Physics: Class Ix - Cbse

PHYSICS
CLASS IX - CBSE
DPP NO. 01
TOPIC : MOTION
1. Rest and motion both are :
(A) Relative terms (B) Absolute terms (C) Can’t say (D) None of these
2. Displacement could be :
(A) More than distance (B) equal to distance
(C) less than or equal to distance (D) None of these
3. Which of the following does not need direction to be defined completely :
(A) Speed (B) Velocity (C) Force (D) Displacement
4. ABC is the shortest path length between the two points and ADC is the actual path length. Then which of the
two corresponds to displacement :
(A) ADC (B) ABC (C) Can’t say (D) None of these
5. Odometer is a device, which is used to measure :

(A) Distance (B) Displacement (C) Speed (D) None of these
6. If both observer and moving body are moving with the same velocity of 5 m/s in the same direction then
distance between them would
(A) Increase (B) Decrease
(C) Won’t change (D) May or may not change
7. Vector quantities are those which can be defined completely only if :
(A) Both magnitude and direction are given (B) Only direction is given
(C) Only magnitude is given (D) None of these
8. A ball is thrown vertically upward and after ascending a height of 15m it comes back to the same point. The
total displacement of the ball is :
(A) zero (B) 15 m (C) 30 m (D) 98 m
9. The numerical ratio of displacement to distance is :
(A) always less than one (B) always equal to one
(C) always more than one (D) equal to or less than one
10. What would be the value of average velocity for the duration 0-10s in the graph shown below ?
10
Velocity
10
0 Time
(A) 4m/s (B) 5m/s (C) 3m/s (D) 6m/s
11. Distance and displacement are equal in some cases. Give reasons.
12. Give two examples each of vector and scalar quantities.

th
 1
13. A car travels   of a circle having radius r. What is the ratio of the distance to its displacement ?
4
14. Give two examples to explain that motion is relative.
15. Define scalar quantity and give two examples.

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DPP NO. 02
TOPIC : MOTION
1. At a particular instant the speedometer of a vehicle shows 30km/hr. It is the :

(A) Average speed (B) Instantaneous speed
(C) Uniform speed (D) Non-uniform speed
2. A body covered 30km in 10hr. The average speed for the whole journey would be :
(A) 3km/hr (B) 6km/hr (C) 2km/hr (D) None of these
3. A body travels equal distances in equal time intervals. Then motion is of following type :
(A) Uniform speed (B) Non-uniform speed
(C) Uniform velocity (D) Instantaneous speed
4. A car travelling on a busy road is an example of :

(A) Uniform motion (B) Non-uniform motion (C) Constant speed (D) Constant velocity
Answer the questions from 5 to 7 on the basis of information given below :

B 10m C
5m 5m
O F
A
5m 5m
D E
10m
A body moves from A to F along the path shown below in 10s.
5. What is the total displacement ?

(A) 50m (B) 30m (C) 10m (D) 20m
6. What is the average speed for the whole path ?

(A) 2m/s (B) 5m/s (C) 10m/s (D) 4m/s
7. What is the average velocity for the whole path ?

(A) 2m/s (B) 5m/s (C) 10m/s (D) 4m/s
8. A boy travels 50km with 5km/hr and then for next 4hr travels with a uniform speed of 20km/hr. What is the
average speed for the whole journey ?
(A) 62/7km/hr (B) 65/7km/hr (C) 60/7km/hr (D) 9km/hr
9. The unit(s) of speed and velocity is/are :

(A) m/s (B) km/hr (C) m/s2 (D) Both (A) and (B)
10. A body is moving in a circle with constant speed 10m/s. Circumference of the circle is 40m. Then the average
speed and average velocity 4s is :
(A) 10m/s and 10m/s (B) 10m/s and 0m/s (C) 10m/s and 5m/s (D) 0m/s and 0m/s
11. Define uniform velocity. How is it different from uniform speed ?
12. Classify the following in scalar and vector quantities .

(a) Distance (b) Displacement (c) Uniform speed (d) Average velocity
(e) Instantaneous speed (f) Average speed
13. A boy leaves his house at 9:30 a.m. for his school. The school is 2 km away and classes start at 10:00 a.m.
If he walks at a speed of 3 km/h for the first kilometre, at what speed should he walk the second kilometre to
reach just in time ?
14. If a car decelerates from 40m/s to 10m/s in 3s. What is the deceleration of the body?
15. If a body travels 20m is 10s starting from rest then what is the acceleration of the particle?
DPP NO. 03
TOPIC : MOTION
1. A boy goes from one point to another with 40m/s and returns to the same point with a speed of 80m/s. Then
what would be the average velocity during the whole journey.
(A) 60m/s (B) Zero (C) 40m/s (D) 80m/s
2. What is the change in velocity when a body accelerates with 2m/s2 starting with an initial velocity of 5m/s for a
time of 10s.
(A) 20m/s (B) 25m/s (C) 15m/s (D) 30m/s
1 2
3. For the equation s = ut – at acceleration is in the :
2
(A) Opposite direction of velocity (B) Opposite direction of displacement
(C) Same direction of velocity (D) Both (A) and (B)
4. If a body covers a distance d with velocity v 1 and another distance d with same velocity v 2 ,then average
velocity for the whole journey would be equal to :
2v1v 2 v1v 2 v1  v 2 2(v1  v 2 )
(A) v  v (B) v  v (C) 2v v (D) v1v 2
1 2 1 2 1 2
5. If a body covers some distance with speed v 1 for time t1 and some another distance with speed v 2 for some
time t2. Then what would be the average velocity for the whole duration.
v1  v 2 v1t1  v 2 t 2 v1v 2 2v1v 2

(A) (B) t1  t 2
(C) v  v (D) v  v
2 1 2 1 2
6. A body is covering equal distances in equal time intervals along a circle. Which quantities would remain
constant for his motion ?
(A) Speed (B) Velocity (C) Acceleration (D) Displacement
7. Deceleration and retardation have units which are :

(A) Same (B) Different (C) May be different (D) None of these
8. Slope of a displacement - time graph is negative. That means the velocity is :

(A) Positive (B) Negative (C) Constant (D) Zero
9. Acceleration and velocity could be :
(A) Positive (B) Negative (C) Zero (D) All of these
10. What is the name given to change in velocity per unit time ?
(A) Average velocity (B) Acceleration
(C) Relative velocity (D) None of these
11. A car decelerates from 100m/s to 60m/s in time t and the distance covered is 200m. Find the time t.
12. A boy travels first 30s starting from rest with a uniform acceleration of 2m/s2 and then attains a uniform
velocity with which it travels for 30s more. Calculate the total displacement covered.
13. Can a body be at rest and motion at the same time ? Explain.
14. What is the acceleration required to change the velocity of an object from 20m/s to 40m/s across displacement
of 40m.
15. A boy starts from rest and starts moving with a uniform acceleration of 2m/s2. What is the displacement in
the first, second and third second of its motion ?
DPP NO. 04
TOPIC : MOTION
1. What would be the graph for a body moving with a velocity which is gradually (uniformly) increasing with
time?
(A) distance (B) distance (C) velocity (D) All are correct
time time time

2. When two quantities are directly proportional then graph would be similar to :
a a a
(A) (B) (C) (D) Both (A) & (B) possible
b b b
3. Which of the acceleration - time graph is not possible ?
a a a a
(A) (B) (C) (D)
t t t t
4. Which of the following is correct for uniformly accelerated motion ?

displacement
displacement
displacement
(A) (B) (C) (D) All are correct

t t t
5. The distance time graph shown below indicates motion with uniform speed for which part of the graph :
Distance D
B C
A time
(A) AB (B) BC (C) CD (D) Both BC and CD
6. Which of the following graph is possible ?
Distance Distance Distance Distance
(A) (B) (C) (D)

time time time time
7. A body accelerates to a certain maximum velocity and then moves with negative acceleration for some time
such that the final velocity is opposite to initial velocity. Then graph for the above case would be :
v v v
(A) (B) (C) (D) v t
t t t
8. If a body is travelling in a zig-zag path. Then which of the following quantities may be constant :
(A) Speed (B) Velocity (C) Acceleration (D) Both (A) and (C)
9. If a particle covers unequal distances in equal time intervals. Then motion is :

(A) Uniform (B) Non-uniform (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
10. The motion of a point on the rim of a wheel rotating about an axis fixed in a wall is :
(A) Circular (B) Linear (C) Linear and circular (D) Vibratory
11. The speed-time graph of a car is given below. The car weighs 1000 kg.
(a) What is the distance travelled by the car in the first two seconds ?
(b) W hat is the braking force applied at the end of 5 seconds to bring the car to stop within
1 second ?
12. What does this displacement time graph indicate ?

displacement
B C
A t D
13. For the graph given below. Calculate.
(a) Displacement for the whole duration 10
Velocity
(b) Average velocity for the whole time (m/s)
(c) Average acceleration for the whole time 0 5 10 15
t
14. The displacement of a body increases with time gradually and then remains constant as shown below :
Displacement
0 2 10
time
(a) What is the acceleration for the whole motion ?

(b) What is the value of average velocity for 0-10s ?
15. (i) How can you get the speed of an object from its distance- time graph ?
(ii) When do we say that a body is at rest and when do we say that it is moving ? Explain.
DPP NO. 05
TOPIC : FORCE AND LAWS OF MOTION
1. When an object undergoes acceleration

(A) Its speed always increases (B) Its velocity always increases
(C) It always falls towards the earth (D) A force always acts on it
2. Balanced forces may ____________ a body :

(A) Move (B) Accelerate (C) Retard (D) Deform
3. An unbalanced force acts on a body. The body :

(A) Must remain in same state (B) Must move with uniform velocity
(C) Must be accelerated (D) Must move along a circle.
4. A number of forces acting on a body do not cause any change in its state of rest or of uniform motion, the
forces are
(A) Parallel (B) Unbalanced (C) Balanced (D) Inclined
5. Example of force is :
(A) Friction (B) Contact force (C) Weight (D) All of them
6. If no force acts on a body, it will

(A) gets deformed
(B) Move with increasing speed
(C) Either remain at rest or move with same speed along a straight line
(D) Break
7. If a body is not accelerated :

(A) Unbalanced force acts on it (B) Forces acting are not balanced
(C) The resultant force is zero (D) A single force acts on it
8. For moving a body from rest or stopping a moving body, we need

(A) Force (B) Mass (C) Direction (D) Time
9. Friction is a/an :
(A) self adjusting force (B) necessary evil
(C) important force in daily life (D) all of these
10. Which of the following is responsible for the flow of water in rivers ?
(A) Magnetic force (B) Electrostatic force
(C) Force of friction (D) Gravitational force
11. Give any two examples of contact and noncontact forces.
12. How much force is required to keep a body moving with constant speed on a frictionless surface ?
13. Does the force always produce an acceleration ?
14. Name the property of the bodies due to which they resist change in their velocity.
15. With which law of motion, the name of Galileo is associated ?
DPP NO. 06
1. Mass measures amount of ________ in a body :

(A) inertia (B) motion (C) velocity (D) acceleration
2. Momentum measures amount of _________ in a body :

(A) Inertia (B) Motion (C) Velocity (D) Acceleration
3. When a net force acts on an object, the object will be accelerated in the direction of the force with an
acceleration proportional to :
(A) the force on the object (B) the velocity of the object
(C) the mass of the object (D) the inertia of the object
4. A body of mass 20 kg moves with an acceleration of 2ms-2. The rate of change of momentum in SI unit is:
(A) 40 (B) 10 (C) 4 (D) 1
5. Definition of force can be deduced from :

(A) newton’s first law (B) newton’s second law
(C) newton’s third law (D) any one of the above
6. A body of mass m strikes against wall with a speed v and rebounds with the same speed along opposite
direction. The change in magnitude of momentum is :
(A) Zero (B) mv (C) – mv (D) 2 mv
7. Force measures the rate of change of _______ of a body :
(A) Mass (B) Inertia (C) Velocity (D) Momentum
8. When a bus suddenly starts, the standing passengers lean backwards in the bus. This is an example of:
(A) Newton’s first law (B) Newton’s second law
(C) Newton’s third law (D) None of these
9. A man sitting in a train in motion is facing the engine. He tosses a coin up, the coin falls behind him. The train
is moving :
(A) forward with uniform speed (B) backward with uniform speed
(C) forward with acceleration (D) forward with retardation
10. Inertia depends upon :

(A) Acceleration of the body (B) Velocity of the body
(C) Shape of the body (D) Mass of the body
11. Name two quantities on which the momentum of a body depends.
12. What is the name given to the product of mass and velocity ?
13. What is the SI unit of momentum ?
14. Is momentum a vector or scalar quantity ?
15. What is the acceleration produced by a force of 12 N exerted on an object of mass 3 kg ?
DPP NO. 07
1. The momentum of a body of given mass is proportional to its :

(A) volume (B) shape (C) velocity (D) colour
2. If the momentum of a body is halved then the velocity will be :

(A) Doubled (B) Four times (C) Three times (D) Will become half
3. If the momentum of a body is doubled, then the kinetic energy will be :

(A) halved (B) unchanged (C) doubled (D) 4 times
4. When a bullet is fired from a gun. The gun recoils to :

(A) Conserve mass (B) Conserve momentum
(C) Conserve kinetic energy (D) All of these
5. A bullet in motion hits and gets embedded in a solid resting on a frictionless table. What is conserved :
(A) Momentum and K.E. (B) Momentum alone
(C) K.E. alone (D) None of these
6. Kg m/s is the unit of :

(A) Force (B) Momentum (C) Kinetic energy (D) None of these
7. For a jet plane flying with a very high speed, the forward motion of the plane could be accounted on the law
of conservation of :
(A) Force (B) Velocity (C) Acceleration (D) Momentum
8. Unit of impulse is :
(A) kg m/s2 (B) kg m/s (C) m/s (D) m/s2
9. A body of mass 20 kg is moving with a velocity of 4 m/s, what is the momentum with it?
(A) 100 kg m/s (B) 80 kg m/s (C) 40 kg m/s (D) 20 kg m/s
10. The change is momentum of a body is 50 kg m/s in time 4 s. What is the force acting on it ?
(A) 25 N (B) 50 N (C) 22.5 N (D) 12.5 N
11. What is momentum? What is its unit in S.I. and CGS system of units?
12. How is impulse related to momentum?
13. A body of mass 40 kg is accelerating at a rate of 9 m/s2. What is the rate of change of linear momentum?
14. The speed of a car (mass 2000 kg) increases from 54 km/hr to 72 km/hr. What is the change in momentum?
15. For hour much time should a force of 500 N act on a body of mass 10 kg so that it acquires a velocity of 50
m/s.
DPP NO. 08
1. Choose wrong relation :
(A) I = F × t (B) F × t = p2 – p1
F
(C) I = p2 – p1 (D) I =
t
2. China and glass wares are packed with soft material when transported. This is done to:
(A) Increase impulse (B) Reduce Impulsive force
(C) For cost cutting (D) None of these
3. A cannon after firing recoils due to :

(A) Conservation of energy (B) Newton’s third law of motion
(C) Newton’s first law of motion (D) None of these
4. Spring in vehicles are introduced to :

(A) Reduce (B) Reduce impluse
(C) Reduce force (D) Reduce velocity
5. A man could swin in river because of :

(A) Newton’s first law (B) Newton’s second law of motion
(C) Newton’s third law of motion (D) None of the above
6. A man walks on a rough surface in left direction. What is the direction of friction force acting on him?
(A) In left direction (B) In right direction
(C) In arbitrary direction (D) None of these
7. The vector sum of action and reaction :

(A) Is equal to zero (B) Is not equal to zero
(C) May or may not be equal to zero (D) None of these
8. State whether the following pair of force could be on action-reaction pair or not ?
F2
F1
(A) Not an action-reaction pair (B) Is an action-reaction pair

(C) Depends on situation (D) None of these
9. A book of weight 10 N is placed on a table. The force exerted by the surface of the table on the book will be :
(A) Zero (B) 10 N (C) 20 N (D) None of these
10. If A and B are two objects with masses 10 kg and 30 kg respectively then :
(A) A has more inertia than B (B) B has more inertia than A
(C) A and B have the same inertia (D) None of the two have inertia
11. Action and reaction are equal and opposite and act on different bodies. Explain.
12. When are jump on a heap of sand we didn’t get hurt but we get hurt when the floor is of concrete. Explain.
13. Wicket-keeper in a cricket match lowers his hand while catching a ball. Explain.
14. Give three practical examples of action and reaction. Explain each one of them.
15. Force of gravity attracts a body of mass m with a force W = mg. What is the force with which this object
attracts earth towards it. What is the direction of this force?
DPP NO. 09
TOPIC : GRAVITATION
1. The earth attracts the sun with a gravitational force of 1022 N. Then the sun attracts the earth with a gravitational
force of :
(A) 10-20 N (B) 102 N (C) 1022 N (D) 1010 N
2. When the extra object is placed between two bodies, forces of gravitation between them :
(A) will increase (B) will decrease
(C) will change according to the environment (D) will not change
3. Force of attraction between two bodies depends upon :
(A) the gravitational constant (B) the distance between their centres
(C) the magnitude of their masses (D) all of these
4. Law of gravitation is applicable for :

(A) heavy bodies only (B) medium sized bodies only
(C) small sized bodies only (D) bodies of any size
5. Gravitational force is a :
(A) weak force (B) short range force
(C) medium range force (D) Does not depend on distance between the two bodies
6. Value of G on the surface of earth is 6.673 × 10-11 Nm2 kg-2, then value of G on surface of Jupiter is :
6.673
(A) 12 × 6.673 × 10-11 Nm2 kg-2 (B) ×10-111 Nm2 kg-2
12
6.673
(C) 6.673 × 10-11 Nm2 kg-2 (D) × 10-111 Nm2 kg-2
6
7. The ratio of SI unit to the CGS unit of G is :
(A) 10-3 (B) 103 (C) 10-11 (D) 10-2
8. If initially the distance between two bodies is r and their masses be M1 and M2 then the force of gravitation be
F. If this distance is increased to two times then the force would become :
F F
(A) (B) (C) 2 F (D) 4 F
2 4
9. If two bodies of mass M1 and M2 are placed at a distance r apart they have a force of gravitation F between
them. If both of the masses are reduced to half then force of gravitation would be :
F F
(A) (B) 2 F (C) (D) F
2 4
10. In vacuum all the freely falling objects have same :
(A) Speed (B) Velocity (C) Acceleration (D) Force
11. What are S.I. and CGS units of universal gravitational constant?
12. What is the force of gravitation between two masses of 100 kg Each separated by a distance of 100 m?
–11
Nm2
(G = 6.67 × 10 )
kg2
13. What happens to the gravitational force between two objects, if :
(a) The mass of one object is doubled?
(b) The distance between objects is doubled?
(c) The masses of both objects are doubled?
14. Give five important characteristics of gravitational force.
15. Differentiate mass and weight.
DPP NO. 10
TOPIC : GRAVITATION
1. When a body is thrown vertically upwards then :
1 1
(A) Time of ascent = (time of descent) (B) Time of ascent = (time of descent)
4 2
(C) Time of ascent = time of descent (D) Time of ascent = 2 (time of descent)
2. The acceleration due to gravity ‘g’ experienced by a ball when it is thrown upward is :
(A) Positive (B) Negative (C) Zero (D) None of these
3. Force of gravitation between two bodies of mass 1 kg each kept at a distance of 1m is :

(A) 6.67 N (B) 6.67 × 10-9 N (C) 6.67 × 10-11 N (D) 6.67 × 10-7 N
4. The value of acceleration due to gravity g is :

(A) 6.67 × 10-11 Nm2 kg-2 (B) 8.9 m/s2
(C) 9.8 m/sec2 (D) None of these
5. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower. Its velocity after it has fallen 20 m is [Take g = 10 ms–2].
(A) 5 ms–1 (B) 10 m s–1 (C) 40 ms–1 (D) 20 m s–1
6. The ratio of the value of g on the surface of moon to that on the earth’s surface is:
1 1
(A) 6 (B) 6 (C) (D)
6 6
7. The force acting on a ball due to earth has a magnitude Fb and that acting on the Earth due to the ball has
a magnitude Fe,then :
(A) Fb = Fe (B) Fb > Fe (C) Fb < Fe (D) Fe = 0
8. A stone is thrown vertically upwards with an initial velocity of 45 ms–1 then the time taken by the stone to rise
to its maximum height is :
(A) 2.5 s (B) 3.5 s (C) 4.5 s (D) 5.5 s
9. A ball is thrown vertically upwards and reaches to a maximum height of 20 m then the velocity with which the
ball was thrown upwards is :
(A) 20 m/s (B) 30 m/s (C) 40 m/s (D) 50 m/s
10. Which Kepler’s law led Newton to inverse square rule for gravitational force :
(A) Law of orbits (B) Law of areas
(C) Law of periods (D) None of these
11. What do you mean by acceleration due to gravity ?
12. The weight of a person on the earth is 80 N. What will be his weight on the moon ?
1
13. What will be the value of ‘g’ on the surface of the moon if its radius were th the radius of earth and its
4
1 th
mass is the mass of earth?
80
14. State Kepler’s law.
15. Differentiate ‘g’ and ‘G’ with two points.
DPP NO. 11
TOPIC : GRAVITATION
1. Where will it be profitable to purchase one kilogram sugar ?
(A) At poles (B) At equator (C) At 45° latitude (D) At 40° latitude
2. A particle is taken to a height R above the earth surface, where R is the radius of the earth. The acceleration
due to gravity there is :
(A) 2.45 m/s2 (B) 4.9 m/s2 (C) 4.8 m/s2 (D) 19.6 m/s2
3. When a body is thrown vertically upwards then :

(A) The velocity of object at the highest point of the journey is non-zero
(B) The acceleration of object at the highest point of the journey is non-zero
(C) The velocity of object at the highest point of the journey is same as initial velocity
(D) None of these
4. The figure shows a planet in elliptical orbit around the sun. The kinetic energy of the planet will be maximum
when the planet is at :
P4
(A) P1
(B) P2 P1 s P3
(C) P3
(D) P4 P2
5. Which of the following statements is true ?

