CBSE

CLASS-IX_E6_E-TECHNO JEE TEST DATE: 17-11-2020

E-TECHNO
CLASS – IX JEE MAIN MODEL DATE : 17-11-2020
TEST NO-2
MAX. TIME : 180MIN SUB-BATCH : E6 MAX. MARKS : 400
Instructions:
i. The test paper consists of 100 multiple choice questions numbered from 1 to 100,
each question followed by four alternatives 1, 2, 3 and 4.
ii. Mathematics 1 to 25, Physics 26 to 50, Chemistry 51 to 75 and Biology 76 to 100
iii. Each question has only one correct option.
iv. (a) Each correct answer carries +4 Marks.
(b) For each wrong answer 1 mark will be deducted.
(c) Zero marks, if not attempted.

MATHEMATICS (Q.No.01 to 25)

1. Volume of a right circular cone with height of 3cm and base radius
of 14cm is
1) 125cm3 2) 616 cm3 3) 135 cm3 4) 640 cm3
2. The lateral surface area and total surface area of the cylinder with
base radius 7cm and height 9cm respectively are
1) 396cm2, 704 cm2 2) 704 cm2, 396 cm2
3) 396 cm2, 700 cm2 4) 704 cm2, 400 cm2
3. The area of one square face of cube is equal to 64cm2. Its volume
is
1) 500cm3 2) 512 cm3 3) 216 cm3 4) 343 cm3
4. How many bricks will be required to build a wall of 8m long, 6m
height and 22.5cm thick, if each brick measure 25cm by 11.25cm
by 6cm?
1) 6000 2) 6200 3) 6400 4) 6600
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5. A solid iron rod has cylindrical shape its height is 11cm and base
diameter is 7cm find total volumes of 50 rods
1) 21170cm3 2) 21165 cm3
3) 21160 cm3 4) 21175 cm3
6. A right circular cone is 8cm height and the radius of its base is
2cm. The cone is melted and recasted into a sphere. Then the
radius of sphere
1) 2cm 2) 3cm 3) 4cm 4) 1cm
7. A hemisphere of lead of radius 8cm is recasted into a right
circular cone of base radius 6cm. Then the height of the cone is
1) 28.33cm 2) 28.44cm 3) 28.41cm 4) 28.48cm
8. Metallic spheres of radius 6cm, 8cm and 10cm are melted to form
a single solid sphere, then the radius of recasting sphere is

1) 3 1727 2) 3
3375 3) 12 4) 15

9. The Curved surface area of the cone is cm2 . Area of its base
4
is 254 cm2 , then its volume is
7
2
1) 3394 cm3 2) 3047cm3
7
2 1
3) 2127 cm3 4) 402 cm3
7 3
10. Two cubes each of volume 64cm3 are joined end to end together,
then the T.S.A of resulting cuboid is
1) 180cm 2) 160 cm2 3) 160m2 4) 165cm2
11. A toy is in the form of a cone of radius 3.5cm mounted on a
hemisphere of same radius. The total height of the toy is 15.5cm.
22
Find the total surface area of the toy. (Use  = )
7
1) 241.5cm2 2) 214.5cm2 3) 231.5cm2 4) 213.5cm2
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12. A cubical block of side 7cm is surmounted by a hemisphere. What
is the greatest diameter of the hemisphere can have? Find the
22
surface area of the solid. (Use  = )
7
1) 3.5cm, 332.5cm2 2) 7cm, 332.5m2
3) 7cm, 332.5cm2 4) 3.5cm 332.5m2
13. A medicine capsule is in the shape of cylinder with two
hemispheres stuck to each of its ends. The length of the entire
capsule is 14mm and the diameter of the capsule is 5mm. Find its
22
surface area. (Use  = )
7
1) 210m2 2) 210mm2 3) 220m2 4) 220mm2
14. From a solid cylinder whose height is 2.4cm and diameter 1.4cm,
a conical cavity of the same height and same diameter is hollowed
out. Find the total surface area of the remaining solid.
22
(Use  = )
7
1) 17.60cm2 2) 16.60 cm2 3) 17.40 cm2 4)16.40 cm2
15. A wooden article was made by scooping out a hemisphere from
each end of a solid cylinder, as shown in given figure. If the height
of the cylinder is 10cm, and its base is of radius 3.5cm, find the
22
total surface area of the article. (Use  = )
7

