect attachment of baby to breast
b) Frequent washing with soap & water
c) Fungal infection of the nipple
d) all the above
Unit 5: Promoting and Monitoring Growth and Development

and Use of Growth Chart
1. When is a toddler expected to start running

a) 9 months
b) 7 months
c) 18 months
d) 15 months
2. At which age a child starts to walk upstairs:
a) 10 months
b) 15 months
c) 36 months
d) 24 months
3. At which age can a child say a few disyllables like mama, baba
etc.
a) 6 month
b) 9 month
c) 4 month
d) 12 month
4. Which age group identified illness as a punishment for misdeeds?
a) Infant
b) Toddler
c) Preschool
d) School going
5. Which developmental task is associated with middle childhood,
according to Erikson’s growth and development theory?
a) Trust
b) Initiative
c) Independence
d) Industry
6. Which play activity is best suited to the gross motor skills of the
toddler?
a) Coloring book & crayons
b) Ball
c) Building cubes
d) Swing set
7. Which of the developmental milestone puts the 4 months old
infant at greatest risk for injury?
a) Switching objects from one hand to another
b) Crawling
c) Standing
d) Rolling over
8. The nurse notes a swelling on the neonate’s scalp that crosses the
suture line. What is this assessment finding?
a) Cephal hematoma
b) Caput succedaneum
c) hemorrhage edema
d) Perinatal caput
9. What is the use of administration of Denver developmental
screening test (DDST) to five months old infant?
a) to assess the intelligent quotient
b) to assess the emotional development

c) to assess the social & physical activities
d) to assess the pre- disposition to genetic illness
10. A nurse is providing instruction to a new mother regarding the
psychosocial development of the newborn infant. Using
Erikson’s psychosocial development theory, the nurse would
instruct the mother to:
a) Allow the newborn infant to signal a need
b) Anticipate all of the needs of the newborn infant

c) Avoid the newborn infant during the first 10 minutes of crying
d) attend to the newborn infant immediately when crying.
11. Which age group has the greatest potential to demonstrate
regression when they are sick?
a) Adolescent
b) young adult
c) Toddler
d) Infant
12. Average weight of normal newborn at birth
a) 2 – 3 kg
b) 2.5 – 3.5 kg
c) 2.5 – 4.5 kg
d) 2 – 4 kg
13. Average length of normal children at age 1 year
a) 50 cm
b) 25 cm
c) 75 cm
d) 100 cm
14. Average MUAC of normal children at age 4 years
a) 10 cm
b) 12 cm
c) 14 cm
d) 16 cm
15. Uses of growth curve are:
a) growth monitoring tool
b) to detect high risk child
c) educational tool for mothers
d) all the above
16. On growth chart, there are 3 printed growth curves. These are
called as
a) Reference lines
b) Z score lines
c) both (a) & (b)
d) none of the above
17. When can a baby can sit unsupported
a) 3 – 6 month
b) 6 – 9 month
c) 9 – 12 month
d) 9 – 18 month
18. Motor skill milestone of age between 2 – 3 years’ children are
a) walks downstairs alternating feet
b) picks up toys from floor without falling
c) sits down from standing
d) creeping rapidly
19. Socio emotional milestone of age between 5 – 6 years’ children
are
a) Chooses own friends
b) plays simple table games
c) play competitive games
d) all the above
20. The measurements used to measure growth & development are:
a) eruption of teeth
b) mid upper arm circumference
c) weight & height
d) all the above
21. In growth chart, a curve deviating downwards indicates
a) normal situation
b) very dangerous situation
c) Improving situation
d) dangerous situation

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NURSING TEST SERIES – 11s

Dr. SANJAY 7014964651

1. Hirschsprung’s disease is most commonly associated with

a) Low sodium & high protein diet

1. Kangaroo mother care is a way of protecting the baby from:

1. What is the full form of IMNCI?

2. What is the main purpose of baby friendly Hospital initiative?

Unit 5: Promoting and Monitoring Growth and Development

1. When is a toddler expected to start running

b) to assess the emotional development

b) Anticipate all of the needs of the newborn infant

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