(A) g is same at all places on the surface of earth
(B) g has its maximum value at the equator
(C) g is less at the earth’s surface than at a height above it or a depth below it
(D) g is greater at the poles than at the equator
6. The value of g at a place increases with :
(A) Decrease in the latitude of the place (B) Increase in the latitude of the place
(C) Increase in the altitude of the place (D) None of these
7. The acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/s2 :
(A) Much above the earth’s surface (B) Near the earth’s surface
(C) Deep inside the earth (D) At the centre of the earth
8. Which of the following statement is correct regarding weight of a body :
(A) It decreases with height from the surface of the earth
(B) It decreases with depth from the surface of the earth
(C) It increases as one moves from equator to poles
(D) All of these
9. A spring balance is graduated on sea-level. If a body is weighed with this balance at consecutively increasing
heights from earth’s surface, the weight indicated by the balance :
(A) Will go on decreasing continuously (B) Will go on increasing continuously
(C) Will remain same (D) Will first increase and then decrease
10. Which of the following graph represent the variation of g as we move from centre of earth to its surface?
(A) g (B) g (C) g (D) g
r r r r
11. What are the two reasons for variation of ‘g’ with latitude ?
12. Explain the term weight lessness.
13. Explain, why a person can jump higher on the surface of moon than on the earth.
14. Moon has no atmosphere. Explain why ?
15. If weight of a body is W on the earth’s surface, then what will be the weight of the same body on the moon’s
surface ?
DPP NO. 12
TOPIC : FLUID
1. Which among the following is a unit of pressure?

(A) Atmosphere (B) Torr (C) cm of Hg (D) All of these
2. The S.I. unit of pressure is :

(A) N-m–2 (B) Pascal (C) dyne-cm2 (D) Both (A) and (B)
3. Pressure exerted by a liquid column :

(A) Is independs of its density (B) Is independent of the acceleration due to gravity
(C) Decreases with depth (D) None of these
4. Thrust is a :
(A) Scalar quantity (B) Vector quantity (C) Tangential force (D) None of these
5. Pressure is a :
(A) Scalar quantity (B) Vector quantity (C) Normal force (D) None of these
6. The S.I. unit of thrust is :

(A) N (B) dyne (C) Pa (D) kg-wt
7. Pressure can be calculated as :
Force Tangential Force NormalForce

(A) (B) (C) (D) All of these
Area Area Area
8. The ratio of S.I. unit of pressure to C.G.S. unit of pressure is :

(A) 1 (B) 10 (C) 100 (D) 1000
9. The upward force acting on an object immersed in a liquid is called :

(A) Buoyancy (B) Buoyant force (C) Upthrust (D) Both B & C are correct
10. The Buoyant force depends on :

(A) Depth of a liquid (B) Colour of a liquid (C) Density of liquid (D) All of these
11. What is the difference between thrust and pressure ?
12. Explain the term atmospheric pressure.
13. You are provided with a hollow iron ball of volume 20 cc and mass 15g and a solid iron ball of same volume
and mass of 30g. Both are placed on the surface of water contained in a large tub. Which will float ?
14. Explain why does a block of plastic released under water come up to the surface of water.
15. A ship made of iron and steel does not sink in sea, but the same amount of iron and steel in form of a solid
sphere would sink. Why?
DPP NO. 13
TOPIC : FLUID
1. A body floats in a liquid if the buoyant force is :

(A) Zero (B) Greater than its weight
(C) Less than its weight (D) Equal to its weight
2. When a body is weighed in a liquid the loss in its weight is equal to?
(A) Weights of liquid displaced by the body (B) The difference in weights of body in air and liquid
(C) The upthrust of liquid on the body (D) All of these
3. The balloon stops rising up beyond a particular height when the density of gas inside the balloon :
(A) Exceeds the density of air outside (B) Equals the density of air
(C) becomes less than the density of air (D) None of these
4. A block metal weight 5 N in air and 2 N when immersed in a liquid. The buoyant force is :
(A) 3 N (B) 5 N (C) 7 N (D) Zero
5. The apparent weight of wood floating on water if its weights 100 g in air is :
(A) 400 g (B) 300 g (C) 100 g (D) Zero
6. Two pieces of metal when completely immersed in a liquid have equal upthrust on them, then :
(A) Both pieces must have equal weights (B) Both pieces must have equal densities
(C) Both pieces must have equal volumes (D) Both are floating to the same depth
7. A solid iron sphere of radius 1 m and solid iron cube of edge length 1 m are immersed in a liquid. Which of
them will experience greater upthrust :
(A) Cube (B) Sphere
(C) Both will experience equal upthrust (D) None of these
8. Buoyant force is inversely proportional to :

(A) Volume body immersed in a liquid (B) Density of fluid
(C) Acceleration due to gravity (D) Temperature of fluid
9. As we move upwards, the atmospheric pressure :

(A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) Remains same (D) Cannot be said
10. The ratio of S.I. units to C.G.S. unit of density is :

(A) 103 (B) 102 (C) 10–2 (D) 10–3
11. Write a short note on Buoyancy and Buoyant force.
12. Discuss the various factors affecting Buoyant force.
13. Imagine a body that is completely submerged in water, but whose depth of submergence can be varied. In
which case does it experience a larger upthrust, when it is submerged deep or shallow explain.
14. An object is immersed in different liquids. Does same buoyant force acts on the object due to all the liquids?
Explain.
15. Write the Archimedes Principle and its uses.
DPP NO. 14
TOPIC : FLUID
1. If a sample of metal weights 210 g in air, 180 g in water and 120 g in a liquid :
(A) R.D. of metal is 3 (B) R.D. of metal is 7
(C) R.D. of liquid is 7 (D) R.D. of liquid (1/3)
2. Equal volumes of alcohol (R.D. = 0.74) and water are mixed. The volume of the mixture is 0.96 of its original
volume. The R.D. of mixture is :
(A) 0.74 (B) 0.90 (C) 1.64 (D) 6.66
3. Which of the following is the incorrect statement ?

(A) It is easier to lift a heavy stone under water than in air.
(B) It is easier to swim in sea water than in river water.
(C) It is easier to float on water after taking a deep breath.
(D) A ship sails down into water when it sails from river into sea.
4. The density of wooden block that floats in water with 0.1 of its volume above water is :
(A) 0.1 g/cm3 (B) 0.9 g/cm3 (C) 1 g/cm3 (D) 9 g/cm3
5. A beaker containing water weighs 100 gwt. It is placed on the pan of a balance and a piece of metal weighing
70 gwt and having a volume of 10 cm3 is placed inside the water in the beaker. The weight of the beaker
containing water and the metal would be :
(A) 170 gwt (B) 160 gwt (C) 100 gwt (D) 30 gwt
6. A cylinder of wood floats vertically in water with one-fourth of its length out of water. The density of wood is :
(A) 0.25 g/cm3 (B) 0.5 g/cm3 (C) 0.75 g/cm3 (D) 1 g/cm3
7. Two solids X and Y float in water. X floats with half of its volume submerged while Y floats with one-third of its
volume out of water. The densities of X and Y are in the ratio of :
(A) 4 : 3 (B) 3 : 4 (C) 2 : 3 (D) 1 : 3
8. The buoyant force acting on a body due to different fluids is :

(A) same (B) different (C) zero (D) none of these
9. A piece of wood is held under water, the upthrust on it is :

(A) Equal to the weight of the wooden piece (B) More than the weight of the wooden piece
(C) Less than the weight of the wooden piece (D) zero
10. A piece of iron has dimensions 3cm × 1.5 cm ×6cm. If its mass is 205.2 gms, its density is -
(A) 5.6 gm cm–3 (B) 8.4 gm cm–3 (C) 7.6 gm cm–3 (D) 76 gm cm–3
11. The pressure of 2.5 Pa is applied on a surface of area 10 cm2. Find the force on the surface.
12. An empty chamber of petrol of volume 50 litre has a mass 8 kg. It is filled with petrol of relative density 0.7.
What is the mass of the petrol filled chamber ?
13. If a toy boat in a tank sinks, what will happen to the level of water ?
14. A solid of density 'D' is floating in a liquid of density 'd'. If 'v' is the volume of solid submerged in the liquid and
v
V is the total volume of the solid, What is the value of ?
V
15. Define atmospheric pressure. How does it vary with altitude.
DPP NO. 15
TOPIC : WORK, POWER & ENERGY
1. A stone is tied to a string and then whirled in a circle. The work done on it by the string is :
(A) Positive (B) Negative (C) Zero (D) Undefined
2. The work done by a force on a body will be positive if the :

(A) Body does not move
(B) Body moves perpendicular to the direction of motion
(C) Body moves along the direction of the applied force
(D) Body moves opposite to the direction of the applied force
3. A coolie with a suitcase on his head is climbing up on a ladder with uniform speed. The work done by the
coolie on the suitcase is :
4. Work done upon a body is :

(A) A vector quantity (B) Always positive (C) A scalar quantity (D) Always negative
5. Which among the following can be unit of work :

(A) dyne-cm (B) N – m (C) N – cm (D) All of these
6. When a force retards the motion of a body, the work done is :

7. The ratio of S.I. unit to c.g.s unit of energy is :

(A) 103 (B) 10–3 (C) 107 (D) 10–7
8. When a player hits a football, it moves along the curved path and then falls to the ground. What is the work
done by the force of gravity on the football?
9. A moving body need not have :

(A) Potential energy (B) Kinetic energy (C) Momentum (D) Velocity
10. Potential energy of your body is minimum when :

(A) You are standing (B) You lie down on floor
(C) You are sitting on chair (D) Sitting on the ground
11. Define work and give its S.I. and c.g.s unit.
12. Define energy. Name various forms of energy.
13. A battery lights a bulb. Describe the energy changes involved in the process.
14. Define mechanical energy.
15. If the mass of the body is changed to ‘n’ times, then what should be the change in velocity such that its K.E.
remains same?
DPP NO. 16
1. A spring is compressed. The potential energy of spring will :

(A) Remain unchanged (B) Increase (C) Decrease (D) Become zero
2. A man is climbing a staircase. The energy he uses does not depends upon :
(A) The height of the staircase (B) The weight of his body
(C) The time taken to reach the top (D) The mass his body
3. When a ball is thrown upwards, its total energy :

(A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) Remains same (D) None of these
4. The gravitational potential energy is a :

(A) Vector quantity (B) Scalar quantity (C) Positive quantity (D) Negative quantity
5. The kinetic energy of a body is a :

(A) Vector quantity (B) Scalar quantity
(C) Positive quantity (D) Both (B) and (C) are true
6. The velocity of a body of mass 4 kg possessing K.E. of 0.02 J is :

(A) 0.01 m/s (B) 0.1 m/s (C) 1 m/s (D) None of these
7. A flying bird has :

(A) Only potential energy(B) Only kinetic energy (C) Mechanical energy (D) None of these
8. The balls of different masses have the same K.E. Then the :
(A) Heavier ball have greater momentum than the lighter ball
(B) Lighter ball has greater momentum than the heavier ball
(C) Both balls have equal momentum
(D) Both balls have zero momentum
9. Which of the following forces are conservative :

(A) Gravitational force (B) Friction force (C) Viscous force (D) All of these
10. Kinetic energy of an object which does positive work always :

(A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) Remains same (D) Can’t say
11. The KE of a body is increased by 300%, find the percent increase in momentum.
12. Two bodies of masses ‘m’ and ‘2m’ thrown with a velocity of ‘v’ and ‘3v’ from the surface. What is the ratio of
potential energies at the highest point?
13. When the mass of a body is increased by 100% and velocity of the body is decreased by 50%. What is the
percentage change in its kinetic energy.
14. State law of conservation of energy.
15. Derive relation between KWh and Joule.
DPP NO. 17
1. Horse power is the unit of :
(A) Work (B) Power (C) Energy (D) Force
2. If Rahul has done the same amount of work in less time compared to Rohan then :
(A) Rahul has more power (B) Rohan has more power
(C) Both Rahul and Rohan have equal power (D) Rahul has more energy than Rohan
3. If positive work is done on an object, its kinetic energy :

4. If negative work is done on an object, its kinetic energy :

5. If the total work done on an object by a force is zero along a closed path then the force is :
(A) Conservative force (B) Non-conservative force
(C) Zero (D) Negative force
6. Work energy theorem is applicable for :

(A) Conservative forces (B) Non-conservative forces
(C) All forces (D) None of these
7. Work energy theorem states that change in K.E. of an object is equal to :

(A) Work done by all forces acting on it
(B) Work done by conservative forces acting on it
(C) Work done by non-conservative forces acting on it
(D) None of these
8. A body of mass 0.1 kg is dropped from a height of 10 m at a place where g = 10 ms–2. Its K.E. just before it
strikes the ground is :
(A) 1 J (B) 1.04 J (C) 3.5 J (D) 10 J
9. A body of mass 10 kg is dropped from a point where it posses an energy of 100 J. Then the K.E. when it
reaches ground would be :
(A) 1000 J (B) 100 J (C) 10 J (D) None of these
10. An object of mass ‘m’ is moving with a constant velocity v. How much work should be done on the object in
order to bring the object to rest : 1
(A) mv (B) mgv (C) mv2 (D) mv2
2
11. Calculate the work done to increase the velocity of a car from 30 km/h to 60 km/h, if the mass of the car is
1500 kg.
12. A lorry and a car moving with the same K.E. are brought to rest by application of brakes which provide equal
retarding forces which one of them will come to rest in a shorter distance. Explain.
13. m=1kg
50N 100N
If initial velocity of a block is zero, prove work energy theorem in a time interval of 5 second.
14. Define power. Give its S.I. unit and commercial unit.
15. If a force F is applied on a body and it moves with a velocity V, the what will be power ?
DPP NO. 18
1. Kilowatt-hour is :
(A) Commercial unit of electric energy (B) Board of trade unit
(C) Equivalent to kilovolt ampere-hour (D) All of these
2. The purpose of micro-phone is to :

(A) Convert electrical energy into sound energy
(B) Convert sound energy into electrical energy
(C) Convert light energy into electrical energy
(D) Convert electrical energy into light energy
3. Which of the physical quantity is different from others :

(A) Work (B) Energy
(C) Power (D) Each belong to same category
4. 1 hp is equal to :
(A) 0.746 KW (B) 7.46 KW (C) 74.6 KW (D) 746 KW
5. Which of the following relation is/are correct for electric power :

V2
(A) P = VI (B) P = (C) P = I2R (D) All of these
R
6. Which of the following case violate law of conservation of energy?
(A) Vibrations of a simple pendulum (B) Motion of a ball on frictionless ground
(C) Motion of a ball on rough ground (D) None of these
7. From physics point of view, 'Work' means :

(A) effort (B) interview (C) achievement (D) none of these
8. A body at rest can have :

(A) speed (B) velocity (C) momentum (D) energy
9. Work is product of time and :

(A) energy (B) power (C) force (D) distance
10. Which of the following is not the unit of power ?

(A) J/s (B) Watt (C) kJ/h (D) kWh
11. A pump store 200 kg water in a tank located at height 10 metre in 5 minutes. What is the work done by
pump, in Joule ?
12. A car weighing 1000 kg and travelling at 30 m/s stops at a distance of 50 m decelerating uniformly. What is
the force exerted by the brakes ? What is the work done by the brakes ?
13. A body is pushed along a road with a force of 500 N through a distance of 90m in 1 minute . Calculate the
power used.
14. 20 Joules work is done in displacing a body by 4 metre in the direction of the force. What is the value of the
force applied in newton ?
15. A work of 4900 J is done on a load of mass 50 kg to lift it to a certain height. Calculate the height through
which the load is lifted ?
DPP NO. 19
TOPIC : SOUND
1. What is transferred in wave motion?

(A) Energy (B) Momentum (C) Mass (D) Both A and B
2. The density of medium through which longitudinal wave propagates is minimum in a region which is called a:
(A) Crest (B) Compression (C) Trough (D) Rarefaction
3. Mechanical waves can travel :

(A) In vacuum as well as in a medium (B) In vacuum but not in a medium
(C) In a medium but not in vacuum (D) Neither in a medium nor in vacuum
4. Non-mechanical waves can travel :

(A) In vacuum as well as in a medium (B) In vacuum but not in a medium
(C) In a medium but not in vacuum (D) Neither in a medium nor in vacuum
5. In a slinky :
(A) Both transverse pulse as well as longitudinal pulse can be generated :
(B) Both types of pulse cannot be generated
(C) Only a transverse pulse can be generated
(D) Only a longitudinal pulse can be generated
6. Transverse mechanical wave cannot travel in :

(A) Iron rod (B) Hydrogen gas (C) Water (D) Stretched string
7. Which is true for light waves?

(A) They are electromagnetic waves (B) They are transverse waves
(C) They have extremely short wavelength (D) All of these
8. The speed of electromagnetic waves in air is :

(A) 3 × 105 km/s (B) 3 × 107 km/s (C) 3 × 106 km/s (D) 3 × 108 km/s
9. The waves produced by a motor boat sailing in water are :

(A) Transverse (B) Longitudinal
(C) Longitudinal and transverse (D) Stationary
10. The frequency of sound waves in water is :

(A) Same as that of frequency of source (B) Less than frequency of source
(C) More than frequency of source (D) Can’t say
11. With the help of well labelled diagram show longitudinal and transverse wave.
12. Explain why, transverse mechanical waves cannot be propagated in liquids and gases.
13. On what two basis waves can be classified? Name them.
14. Why flash of lighting from clouds is seen much earlier than the sound of thunder, although both occur
simultaneously ?
15. What is the effect of temperature on speed of sound? Discuss.
DPP NO. 20
TOPIC : SOUND
1. Which of the following properties of wave, the one that is independent of the others is its :
(A) Velocity (B) Amplitude (C) Wavelength (D) Frequency
2. When a sound wave goes from air into water, the quantity that remains unchanged is its :
(A) Velocity (B) Amplitude (C) Frequency (D) Wavelength
3. Distance of crest from mean position is called :

(A) Amplitude (B) Frequency (C) Displacement (D) Wavelength
4. The speed of sound in a certain medium is 960 m/s. If 3600 waves pass over a certain point in 1 minute, the
wavelength is :
(A) 2 m (B) 4 m (C) 8 m (D) 16 m
5. The speed of sound waves having a frequency of 256 Hz compared with the speed of sound waves having a
frequency of 512 Hz in the same medium is :
(A) Half (B) Same (C) Twice (D) Four times
6. Sound takes sometime to travel from one place to another. It will be maximum :
(A) At night (B) During winter (C) During summer (D) Nothing can be said
7. Velocity sound is maximum in :

(A) Iron (B) Mercury (C) Water (D) Air
8. Which of the following statements is wrong?