1) 374cm2 2) 364cm2 3) 354cm2 4) 344cm2

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16. A solid is in the shape of a cone standing on a hemisphere with
both their radii being equal to 1cm and the height of the cone is
equal to its radius. Find the volume of the solid in terms of .
1 2
1)  cm3 2)  cm3 3) 2 cm3 4)  cm3
3 3
17. A gulab jamun, contains sugar syrup up to about 30% of its
volume. Find approximately how much syrup would be found in 45
gulab jamuns, each shaped like a cylinder with two hemispherical
ends with length 5cm and diameter 2.8cm (see the given figure).
22
(Use  = )
7

1) 336cm3 2) 338cm3 3) 334cm3 4) 332cm3

18. A vessel in the form of an inverted cone. Its height is 8cm and the
radius of its top, which is open, is 5cm. It is filled with water up
to the brim. When lead shots, each of which is a sphere of radius
0.5cm are dropped into the vessel, one-fourth of the water flows
out. Find the number of lead shots dropped in the vessel.
1) 100 2) 200 3) 50 4) 150
19. A solid consisting of a right circular cone of height 120 cm and
radius 60cm standing on a hemisphere of radius 60cm is placed
upright in a right circular cylinder full of water such that it
touches the bottom. Find the volume of water left in the cylinder,
if the radius of the cylinder is 60cm and its height is 180cm.
22
(Use  = )
7
1) 1.131cm3 2) 1.131m3 3) 1.121cm3 4) 1.121m3

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20. A spherical glass vessel has a cylindrical neck 8cm long, 2cm in
diameter; the diameter of the spherical part is 8.5cm. Find its
volume. (Use  = 3.14 )
1) 345.50cm3 2) 345.51cm3 3) 346.50cm3 4) 346.51cm3
21. A 20m deep well with diameter 7m is dug and the earth from
digging is evenly spread out to form a platform 22m by 14m. Find
22
the height of the platform. (Use  = )
7
1) 2m 2) 2.5m 3) 3m 4)3.5m
22. A container shaped like a right circular cylinder having diameter
12cm and height 15cm is full of ice cream. The ice cream is to be
filled into cones of height 12cm and diameter 6cm, having a
hemispherical shape on the top. Find the number of such cones
which can be filled with ice cream.
1) 100 2) 50 3) 20 4) 10
23. How many silver coins, 1.75cm in diameter and of thickness
2mm, must be melted to form a cuboid of dimensions 5.5cm 
22
10cm 3.5cm? (Use  = )
7
1) 400 2) 300 3) 200 4) 100
24. A cylindrical bucket, 32cm high and with radius of base 18cm, is
filled with sand. This bucket is emptied on the ground and a
conical heap of sand is formed. If the height of the conical heap is
24cm. Find the radius and slant height of the heap.
1) 26cm, 12√13cm 2) 36cm, 12√13cm
3) 26cm, √13cm 4) 36cm, √13cm
25. A metallic sphere of radius 4.2cm is melted and recast into the
shape of a cylinder of radius 6cm. Find the height of the cylinder.
1) 1.4cm 2) 2.7cm 3) 2.744cm 4) 2cm

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PHYSICS (Q.No.26 to 50)

26. The distance of Centre of mass from 5 kg body is ____________.

1) 0.21 m 2) 0.35 m 3) 0.42 m 4) 0.48 m

27. The distance of Centre of mass from 3 kg body is ______________.

1) 0.5 m 2) 0.2 m 3) 0.7 m 4) 0.4 m

28. A circular disc of radius 20 cm is cut from one edge of large circular disc of
radius 50 cm, the shift in centre of mass is __________.

1) 6.7 cm 2) 5.7 cm 3) 3.2 cm 4) -3.2 cm

29. If a circular portion of diameter ‘R’ is removed form a uniform circular plate
of radius ‘R’, from one edge then the shift in the shift in the Centre of mass
is ___________.

1) R/4 2) R/6 3) R/3 4) R/2

30. A thick straight wire of length π m is fixed at its midpoint and then in the
form a circle. Then shift in centre of mass is __________.

