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MATH:- Now substituting x = 0 in both the

1. a equations and equating them yields
The key here is a simple manipulation 2y (3) y + 6y (2) y(1) = 0.
and application of the Leibniz rule. 4. b
Rewriting the given function as Assume y = f(x) and we also know that
y(1 + x2) = sin(x)…….(1) tan(x)=sin(x)cos(x)
The Leibniz rule for two functions is Rewriting the function as
given by y(cos(x))=sin(x)
(uv)(n)=cn0u(v)(n)+cn1u(1)(v)(n−1)+…. Now differentiating on both sides upto
+cnnu(n)v nnt derivative we have
Differentiating expression (1) in (y(cos(x))(n)=cn0y(n)cos(x)−cn1y(n−1)s
accordance to Leibniz rule (upto the in(x)+….+(cos(x))(n)y
hundredth derivative) we have Now observe that y(0)=tan(0)=0….(1)
(y(1+x2))(100) = c1000y(100)(1+x2)+c10 Now consider the second derivative at
01y(99)(2x)+c1002y(98)(2)+0….+0 x=0 on both sides
(y(1+x2))=(sin(x))(100)=sin(x) (y(cos(x))(2)=c20y(2)cos(0)−c21y(1)sin
Now substituting gives us (0)−c22ycos(0)=(sin(x))(2)=0
y(100)+9900y(98)=sin(0)=0 Using (1) and the above equation one
Hence, Option 0 is the required answer. can conclude that
2. b y(2) = 0
Assume f(x) = y This gives the value of second derivative
Rewrite the function as to be zero
y(x + 1 ) = ln(x) Similarly for any even value of n all the
Now differentiate both sides up to odd derivatives of y in the expression
hundredth derivative in accordance to would have sin(x) as their coefficients
the Leibniz rule we have and as the values of y(0) and y(2) are zero.
(y(1+x))(100)=c1000y(100)(x+1)+c1001 Every even derivative of the tan(x)
y(99)+0+…..+0=(ln(x))(100) function has to be zero.
Using the nth derivative for ln(x+a) Thus, we have
as dn(ln(x+a))dxn=(−1)n+1×(n−1)!(x+a y(9998879879789776) = 0.
)n 5. b
we have the right hand side as Assume
(y(1+x))(100) = (−99)!x100 f(x) = y
Now substituting x = 1 yields Write the given function as
2y(100) + y(99) = (−99)!1 y(x2 – x + 1) = cos(x)
= -(99)! Now applying Leibniz rule up to the
3. b third derivative we get
Assume f(x) = y (y(x2−x+1))(3)=c30y(3)(x2−x+1)−c31y
Rewriting the function as (2)(2x−1)−c32y(1)(2)(cos(x))(3)=sin(x)
y2 = 1 – x2 Equating both sides we have
Differentiating both sides of the sin(x)=c30y(3)(x2−x+1)−c31y(2)(2x−1)
equation up to the third derivative using −c32y(1)(2)
leibniz rule we have Now in the question it is assumed that
(y2)(3)=c30y(3)y+c31y(2)y(1)+c32y(1)y the y(1)=2 and y(2)=3
(2)+c33y(3)y Substituting these values in (1) we have
(y2)(3)=2y(3)y+6y(2)y(1) sin(x)=c30y(3)(x2−x+1)−c31(3)(2x−1)−
(1-x2)(3)=0 c32(2)(2)

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Substituting x = 0 gives Now substituting x=0 yields