(A) Change in air temperature have no effect on the speed of sound
(B) Change in air pressure have no effect on the speed of sound
(C) The speed of sound in water is higher than in air
(D) The speed of light in water is lesser than in air
9. The velocity of sound in any gas depends upon :

(A) Wavelength of sound only (B) Amplitude and frequency of sound
(C) Density and elasticity of gas (D) Intensity of sound waves only
10. Which characteristic of the sound helps you to identify your friend by his voice while sitting with others in a
dark room?
(A) Pitch (B) Amplitude (C) Timbre (D) Wavelength
11. Define amplitude of a wave.
12. Define frequency of a wave.
13. Define wavelength of a wave.
14. Define time period of a wave.
15. Define timbre.
DPP NO. 21
TOPIC : SOUND
1. The waves which propagates in metals are :

(A) Longitudinal (B) Transverse (C) A and B both (D) Neither A nor B
2. Loudness of sound depends on its :

(A) Frequency (B) Time period (C) Amplitude (D) Wavelength
3. The frequency of a source of sound is 100 Hz. How many times does it vibrate in a minute :
(A) 100 (B) 1000 (C) 600 (D) 6000
4. Sonar is based on the principle of :

(A) Echo (B) Reverberation
(C) Resonance (D) Any one of the above
5. Echo is produced due to :

(A) Reflection of sound (B) Refraction of sound
(C) Resonance (D) None of these
6. The persistence of sound in a closed enclosure, due to continuous reflection at the walls, even after the
source has stopped producing sound is known as :
(A) The persistence of hearing (B) An echo
(C) A reverberation (D) The water sounds
7. In the inner ear the fluid which converts pressure variations into electrical signals is inside :
(A) Hammer (B) Anvil (C) Stirrup (D) Cochlea
8. Which among the following is based on reflection of sound?

(A) Megaphone (B) Sound board (C) Stethoscope (D) All of these
9. The minimum distance between the source of round and the obstacle for on echo to take place is :
(A) 17.2 m (B) 172 m (C) 17 cm (D) 34.4 m
10. If ultrasonic, infrasonic and audio waves travel through a medium with speed v 1, v2 and v 3 respectively then:
(A) v 1 = v 2 = v 3 (B) v 1 > v 3 > v 2 (C) v 1 < v 3 < v 2 (D) v 3  v 1 and v 1  v 3
11. Name the three bones present in the middle ear.
12. What is persistence of hearing?
13. Give two laws of reflection for sound.
14. Explain SONAR?
15. Velocity of sound at a particular place is 400 m/s, then calculate the minimum distance between the source
of sound and the obstacle for an echo to take place.
CHEMISTRY
CLASS – IX (CBSE)
LIST OF RADICALS
VALENCY OF IONS :
The valency of an ion is same as the charge present on the ion.
If an ion has 1 unit of positive charge, its valency is +1 and it is known as a monovalent cation. If an ion has
2 units of negative charge, its valency is –2 and it is known as a divalent anion.
LIST OF COMMON ELECTROVALENT RADICALS
Monovalent Electronegative Bivalent Trivalent Tetravalent

Electronegative Electronegative Electronegative
2- 3- 4-
1. Fluoride F– 1. Sulphate SO 4 1. Nitride N 1. Carbide C
– 2- 3-
2. Chloride Cl 2. Sulphite SO 3 2. Phosphide P
– 2- 3-
3. Bromide Br 3. Sulphide S 3. Phosphite PO 3
I 2- 3-
4. Iodide 4. Thiosulphate S 2O3 4. Phosphate PO 4
– 2-
5. Hydride H 5. Zincate ZnO2
– 2-
6. Hydroxide OH 6. Oxide O
– 2-
7. Nitrite NO 2
7. Peroxide O2
– 2-
8.Nitrate NO3 8. Dichromate Cr 2O7
– 2-
9. Bicarbonate or Hydrogen carbonate HCO 3 9. Carbonate CO 3
– 2-
10. Bisulphite or Hydrogen sulphite HSO3 10. Silicate SiO 3
–
11. Bisulphide or Hydrogen sulphide HS
–
12. Bisulphate or Hydrogen sulphate HSO4
–
13. Acetate CH3COO
MATTER IN OUR SURROUNDINGS
DPP NO. 01
TOPIC : PHYSICAL PROPERTIES AND STATES OF MATTER
1. The conclusion which can be drawn from the given figures is
(A) Liquids have one free surface

(B) Liquids take the shape of vessel
(C) Same amount of liquid have same level in different container
(D) both A and B
2. The magnitude of intermolecular forces of attraction are maximum in
(A) chalk powder (B) water (C) carbon dioxide (D) hydrogen
3. By increasing pressure, the ______ of gas decreases.
(A) weight (B) temperature (C) mass (D) volume
4. When molecules gain enough energy they
(A) move away from each other (B) come close to each other
(C) remain at the same position (D) none of these
5. Which of the following statement goes well with the liquid state ?
(A) particles are loosely packed in the liquid state.
(B) fluidity is maximum in the liquid state.
(C) liquids can be compressed easily.
(D) liquids don’t take up the shape of any container in which these are placed.
6. Which state has lower density ?
(A) solid (B) liquid (C) gas (D) Either of these
7. Which condition out of the following will increase the vapor pressure of ether ?
(A) Increase in temperature of ether (B) Decrease in temperature of ether
(C) Increase in exposed surface area of ether (D) None of these
8. Which of the following are rigid forms of matter ?

(A) only solids (B) only liquids (C) solids and liquids (D) liquids and gases
9. The decreasing order of kinetic energy of particles is
(A) solid > liquid > gas (B) gas > liquid > solid (C) liquid > solid > gas (D) gas > solid > liquid
10. In which of the following conditions, the distance between the molecules of hydrogen gas would
increase ?
(i) Increasing pressure on hydrogen contained in a closed container.
(ii) Some hydrogen gas leaking out of the container.
(iii) Increasing the volume of the container of hydrogen gas.
(iv) Adding more hydrogen gas to the container without increasing, the volume of the container.
(A) i and iii (B) i and iv (C) ii and iii (D) ii and iv
11. What out of iron and chalk which has stronger inter-particle forces ?
12. Ravi wants to buy shirts for summer. Should he buy cotton shirts or shirts made from synthetic material ?
Give suggestion to Ravi by giving proper logical explanation.
13. Explain the reason behind rigidity property in solids.
14. A gas fills completely the vessel in which it is kept. Give reason.
15. Explain boiling point in terms of vapor pressure.
DPP NO. 02
TOPIC : INTER CONVERSION OF STATES OF MATTER
1. Correct pair of substances that undergoes sublimation is
(A) bromine and iodine (B) dry ice and nausadar
(C) sodium and borax (D) naphthalene and blue vitriol
2. The boiling point of alcohol is 78°C. What will be the value of this temperature in Kelvin scale ?
(A) 373 K (B) 351 K
(C) 341 K (D) 78 K
3. At higher altitude the boiling point of water lowers because -
(A) atmospheric pressure is low. (B) temperature is low.
(C) atmospheric pressure is high. (D) None of these
4. The temperature at which a liquid starts converting into solid without any rise in temperature is called -
(A) melting point (B) boiling point
(C) freezing point (D) none of these
5. A gas can be best liquefied
(A) by increasing the temperature
(B) by lowering the pressure
(C) by increasing the pressure and reducing the temperature
(D) none of the above
6. Boiling point of 1% aqueous solution of common salt at atmospheric pressure is
(A) 100ºC (B) > 100ºC (C) < 100ºC (D) not possible to tell
7. In which of the following cities would there be maximum water vapor in the air on a sunny day in
December ?
(A) Srinagar (B) Delhi (C) Bhopal (D) Kochi
8. Freezing point of water is
(A) 1ºC (B) 0ºC (C) 273.15 K (D) B and C both
9. ……...............of a substance remains constant when it changes from one state to another at it's melting
or boiling point.
(A) Volume (B) Pressure (C) Temperature (D) Density
10. What characteristics of substances enable us to determine that a given sample is pure or not ?
(A) Boiling point (B) Melting point (C) Both A & B (D) None of these
11. How does sweating or perspiration helps in keeping our body cool on a hot day.
12. Explain why ice at 0ºC is more effective in cooling than water at the same temperature.
13. Suggest a method to liquefy atmospheric gases.
14. An inflated air balloon deflates when pricked with a pin. Which property of the gaseous state is shown
by this activity?
15. Kelvin scale of temperature is regarded as better than the Celsius scale by scientists. Can you give any
reason for the same?
DPP NO. 03
TOPIC : EVAPORATION AND FACTORS AFFECTING IT
1. The rate of evaporation

(A) decreases with a rise in temperature (B) increases with an increase in surface area
(C) increases with increase in humidity (D) decreases with increase in the wind speed
2. Which of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) Evaporation is a surface phenomenon
(B) Evaporation takes place at all temperatures
(C) The temperature of a boiling liquid remains constant
(D) Boiling of a liquid involves formation of bubbles only at the surface of the liquid
3. Evaporation of a liquid occurs at
(A) boiling point (B) melting point (C) any temperature (D) freezing point
4. Rate of evaporation is lowest in
(A) Summers (B) Rainy reason (C) Autumn season (D) Spring season
5. Which of the following factor(s) affect rate of evaporation
(A) Temperature (B) Surface area (C) Both A and B (D) None of these
6. On increasing the temperature of the liquid
(A) The rate of evaporation increases (B) Volume of liquid decreases
(C) Kinetic energy increases (D) All of these
7. During summer, water kept in an earthen pot becomes cool because of the phenomenon of
(A) diffusion (B) liquefaction (C) osmosis (D) evaporation
8. Choose the correct statement from below
(A) Evaporation is a surface phenomenon
(B) Ice at 273 K is less effective for cooling than water at 273 K
(C) Water at 373 K is more effective for heating than steam at 373 K
(D) Boiling of a liquid is surface phenomenon
9. Look at the following figures and suggest in which vessel rate of evaporation will be highest ?
Moving fan
(A) (B) (C) (D)
10. Rate of evaporation is highest in –

(A) an open vessel of diameter 25 cm (B) an open vessel of diameter 30 cm
(C) an open vessel of diameter 27.5 cm (D) an open vessel of radius 26 cm
11. Why does evaporation causes cooling effect ?
12. Does evaporation occurs only at a fixed temperature ?
13. We sweat more on a humid day. Support the statement with reason.
14. Wet clothes do not dry easily on a rainy day. Why ?
15. Doctors advice to put strips of wet cloth on the forehead of a person having high fever. Why ?
IS MATTER AROUND US PURE ?

DPP NO. 04
TOPIC : ELEMENTS, COMPOUNDS AND MIXTURES
1. Which of the following does not contain any chemical substance ?
(A) air (B) water (C) light (D) a pure diamond crystal
2. Two substances, A and B were made is react to form a third substance, A2B according to following
reaction
2A + B  A2B
Which of the following statements concerning this reaction are incorrect ?
(i) The product A2B shows the properties of substances A and B.
(ii) The product will always have a fixed composition.
(iii) The product so formed cannot be classified as a compound.
(iv) The product so formed is an element.
(A) i, ii and iii (B) ii, iii and iv (C) i, iii and iv (D) i, ii and iv
3. Two chemical species X and Y combine together to form a product P which contains both X and Y. X
and Y cannot be broken down into simpler substances by simple chemical reactions. Which of the
following concerning the species X, Y and P are correct ?
(i) P is a compound (ii) X and Y are compounds
(iii) X and Y are elements (iv) P has a fixed composition
(A) i, ii and iii (B) i, ii and iv (C) ii, iii and iv (D) i, iii and iv
4. The elements which give out harmful radiation are called
(A) normal elements (B) representative elements
(C) radioactive elements (D) none of these
5. Which of the following is a pure substance ?
(A) Milk (B) Sea water (C) Soil (D) Copper
6. Which of the following is not a compound ?
(A) marble (B) washing soda (C) quick lime (D) brass
7. Which of the following is not a metal ?
(A) Copper (B) Silver (C) Lead (D) Germanium
8. What is a chemical compound ?
(A) a subatomic particle
(B) a combination of two protons and two electrons
(C) a combination of two or more chemical elements
(D) a mixture of two or more substances
9. Identify homoatomic molecule element from the following

(A) air (B) iodine vapors (C) water (D) amalgam
10. Which of the following can be classified as a compound ?

(A) milk (B) sea-water (C) ice (D) cast iron
11. Which of the substances from the following are pure substances - milk, iron, hydrochloric acid, mercury,
wood, air.
12. In water, hydrogen and oxygen are present in ratio 1:8. Calculate the amount of Oxygen which
completely react with 10g of Hydrogen to form water
13. Is copper sulphate a mixture or a compound. Why ?
14. "Properties of compounds is different from the properties of its constituent elements". Justify the
statement.
15. Differentiate between homogeneous and heterogeneous mixture.
DPP NO. 05
TOPIC : TYPES OF MIXTURES, CONCENTRATION OF SOLUTIONS
1. Which of the following is mixture?

(A) sea water (B) water (C) ice (D) water vapor
2. Which of the following are homogeneous in nature?

(i) Ice (ii) Wood (iii) Soil (iv) Air
(A) i and iii (B) ii and iv (C) i and iv (D) iii and iv
3. A true solution of sugar and water is prepared. A student observed that it is -

(A) homogeneous (B) transparent (C) milky white (D) Both A and B
4. The amount of glucose required to prepare 250 g of 5 % solution of glucose by mass will be -
(A) 10 g (B) 12.5 g (C) 25 g (D) 5 g
5. Which of the following will be a heterogeneous mixture?

(A) common salt + water (B) cane sugar + Water
(C) alum + water (D) albumin + water
6. Which of the following is a homogenous mixture?

(A) stainless steel (B) iodized salt
(C) gun powder (D) a suspension of chalk in water
7. Brass is a
(A) compound (B) element
(C) homogeneous mixture (D) heterogeneous mixture
8. Tincture of iodine has antiseptic properties. This solution is made by dissolving

(A) iodine in potassium iodide (B) iodine in vaseline
(C) iodine in water (D) iodine in alcohol
9. Which of the following provides an example of a true solution ?
(A) blood (B) milk (C) starch solution (D) sugar solution
10. Which of the following statement is not true about true solution ?
(A) It can pass through filter paper.
(B) It is homogeneous in nature.
(C) At constant temperature, particles of solute settle down.
(D) Solute can easily be recovered by evaporation or crystallization from a true solution.
11. What happens when saturated solution is heated ?

12. Why is solid CaCl2 spread on roads in cold countries ?
13. How can you say that brass is a mixture not a compound.
14. Is 22 carat gold mixture ?
15. To make saturated solution, 36 g of sodium chloride is dissolved in 100 g of water at 293 K, then
calculate the concentration (by mass) at this temperature ?
DPP NO. 06
TOPIC : TYPES OF SOLUTIONS
1. A liquid and a solid together in a single phase is known as -

(A) solution (B) solute (C) solvent (D) emulsion
2. Which of the following is a homogeneous system ?
(A) muddy water (B) bread
(C) concrete (D) a solution of sugar in water
3. Drinking soda is an example of a solution of -
(A) gas in liquid (B) liquid in gas (C) gas in gas (D) solid in liquid
4. Amalgam is a solution of -
(A) solid in solid (B) solid in liquid (C) liquid in solid (D) liquid in liquid
5. Which of the following is expected to conduct electricity ?
(A) diamond (B) molten sulphur
(C) molten KCl (D) crystalline NaCl
6. Select the odd one -
(A) hydrogen (B) oxygen (C) steam (D) chlorine
7. Which of the following is a characteristic of both mixtures and compounds ?

(A) They contain components in fixed proportions
(B) Their properties are the same as those of their components
(C) Their weight equals the sum of the weights of their components
(D) Energy is given out when they are being prepared
8. How many grams of hydrochloric acid are formed when 2 grams of hydrogen combine with excess of
chlorine ?
(A) 35.5 gm (B) 36.5 gm (C) 73 gm (D) 37.7 gm
9. Which of the following is an example of a mixture ?

(A) sugar (B) brass (C) CO2 (D) NO2
10. Which of the following obey the law of constant proportion in their formation ?
(A) mixtures (B) compounds (C) elements (D) colloids
11. Explain Tyndall effect with example.
12. A solution contains 110 g of sugar in 500 g of water. Calculate the concentration in terms of mass by
mass percentage of the solution.
13. The solubility of NaCl is 35. Calculate the max amount of NaCl that can be dissolved in 400g of NaCl.
14. What would you observe when

(a) A saturated solution of potassium chloride prepared at 60ºC is allowed to cool at room temperature.
(b) An aqueous sugar solution is heated to dryness.
15. (a) Define the terms solute, solvent and solution. When is a solution said to be saturated ?
(b) State two ways by which a saturated sugar solution can be made unsaturated.
DPP NO. 07
TOPIC : SEPARATION TECHNIQUES
1. Which of the following methods is used for obtaining pure solid from its impure form ?
(A) sublimation (B) crystallization
(C) diffusion (D) both A and B
2. Separation of NH4Cl from sand can be made on the basis of –

(A) winnowing (B) sublimation
(C) filtration (D) none of these
3. In which of the following can filtration separate the components of the mixture ?
(A) starch and water (B) alum and water
(C) sand and water (D) both A and C
4. Which of the following mixtures will be the most difficult to separate ?
(A) iron fillings + sand (B) sand + water
(C) saw dust + stones (D) nitrogen + hydrogen
5. What will be the sublimate obtained when a mixture of sand, sulphur, common salt and iodine is kept in
open air ?
(A) sand (B) iodine
(C) sulphur (D) common salt
6. The cream can be separated from the milk by the process of
(A) filtration (B) evaporation
(C) centrifugation (D) decantation
7. The process of obtaining pure crystals of copper sulphate from aqueous solution of copper sulphate
solution is known as
(A) crystallization (B) galvanization
(C) rusting (D) None of these
8. Which of the following pass through filter paper unchanged
(A) soil and water (B) common salt and water
(C) both A and B (D) None of these
9. Ferrous sulphate is formed –
(A) by heating iron filings with sulphuric acid
(B) by heating iron filings with sulphur
(C) by the reaction of mixture of iron filings and sulphur with dilute hydrochloric acid
(D) by the reaction of iron with hydrogen sulphide gas
10. To separate sulphur from Iron filings, the solvent used is

(A) carbon disulphide (B) chloroform
(C) alcohol (D) water
11. Explain the principal behind separation of immiscible liquids.

12. Suggest a suitable technique for the separation of the following
(i) Ammonium chloride and sand (ii) Mixture of ethyl alcohol and water
13. Two miscible liquids A and B are present in a solution. The boiling point of A is 60ºC while that of B is
90ºC. Suggest a method of separate them.
14. Name the technique that you will apply for the separation of different pigments from an extract of flower
petals.
15. The boiling points of argon, nitrogen and oxygen are – 180ºC, – 196ºC and – 183ºC respectively. Which
of these gases will distill first from their mixture in air ? Justify your answer.
DPP NO. 08
TOPIC : PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL CHANGES
1. Rusting of an article made up of iron is called
(A) corrosion and it is a physical as well as chemical change.
(B) dissolution and it is a physical change.
(C) corrosion and it is a chemical change.
(D) dissolution and it is a chemical change.
2. Which of the following are chemical changes ?

(i) decaying of wood. (ii) burning of wood.
(iii) sawing of wood. (iv)hammering of a nail into a piece of wood.
(A) i and ii (B) ii and iii (C) iii and iv (D) i and iv
3. Which of the following are physical changes ?

(i) melting of iron metal. (ii) rusting of iron.
(iii) bending of an iron and (iv) drawing a wire of iron metal.
(A) i, ii and iii (B) i, ii and iv (C) i, iii and iv (D) ii, iii and iv
4. Which of the following is a chemical changes ?

(A) Twinkling of stars (B) Cooking of vegetables (C) Cutting of fruits (D) Boiling of water
5. Which of the following is not a chemical change ?

(A) Rusting of iron (B) Cooking of food (C) Freezing of water (D) Sugar solution
6. Which of the following is a chemical change ?