π
1) π m 2) 0.5 m 3) 2 m 4) m
2
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31. When a triangular portion is removed from one edge of a square plate of side
‘a’, as shown in the figure. Then the shift in the centre of mass is given
by__________.

1) a/3 2) a/12 3) a/4 4) a/9

32. A triangular sheet is removed from a rectangular sheet as shown in figure.

The shift in centre of mass is _________.

1) 4.2 cm 2) -4.2 cm 3) 6.67 cm 4) -6.67 cm

33. In the figure a man stands on a boat floating in a still water. The mass of the
man and boat are 60 kg and 120 kg respectively. If the man walks to the
front of the boat, what is the separation between the boat and the river
bank?

1) 2 m 2) 2.5 m 3) 1.5 m 4) 3.5 m

34. A 2kg body and 3kg body are moving along x-axis with velocities 3ms-1 and
1ms-1 respectively, momentum of centre of mass is

1) 6 kg ms-1 2) 9 kg ms-1 3) 3 kg ms-1 4) – 3 kg ms-1

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35. A square portion of diagonal equal to radius is removed from a uniform
circular plate of radius ‘R’ as shown in figure. Then the shift in centre of
mass is________.

R R R R
1) 2) 3) 4)
2π -1 2π 2  2π -1 2  π -1
36. Two bodies of masses 6 kg and 4 kg are moving along eastern and northern
directions with velocities 5 ms-1 and 10 ms-1 respectively. Find the
magnitude of velocity of centre of mass.

1) 5 ms-1 2) 2 ms-1 3) 10 ms-1 4) 7 ms-1

37. A uniform square of side ‘L’ is divided into four equal quadrants. If one of the
quadrants is removed, then shift in the Centre of mass is_______.

L L L L
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 2 6 2 3 2
38. Two bodies of 6 kg and 4kg masses have their velocity 5i - 2 j + 10k and

10i - 2 j + 5k
 respectively. Then the velocity of their centre of mass is
_________.

1) 5i + 2j - 8k
 2) 7i + 2j - 8k
 3) 7i - 2j + 8k
 4) 5i - 2j + 8k


39. Two blocks A and B of equal mass are released on two sides of a fixed wedge
C as shown in figure. Find the magnitude of acceleration of centre of mass of
the system. Neglect friction.

g g g g
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 5 4
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40. A body of mass ‘m’ is dropped and another body of mass M is projected
vertically up with speed ‘u’ simultaneously from the top of a tower of height
H. If the body reaches the highest point before the dropped body reaches the
ground, then maximum height raised by the centre of mass of the system
from ground is_____.

u2 u2
1) H + 2)
2g 2g
2
1  Mu 
2
1  mu 
3) H +   4) H +  
2g m + M 2g  m + M 
41. A uniform square of side ‘L’ a circular portion is removed from one of the
quadrants as shown in figure, then shift in Centre of mass is_________.

πL L πL πL
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 16-π  2 16-π  2 2 16- π  16 - π 
42. The position of centre of mass of a uniform half ring of radius ‘R’ from the
centre ‘O’ is________.

R 2R
1) 2) 3) 2πR 4) πR
π π
43. Two blocks of equal mass m are connected by an upstretched spring and the
system is kept at rest on a frictionless horizontal surface. A constant force F
is applied on one of the blocks pulling it away from the other as shown in
figure. Find the position of the centre of mass at time t.

Ft2 Ft 2 Ft 2 Ft 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
4m 2m 6m 8m
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44. The position of centre of mass of a uniform half disk of radius ‘R’ from the
centre ‘O’ is ________.

4R R 4R
1) 2) 3) 4) 4πR
π π 3π
45. The position of centre of mass of a conical shell of height ‘h’ from the base
‘O’ is________.

1) h/4 2) h/3 3) h/2 4) 3h/2

46. A thick straight wire of length 2 π m is fixed at its midpoint and then in the
form a circle. Then shift in centre of mass is __________.

π
1) π m 2) 0.5 m 3) 1 m 4) m
2

47. The position of centre of mass of a uniform solid hemisphere of radius ‘R’
from the centre ‘O’ is________.

1) R/2 2) 3R/4 3) R/8 4) 3R/8

48. When a Triangular plate is removed from one edge of a rectangular plate of
length ‘a’ and breadth ‘b’ as shown in the figure. Then the shift in the Centre
of mass is ________.