sin(0) = y(3) + 9 -12 (ex(sin(x)x))(n)=cn01+cn23+cn45
y(3) = 12 – 9 = 3. ∑ni=0cn2i2i+1
6. a 9. b
Explanation:Rewriting the given First expanding sin(x2) ⁄x into a Taylor
function as series we have
y2 = x3 + x7 sin(x2)=x21!−x63!+x105!….∞
Now applying the Leibniz rule up to the sin(x2)x=x1!−x53!+x95!….∞
third derivative we have Now applying the Leibniz rule up to the
(y2)(3)=(x3+x7)(3) fifth derivative we have
c30y(3)y+c31y(2)y(1)+c32y(1)y(2)+c3 ((ex)(sin(x2)x)(5)=c50ex(x1!−x53!+x95
3yy(3)=3!+(7.6.5)x4….(1) !…∞)
Equating both sides and substituting x = +c51ex(11!−5x43!+9x85!…∞)+…..+c55e
1 we get x(5!3!+(9.8.7.6.5)x45!…∞)
y(1) = 0 Now substituting x=0 we get
Now assumed in the question are the ((ex)(sin(x2)x))(5)=c51(1)+5!3!
values y(1) = 0 and y(2) = 1 = 1 + 20 = 21.
We also know y(1) = √2 10. a
Putting them in equation (1) we get Assume y = f(x)
2√2 y(3) = 3! + 210 = 216 Taking ln(x) on both sides The function
y(3) = 54√2. has to be written in the form ln(y) = ex
7. b Now computing the first derivative
Expanding sin(x)/x into Taylor series yields
we have y(1) = y * ex
sin(x)x=11!−x23!+x45!−…..∞ Now applying the Leibniz rule up to
Now Taking the nth derivative of nth derivative we have
function using Leibniz rule we have y(n+1)=cn0exy+cn1exy(1)+….+cnnexy(n)
(ex(sin(x)x))(n)=cn0ex(11!−x23!+x45!− We know that in the problem it is
…∞)+cn1ex(−2x3!−4x35!−…∞)+…. assumed that [y(1)=y(2)=…=y(n)=1]x=0
Now substituting x=0 we have Now, substituting x=0 we get
[(ex(sin(x)x))(n)]x=0=cn0(11!)+cn2(−2! y(n+1)=cn0e+cn1+….+cnn
3!)+c4n(4!5!)…∞ From combinatorial results we know
[(ex(sin(x)x))(n)]x=0=∑i<=ni=0(−1)icn that 2n=cn0e+cn1+….+cnn This gives us
2i2i+1 y(n+1)=e+(cn0e+cn1+….+cnn)−cn0
Hence, Option ∑i<=ni=0(−1)icn2i2i+1 is y(n+1)=e-1+2n
the right answer. 11. a
8. a Assume y = f(x)
The key here is to find a separate Taylor Rewriting the function as y2 = sin(x)
expansion for sinh(x) / x which is Now applying Leibniz rule up to the
sinh(x)x=x1!+x33!+x55!…∞x sixth derivative we have
sinh(x)x=x1!+x23!+x45!…∞ (y2)(6) = c06 y(6) y + c16 y(5) y(1) + ………+
Now consider ((ex)(sinh(x)x)) applying c66 y(6) y
the Leibniz rule for nth derivative we (y2)(6) = 2 y(6) y + 12 y(6) y(1) + 30
have y(4) y(2) + 20 (y(3))2
(ex(sin(x)x))(n)=cn0ex(11!−x23!+x45!− (sin(x))(6) = -sin(x)
…∞)+cn1ex(2x3!+4x35!…∞) Now substituting x = 0 and observing
+cn2(23!+12x25!….∞)+… that y(0) = 0 we have

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sin(0) = 0 = 12 y(6) y(1) + 30 y(4) y(2) + 20 function, we have

(y(3))2. f(1097)(x)=(1097)!(1(1097)!+1(1095)!)+(
12. a 1099×1098…4×3)x2(1(1097)!+1(1097)
First convert the function sinh(x)⁄x into !)+…∞
its Taylor series expansion Substituting x=0 we have
sinh(x)x=x1!+x33!+x55!….∞x f(1097)(x)=(1097)!(1(1097)!+1(1095)!)
sinh(x)x=11!+x23!+x45!….∞ =(1+1097*1096)=(1+1202312)=12023
Now pick up the whole 13
function ((sin(x))(sinh(x)x)) and apply 15. a
Leibniz rule up to the fourth derivative Expanding sinh(x) into a Taylor series
we have we have
((sin(x))(sinh(x)x))(4)=c40sin(x)(11!+x sinh(x)=x1!+x33!+x55!…∞
23!+x45!…..∞) Now rewriting the function we have
−c41cos(x)(2x3!+4x35!…..∞)+…..+c44si f(x)=(x3+x2+x+1)(x1!+x33!+x55!…∞)
n(x)(4!5!+(7.6.5.4)x37!…..∞) For the 7th derivative observe that, only
Substituting x=0 we have the odd termed powers contribute to
((sin(x))(sinh(x)x))(4) = 0 the derivative at x=0
13. a Hence it is enough for us to find seventh
Assume y = f(x) derivative for
Rewriting the part sinh(x)⁄x as infinite (x2+1)(x1!+x33!+x55!…∞)
series we have x1!+x3(13!+11!)+x5(15!+13!)+…∞
sinh(x)x=11!+x23!+x45!….∞ Taking the 7th derivative of this function
Now the function f(x) becomes we have
y=cos(x)(11!+x23!+x45!….∞) f(7)(x)=(7!)(17!+15!)+(9∗8…4∗3)x2(17!+
Taking the third derivative of the above 19!)
function using Leibniz rule we have Now substituting x=0 yields
y(3)=c30sin(x)(11!+x23!+x45!….∞)−c31 f(7)(0)=(7!)(15!+17!)=(1+7*6)=43.
cos(x)(2x3!+4x35!….∞)
−c32sin(x)(23!+12x25!….∞)+c33cos(x)( CURRENT AFFAIRS:-
24x5!…∞) 16. a
Now substituting x = 0 we have 17. a
y(3) = 0. 18. b
14. d 19. c
Expanding sinh(x) into a taylor series 20. d
we have
sinh(x)=x+x33!+x55!…∞ REASONING:-
f(x)=(x2+x+1)(x+x33!+x55!….∞)
21. c
On multiplication we get two series with
22. b
odd exponents and one series with even
23. c
exponent. The series with odd
24. a
exponents are the only ones to
25. d
contribute to the derivative at x=0
26. d
Hence it is enough to compute the
27. a
derivative at for the following function
28. c
(x2+1)(x+x33!+x55!….∞)=x1!+x3(13!+1
29. d
)+x5(15!+13!)….∞
30. d
Taking the 1097thderivative of this

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G.K:-

31. c
32. c
33. c
34. c
35. c
36. d
37. d
38. b
39. c
40. a

G.S:-

41. b
42. c
43. a
44. d
45. a
46. b
47. d
48. c
49. c
50. d

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