(A) souring of milk (B) stretching of rubber (C) melting of wax (D) magnetization of iron
7. Identify a physical change among the following

(A) respiration (B) digestion of food (C) burning of wax (D) glowing of an electric bulb
8. What is observed when iron nails are added to copper sulphate solution ?
(A) The solution becomes pale green and reddish brown deposit is seen on the nails.
(B) The solution becomes colorless.
(C) There is no reaction.
(D) The solution becomes pale green and no change is observed in the iron nails.
9. What is the color of precipitate when sodium sulphate is added to a solution of barium chloride ?
(A) Brown (B) Black (C) Blue (D) White
10. The gas evolved during reaction of zinc with dilute H2SO4 acid is
(A) a supporter of combustion (B) a potential fuel
(C) non-combustible (D) soluble in water
11. Write any two differences between physical and chemical change.
12. Burning of coal is physical change or chemical change. Comment.
13. Identify physical and chemical changes from the following :
Rusting of iron, cooking of food, freezing of water, burning of candle, melting of wax, glowing of a bulb.
14. On heating calcium carbonate gets converted to calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.
(a) Is this a physical or a chemical change.
(b) Can you prepare one acidic and one basic solution by using the products formed in the above
process ? If so, write the chemical equation involved.
15. Classify each of the following as a physical or chemical change. Give reasons -
(a) Drying of a shirt in the sun. (b) Rising of hot air over a radiator.
(c) Burning of kerosene in a lantern. (d) Change in the color of black tea on adding juice to it.
(e) Churning of milk cream to get butter.
ATOMS AND MOLECULES
DPP NO. 09
TOPIC : DALTON'S THEORY, LAWS OF CHEMICAL COMBINATION, SYMBOLS AND ATOMIC MASS
1. The atomic theory of matter was proposed by
(A) Lavoisier (B) Proust
(C) John Dalton (D) None of these
2. The English name of an element is Sodium, It's Latin name is
(A) Plumbum (B) Ferrum
(C) Natrium (D) Kalium
3. The successful method of forming the symbols of elements was proposed by :
(A) Dalton (B) Lavosier
(C) Berzelius (D) Proust
4. In carbon monoxide the proportion of carbon and oxygen by mass is
(A) 2 : 8 (B) 8 : 1 (C) 3 : 4 (D) 1 : 1
5. The element having atomicity 'eight' is most likely to be
(A) Phosphorus (B) Neon (C) Sulphur (D) Chlorine
6. The law of conservation of mass was proposed by
(A) John Dalton (B) Berzelius (C) Lavosier (D) Proust
7. A particle has 11 protons, 12 neutrons and 10 electrons. The particle is most likely to be
(A) A molecule (B) An atom (C) A cation (D) An anion
8. A particle has 8 protons, 8 neutrons and 10 electrons, the particle is most likely to be
(A) An anion (B) A cation (C) An atom (D) A molecule
9. The formula of a compound is XY2. The valencies of X and Y will be respectively

(A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 and 4 (C) 2 and 1 (D) 3 and 2
10. The atomic number of an element A is 12. The number of electrons in its A2+ ion will be
(A) 12 (B) 10 (C) 14 (D) 15
11. What do you mean by valency ? Also, give some examples for those elements which show variable
valencies.
12. Define Gram atomic mass.

13. Every molecule of ammonia always has formula NH3 irrespective of method of preparation or sources
i.e. 1 mole of ammonia always contains 1 mol. of N and 3 mole H. In others words 17 g of NH3 always
contains 14 g of N and 3 g of H. Now find out % of each element in the compound.
14. 1.80 g of a certain metal burnt in oxygen gave 3.0 g of its oxide; 1.50 g of the same metal heated in
steam gave 2.50 g of its oxide. Show that these results illustrate the law of constant proportion.
15. The atomic weights of two elements A and B are 40 and 80 respectively. If x g of A contains y atom,
how many atoms are present in 2x g of B ?
DPP NO. 10
TOPIC : Mole Concept
1. 44 g of CO2 at NTP will occupy volume equal to

(A) 44 mL (B) 44 L (C) 22.4 mL (D) 22. 4L
2. Number of molecules present in 0.18 g H2O are

(A) 0.18 × 6.023 × 1023 (B) 18 × 6.023 × 1023 (C) 6.023 × 1023 (D) 6.023 × 1021
3. The percentage of sodium in a breakfast cereal labelled as 110 mg of sodium per 100 g of cereal is
(A) 11% (B) 1.10% (C) 0.110% (D) 110%
4. Which of the following sample contains the maximum number of atoms ?
(A) 1 mg of C4H10 (B) 1 mg of N2 (C) 1 mg of Na (D) 1 ml of water
5. 2.76 g of silver carbonate on being strongly heated yields a residue weighing

(A) 2.16g (B) 2.48 g (C) 2.32 g (D) 2.64 g
6. Amount of oxygen required for combustion of 1 kg of a mixture of butane and isobutane is

(A) 1.8 kg (B) 2.7 kg (C) 4.5 kg (D) 3.58 kg
7. The volume of 7g of N2 at N.T.P. is

(A) 11.2 L (B) 22.4 L (C) 5.6 L (D) 6.5 L
8. A piece of sodium weighs 0.023 g. The number of atoms present in it are

(A) 6.023 × 1020 (B) 60.23 × 1022 (C) 6.023 × 1021 (D) 6.023 × 1019
9. What is the volume of 11 g of CO2 at N.T.P ?

(A) 5.6 ml (B) 5.6 litre (C) 56 litre (D) 0.56 litre
10. No. of molecules present is 8g of O2 are

(A) 1.505 × 1023 (B) 2.505 × 1023 (C) 6.023 × 1023 (D) None
11. Complete the following table —
Mass of No. of No. of

Molecular Total no. of
S.No. Substance Sub Mo ato
Mass molecules
s. les ms
1 PH3 17 g
2 HCl 3 mole
3 CH4 1.5 × 1023
4 H2S 68 g
5 HOCl 0.5 mole
12. Calculate the total number of electrons in 16 g of methane.
13. From 160 g of SO2(g) sample, 1.2046 × 1024 molecules of SO2 are removed then find out the volume of
left over SO2(g) at STP.
14. 14 g of nitrogen gas and 22 g of CO2 gas are mixed together. Find the volume of gaseous mixture at
STP.
15. Show that in the reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH (g), mass is conserved.
3
STRUCTURE OF ATOM
DPP NO. 11
TOPIC : DALTON'S ATOMIC THEORY
1. Canal rays were named positive rays by -
(A) Dalton (B) Goldstein (C) Thomson (D) Chadwick
2. Dalton’s atomic theory is based on -

(A) Law of conservation of mass (B) Law of definite proportion
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
3. The name atom belongs to which language ?
(A) Latin (B) English (C) French (D) Greek
4. What happens when an electron jumps from a higher orbit to a lower orbit ?
(A) Energy is released (B) Energy is absorbed (C) A & B both (D) None of these
5. Cathode rays are deflected towards
(A) positive electrode (B) negative electrode (C) both electrodes (D) none of the electrodes
6. The nucleus of the atom consists of -
(A) Proton and neutron (B) Proton and electron
(C) Neutron and electron (D) Proton, neutron and electron
7. An electron is -
(A) alpha-ray particle (B) beta-rays particle (C) Hydrogen ion (D) Positron
8. Who discovered neutron ?
(A) James Chadwick (B) William Crooks (C) J.J. Thomson (D) Rutherford
9. Complete the following statements:
(i) The sum of number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom is known as ------- of the atom.
(ii) Isotopes have same ………….number but different …………. number.
(iii) Isobars have same …………. number but different …………. number.
(iv) …………. contain same number of neutrons in their atoms.
(v) An atom of an element having 11 protons, 11 electrons and 12 neutrons, the atomic mass of the
atom would be ………….
10. The ratio of e/m for a cathode ray –
(A) varies with the gas in a discharge tube (B) is fixed
(C) varies with different electrodes (D) is maximum if hydrogen is taken
11. Write the isotopic symbols of the following nuclei
(i) Helium with one neutron.
(ii) Nitrogen with same number of protons and neutrons.
(iii) Argon with two more neutrons than protons.
(iv) An atom having 9 protons, 9 electrons and 10 neutrons.
12. Match the following
Column I Column-II
(i) Cathode rays (a) Helium nuclei
(ii) Dumb-bell (b) Uncertainty principle
(iii) Alpha particles (c) Electromagnetic radiation
(iv) Moseley (d) p-orbital
(v) Heisenberg (e) Atomic number
(vi) X-rays (f) Electrons
13. What are isotopes? Give one example.
14. Four elements A, B, C and D are given
A shows the presence of 20 neutrons, 17 protons and 17 electrons.
B shows the presence of 18 neutrons, 17 protons and 17 electrons.
C shows the presence of 10 neutrons, 9 protons and 10 electrons.
D shows the presence of 4 neutrons, 3 protons and 2 electrons.
State which of the above is
(a) an anion (b) a cation (c) a pair of isotopes
Also write the formula of the compound formed between D and C.
15. Explain the reason for chemical reactivity of an atom with reference to its electronic configuration.
DPP NO. 12
TOPIC : ATOMIC MODELS AND ISO-TERMS
1. Electronic configuration of Si in ground state is -
(A) 2, 8, 2 (B) 2, 8, 4 (C) 2, 8, 3 (D) 2, 8, 5
2. Which of the following has maximum number of electrons ?
(A) N3 – (B) Ne
(C) O2 – (D) All have same no. of electrons
3. Electronic configurations of ions are like -

(A) configuration of non-metals (B) configuration of metals
(C) configuration of inert gases (D) None of these
4. Which of the following pairs are isobars ?
235 U , 239 Pu
(A) 92 (B) 83 84 (C) 19 19 (D) 139 140
94 36 Kr , 36 Kr 10 Ne , 9 F 58 Ce , 58 Ce
5. Which of the following metals represent variable valency ?

(A) Cr (B) Sn (C) Fe (D) All
6. 1 mole of a diatomic element X2 contains 34 and 40 moles of electrons and neutrons respectively. The
isotopic formula of the element is
(A) 74
34 X
37 X
(B) 17 40 X
(C) 34 40 X
(D) 20
7. Among the following groups which represents the collection of isoelectronic species ?
(A) NO+ , C2–
2 , O2 , CO
–
(B) N2 , C2–
2 , CO, NO
(C) CO , NO+, CN–, C2–

2 (D) NO, CN–, N2, O2–
8. a X atom is isotonic to 17 Y atom. The value of ‘a’ is

8 9
(A) 8 (B) 16 (C) 9 (D) 17
9. The orbits in an atom are numbered by
(A) 100, 200, 300 ............... (B) 10, 20, 30 ...............
(C) 1, 2, 3, 4 ............... (D) 5, 10, 15 ...............
10. Mass number of three elements A, B and C are 35, 37 and 39 respectively. The number of neutrons in
A, B and C are 18, 20 and 20 respectively. Which two elements will show similar chemical properties ?
(A) A and B (B) B and C (C) C and A (D) None of these
11. 10 B and 11B are two isotopes of boron. If average mass number of boron is 10.2, what is the
5 5
percentage of each isotope ?
12. (a) Name an element whose nucleus does not contain any neutron.
(b) Hydrogen has three isotopes written as : 1H , 2 H , 3 H
1 1 1
Explain why these isotopes have almost identical chemical properties.
13. The relative mass of an element A is 16.2. There are two isotopes 16 18
8 A and 8 A of the element.
Calculate the percentage of these two isotopes present in the element.
14. What type of information is obtained about the atom by -particle scattering experiment?
15. Explain the drawbacks of Rutherford's model and how Neil Bohr improved upon his experiment.
BIOLOGY
CLASS – IX (CBSE)
DPP NO. 01
TOPIC: THE FUNDAMENTAL UNIT OF LIFE
1. Who coined the term ‘cell’ ?
(A) Robert Brown (B) A. V. Leeuwenhoek (C) Robert Hooke (D) Linnaeus
2. The fluid present inside the cells is termed as

(A) cell wall (B) cytoplasm (C) nucleoplasm (D) matrix
3. The outer most layer of a cell is

(A) nuclear membrane (B) ectoderm
(C) plasma membrane (D) endoderm
4. The new cell generate from

(A) pre existing cell (B) ribosome (C) nucleus (D) lysosome
5. Colourless plastids are known as

(A) Chromoplasts (B) Chloroplasts (C) Leucoplasts (D) Protoplast
6. Animal cell lacking nuclei would also lack in

(A) Ribosome (B) Lysosome
(C) Endoplasmic reticulum (D) Chromosome
7. The power – house of a cell is

(A) nucleus (B) mitochondria
(C) endoplasmic reticulum (D) lysosome
8. The phenomenon by which protoplast of a cell shrinks from the wall is

(A) Osmosis (B) Plasmolysis (C) Diffusion (D) Glycolysis
9. The barrier between the protoplasm and the outer environment in an animal cell is
(A) Cell wall (B) Plasma membrane
(C) Nuclear membrane (D) Cytoplasm
10. Ribosomes are the site of

(A) Photosynthesis (B) Respiration
(C) Protein synthesis (D) Absorption
11. What is plasmolysis ?
12. Name cell organelles having double membrane envelope.
13. Differentiate between osmosis and diffusion.
14. When plant cell is placed under hypotonic & hypertonic solution respectively than what will happen with
plasma membrane in both condition ?
15. Draw the labelled diagrams of

(i) plant cell (ii) animal cell (iii) prokaryotic cell
DPP NO. 02
TOPIC : TISSUE
1. Plant girth is increased by
(A) apical meristems (B) lateral meristems
(C) intercalary meristem (D) parenchyma
2. Which tissue carries water in plant ?
(A) Xylem (B) Phloem (C) Sclerenchyma (D) collenchyma
3. What is the name of living cells which provide flexibility to plant ?
(A) Collenchyma (B) Sclerenchyma (C) Phloem (D) Sclerieds
4. Which of the following tissues is composed of mainly dead cells ?
(A) Xylem (B) Epidermis (C) Phloem (D) meristematic
5. In trachea of human which type of epithelium does found ?
(A) Squamous epithelium (B) Cuboidal epithelium
(C) Stratified epithelium (D) Ciliated epithelium
6. Large intercellular spaces are present in

(A) epithelial tissue (B) connective tissue (C) muscular tissue (D) nervous tissue
7. Which of the following does not lose their nucleus at maturity?

(A) Companion cells (B) RBCs (C) Vessels (D) Sieve tube cells
8. The connective tissue that connects muscle to bone is called

(A) ligament (B) tendon
(C) nervous tissue (D) all of the above
9. The cells of cork are dead and have a chemical in their walls that makes them impervious to gases and
water. The chemical is
(A) lignin (B) suberin
(C) cutin (D) wax
10. Husk of coconut is made of

(A) sclerenchyma (B) parenchyma (C) collenchyma (D)prosenchyma
11. What is differentiation ?
12. Define the meristematic tissue.
13. What type of tissues is found in

(i) skin (ii) bone (iii) vascular bundle
14. Describe the different types of permanent tissues.
15. What are the different type of parenchyma ? Write their special features.
DPP NO. 03
TOPIC : DIVERSITY IN LIVING ORGANISMS
1. Plants with hidden reproductive organs are included in
(A) gymnosperms (B) angiosperms (C) phanerogams (D) cryptogams
2. The basic unit of classification is

(A) family (B) genus (C) species (D) order
3. The 5 kingdom classification is based on

(A) complexity of cell structure (B) complexity of organisms body
(C) mode of nutrition (D) all of the above
4. Which of the following kingdom includes many kinds of unicellular eukaryotic organism?
(A) Monera (B) Protista (C) Fungi (D) Animalia
5. Which group of animals are called ‘flat worms’?

(A) Porifera (B) Coelenterata (C) Platyhelminthes (D) Nematoda
6. Whale belong to the class

(A) pisces (B) amphibia (C) reptilia (D) mammalia
7. The mode of nutrition in fungi

(A) only saprotrophic (B) saprotrophic or parasitic
(C) only parasitic (D) none of above
8. Sweat & oil glands are present in the skin of

(A) amphibians (B) reptiles (C) aves (D) mammals
9. Which of the following have true body cavity ?

(A) Porifera (B) Coelenterata (C) Annelida (D) Platyhelminthes
10. Which among the following is exclusively marine?

(A) pisces
(B) echinodermata
(C) porifera
(D) arthropoda
11. What is a hierarchical classification?
12. Write the two characters of "Kingdom Monera" with two examples.
13. What is meant by bilateral symmetry?
14. What is five kingdom classification?
15. Make the chart of classification for plant kingdom into their divisions & for animal kingdom into their
phylum.
DPP NO. 04
TOPIC : WHY DO WE FALL ILL
1. Haemophilia is a
(A) chronic disease (B) congenital disease (C) acute disease (D) deficiency disease
2. An organism which harbours a pathogen and may pass it on to another person to cause a disease is
known as
(A) Host (B) Vector (C) Parasite (D) Predator
3. Which of the following statements is correct regarding vaccination?

(A) It develops resistance against pathogen attack.
(B) It kills pathogen causing disease
(C) It blocks the food supplied to pathogens
(D) It does not allow pathogens to multiply in hosts.
4. Microbes that generally enter the body through nose are likely to affect
(A) gut (B) lungs (C) liver (D) lymph node
5. Which of the following statement is correct for a chronic case?

(A) It is a long-lasting disease
(B) It lasts for a short period.
(C) It does not damage any organ.
(D) All the above.
6. Malaria is caused due to

(A) Protozoa (B) Anopheles mosquito
(C) Both a and b (D) None of these
7. Examples of communicable diseases are

(A) Tuberculosis (B) Diabetes (C) Arthritis (D) Cancer
8. Droplet method of transmission of disease is found in

(A) Common cold (B) Syphilis (C) Diabetes (D) Typhoid
9. Which one of the following is not important for individual health?

(A) Living in a clean place (B) Good economic condition
(C) Social equality and harmony (D) Living in large, well-furnished house
10. Which one of the following is not a viral disease?

(A) Dengue (B) AIDS (C) Typhoid (D) Influenza
11. Name the disease that is caused by contaminated food.
12. Give symptoms, mode of transmission & control/preventive measures of the following diseases.
(i) Diarrhoea (ii) Hepatitis (iii) Malaria
13. Write an account about acute & chronic disease.
14. What is tissue specific and organ specific manifestation?
15. What is immunization?
DPP NO. 05
TOPIC : NATURAL RESOURCES
1. Which gas plays a major role in global warming?
(A) CO (B) Nitrous oxide (C) CO2 (D) Sulphur dioxide
2. Floods can be prevented by

(A) Afforestation (B) Removing top soil
(C) Deforestation (D) Increasing population
3. Water harvesting is a method which

(A) Increase ground water level (B) Not practiced in modern days
(C) Has no relation with ground water (D) Decrease ground water level
4. One of the following processes is not a step involved in the soil formation
(A) physical weathering
(B) chemical & biological weathering
(C) sedimentation
(D) decomposition of organic matter followed by humification.
5. The ozone blanket blocks

(A) sunlight (B) U.V. radiations
(C) infrared radiations (D) both UV and infrared radiation
6. If there were no atmosphere around the earth, the temperature of the earth will
(A) increase
(B) go on decreasing
(C) increase during day & decrease during night
(D) be unaffected
7. One of the following factors does not lead to soil formation in nature
(A) molecular form of hydrogen (B) water
(C) wind (D) polythene bags
8. Which of the following is a symbiotic nitrogen fixing microorganism?

(A) Azospirilium (B) Rhizobium
(C) Clostridium (D) Nitrococcus
9. Rainfall patterns depend on

(A) the underground water table
(B) the no. of water bodies in an area
(C) the density pattern of human population in an area
(D) the prevailing season in a area
10. Which of the following is not a green house gas ?

(A) CH4 (B) CO2 (C) CFC (D) NH3
11. What is rain-water harvesting ?
12. What is nitrogen fixation? Name one organism which helps in nitrogen fixation.
13. Explain ozone layer, its depletion and effects of ozone depletion.
14. Describe sources & harmful effects of air pollution.
15. What do you understand by biogeochemical cycles. Differentiate between nitrogen fixation and carbon
fixation in nature.
DPP NO. 06
TOPIC : IMPROVEMENT IN FOOD RESOURCES
1. Using fertilizers in farming is an example of
(A) No cost production (B) Low cost production
(C) High cost production (D) None of these
2. Major elements raise the fertility of a soil are

(A) nitrogen (B) potassium (C) phosphorous (D) all of these
3. The pattern of growing different crops in row is

(A) crop rotation (B) mixed cropping (C) intercropping (D) specialized cropping
4. Crop rotation will not cause

(A) fertility of soil (B) increase nutrients level
(C) damage of soil (D) all of these
5. Mullets, prawns, mussels are examples of

(A) Marine fishes (B) Fresh-water fishes
(C) Finned fishes (D) Shell fish
6. What is the other name for Apis cerana indica?