1) a/3 2) a/12 3) a/9 4) a/4

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49. A 4 kg body and 6 kg body are moving along x-axis with velocities 3 ms-1 and
-2 ms-1 respectively, momentum of centre of mass is___________.

1) 3 kg ms-1 2) 0 kg ms-1 3) 24 kg ms-1 4) 12 kg ms-1

50. Two bodies of masses 3 kg and 1 kg are moving along eastern and northern
directions with velocities 2 ms-1 and 8 ms-1 respectively. Find the magnitude
of velocity of centre of mass.
1) 1.5 ms-1 2) 2.5 ms-1 3) 1 ms-1 4) 10 ms-1
CHEMISTRY (Q.No.51 to 75)

51. The reaction which proceeds with absorption of heat is called:

1) Exothermic
2) Endothermic
3) May be exothermic or endothermic
4) neither endothermic nor exothermic
52. Heat change in a chemical reaction, at constant temperature and volume is
called

1) Entropy 2) Enthalpy
3) Internal energy 4) Free energy
53. The enthalpies of the elements in their standard states are arbitrarily
assumed to be

1) Zero at 298 K and 1 atm 2) Unity at 298 K and 1 atm

3) Zero at all temperatures 4) Zero at 273 K and 1 atm
54. Which of the following is correct?

1) H  q V 2) E  q P 3) H  q P 4) H  q P  q V
55. For any gaseous reaction, which of the following one is correct?

1) H  E  nRT 2) E  H  nRT
3) E  nRT  H 4) H  nRT  E
56. Chemical kinetics is the branch of chemistry that deals with________.

1) Rate of reactions
2) Factors influencing the rates of reaction
3) Reaction mechanism
4) All of these
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57. Decomposition of H2O2 is a/an_______.

1) Slow reactions 2) Fast reactions

3) Moderate reactions 4) None of these
58. Reactions, which take place within a second are called ______.

1) Slow reaction 2) Fast reaction

3) Moderate reaction 4) Instantaneous reaction
59. Rusting of iron is an example for ________.

1) Slow reaction 2) Fast reaction

3) Moderate reaction 4) Instantaneous reaction
60. Which of the following is an example for very slow reaction?

1) HCl  NaOH  NaCl  H2O

2) Explosion of TNT
3) 4Fe  3O2  XH2O  2Fe2O3 .XH2O

4) NaCl(aq )  AgNO3(aq)  AgCl  NaNO3(aq)

61. Which of the following is a very fast reaction?

1) HCl  NaOH  NaCl  H2O

2) C12H22O11  H2O  C6H12O6  C6H12O6

3) 2H2  O2  2H2O

4) 4Fe  3O2  XH2O  2Fe2O3 .XH2O

62. Which of the following is an example of endothermic reaction?

1) H2(g )  Cl2( g )  2HCl(g ); H  184.6KJ

2) N2( g )  O2(g )  2NO(g ); H  180.8KJ

3) C (graphite )  H2O(g )  CO(g )  H2  1314KJ

4) C (graphite )  2S(s )  91.9KJ  CS2(l )

63. The standard enthalpy is zero for the substance

1) C(graphite) 2) C(diamond) 3) CO2 4) O3

64. A system is provided 90joule of heat and work done on the system is
10J. The change in internal energy during the process is:
1) 40 J 2) 80 J 3) 50 J 4) 100 J
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65. The work done when a gas is compressed by an average pressure of 1 atm so
as to decrease its volume from 1000 ml to 500ml?
1) 10.13 J 2) 20.26J 3) 50.65 J 4) 40.13 J
66. For the reaction; C2H4(g )  3O2( g )  2CO2( g )  2H2O(l); E  595KJ.

The  H at 270C is
1) -590 KJ 2) -600 KJ 3) +590 KJ 4) +600 KJ
67. A reversible process is performed in such a way that
1) at the conclusion of process, both system and surroundings can be restored to
their initial states without producing any change
2) it should not leave any trace to show that the process had ever occurred
3) it is carried out infinitely slowly
4) all of these
68. The difference in  H and  E for the combustion of methane at 270C would
be:
1) –1800 Cal 2) –162 Cal 3) –1200 Cal 4) 0
69. One mole of a gas absorbs 80 J of heat at constant pressure. The change in
internal energy is:
1) 80J 2) 200J - P  V 3) 100J- P  V 4) 80J- P  V

70. A gas occupies 2L at STP. It is provided 100.63 J Heat so that its volume
becomes 3.5 L at 1atm .Calculate Work done?