(A) Indian cow (B) Indian buffalo
(C) Indian bee (D) None of these
7. Manure is
(A) organic in nature (B) harmful for crops (C) inorganic in nature (D) artificially synthesized
8. Major source of mineral provide to the soil by

(A) fertilizer (B) manure (C) weedicide (D) insecticide
9. Vermicompost includes
(A) insects (B) worms (C) earthworm (D) ants
10. Crops which are grown in rainy season termed as

(A) kharif (B) winter Crops (C) rabi (D) spring crops
11. What is vermicompost ?
12. What are draught animals ? Give two examples.
13. What is apiculture ?
14. What are the different methods of plant breeding ?
15. Write descriptive notes on the following

(i) Bee-keeping (ii) Hybridization (iii) Composite fish farming
DPP NO. 01
TOPIC : NUMBER SYSTEM
1. Decimal representation of a rational number cannot be :
(A) Terminating (B) Ton-terminating non-repeating
(C) Non-terminating repeating (D) None of these
p
2. 1.54 , when expressed in the form of , gives :
q
154 155 153 153
(A) (B) (C) (D)
99 90 90 99
0.16 0.09
3. The value of (256) × (256) is :
(A) 4 (B) 16 (C) 64 (D) 256.25
5+ 7
4. After rationalizing the denominator of : we get :
7+ 3
7 + 35 - 21 - 15 7 + 21 + 35 - 15
(A) (B)
4 4
7 + 35 + 21 + 15 7 - 35 - 21 - 5
(C) (D)
4 4
x y 2 y x z
5. If m = a , n = a and a = (m .n ) then xyz is
(A) 1 (B) –1 (C) 2 (D) –2
6. The product of any two irrational numbers is :

(A) always an irrational number (B) always a rational number
(C) always an integer (D) sometimes rational, sometimes irrational
3 +1 3 -1 2 2
7. If a = and b = then the value of a + ab + b is
3 -1 3 +1
(A) 15 (B) –15 (C) 16 (D) –16
1 1
8. Two rational numbers between and are
8 2
3 5 1 3 1 3 1 5
(A) , (B) , (C) , (D) ,
8 8 4 8 4 4 6 6
9. Sum of 4 63 + 5 7 - 8 28 is
(A) 28 (B) 7 (C) 14 (D) 21
5- 3
10. Simplified form of is
80 + 48 - 45 - 27
(A) 4 + 15 (B) 4 - 15 (C) 15 - 4 (D) 15 + 2
11. Simplify each of the following by rationalising the denominator –

7- 5 7+3 5 7 3 -5 2
(i) (ii) (iii)
7+ 5 7-3 5 48 + 18
12. Simplify:
(i) (3 3 + 4 + 2 6 ) + (2 + 3 + 5 6 )
(ii) (6 2 + 3 5 ) – (3 2 - 5 5 )
(iii) (2 - 2 ) × (3 3 + 6 2 )
(iv) 6 2 ÷ 3 2
3
(v) 4 2 - 2 8 +
2
(vi) 48 - 72 - 12 + 2 18
1 1 1 1
(vii) + + + ........
1+ 2 2+ 3 3+ 4 8+ 9
2 2
13. Prove that 2a - 2b
+ =2
1+ x 1 + x 2 b - 2a
9 n ´ 32 ´ (3- n / 2 ) -2 - ( 27) n 1
14. If 3m 3
= , prove that m – n = 1.
3 ´2 27
1
15. (i) If x = 2 + 3 , find the value of x +
x
1
(ii) If a = 7 + 40 , find the value of a+
a
DPP NO. 02
1. The product of a rational and an irrational numbers is :

(A) always an irrational number (B) always a rational number
(C) always an integer (D) sometimes rational, sometimes irrational
1 1 1 1
2. Evaluate: + + + :
2+ 5 5+ 6 6+ 7 7+ 8
(A) – 2 (B) 2 2 (C) 2 2 - 2 (D) None of these
5+ 5
3. The number is :
5- 5
(A) a whole number (B) a rational number
(C) an irrational number (D) none of these
4. An irrational number between 0.3101 and 0.333 ... is :
(A) 0.32010010001..... (B) 0.1010010001...
(C) 0.34 (D) 0.3
5. When 15 15 is divided by 3 3 , then the quotient is :
(A) 5 3 (B) 3 5 (C) 5 5 (D) 3 3
6. Which of the following are rational numbers ?
(A) 25 (B) 721 (C) 343 (D) All of these
7. a= 2,b= 3 and c = – 2 , then which of the following is true :

(A) a > b (B) b > a (C) b < c (D) a = c
8. 5+ 8 + 3– 2 – 2 – 6 when simplified is :
(A) positive and irrational (B) negative and irrational
(C) positive and rational (D) negative and rational
9. If 13 - x 10 = 8 + 5 , then the value of x is :

(A) –5 (B) –6 (C) –4 (D) –2
1 27
10. The value of of 15 is :
3
27 9 26 9
(A) 5 (B) 15 (C) 5 × 15 (D) 5 × 3
11. Represent the following numbers on number line.
(i) 17
(ii) 6.8
(iii) 2. 3 (up to 2 decimal place)
(iv) 5. 27 (up to 3 decimal place)
p
12. Express each of the following in the form .
q
(i) 8.0025 (ii) -25.6875 (iii) 0.6 (iv) 1.27 (v) 15.712
p q –r 2 2 1
13. If 3 = 5 = 225 , then show that + + =0
p q r
x y z xy
14. If 3 = 4 = 12 then prove that (x + y)z = xy or z =
x+y
15. In each of the following determine rational numbers a and b –

3 -1 5+ 3 3 7 -1 7 +1
(i) = a -b 3 (ii) =a+b 3 (iii) - =a+b 7
3 +1 7+4 3 7 +1 7 -1
DPP NO. 03
TOPIC : POLYNOMIAL
1. Which of the following expressions is a polynomial?
x -1
(A) x -1 (B)
x +1
2 2x 3 / 2
(C) x 2 - +5 (D) x 2 + +6
x2 x
2. 3 is a polynomial of degree
1
(A) (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 0
2
2
3. If (x +kx–3) = (x – 3)(x +1), then k = ?
(A) 2 (B) –2 (C) 3 (D) –1
4. f(x) = x(x + 1) (2x + 1) then f(x) – f(x – 1) is -

(A) 4x2 (B) 6x2 (C) 5x2 (D) 7x2
3 2
5. If x + 2 divides 2x – 5x + 4x + p without remainder, p is -
(A) 44 (B) –44 (C) 33 (D) 22
3 2 2
6. If 2x + 3x + px +q is divisible by x – x – 6 then p + q is -
(A) 47 (B) –47 (C) 13 (D) –13
3 2
7. If mx – 16x – x + 4 is divided by x – 4 without remainder then m is -
(A) – 4 (B) –3 (C) 4 (D) + 3
2
8. One of the zeroes of the polynomial 2x + 7x – 4 is :
(A) 2 (B) 1/2 (C) 1/2 (D) – 2
140 139 138 2

9. x + x + x + ......... x + x + 1 is a polynomial with :
(A) infinite terms (B) 140 terms
(C) 141 terms (D) 139 terms
10. If p(x) = q(x) × g(x) + r(x), r(x) ≠ 0, where p(x), q(x), g(x), and r(x) are polynomials (where g(x) is divisor),
then :
(A) degree of r(x) = degree of g(x) (B) degree of r(x) > degree of g(x)
(C) degree of r(x) < degree of g(x) (D) degree of r(x) = 0
11. Write (i) a binomial of degree 100 (ii) a monomial of degree 23.
12. Write the degree of each of the following polynomials:

2 3
(i) 2 x - 5 (ii) 3 – x + x – 6x
4 7
(iii) 9 (iv) 8x - 36x + 5x
9 5 10 2
(v) x - x + 3x +8 (vi) 2- 3x
3 2
13. Find the values of a and b so that the polynomial (x – 10x + ax + b) is exactly divisible by (x – 1) as
well as (x – 2).
3 2 2
14. Without actual division, show that (x – 3x – 13x + 15) is exactly divisible by (x + 2x – 3).
15. If (x3 + ax2 + bx + 6) has (x – 2) as a factor and leaves a remainder 3 when divided by (x – 3), find the
values of a and b.
DPP NO. 04
TOPIC : POLYNOMIALS
1 1
1. If x2 + 2
= 18 then the most suitable value of x - is –
x x
(A) 4 (B) ± 4 (C) –4 (D) ± 2
3 3 3
2. If a + b = c then a + b – c is equal to -
(A) 3abc (B) –3abc (C) abc (D) –abc
æ x2 y2 z 2 ö
3. If x + y + z = 0, then the value of çç + + ÷÷ is
è yz xz xy ø
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 0 (D) –1
2 2
4. The factors of (x – 1 – 2a – a ) are -
(A) (x + a + 1) (x – a – 1) (B) (x – a – 1) (x – a + 1)
(C) (x + a – 1)(x – a + 1) (D) None of these
3 b3
5. Factorize the following : 125a +
27
æ bö æ 2 5ab b 2 ö æ b öæ 2 5ab b 2 ö
(A) ç 5 a + ÷ ç 25a - + ÷÷ (B) ç 5 a - ÷ ç 25a + + ÷÷
è 3 ø çè 3 9 ø è 3 øçè 3 9ø
æ b 2 öæ 5ab b 2 ö
(C) çç 25a 2 + ÷÷çç 25a 2 - + ÷÷ (D) None of these
è 9 øè 3 9ø
6. Factorize 2 2 a3 + 8b3 – 27c3 + 18 2 abc

(A) ( 2a + 2b - 3c) (2a2 + b2 + c2 – 2 2 ab + 6bc + 3 2 ac)
(B) ( 2 a + 2b – 3c) (2a2 + 4b2 + 9c2 – 2 2 ab + 6bc + 3 2 ac)

(C) ( 2 a + b – c) (2a2 + b2 + c2 – 2 2 ab + 6bc + 3ac)
(D) None of these
1 1 1
7. If x 2 + y 2 - z 2 = 0 then the value of (x + y – z)2 is :
(A) 2xy (B) 2yz (C) 4xz (D) 4xy
æ 1ö 1 æ 2 4 ö
8. If ç a - ÷ = , then ç 4a + 2 ÷ is equal to
è aø 2 è a ø
(A) 9 (B) – 9 (C) – 10 (D) 10
( x – y) 3 + ( y – z ) 3 + ( z – x) 3
9. The value of is :
( x 2 – y 2 )3 + ( y 2 – z 2 )3 + ( z 2 – x 2 )3
1
(A) (x – y) (y – z) (z – x) (B)
( x – y )( y – z )( z – x )
1
(C) (D) (x + y) (y + z) (z + x)
( x + y )( y + z )( z + x)
10. If ab = 5 and a – b = 2, then the value of a3 – b3 is equal to :

(A) 10 (B) 38 (C) – 38 (D) 76
11. Factorise :
3 3 4 2 2 2
(i) 27 a b – 45a b (ii) 9x – 16y
(iii) x3 – x (iv) y2 – 4y + 3
(v) 6 – x – x2 (vi) 4x4 + 7x2 – 2
3 3 3
(vii) (p – q) + (q – r) + (r – p)
12. Evaluate using Identities:

(i) (99)2 (ii) (999)3
13. If a + b + c = 7 and ab + bc + ca = 20, find the value of a2 + b2 + c2.
14. If a + b + c = 5 and ab + bc + ca = 10, prove that a3 + b3 + c3 – 3abc = –25

2 2 3 3
15. If a + b = 11, a + b = 61, find a + b .
DPP NO. 05
TOPIC : CO-ORDINATE GEOMETRY
1. The perpendicular distance of the point P(4, 5) from the y-axis is

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 7
2. Image of point (–2, 5) is :
(A) (2, 5) under y-axis (B) (–2, –5) under x-axis
(C) (2, 5) under x-axis (D) both (A) & (B)
3. Abscissa of a point is positive in
(A) I and II quadrants (B) I and IV quadrants (C) I quadrant only (D) II quadrant only
4. Point (5, –3) lies in the

(A) first quadrant (B) second quadrant (C) third quadrant (D) fourth quadrant
5. Signs of the abscissa and ordinates of a point in the third quadrant are respectively :
(A) +, + (B) –, – (C) –, + (D) +, –
6. If (x, y) = (y, x), then :

x
(A) x – y = 0 (B) x + y = 0 (C) xy = 0 (D) =0
y
7. If y co-ordinate of a point is zero, then this point always lies :
(A) in I quadrant (B) in II quadrant (C) on x-axis (D) on y-axis
8. In the figure, O is the origin and OABC is a square of side 2 units. The co-ordinates of A, B and C
respectively are :
(A) (2, 0); (2, 2); (–2, 0) (B) (2, 0); (–2, 2); (0, 2)
(C) (2, 0); (0, 2); (–2, –2) (D) (2, 0); (2, 2); (0, 2)
9. If the perpendicular distance of a point P from the x-axis is 5 units and the foot of the perpendicular lies
on the negative direction of x-axis, then the point P has :
(A) x coordinate = – 5 (B) y coordinate = 5 only
(C) y coordinate = – 5 only (D) y coordinate = 5 or – 5
10. In the figure, the area of the ΔOAB is :
(A) 4 sq. units (B) 8 sq. units (C) 2 sq. units (D) none of these
11. Draw the lines X'OX and YOY' as axes on the plane of a paper and plot the points given below:
(i) A(5, 3) (ii) B(–3, 2) (ii) C(–5, –4) (iv) D(2, –6)
12. In which quadrants do the given points lie?
(i) (4, –2) (ii) (–3, 7) (iii) (–1, –2) (iv) (3, 6)
13. The three vertices of D ABC are A(1, 4), B(–2, 2) and C(3, 2). Plot these points on a graph paper and
calculate the area of D ABC.
14. On which axes do the given points lie?

(i) (7, 0) (ii) (0, –3)
15. From the figure, write the following :
(i) co-ordinates of B, C and E

(ii) the point identified by the co-ordinates (0, –2).
(iii) the abscissa of the point H
(iv) the ordinate of the point D.
DPP NO. 06
Topic : Linear Equation in two variables
1. An ordered pair that satisfies an equation in two variables is called its :

(A) Zero (B) Root (C) Solution (D) Both (B) and (C)
2. The solution of the equations 2x – 3y = 7 and 4x – 6y = 20 is -

(A) x = 18, y = 12 (B) x = 0, y = 0 (C) No solution (D) x = 8, y = 5
3. If 2a – 3 = 5 and 3b + 1 = 2. Then 3b – 2a is -
(A) – 3 (B) –7 (C) 7 (D) – 9
4. If (2, 0) is a solution of the linear equation 2x + 3y = k, then the value of k is

(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 2
5. The graph of the linear equation 2x + 3y = 6 cuts the y-axis at the point
(A) (2, 0) (B) (0, 3) (C) (3, 0) (D) (0, 2)
6. One set of ordered pair which belongs to a straight line represented by an equation y = 2x – 5 is -
(A) (1,1) (B) (2, 1) (C) (1, –3) (D) (–3, 1)
7. The axis on which the point (0,–10) lies is -

(A) Positive x-axis (B) Negative x-axis
(C) Positive y-axis (D) Negative y-axis
x –1 0 1 2
8.
y – 3 –1 1 3
Which equation satisfies the data in the table ?

(A) y = x – 2 (B) y = 2x – 1 (C) y = 3x – 3 (D) y = x + 1
9. Ordered pair (s) that satisfy the inequality x + y + 1 < 0 is -

(A) (0, –1) (B) (–2, 0) (C) (2, – 4) (D) Both (B) and (C)
10. How many linear equations in x and y can be satisfied by x = 1 and y = 2?

(A) Only one (B) Two (C) Infinitely many (D) Three
11. Draw the graph of the lines 4x – y = 5 and 5y – 4x = 7 on the same graph paper and find the
coordinates of their point of intersection.
12. The points (2,3) lies on the graph of the linear equation 3x – (a–1)y=2a –1. If the same point also lies
on the graph of the linear equation 5x + (1–2a)y=3b, then find the value of b.
13. Find the condition such that ordered pair (m, n) satisfies the equation ax + by + c = 0.
x
14. Express x in terms of y given that + 2y = 5. Check whether (3, 2) is a solution of the given equation.
3
15. A lending library has a fixed charge for the first three days and an addition charge for each day
thereafter. Sarika paid Rs. 27 for a book kept for seven days. While Susy paid Rs. 21 for the book the
kept for five days. Find the fixed charge and the charge for each extra day.
DPP NO. 07
TOPIC : LINES AND ANGLES
1. In the figure, l is a transversal to the lines m and n, where m and n are parallel. If Ð1 = 60° then Ð2 is :
1 m
n
2
(A) 150° (B) 90°

(C) 120° (D) 60°
2. In figure, if ÐAOC + ÐBOD = 284°, then ÐAOD =

C
A O B
D
(A) 18° (B) 38°
(C) 20° (D) 19°
3. In the given figure alongside , three coplanar lines intersect at a point 'O' forming angles as shown. The
value of (c + d) – (a + b) is :
(A) 10° (B) 20°

(C) 25° (D) 35°
4. The value of x in the given figure is –
(A) 20º (B) 223º

(C) 118º (D) 72º
5. In the given figure, ÐABP = ÐACQ, ÐBAC = 68°. The the value of ÐCBR =
T S
A
68°
P B C Q
R U
(A) 112° (B) 124°

(C) 118° (D) 110°
6. In the figure, if ÐPOR = (4y + 2)° ÐQOR = (5y –20)° , then ÐQOS =
(4y+2)° (5y–20)°
×
P O Q
(A) 22° (B) 90°

(C) 88° (D) 32°
7. In the given figure AB || CD and BC || DE, then the value of x =
(A) 100° (B) 120° (C) 140° (D) Cannot be determined
8. In the given figure BD || CE, then :
(A) x > z > y (B) x > y > z (C) x < y < z (D) z > x > y
9. If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4. Then the angles are :
(A) 20°, 60°, 80° (B) 80°, 40°, 60° (C) 40°, 60°, 80° (D) 60°, 40°, 80°
10. If two supplementary angles are in the ratio 2 : 7, then the angles are :
(A) 35° 145° (B) 70°, 110° (C) 40°, 140° (D) 50°, 130°
11. In the adjoining fig., OP bisects ÐAOC & OQ bisects Ð BOC and OP ^OQ. Show that the points A,O
and B are collinear.
12. If two supplementary angles are in the ratio 11 : 7, then find the angles.
13. In the given figure if AB | | CD, then find the value of x.

A B
132º
148º
C x D
14. If two parallel lines are intersected by a transversal then prove that the bisectors of two alternate interior
angles are parallel.
15. In the given figure if AB | | CD, then find the value of x.

E
x
100º
C D
50º
A B
DPP NO. 08
TOPIC: CONGRUENT TRIANGLES
1. Which of the following is not a criterion for congruence of triangles?

(A) SAS (B) ASA
(C) SSA (D) SSS
2. In ΔABC and ΔPQR, if AB = QR, BC = PR and CA = PQ, then:

(A) ΔABC @ ΔPQR (B) ΔCBA @ ΔPRQ
(C) ΔBAC @ ΔRPQ (D) ΔPQR @ ΔBCA
3. In DABC, BC = AB and ÐB = 80º. Then ÐA is equal to:

(A) 80° (B) 40°
(C) 50° (D) 100°
4. In ΔPQR, ÐR = ÐP and QR = 4 cm and PR = 5 cm. Then the length of PQ is:

(A) 4 cm (B) 5 cm
(C) 2 cm (D) 2.5 cm
5. D is a point on the side BC of a ΔABC such that AD bisects ÐBAC. Then:

(A) BD = CD (B) BA > BD
(C) BD > BA (D) CD > CA
6. In a ΔABC, if ÐA = 45° and ÐC = 60°, then the shortest side of the triangle is:
(A) AB (B) AC
(C) BC (D) none of these
7. Which of the following figures may not be congruent?

(A) two squares of equal sides (B) two line segments of equal lengths
(C) two circles of equal radii (D) two triangles of equal angles
8. Read the two statements and choose among the correct options:
Statement P: All equilateral triangles are isosceles triangles.
Statement Q: All scalene triangles are isosceles triangles.
(A) P is true but Q is false (B) P is false but Q is true
(C) Both P and Q are true (D) Both P and Q are false
9. For the given triangle PQR, which of the following is true ?
(A) PQ = QR (B) PQ > QR (C) PQ < QR (D) ext. ÐP < ext. ÐQ
10. In the following figure, AD bisects ∠ A. Then the relation between the sides AB, BD and DC is :
(A) AB < DC < AC (B) BD < AB < DC (C) AB > DC > BD (D) DC < BD < AB
11. In DABC, the angle bisectors of ÐB and ÐC meet at O. If ÐA = 70°, find ÐBOC.
12. In the adjoining figure, AD is the median of DABC. If BL and CM are drawn perpendiculars on AD and
AD produced, prove that BL = CM.
13. In the given figure, OA = OB and OP = OQ. Prove that

(i) PX = QX , (ii) AX = BX.
14. The sides AB and AC of DABC have been produced to D and E respectively. The bisectors of ÐCBD
and ÐBCE meet at O. If ÐA = 40°, find ÐBOC.
15. In the given figure, AD divides ÐBAC in the ratio 1 : 3 and AD = DB. Determine the value of x.
DPP NO. 09
TOPIC : QUADRILATERALS
1. In a parallelogram ABCD, ÐD = 105º, then the ÐA and ÐB will be :

(A) 105º, 75º (B) 75º, 105º
(C) 105º, 105º (D) 75º, 75º
2. When the diagonals of a parallelogram are perpendicular to each other then it is called :
(A) square (B) rectangle
(C) rhombus (D) parallelogram
3. ABCD is a rhombus with ÐABC = 56º, then the ÐACD will be :

(A) 56º (B) 62º
(C) 124º (D) 34º
4. LMNO is a trapezium with LM || NO. If P and Q are the mid-points of LO and MN respectively and LM =
5 cm and ON = 10 cm, then PQ =
(A) 2.5 cm (B) 5 cm
(C) 7.5 cm (D) 15 cm
5. In the adjoining figure, AP and BP are angle bisectors of ÐA and ÐB which meets at P on the
parallelogram ABCD. Then 2ÐAPB =
(A) ÐC + ÐD (B) ÐA + ÐC (C) ÐB + ÐD (D) 2ÐC
6. Observe given figure, then find GH.
(A) 3 cm (B) 2.5 cm (C) 4 cm (D) Data inadequate
7. The given figure , ABCD is a trapezium in which ÐA =(x + 25º), ÐB = yº, ÐC = 95º and ÐD = (2x + 5)º.
Then the value of x and y are –
(A) x = 50, y = 85 (B) x = 45, y = 85 (C) x = 40, y = 90 (D) x = 92, y = 60
8. The angles A, B, C, D , in the parallelogram ABCD are –
(A) 90º, 90º, 90º, 90º (B) 90º, 45º, 30º, 15º (C) 30º, 60º, 20º, 40º (D) 90º, 45º, 15º, 20º
KP 4
9. In figure, PQ || MN. If = and KN = 20.4 cm, then KQ =
PM 13
(A) 3.8 cm (B) 4 cm (C) 4.5 cm (D) 4.8 cm
NT 9
10. In the figure, if = and if MB = 10 cm, then MN will be -
AB 5
(A) 18 cm (B) 20 cm (C) 30 cm (D) 90 cm

11. ABCD is a trapezium in which side AB is parallel to side DC and E is the mid-point of side AD. If F is a
1
point on side BC such that segment EF is parallel to side DC. Prove that EF = (AB + DC).
2
12. In DABC, AD is the median through A and E is the mid-point of AD. BE produced meets AC in F. Prove
1
that AF = AC.
3
13. In the parallelogram, the value of “x” is :
14. Let ABCD be a parallelogram, with AE^DC and CF^AD. Let AB = 15 cm, AE = 8 cm and CF = 10cm.
Then AD equals (in cm).
15. In the given figure, ABCD is a rhombus. If ÐOAB = 35º, then find the value of x
D C
35º x
A B
DPP NO. 10
TOPIC : AREAS OF PARALLELOGRAM & TRIANGLES
1. In DABC, AD is a median and P is a point on AD such that AP : PD = 1 : 2, then the area of DABP = ?
1 2
(A) × Area of DABC (B) × Area of DABC
2 3
1 1
(C) × Area of DABC (D) × Area of DABC
3 6
2. In DABC, if D is a point in BC and divides it in the ratio 3 : 5 i.e., if BD : DC = 3 : 5 then, ar(DADC) :
ar(DABC) = ?
(A) 3 : 5 (B) 3 : 8 (C) 5 : 8 (D) 8 : 3
3. If the point D divides the side BC of DABC in the ratio p : q, then the ar (DABD) : ar(DADC) are in the
ratio :
2 2 2 2
(A) q : p (B) p : q (C) q : p (D) p : q
1
4. ABCD is a parallelogram. DDEC is drawn such that BE = AE. Sum of the areas of DADE and DBEC
3
is :
1 1
(A) area of parallelogram ABCD (B) area of parallelogram ABCD
3 2
2 1
(C) area of DDEC (D) area of DDEC
3 2
5. ABCD is a parallelogram. Points P and Q, on BC trisects it in three equal parts. PR and QS are also
drawn parallel to AB, then ar(APQ) = ........... ar(ABCD).
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 2 4 6
2
6. In figure, if ar(DABC) = 32 cm then ar (AEDF) =
(A) 21 cm2 (B) 18 cm2 (C) 16 cm2 (D) 14 cm2
7. In the figure, D and E are the mid-point of the sides AC and BC respectively of DABC. If ar(DBED) = 12
cm2, then ar (DAEC) =
2 2
(A) 48 cm (B) 24 cm
2
(C) 36 cm (D) none of these
8. In the below diagram, ABCD is a rectangle with AE = EF = FB. What is the ratio of the areas of DCEF
and that of the rectangle ?
1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
6 8 9
9. In parallelogram ABCD, AB = 12 cm. The altitudes corresponding to the sides AB and AD are
respectively
9 cm and 11 cm. Find AD.
108 108 99 108

(A) cm (B) cm (C) cm (D) cm
11 10 10 17
10. In figure, E is any point on median AD of a DABC. Show that ar(DABE) = ar(DACE).
1
11. If the medians of a DABC intersect at G, show that ar(DAGB) = ar(DAGC) = ar(DBGC) = ar(DABC).
3
12. P and Q are any two points lying on the sides DC and AD respectively of a parallelogram ABCD.
Prove that : Ar (DAPB) = Ar (DBQC).
13. In the figure, PQRS and ABRS are parallelograms and X is any point on side BR. Prove that :
(i) ar(||gm PQRS) = ar(||gm ABRS)

1
(ii) ar(DAXS) = ar(||gm PQRS)
2
14. In the adjoining figure, PQRS and PABC are two parallelograms of equal area. Prove that QC || BR.
15. In DABC, D is the mid-point of AB. P is any point of BC. CQ || PD meets AB in Q. Show that
1
ar(DBPQ) = ar(DABC).
2
DPP NO. 11
TOPIC : CIRCLES
1. Two parallel chords of a circle whose radius is 13 cm are respectively 10 cm and 24 cm. If they lie on
the opposite side of the centre then the distance between them is
(A) 7 cm. (B) 10 cm. (C) 13 cm. (D) 17 cm.
2. Two parallel chords of a circle whose radius is 117 cm, are 12 cm and 18 cm. Both chords are on the
same side of the centre. Then distance between the chords is
O
117
A 9 cm M 9 cm B
C 6 cm N 6 cm D
(A) 10 cm. (B) 7 cm. (C) 3 cm (D) 1 cm
3. A regular hexagon is inscribed in a circle with centre O. The angle subtended by each side at the centre
is :
(A) 30°. (B) 45°. (C) 60°. (D) 90°.
4. In figure, a square is inscribed in a circle of radius 8 2 cm. Then the length of the sides of square is :
C
D
O
8 2
B
A
(A) 16 cm. (B) 12 cm. (C) 10 cm. (D) 8 cm
5. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle, AB and CD are two chords such that OL is
perpendicular to AB and OM is perpendicular to CD. ÐAOB = 50°, AL = DM = 2 cm. The measure of
ÐCOD is
A
D
2 cm O 2 cm
L
M
B
C
(A) 50°. (B) 70°. (C) 90°. (D) 130°
6. In the figure, ÐBCF = 80°, The value of ÐCBE is
B C
A 80º
95º
D
E F
(A) 130°. (B) 100°. (C) 95°. (D) 85°.
7. In the given figure, AB = BC = CD, If ÐBAC = 25º, then value of ÐAED is :
C
D
B
25º
A
E
(A) 50º (B) 60º (C) 65º (D) 75º
8. If @ then :
O
A 2 1 4 D
3
B C
(A) Ð1 = Ð2 (B) Ð3 = Ð4
(C) Ð2 = Ð3 (D) None of these.
9. A, B and C are three points on the circle whose centre is O. If ÐBAC = x, ÐCBO = ÐBCO = y,
ÐBOC = t, reflex ÐBOC = z, then :
A
(A) x + y = 90° x
B y y C
(B) x – y = 90°
(C) t + 2y° = 90° O
z
(D) None of these
10. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. If ÐAOC = 90°, then ÐABC is
D
O
90º
A C
(A) 45°. (B) 75°. (C) 90°. (D) 135°.
11. A chord of a circle is equal to the radius of the circle. Find the angle subtended by the chord at a point
on the minor arc and also at a point on the major arc.
12. Prove that the quadrilateral formed (if possible) by the internal angle bisectors of any quadrilateral is
cyclic.
13. Two equal chords intersect within the circle, prove that the line joining the point of intersection and the
centre makes equal angles with the chords.
14. In the figure given below AB and CD are chords and PQ is the diameter. If ÐAEQ = ÐDEQ, prove that
AB = CD.
A
L
C E Q
P O
M
B
D
15. If two sides of a cyclic quadrilateral are parallel, prove that the remaining two sides are equal and the
diagonals are also equal.
DPP NO. 12
TOPIC : CONSTRUCTION
1. The construction of a triangle ABC, given that BC = 6 cm, ∠B = 45° is not possible when difference of
AB and AC is equal to :
(A) 6.9 cm (B) 5.2 cm (C) 5.0 cm (D) 4.0 cm
2. The construction of a triangle ABC, given that BC = 3 cm, ∠C = 60° is possible when difference of AB
and AC is equal to :
(A) 3.2 cm (B) 3.1 cm (C)3 cm (D) 2.8 cm
3. The construction of a triangle ABC in which AB = 4 cm, ∠A = 60° is not possible when difference of BC
and AC is equal to :
(A) 3.5 cm (B) 4.5 cm (C)3 cm (D) 2.5 cm
4. Which of the following angles cannot be constructed with the help of a ruler and a compass ?
1 1 1 1
(A) 7 (B) 22 (C) 30 (D) 37
2 2 2 2
5. With the help of a ruler and a compass, it is not possible to construct an angle of :
(A) 37.5° (B) 40° (C) 22.5° (D) 67.5°
6. With the help of ruler and compass, it is not possible to construct an angle of :
(A) 60° (B) 15° (C) 38° (D) 135°
7. With the help of a ruler and a compass, it is possible to construct an angle of :

(A) 35° (B) 40° (C) 37.5° (D) 47.5°
8. Angle of 90° can be constructed with the help of compass in the combination of
(A) 30°, 60°. (B) 45°, 45°. (C) 70°, 20°. (D) 80°, 10°.
9. In the given figure, dotted line shows

(A) angle bisector
(B) line bisector
(C) median bisector
(D) perpendicular bisector
10. In the given figure, BC = 4.5 cm, ∠B= 45°, AB - AC = 2.5 cm, the correct figure is
(A) (i) (B) (ii) (C) (iii) (D) (iv)
11. Construct ΔABC such that ∠B = 60°, ∠C = 45° and AB + BC + CA = 10 cm.
12. Construct a ΔABC in which ∠B = 30° and ∠C = 90° and the perimeter of the triangle is 11 cm.
13. Construct a triangle ABC in which BC = 4 cm, ∠B = 30° and AB + AC = 6 cm.
14. Construct a right angled triangle PQR right angled at Q where base QR is 4 cm and the sum of other side and
hypotenuse is 8 cm.
15. Construct a ΔABC in which BC = 5.7 cm, ∠B = 30° and AB – AC = 3 cm.
DPP NO. 13
TOPIC : HERON'S FORMULA
1. The edges of a triangular board are 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm. The cost of painting it at the rate of 9 paise
2
per cm is :
(A) Rs 2.00 (B) Rs 2.16 (C) Rs 2.48 (D) Rs 3.00
2. The base of a right triangle is 8 cm and hypotenuse is 10 cm. Its area will be :
2 2 2 2
(A) 24 cm (B) 40 cm (C) 48 cm (D) 80 cm
3. The sides of a triangle are x, y and z. If x + y = 7 m, y + z = 9 m, and z + x = 8 m, then area of the

triangle is :
2 2 2 2
(A) 4 m (B) 5 m (C) 6 m (D) 7 m
2
4. Area of an equilateral triangle is 9 3 cm in find its side -
(A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 3 3 (D) 2 3
5. The length of the side of a rhombus is 30 cm and one of its diagonals is 48 cm long. Area of the
rhombus is :
2 2 2 2
(A) 432 cm (B) 864 cm (C) 300 cm (D) 216 cm
6. The sides of a triangle are 35 cm, 54 cm and 61 cm, respectively. The length of its longest altitude is :
(A) 16 5 cm (B) 10 5 cm (C) 24 5 cm (D) 28 cm
7. The length of the sides of a triangle are 5x, 5x and 8x. The area of the triangle is :
2 2 2 2
(A) 144 x sq. units (B) 100 x sq. units (C) 24x sq. units (D) 12 x sq. units
8. In the figure, ABCD is a rectangle and DEC is an equilateral triangle. Area of ΔDEC is :
(A) 36 3 cm2 (B) 48 cm2 (C) 12 3 cm2 (D) 9 3 cm2
9. The area of a quadrilateral ABCD in which AB = 3 cm, BC = 4 cm, CD = 4 cm, DA = 5 cm and AC = 5

cm is :
(A) 2(3 + 21)cm 2 (B) (3 + 21)cm 2 (C) ( 2 + 31)cm 2 (D) 3(2 + 31)cm 2
10. Each equal side of an isosceles triangle is 13 cm and its base is 24 cm. Area of the triangle is :
2 2 2 2
(A) 50 3 cm (B) 40 3 cm (C) 25 3 cm (D) 60 cm
11. The adjacent sides of a parallelogram ABCD are AB = 34 cm, BC = 20 cm and diagonal AC = 42 cm.
Find the area of the parallelogram.
12. Perimeter of a rhombus is 146 cm and one diagonal is 55 cm, find the other diagonal and area of the
rhombus.
13. The parallel sides of a trapezium are 25 m and 20 m and two other sides are 13 m and 12 m, then find
the area of the trapezium.
14. Find the area of quadrilateral ABCD in which AB = 9 cm, BC = 40 cm, CD = 28 cm, DA = 15 cm and
ÐABC = 90°.
15. The perimeter of a triangle is 50 cm. One side of the triangle is 4 cm longer than the smaller side and
the third side is 6 cm less than twice the smaller side. Find the area of the triangle.
DPP NO. 14
TOPIC : SURFACE AREA AND VOLUME
1. A right triangle with sides 3 cm, 4 cm and 5 cm is rotated by the side of 3 cm to form a cone. The
volume of the cone so formed is :
3 3 3 3
(A) 12p cm (B) 15p cm (C) 16p cm (D) 20p cm
2. In a shower, 5 cm of rain falls. The volume of water that falls on 1.5 hectares of ground is –
(A) 75 cu. m (B) 750 cu. m (C) 7500 cu. m (D) 75000 cu. m
3. A hall is 15 m long and 12 m broad. If the sum of the areas of the floor and the celling is equal to the
sum of the areas of four walls, the volume of the hall is –
(A) 720 (B) 900 (C) 1200 (D) 1800
4. 66 cubic centimetres of silver is drawn into a wire 1 mm in diameter. The length of the wire in metres
will be :
(A) 84 (B) 90 (C) 168 (D) 336
5. A hollow iron pipe is 12 cm long and its external diameter is 8 cm. If the thickness of the pipe is 1 cm
3
and iron weights 8 g/cm , then the weight of the pipe is :
(A) 2112 kg (B) 2.112 kg (C) 211.2 kg (D) 21.12 kg
6. A boat having a length 3m and breadth 2 m is floating on a lake. The boat sinks by 1 cm when a man
3
gets on it. The mass of the man is (density of water is 1000kg/m )-
(A) 12 kg (B) 60 kg (C) 72 kg (D) 96 kg
7. 50 men took a dip in a water tank 40 m long and 20 m broad on a religious day if the average
3
displacement of water by a man is 4 m , then the rise in the water level in the tank will be :
(A) 20 cm (B) 25 cm (C) 35 cm (D) 50 cm
8. The slant height of a right circular cone is 10 m and its height is 8 m. Find the area of its curved surface
2 2 2 2
(A) 30pm (B) 40p m (C) 60p m (D) 80p m
9. A cistern 6m long and 4 m wide contains water up to a depth of 1 m 25 cm. The total area of the wet
surface is :
(A) 49 m2 (B) 50 m2 (C) 53.5 m2 (D) 55 m 2
10. A metallic sheet is of rectangular shape with dimensions 48 m × 36 m. From each of its corners, a
square is cut off so as to make an open box. If the length of the square is 8 m, the volume of the box
(in m 3) is :
(A) 4830 (B) 5120 (C) 6420 (D) 8960
11. There are two cones, the surface area of one cone is twice the surface area of the other cone. The
slant height of the latter is twice that of the former. Find the ratio of their radii.
12. A cylindrical vessel without lid, has to be tin coated on both the sides. If the radius of the base is 70 cm
2
and its height is 1.4 m, calculate the cost of tin- coating at the rate of Rs. 3.50 per 1000 cm .
13. A cone of radius 5 cm is filled with water. If the water is poured in a cylinder of radius 10 cm, the height
of the water rises by 2 cm , find the height of the cone.
14. How many spherical bullets can be made out of a solid cube of lead whose edge measures 44 cm,
each bullet being 4 cm in diameter.
15. A dome of a building is in the form of hemisphere. From inside, it was white washed at the cost of
Rs.498.96. If the cost of whitewashing it, is Rs.2.00 per square meter, find the inside surface area of
the dome and the volume of air inside the dome.
DPP NO. 15
TOPIC : STATISTICS
1. If the mean of 6, 4, 7, p, p+1 and 10 is 9, The value of p is
(A) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (D) 16.
2. To draw a histogram to represent the following frequency distribution :

Class interval 5-10 10-15 15-25 25-45 45-75
Frequency 6 12 10 8 15
the adjusted frequency for the class 25-45 is :
(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 3 (D) 2
3. The mean of 10 numbers is 30. If 3 is subtracted from every number, Then the new mean is
(A) 10. (B) 14. (C) 15. (D) 27.
4. The median of the observations 11, 12, 13, 15, 17, x-1, x+1, x+2, x+4, 33 and 35 is 24. The value of x is
(A) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (D) 27.
5. The mean of 10 observation is 25. If one observation namely 25 is deleted. The new mean is
(A) 20. (B) 22. (C) 25. (D) 26.
6. The mean of 6, y, 7, x, 14 is 8 then

2 2
(A) x + y = 15. (B) x + y = 13. (C) x – y = 13. (D) 2x + 3y =13.
7. The average of A and B is 25; B and C is 28; C and A is 22. The average of A, B and C is
(A) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (D) 26.
8. The given bar graph is showing the height of six mountain peaks.
The second highest peak is

(A) B. (B) A. (C) E. (D) C.
9. Given x, x+2, x+4, x+6, x+8. If mean of these five numbers is 11 then the mean of first three numbers
will be
(A) 9. (B) 10. (C) 11. (D) 12.
10. If M is the mean of x1, x2, x3 and x4 then the value of (x1-M) + (x2-M) + (x3-M)+ (x4-M) will be
(A) 3. (B) 2. (C) 1. (D) 0.
11. The time taken in seconds to solve a problem by each of 30 students is follows:
61, 40, 50, 32, 22, 63, 39, 19, 36, 58, 45, 26, 41, 67, 18, 16, 35, 46, 30, 55, 27, 37, 42, 53, 29, 47,
25, 49, 38, 43
(a) Construct a frequency distribution for data using a class interval of 10 seconds.
(b) Draw a frequency polygon to represent the frequency distribution.
12. The blood groups of 30 students of class IX are recorded as follows:

A, B, O, O, AB, O, A, O, B, A, O, B, A, O, O, A, AB, O, A, A, O, O, AB, B, A, O, B, A, B, O
Represent this data in the form of a frequency distribution table. Which is the most common, and which
is the rarest blood group among these students?
13. Draw of histogram for the following data
Class-Interval 25-29 30-34 35-39 40-44 45-49 50-54
Frequency 5 15 23 20 10 7
14. Draw a bar chart of the data representing pass percentage of students during the period 1998-2003
given below
Year 1998 1999 2000 2001 2002 2003
Pass percentage 80% 75% 90% 70% 95% 85%
15. For what value of x the mode of the following data is 15.
15, 16, 13, 17, 16, 15, x + 10, 14, 17, 16, 15
DPP NO. 16
TOPIC : PROBABILITY
1. Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up and then a ticket is drawn at random. The probability that the
ticket drawn has a number which is multiple of 3 or 5 -
1 2 8 9
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 5 15 20
2. A bag contains 2 red, 3 green and 2 blue balls. A balls are drawn at random. The probability that none
of the balls drawn is blue -
10 11 2 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
21 21 7 7
3. In a box, there are 8 red, 7 blue and 6 green balls. One ball is picked up randomly. The probability that
it is neither red nor green -
1 3 7 9
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 4 19 21
4. The probability of getting a sum 9 from two throws of a dice -