1) 100.63 J 2) 151.95 J 3) –50.6 J 4) –270 J

71. A heat transfer process approaches zero as the temperature difference

between two bodies approaches
1) infinity 2) zero 3) -1 4) 1

72. The standard enthalpy is not zero for the substance

1) CO 2) NH3 3) H2O 4) All of these

73. In isothermal reversible process if one mole of gas expanding from 2 lit to
10 lit then calculate the work done in Joules at 270C:

1) 4015.53J 2) 435.54J 3) 2016.76J 4) 1010.13J

74. A gas absorbs 150 J of heat at constant volume. The change in internal
energy is:
1) 300J 2) 200J - P  V 3) 150J- P  V 4) 150J

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75. Which of the following reaction has  H <  E .
1) H2(g )  Cl2( g )  2HCl(g ) 2) 2SO2( g )  O2(g )  2SO3(g )

3) C (s )  O2(g )  CO2(g ) 4) PCl5(g )  PCl3(g )  Cl2(g )

BIOLOGY (Q.No.76 to 100)

76. Which cells are found in sponges?

1) amoebois cells 2) choanocytes 3) germ cells 4) nephrocytes

77. Examples of poriferan is/are.

1) sycon 2) euspongia 3) spongilla 4) all of these

78. Example for asymmetrical animals.

1) sponges 2) platy helminthes

3) annelida 4) none of these

79. Polyp and medusa are found in.

1) porifera 2) cnidaria 3) ctenophora 4) annelida

80. The principal body cavity in hydra is called.

1) gastro vascular cavity 2) schiocoel

3) haemocoel 4) pseudocoel

81. Portuguese man of war is.

1) solidier of world war-1 2) annelids

3) a sponge 4) physalia (cnidarian)

82. The comb plates are found in.

1) comb jellies 2) cockroach

3) star fish 4) earthworm

83. Bioluminescence property well marked in.

1) cnidarians 2) ctenophores

3) platy helminthes 4) brachiolostoma

84. Digestion in ctenophores is.

1) extra cellular 2) intra cellular

3) both1 and 2 4) none of these

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85. Diploblastic animal’s Radial symmetry is shown by.

1) cnidarian 2) ctenophore

3) both 1 and 2 4) none of the above

86. A body cavity lined by mesoderm is called.

1) coelom 2) haemocoel 3) pseudocoel 4) none of these

87. Which of the following phyla has tissues?

1) porifera 2) cnidarian 3) arthropoda 4) none of these

88. Spicules are found in which of the following phyla.

1) porifera 2) cnidaria 3) annelida 4) arthropoda

89. Canal system is a character of which phyla?

1) cnidarian 2) annelida 3) arthropoda 4) porifera

90. Example of cnidarian.

1) adamsia 2) pennatula 3) gorgonia 4) All of these

91. Examples of ctenophore.

1) sea walnut 2) comb jellies

3) sea combs 4) all of these
92. Find out the given animals belongs to.

1) porifera 2) cnidarian
3) ctenophore 4) none of these
93. Cnidarians are __________

1) triploblastic animals 2) diploblastic animals

3) both 1 and 2 4) none of these

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94. Hydra reproduce by.

1) budding 2) fragmentation 3) fission 4) none of these

95. Ctenophores are characterized by presence of.

1) comb plate 2) diploblastic animals

3) bioluminiscence 4) all of these

96. All ctenophores lives in______

1) fresh water 2) marine water

3) both 1 and 2 4) brackish water

97. In ctenophores fertilization is.

1) external 2) internal 3) both 1 and 2 4) none of these

98. All sponges are ________

1) Hermaophrodites 2) unisexual

3) both 1 and 2 4) no reproduction occurs

99. Poriferans are living in _______

1) fresh water 2) marine water

3) both 1 and 2 4) none of these

100. In sponges water enters into them through a minute pores called.

1) ostia 2) notches 3) nodes 4) none of these

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