1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 8 9 12
5. Three unbiased coins are tossed. The probability of getting at most two heads -
3 1 3 7
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 4 8 8
6. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of getting two numbers whose product is
even ?
1 3 3 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 4 8 16
7. Two coins are tossed 200 times and the following out comes are recorded
HH HT TH TT
56 50 60 34
What is the probability of occurrence of at least one Head in the above case :
(A) 0.33 (B) 0.34 (C) 0.66 (D) 0.83
8. In a sample study of 642 people, it was found that 514 people have a high school certificate. If a person
is selected at random, the probability that the person has a high school certificate is :
(A) 0.5 (B) 0.6 (C) 0.7 (D) 0.8
9. From a normal pack of cards, a card is drawn at random. The probability of getting a jack or a king is
2 1 2
52 52 13
10. Two dice are thrown at a time. The probability that the difference of the numbers shown on the dice is 1
is
5 1 1
18 36 6
11. The table given below shows the marks obtained by 40 students of a class in a test with maximum marks
100.
A student of the class is selected at random. What is the probability that he gets 60 or more marks ?
12. A die is thrown 300 times and the outcomes are noted as given below:
Find the probability of getting a prime number.
13. The blood group of 30 students of a class were recorded as under :
Blood group A B AB O
No. of students 9 11 4 6
If a student of this class is chosen at random, what is the probability that the chosen student has blood
group
(i) O ? (ii) A ? (iii) AB ?
14. On one page of a directory, there are 160 telephone numbers. The frequency distribution of the unit
place digit is given as under :
Unit place digit 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Frequency 19 16 18 21 14 11 15 16 13 17
From this page, one of the numbers is chosen at random. What is the probability that the unit place digit
in the chosen number is 6 ?
15. Two coins are tossed 1000 times and the outcomes are recorded as under:
Number of heads 2 1 0
Frequency 266 540 194
What is the probability of getting at most one head ?
ENGLISH
CLASS IX - CBSE
DPP NO. 1
TOPIC : DETERMINERS
I. Direction : Put in a/an or the where necessary. Leave an empty space (-) if the sentence is already
complete.
1 I don’t usually like staying at (a)__________hotels, but last summer we spent a few days at (b)__________very
nice hotel by (c)__________sea.
2 (a)__________tennis is my favourite sport. I play once or twice (b)__________week if I can, but I’m not
(c)__________very good player.
3 I won’t be home for (a)__________dinner this evening. I’m meeting some friends after (b)__________work
and we’re going to (c)__________cinema.
4 (a)__________unemployment is very high at the moment and it’s very difficult for (b)__________people to
find (c)__________work.
5 There was (a)__________accident as I was going (b)__________home last night. Two people were taken to
(c)__________hospital. I think (d)__________most accidents are caused by (e)__________people driving
too fast.
6 Carol is (a)__________economist. She used to work in (b)__________investment department of

(c)__________Lloyds Bank. Now she works for (d)__________American bank in (e)__________United States.
7 A: What’s (a)__________name of (b)__________hotel where you’re staying?

B: (c)__________Imperial. It’s in (d)__________Queen Street in (e)__________city centre. It’s near
(f)__________station.
8 I have two brothers (a)__________older one is training to be (b)__________pilot with (c)__________British

Airways. (d)__________younger one is still at (e)__________school. When he leaves (f)__________school,
he hopes to go to (g)__________university to study (h)__________law.
II. Direction : Mark the correct answer
1. The correct option is

(A) Every hundred men were present. (B) Many hundred men were present.
(C) A hundred men were present. (D) Some hundred men were present.
j
(A) crashing of gears. (B) a crashing of gears.
(C) an crashing of gears. (D) the crashing of gears.
(A) First. (B) A first.
(C) The first. (D) An first.
4. Using a specific (the) or general (a/an) determiner, the correct option is

(A) a L.L.B. (B) an L.L.B.
(C) the L.L.B. (D) L.L.B.

(A) You don't mean you met an A.R. Rahman, do you?
(B) You don't mean you met some A.R. Rahman, do you?
(C) You don't mean you met any A.R. Rahman, do you?
(D) You don't mean you met the A.R. Rahman, do you?

(A) Either of these two books will do. (B) All of these two books will do.
(C) Any of these two books will do. (D) Both of these two books will do.
7. 'This is my laptop'. With the help of a possessive pronoun we can replace the same sentence as
(A) This laptop is his. (B) This laptop is her.
(C) This laptop is my. (D) This laptop is mine.
8. I have got a sister.

(A) Her name is Maitryee (B) His name is Maitryee.
(C) Their name is Maitryee (D) Its name is Maitryee.

(A) Try to prevent some misuse of water. (B) Try to prevent every misuse of water.
(C) Try to prevent all misuse of water. (D) Try to prevent any misuse of water.
10. The correct option for the sentence is

(A) We get paid by weeks. (B) We get paid by the weeks.
(C) We get paid by an weeks. (D) We get paid by a weeks.

(A) Pencil is to write with. (B) The pencil is to write with.
(C) An pencil is to write with. (D) A pencil is to write with.
12. We have
(A) few holidays in school. (B) much holidays in school.
(C) a little holidays in school. (D) less holidays in school.
13. I have
(A) many work to do. (B) much work to do.
(C) the few work to do. (D) many a work to do.
14. We were waiting at the bus stop and then left after
(A) a hour. (B) the hour.
(C) an hour. (D) some hour.
15. Please lend me

(A) few money. (B) a money.
(C) some money. (D) every money.
16. He gave me
(A) all the mangoes. (B) some the mangoes.
(C) every the mangoes. (D) few the mangoes.
17. The teacher went after

(A) a hour. (B) the hour.
(C) an hour. (D) some hour.

(A) He does some work than I do. (B) He does any work than I do.
(C) He does more work than I do. (D) He does much work than I do.
19. According to the usage of articles, the correct option is

(A) at the sunset (B) at Sunday.
(C) on Monday. (D) at the noon.
20. According to the usage of articles, the correct option will be

(A) Many Birlas (B) A Birlas.
(C) An Birlas. (D) The Birlas.
DPP NO. 2
TOPIC : READING COMPREHENSION (FACTUAL)
Direction : Read the following passage and answer the questions :

1. Sleep disorders have become a common occurrence in India. Forty year old Marketing Executive Aviral early
one morning returned to Delhi from New York. He was trying to recover from jet lag and was dead tired. To
cure himself of this sleep problem, he forced himself to remain awake one whole day, as he thought that he
might be able to sleep at night. But this did not happen. “I hardly managed any sleep that night” Aviral
recalled. Next day he felt very uneasy at the office and had difficulty in concentrating on work. On his way
back home, he stopped at one of the busy signals on Delhi roads, but due to excessive tiredness, fell asleep.
He woke up suddenly after the motorist behind him honked. Aviral realised that he couldn’t drive any longer
and decided to park his car in a quiet place. He took a nap for 2 hours in his car and only then could manage
to drive back home safely. Sleep disorder experts have pointed out, that lack of sleep is the reason for many
ailments. Dr Kumar Menon and his colleagues presented a paper on sleep disorders in Mumbai, in which
they stressed that early detection of the problem is necessary and physicians need to seriously view it as a
disorder. They need to evaluate their patients on the basis of sleep history too. Adequate sleep is important
to one’s lifestyle, just like diet and exercise. According to Canadian expert on sleep disorders, Dr Jeffrey
Lipsitz, on an average a healthy adult requires just over 8 hours of sleep at night. However, the amount varies
between individuals. Swarup Chatterjee, a 28 year old IIM graduate and Assistant Manager at a BPO in
Hyderabad, is deprived of good sleep. Swarup is completely stressed out due to overburden of work in his
professional and personal life and often feels tired. He also knows that it is bad for his health. In a study
conducted by sleep disorder experts, it was found that one-third of adults have been experiencing sleep
disorders. They get less than 7 hours of sleep every night. Another study shows that 29% of Indians went to
sleep only after midnight. The survey further mentioned that Indians were among the world’s earliest risers.
We should understand that ‘early to rise’ is good, provided that ‘early to bed’ principle is also followed.
a. What has become a common problem in our country?

b. What happened when Aviral could not sleep in the night?
c. What is the view of Dr Jeffrey Lipsitz on sleep disorder?
d. Lack of sleep is the reason for many__________
e. What was the result of a study conducted by sleep disorder experts?
f. Just like__________and__________adequate sleep is important to one's lifestyle.
g. What should Indians understand about being early risers?
h. What did Dr Kumar Menon and his colleagues stress on?
2. Perhaps the environmental crisis at hand has not yet touched your life, but the time is shortly to come.
Recent NASA reports of a 60% loss of ozone over the Arctic provide an explanation for increased severity in
the world’s weather patterns which has only begun to affect us, whether directly or indirecdy. The social,
political and economic implications are difficult to imagine as our ozone layer continues to thin, forests
disappear and desertification is occurring at an alarming rate. Today, almost 1 million acres of forest disap-
pear each week. This alarming rate of deforestation is forcing many world economies to rethink their
business and manufacturing practices. A 70 feet tree cut for its fiber takes 65 year to replace. A 70 feet
bamboo cut for the market can be replaced in less than 3 months, and bamboo is officially recognised as the
world’s fastest growing plant. Some species can grow 3 feet per day! Driven by the constantly growing
consumer demand for environmentally friendly products, bamboo is gaining momentum as a reliable source
of high quality and durable green building material over traditional non-sustainable products. Bamboo is
known to produce 30% more oxygen than a hardwood forest of comparable size, while preventing erosion,
restoring soil, providing sweet edible shoots and removing toxins from contaminated soil. Ecologists tout
bamboo as a logical, renewable source of building material. Many promote bamboo planting for erosion
prevention, and to reverse the effects of global warming. Being a grass, bamboo regenerates without replant-
ing after harvesting. Traditional hardwood lumber trees, such as oak, maple and birch, take 40-50 years to
regenerate. In the meantime, there is less oxygen produced, less carbon dioxide consumed, and more soil
run-off in the spot where those trees were harvested—all producing negative environmental effects. Our
planet is suffering from resource depletion, habitat loss, species extinction and ecosystem pollution. The
choice of bamboo as building material will greatly help reverse those negative trends.
a. Why is use of bamboo gaining momentum?
b. The greatest advantage of bamboo is that it__________
c. Why is deforestation alarming?
d. What does 'More soil run-off in the spot’ mean?
e. __________produces more oxygen than a 30% hardwood forest of comparable size.
f. __________take 40-50 year to regrow__________
g. What problems are troubling the Earth?
h. The author is promoting the use of__________as a building material.
DPP NO. 3
TOPIC : TENSE
1. Rectify the errors in the given sentences and rewrite the correct sentences :
(a) Abhishek left for Chennai before Jaya reached there.

Ans. _____________________________________________________________________
(b) Did you think you have seen him sometimes earlier also.
Ans. _____________________________________________________________________
(c) Karina had bought a new book last week.
Ans. _____________________________________________________________________
(d) You won’t succeed until you will not work hard.
Ans. _____________________________________________________________________
2. Choose the correct form of the verb from those given in the bracket.
(a) Abhishek will meet Aishwarya when he (will come, comes) back from work.
(b) Akshya (finished, has finished) writing a novel just now.
(c) My grandfather (is jogging, jogs) every morning.
3. Choose the correct verb form from those in brackets.
(a) He ________ asleep while he was driving. (falls, fell, has fallen)
(b) I’m sure I ________ him at the party last night. (saw, have seen, had seen).
(c) John ________ here for the last five years. (worked, is working, has been working).
(d) Rakesh thanked me for what I ________. (have done, had done, have been doing)
(e) I ________ a strange noise. (hear, am hearing, have been hearing)
(f) I ________ him for a long time. (know, have known, am knowing)
(g) They ________ Maths for five years. (study, am studying, have been studying)
4. Fill in the blanks with the correct form of verbs.
(a) Bipin ________ to market.

(A) go (B) going (C) is go (D) is going
(b) Farmers ________ in the field.

(A) are working (B) works (C) working (D) is working
(c) They ________ in the room.

(A) sleep (B) is sleep (C) are sleeping (D) sleeping
(d) My mother ________ food.

(A) has cooked (B) is cook (C) cooking (D) cook
(e) Marie ________ a song in the party.

(A) sang (B) are sang (C) is sing (D) sing
(f) Dhoni will have ________ .

(A) slept (B) sleep (C) sleeps (D) sleeping
DPP NO. 4
TOPIC : INTEGRATED GRAMMAR BASED ON TENSE AND DETERMINERS
1. Ram friend Shyam was on holiday in Jamica. Read her letter to Chilli and complete it with the
correct verbs given in below :
invited stopped talked stayed travelled enjoyed
didn’t sleep didn’t go watched was listened
Dear Ram
I had a fantastic holiday in Jamica. It was hot and the sea was blue and lovely. I (a) ________by plane
London to Kingston. I really (b) ________the flight. It was eight hours long but I (c) ________at all because
I (d) ________so excited. During the flight I (e) ________to music, (f) ________a film and (g) ________to the
girl in the seat next to me. I (h) ________ with my aunt and uncle in Kingsto. They (i) ________me on a trip
to Montego Bay. We (j)________at an Orchid Farm. It was brilliant. On my last night there I (k) ________to
bed until 3 o’clock in the morning!
See you soon !
Love
Shyam
2. The following passage has not been edited. There is an error in each line against which a blank
has been given. Write the error and correction in your answer sheet against the correct blank
number. Remember to underline the word/phrase that you have supplied.
Error Correction
(a) Wrote effective letters is an art that everyone __________ __________
(b) mastered with practice. Nowadays although telephone, fax and __________ __________
(c) e-mail replacing personal (informal) letters, formal letters __________ __________
(d) will still in vogue. Commerce, trade, official correspondence, public __________ __________
representation, complaints, transactions and communication
(e) with people is still conducting through letters. Therefore, one __________ __________
(f) must cultivating the art and skill of letter writing. Different kinds __________ __________
(g) of letters following different conventions. Every letter __________ __________
(h) was wrote according to a plan which __________ __________
(i) are also calling the layour of the letter. In this, the sender’s __________ __________
(j) address writing at the top left hand corner. __________ __________
3. In the following passage, choose the most appropriate option from the ones given below to com-
plete the passage.
Mark Twain was the pen name of Sameul Langhorne Clements, (a) __________was one of
(b) __________greatest fiction writers of America. He grew up in a small town (c)__________the banks of the
Mississippi River. (d) __________ a small boy he moved to Hannibal on the banks of this river (e) __________
he experienced (f) __________ excitement of river travel.
(a) (i) which (ii) who (iii) that (iv) he
(b) (i) an (ii) a (iii) the (iv) his
(c) (i) on (ii) in (iii) at (iv) upon
(d) (i) Since (ii) From (iii) To (iv) As
(e) (i) when (ii) where (iii) whenever (iv) whence
(f) (i) a (ii) his (iii) an (iv) the
4. The following passage has not been edited. There is an error in each line. Write the inorrect word
and the correction in your answer sheet against the correct blank number.
Incorrect Correct
(a) Once there was the man called Hasan. __________ __________
(b) He was one of the much great __________ __________
(c) lords at a court of a Persian king. __________ __________
(d) Hasan had the great wish to __________ __________
(e) find any way of making himself __________ __________
(f) invisible. To their good luck, he met __________ __________
(g) the magician who agreed to sell him __________ __________
(h) a magic wand for many gold. __________ __________
DPP NO. 5
TOPIC : SUBJECT VERB CONCORD
Direction : Fill in the blanks with suitable verbs.

1. The horse and carriage _________ at the door.
2. The crown and glory of life _________ character.

3. A black and white cow _________grazing.
4. A black and a white cow _________ grazing.
5. Every teacher in the school _________present.
6. Neither party _________ ready to surrender.
7. Either you or your brother _________done it.
8. Neither he nor his brother _________ responsible for this.
9. You or he _________ to be blamed for this.
10. Either you or I _________ in the wrong.
11. Chiku as well as his friends _________ present.
12. I with my friends _________ ready to go.
13. Honesty, in addition to labour _________ the key to success.
14. Not only the students but also the teacher _________ present.
15. Fifty miles _________ not a long distance to walk.
16. Ten years _________ a long period.
17. A number of students _________ present.
18. The number of students _________ ten.
19. Most students _________ laborious here.
20. Half of the books _________useless.
21. Some pieces of furniture _________ required for my office.
22. I _________ an urgent piece of work to do.
23. Many items of information _________ supplied to me.
24. Physics _________an important subject.
25. The wages of sin _________ death.
26. His wages _________Rs. 5000/- a month.
27. The council _________ chosen its chairman.
28. The army _________arrived to control the riot.
29. My family _________ an ideal one.
30. The audience _________ full of enthusiasm.
DPP NO. 6
TOPIC : ACTIVE-PASSIVE VOICE
I. Put the verb into the most suitable passive form.

1. There’s somebody behind us. I think we __________ being __________ . (follow)
2. A mystery is something that __________ . (can't/explain).
3. We didn’t play football yesterday. The match__________(cancel).
4. The television__________ (repair). It’s working again now.
5. The church tower __________ (restore). The work is almost finished.
6. ‘How old is the tower?’ 'It __________(belive) to be over 600 years old.’
7. If I didn’t do my job properly. I __________(would/sack).
8. A: I left some papers on the desk last night and I can’t find them now.
B : They __________ (might/throw) away.
9. I learnt to swim when I was very young. I __________(teach) by my mother.
10. After __________ (arrest), I was taken to the police station.
11. ‘__________ (you/ever/arrest)?’ ‘No, never.’
12. Two people__________(report) who__________(injure) in an explosion at a factory in Birmingham early this
morning.
II. Put the verb into the correct form, active or passive.
1. This house is quite old. It __________(build) over 100 years ago.
2. My grandfather was a builder. He __________(build) this house many years ago.
3. ‘Is your car still for sale? ‘No, I __________ (sell) it.’
4. ‘Is the house at the end of the street still for sale?’ ‘No, it __________ (sell).’
5. Sometimes mistakes __________ (make). It’s inevitable.
6. I wouldn’t leave your car unlocked. It __________(might/setal).
7. My bag has disappeared. It__________(must/steal).
8. I can't find my hat. Somebody __________(must/take) it by mistake.
9. It’s a serious problem. I don’t know how it__________(can/solve).
10. We didn't leave early enough. We __________(should/leave) earlier.
11. Every time I travel by plane, my flight __________(Delay)’
12. A new bridge __________(build) across the river. Work started last year and the bridge __________(expect)
to open next year.
III. Read these newspaper reports and put the verbs into the most suitable form.
1. CASLTE FIRE
Winton Castle (a) __________(damage) in a fire last night. The fire, which (b)__________ (discover) at about
9 o’clock, spread very quickly. Nobody (c) __________(injure) but two people had to (d) __________(rescue)
from an upstairs room. A number of paintings (e)__________ (believe/destroy). It (f) __________(not/know)
how the fire started.
2. SHOP ROBBERY
In Paxham yesterday a shop assistant (a) __________(force) to hand over £500 after (b) __________(threaten)
by a man with a knife. The man escaped in a car which (c)__________(steal) earlier in the day. The car
(d)__________(later/find) in a car park where it (e) __________(abandon) by the thief. A man
(f) __________(arrest) in connection with the robbery and (g) __________(still/question) by the police.
3. ROAD DELAYS
Repair work started yesterday on the Paxham-Longworth road. The road (a) __________(resurface) and
there will be long delays. Drivers (b)__________(ask) to use an alternative route if possible. The work
(c) __________(expect) to last two weeks. Next Sunday the road (d)__________ (close) and traffic
(e)__________(divert).
4. ACCIDENT
A woman (a) __________(take) to hospital after her car collided with a lorry near Norstock
yesterday. She (b) __________(allow) to go home later after the treatment. The road (c) __________(block)
for an hour after the accident and traffic had to (d) __________(divert). A police inspector said afterwards:
‘The woman was lucky. She could (e) __________(kill).’
DPP NO. 7
TOPIC : READING COMPREHENSION (DISCURSIVE)
Direction : Read the following passage and answer the questions :
1. Article 48A of the Constitution of India provides that the state shall endeavour to protect and improve the
environment and safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country. But what causes endless anguish is the
fact that laws are neither respected nor enforced in India. A recent report of our Parliament’s Estimates
Committee has highlighted the near catastrophic depletion of India’s forests over the last four decades. India,
according to reliable data, is losing its forests at the rate of 3.7 million acres a year. Large areas, officially
designated as forest land, “are already virtually treeless”. The actual loss of forests is estimated to be about
8 times the rate indicated by government statistics. There can be no doubt that the growth of world popula-
tion is one of the strongest factors distorting the future of human society. It took mankind more than a million
years to reach the first billion. That was the world population around the year 1800. By the year 1900, a
second billion was added, and the 20th century has added another 3.7 billion. The present world population
(as of August 2016) is estimated at 7.4 billion. Every 4 days, the world population increases by 1 million. The
rich get richer, and the poor beget children, which condemns them to remain poor. More children do not mean
more workers, merely more people with you. It is not suggested that human beings be treated like cattle, and
compulsorily sterilised. But there is no alternative to voluntary family planning without introducing an element
of coercion. The choice is really between control of population and perpetuation of poverty. For the first time
in human history, we see a transcending concern — the survival not just of the people but of the planet. We
have begun to take a holistic view of the very basis of our existence. The environmental problem does not
necessarily signal our demise, it is our passport for the future. The emerging new world vision has ushered in
the era of responsibility. It is a holistic view, an ecological view, seeing the world as an integrated whole rather
than a dissociated collection of parts.
a. Article 48A of the Indian Constitution provides for what and what is the result of its non-enforcement?
b. How did the population of mankind grow from the year 1800 till today and how is it affecting society?
c. Why do the poor remain poor? What is the remedy suggested by the author?
d. What is the author's vision of the emerging new world?
e. What is the synonym of the word 'highlighted in paragraph ?
f. The synonym of 'distorting' in paragraph is__________
g. What is the transcendental concern as mentioned in the passage?
h. The strongest factor distorting the future of human society is__________
2. The first written public examinations were introduced over 1400 years ago with the establishment of the
imperial examination system in 606 AD in China. By the middle of the 19th century, competitive examina-
tions had been introduced in Britain and India to select government officials. Public examination in schools
have a shorter but still considerable history. At present, the examination systems in India are characterised
by heterogeneity. They differ in their vintage, organisational design, financial stability, autonomy, organisational
culture and credibility. For instance, the National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS) is unique in conducting
exams through the distance mode; the Indian School Certificate Examination confines itself only to private
schools; and the West Bengal Board of Madrasa Education is for Islamic educational institutions only. The
Amrik Singh Report (1997) on reorganising boards wondered, ‘Can there also be a system whereby it be-
comes possible to grade and categorise the boards in respect of how efficiently and honestly examinations
are organised?’ To do so, a set of parameters was chosen to measure effectiveness, transparency and
economic efficiency of the functioning of these organisations. These parameters include indicators like cost
incurred per student, fees charged per student, number of examinees per employee and number of affiliated
schools per employee. The functioning of a total of 20 boards was analysed in terms of 18 performance
indicators in 2005. The data collected from the states shows that most boards have an operating surplus.
The CBSE, along with the Maharashtra board, seem to fare the best. Another important measure of effective-
ness of the functioning of the boards is the time taken for declaration of examination results. It was found that
this ranged from a mere 26 days in the case of Karnataka Secondary Education Examination Board in 2005
to 48 days for class X in neighbouring Maharashtra. The Supreme Court has recently issued directions that
results should be declared within 45 days from the end of examinations. In 2005, 10 of the 20 boards, which
provided this information, could not declare results within 45 days.
a. When were the first written public examinations introduced?
b. Mention two features of the examination system in our country.
c. What conclusion did the Amrik Singh Report bring forth?
d. Which boards seem to fare the best in terms of operating surplus?
e. Mention the directions issued by the Supreme Court.
f. Give one feature of National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS).
g. The examinations are characterised by__________
h. West Bengal Board of Madrasa Education is for__________institutions only.
DPP NO. 8
TOPIC : INTEGRATED GRAMMAR BASED ON SUBJECT VERB CONCORD AND ACTIVE-PASSIVE
1. Complete the story using either active or passive voice.
This building, which is the oldest surviving example in the country, (a) _______ (say) to be the most expen-
sive house in Canada. Currently the house (b) _______ (sell) by the international auctioneers, McPhersons.
The house (c) _______(report) to be haunted and many people down the centuries
(d) _______(hear) strange footsteps and noises in the dark of night. The building (e) _______(build) in 1123
by Michel Davidson, and it (f) _______(have) a remarkable history ever since then. Many famous people are
said (g) _______(stay) in the house on many occasions including Oliver Cromwell. Henry Reede (h) _______(live)
in the house for the past ten years. While the house (i)_______(restore) some years ago, Mr Reede con-
ducted some research into the history of the house. “I (j)_______(read) that there are secret chambers
somewhere”, he said. “We (k) _______(look) for them for quite some time now but (I)_______(not find) them.
However, we do hope to find them some day.”
2. Complete the following passage with correct passive form of the verbs given in brackets.
She danced for two and a half hours and when she finished the performance, (a) _______(appreciate) by the
audiences. That was her first performance, the first after the traumatic accident and she (b) _______ (turn)
into one of the most sensational stars of the country. Since then she (c) _______(invite) to perform all over
the world. She is Sudha Chandran, a national icon.
3. Read the following sentences carefully and fill in the blanks choosing the most appropriate option.
(a) Every pale tomatoe slice, wilted pickle, and brown lettuce leaf _______an extra 25 cents at Berine’s
Burger Emporium.
(i) costs (ii) cost (iii) costed (iv) had cost
(b) Not only the Smiths but also Tanya _______agreed to try one of the world- famous chocolate-broccolil
muffins.
(i) has (ii) have (iii) had (iv) has been
(c) The Smiths, along with Tonya, _______to avoid indigestion after eating these weired muffins.
(i) hopes (ii) hope (iii) hoped (iv) had hoped
(d) On the sidewalk _______many little lizards basking themselves on the hot concrete.
(i) is (ii) are (iii) was (iv) were
(e) Even though Antonio has many friends who love their Cherolets and Buicks, he has always believed that
General Motors _______lemons.
(i) makes (ii) make (iii) made (iv) had made
4. Read the following sentences carefully and fill in the blanks choosing the most appropriate option.
(a) My dog Floyd together with Buster the car, _______to play with money; the cat swats crumpled bills
onto the floor where the dog shreds them to pieces.
(i) likes (ii) like (iii) liked (iv) had liked
(b) Latoya isn’t going to Daytone Beach for spring break because fourteen dollars _______all that she has
in her vacation fund.
(c) Even though Johnson and Johnson _______consumers not to insert Q-tips into their ears, people refuse
to read directions and frequently rupture their eardrums.
(i) warns (ii) warn (iii) warned (iv) had warned
(d) All of my important keys _______now stuck in the drain pipe of my bathroom sink. Buster, my kitten,
doesn’t realise how much his playfulness inconvenieces me.
(e) Grandpa claims that Martian measles _______ green and purple spots to erupt all over a person’s body.
(i) causes (ii) cause (iii) will cause (iv) had caused
DPP NO. 9
TOPIC : MODALS
I. Complete B sentences using can / could / might / must / should / would + the verb in brackets.
In some sentences you need to use : have... / must have... / should have... etc. In some sentences
you need the negative (can’t/couldn’t etc.).
1. A: I’m hungry.
B: But you’ve just had lunch. You _______hungry already. (be)
2. A: I haven’t seen our neighbours for ages.
B: No. They _______away. (go)
3. A: What’s the weather like? Is it raining?
B: Not at the moment but it _______ later. (rain)
4. A: Where has Julia gone?
B: I’m not sure. She _______ to the bank. (go)
5. A: I didn’t see you at John’s party last week.
B: No, I had to work that evening, so I _______. (go)
6. A: I saw you at John’s party last week.
B: No, you didn’t. You _______ me. I didn’t go to John’s party. (see)
7. A: When did you post the letter to Mary?
B: This morning. So she _______it tomorrow. (get)
8. A: When was the last time you saw Bill?
B: Years ago. I _______him if I saw him now. (recognise)
9. A: Did you hear the explosion?
B: What explosion?
A: There was a loud explosion a few minutes ago.
B: You._______it. (hear) .
10. A: We weren’t sure which way to go. In the end we turned right.
B: You went the wrong way. You_______left. (turn)
II. Make sentences from the words in brackets.
1. Don’t phone Ann now. (she might / have / lunch)

_______________________________________________________________________________________
2. I ate too much. Now I feel sick. (I shouldn’t / eat / so much)
_______________________________________________________________________________________
3. I wonder why Tom didn’t phone me. (he must / forget)
_______________________________________________________________________________________
4. Why did you go home so early? (you needn’t / go / home so early)
_______________________________________________________________________________________
5. You’ve signed the contract. (it / can’t / change / now)
_______________________________________________________________________________________
6. ‘What’s Linda doing?’ ‘I’m not sure.’ (she may / watch / television)
_______________________________________________________________________________________
7. Ann was standing outside the cinema, (she must / wait / for somebody)
_______________________________________________________________________________________
8. He was in prison at the time when the crime was committed, so (he couldn’t / do / it).
_______________________________________________________________________________________
9. Why weren’t you here earlier? (you ought / be / here earlier)
_______________________________________________________________________________________
10. Why didn’t you ask me to help you? (I would / help / you)
_______________________________________________________________________________________
11. I’m surprised nobody told you that the road was very dangerous, (you should / warn)
_______________________________________________________________________________________
12. George was in a strange mood yesterday. (he might not / feel / very well)
_______________________________________________________________________________________
DPP NO. 10
TOPIC : PREPOSITIONS
I. Put in one of the following prepositions: at, on, in, for, since, during, by, until.
1 Jack has gone away. He’ll be back ________a week.

2 We’re having a party________ Saturday. Can you come?
3 I’ve got an interview next week. It’s ________9.30 ________Tuesday morning.
4 Sue isn’t usually here ________weekends. She goes away.
5 The train service is very good. The trains are nearly always ________time.
6 It was a confusing situation. Many things were happening ________the same time.
7 I couldn’t decide whether or not to buy the sweater. ________the end I decided not to.
8 The road is busy all the time, even ________night.
9 I was woken up by a loud noise________ the night.
10 I saw Helen________Friday but I haven’t seen her________then.
11. Brian has been doing the same job ________five years.
12. Ann’s birthday is ________ the end of March. I’m not sure exactly which day it is.
13. We’ve got some friends staying with us ________ the moment. They’re staying ________ Friday.
14. If you’re interested in applying for the job, your application must be received ________ Friday.
Prepositions (Place and other uses)
II. Put in the missing preposition.
1. I’d love to be able to visit every country ________ the world.

2. ‘Have you read any books written ________Margaret White? ‘No, I’ve never head of her.’
3. ‘Is there a bank near here?’ ‘Yes, there’s one ________the end of th is road.’
4. Tim is away at the moment. He’s ________holiday.
5. You’ve got a dirty mark ________your cheek. Have a look ________the mirror.
6. We went________a party ________Linda’s house on Saturday.
7. Bombay is________the west coast of India.
8. Look at the leaves ________that tree. They’re a beautiful colour.
9. ‘Have you ever been ________Tokyo?' 'No, I’ve never been________Japan’.
10. Mozart died ________Vienna in 1791 ________the age of 35.
11. ‘Are you________this photograph? ‘Yes, that’s me,________the left.’
12. We went________the theatre last night. We had seats ________the front row.
13. ‘Where’s the light switch?’ ‘It’s ________the wall ________the door.’
14. What time did you arrive________the party?
15. I couldn’t decide what to eat. There was nothing________the menu that I liked.
16. We live ________a tower block. Our flat is________the fifteenth floor.
17. ‘What did you think of the film?’ ‘Some parts were a bit stupid but________the whole I enjoyed it.’
18. When you paid the hotel bill, did you pay ________cash or ________credit card?
19. ‘How did you get here? ________the bus?’ ‘No, ________car.’
20. A : I wonder what’s ________ television this evening. Have you got a newspaper?
B : Yes, the TV programmes are ________the back page.
B. Fill in the blanks with suitable preposition.
1. This year, many people have died ________cholera.

2. She was delighted ________my unexpected arrival.
3. She is fed up ________staying at this place.
4. I am tired ________running.
5. Raj had a thirst ________ knowledge.
6. It is believed that the Hindu religion has been in existence ________ times immemorial.
7. The accident took place ________negligence.
8. Many planes fly ________the Atlantic these days.
9. The public response was ________our expectations.
10. The tiger was moving ________ the herd of buffaloes.
11. The thief entered the room ________the window :
12. There is a small garden ________ the house.
13. Someone ________ the crowd shouted, “Go away ! “
14. ________ the new law,. Domestic violence is a punishable crime.
15. She lives ________there.
16. What were you doing ________7 and 8 p.m. ?
17. ________tea we went for a walk.
18. ________painting, he also likes to wrie poetry in his free time.
DPP NO. 11
TOPIC : INTEGRATED GRAMMAR BASED ON MODALS, PREPOSITIONS
1. Meera has written a dialogue between two friends. But she has used the wrong modals. Find
the incorrect modal and replace it with the correct one in each line. Incorrect Correct
Vrehaan : Where’s Anshul? He can have been here half an hour ago. (a) __________ __________
Vicky : He should have got lost. He is still new to this town. (b) __________ __________
Vrehaan : He can have forgotten all about the plan, I suppose. (c) __________ __________
Vicky : He may not have forgotten. We were talking about it this
morning. (d) __________ __________
Vrehaan : Well, something can have delayed him. (e) __________ __________
2. Complete the passage using suitable modals.
You (a) ________help the teacher to maintain a neat and organised classroom. You (b) ________regularly
inspect classrooms and (c) ________assign duties to class monitors to participate. You (d) ________en-
sure drinking water is provided to all. You (e) ________impose a fine on students found littering.
3. The following passage has not been edited. There is an error in each line. Write the error and
the correction in the space provided.
Incorrect Correct
Life throws many options under us, but (a) __________ __________
the quality beyond our life depends (b) __________ __________
largely barring how we make choices. (c) __________ __________
We keep struggling beneath numerous (d) __________ __________
options. If a person chooses one option across (e) __________ __________
the others, he experiences loss without the other (f) __________ __________
possibilities. We experience infinite conflicts
all till our lifetime. (g) __________ __________
4. Complete the passage by filling in the blanks with appropriate prepositions.
We took a morning bus (a) ________ Arusha, and after checking (b) ________ a very simple hotel, started
our search for a safari company. We went to Sunny Safaris, but nothing seemed (c) ________ be going
soon. Next, we went (d) ________Cheetah Safaris. They have a safari going (e) ________Tuesday. It sounded
like a good deal (f) ________$65 a day; we didn’t want (g) ________search forever, so we chose them. While
walking (h) ________the town in the afternoon, we met Jo and Pery from Lamu. They introduced us (i)
________Senara who will be taking the Safari (j) ________us tomorrow. Later, we had dinner (k) ________a
less than exciting restaurant.
DPP NO. 12
TOPIC : CONNECTORS
I. Fill in the blanks with ‘as’, ‘since’, ‘while’:
1. __________ she is your sister, you should take care of her.

2. You have been fined __________you were absent from school.
3. Sarla sang __________her brother danced.
4. She got a position in merit __________ she had burnt midnight oil.
5. __________you sow, so shall you reap.
6. He did not take the test __________he was suffering from fever.
7. Strike the iron __________ it is hot.
8. __________ she is very poor, she cannot pay her fee.
9. __________ he is in trouble, I must help him.
10. Do not disturb me __________I am busy in my studies.
11. The accident took place __________ the train was crossing a bridge.
12. Raghu was beaten __________he misbehaved with me.
II. Fill in the blanks with ‘than’, ‘just then’, ‘just because’, ‘until’:
1. Nobody likes her __________she is stupid.

2. Sunil is wiser __________his brother Rajiv.
3. I shall wait for you __________you return home.
4. No other man__________you can do this work.
5. He failed to reach home in time__________he had missed the bus.
6. No sooner did I reach the station__________the train steamed off.
7. Do not allow him to enter the class__________he brings his parents.
8. Do not leave the room__________I order.
9. His mother slapped him __________he had told a lie.
10. I was taking my breakfast,__________a few guests poured in.
11. Manorama would rather starve__________beg.
12. She is angry with you__________you spoke against her.
13. I saw a snake,__________I hit it with a stick.
14. I was stepping out of my house,__________the postman delivered me a letter.
15. He was abusing me__________I had not returned his book.
DPP NO. 13
TOPIC : INTEGRATED GRAMMAR BASED ON CONNECTORS
1. The following passages have not been edited. There is a mistake in each line concerning the use
of a sentence connector. Write the correct connector in place of the wrong one. Underline your
answer as shown in example.
Incorrect Correct
Raju which was a slum-dweller wanted (a) __________ __________
to rent a flat. Since many days of fruitless (b) __________ __________
searching he was one day returning home as he (c) __________ __________
stopped to have a coconut. But while he slit open (d) __________ __________
the top, a huge genie materialized. Just Raju (e) __________ __________
was still thinking what it was, the genie offered to
carry out his orders.
2. In the passages given below there is a sentence connector missing in each line. Find this missing
word I words and write it along with the word that comes before it and the word that comes after
it. Underline your answer as shown in example.
Before Missing After
Just our Madras-bound train halted at (a) ________ ________ ________
Nagpur, my wife wanted to read the Hindi (b) ________ ________ ________
magazine Kalki cried she saw a newspaper (c) ________ ________ ________
boy. “Kalki hai ? ” “Aaj ke hai, Madam” the (d) ________ ________ ________
boy was looking after the magazine replied (e) ________ ________ ________
The misunderstanding occurred just the (f) ________ ________ ________
boy thought that the lady asked for
Kalki ‘yesterday’s or ‘tomorrow’s’ magazine.
3. Choose the most appropriate option from the brackets to complete the following passages. Write
the answers in your answer sheet against the correct blank number. Do not copy the whole pas-
sage.
Raju (a) _______(which/that/who/how) was poor, wanted to rent a flat. (b) _______(Since/After/Before/Then)
many days of searching, he was very tired (c) _______(or/and/then/that) had lost hope. One day
(d) _______(when/then/while/as) returning home, he met a man. The man asked him (e) _______(that/what/
where/when) the matter was. Raju was pleased (f) _______(what/when/that/or) the man assured him that he
would get a house for him.
4. The underlined words in the following passages have not been used appropriately. Replace them
by choosing the most appropriate option from the ones given below the passage.
It was sometime (a) while Ratna rose. She was not so quick (b) what she happened to be. She was thinking
of things (c) what she had never thought before. It was all (d) so she had developed a feeling for the man (e)
which had come to the village as a postmaster.
(a) (i) when (ii) before (iii) after (iv) since
(b) (i) as (ii) while (iii) where (iv) when
(c) (i) where (ii) which (iii) why (iv) when
(d) (i) that (ii) while (iii) because (iv) till
(e) (i) why (ii) that (iii) since (iv) who
DPP NO. 14
TOPIC : CONDITIONALS
I. Put the verb into the correct form.
1. If you __________ a wallet in the street, what would you do with it? (find)
2. I must hurry. My friend will be annoyed if __________on time, (not/be)
3. I didn’t realise that Gary was in hospital. If I __________ he was in hospital, I would have gone to visit him.
(know)
4. If the phone __________, can you answer it? (ring)
5. I can’t decide what to do. What would you do if you __________in my position?(be)
6. A: What shall we do tomorrow?
B: Well, if it __________a nice day, we can go to the beach. (be)
7. A: Let’s go to the beach.
B: No, it’s too cold. If it __________warmer, I wouldn’t mind going to the beach. (be)
8. A: Did you go to the beach yesterday?
B: No, it was too cold. If it __________warmer, we might have gone. (be)
9. If you __________enough money to go anywhere in the world, where would you go? (have)
10. I’m glad we had a map. I’m sure we would have got lost if we __________one. (not/have)
11. The accident was your fault. If you __________more carefully, it wouldn t have happened. (drive)
12. A: Why do you read newspapers?
B: Well, if I __________newspapers, I wouldn’t know what was happening in the world. (not/read)
II. Complete the sentences.
1. Liz is tired all the time. She shouldn’t go to bed so late.

If __________
2. It’s rather late. I don’t think Ann will come to see us now.
I’d be surprised if Ann __________
3. I’m sorry I disturbed you. I didn’t know you were busy.
If I’d known you were busy, I __________
4. The dog attacked you, but only because you provoked it.
If __________
5. I don’t want them to be upset, so I’ve decided not to tell them what happened.
They __________if __________
6. Unfortunately, I didn’t have an umbrella and so I got very wet in the rain.
I __________.
7. Martin failed his driving test last week. He was very nervous and that’s why he failed.
If he__________.
III. Use your own ideas to complete these sentences.
1. I’d go out this evening if__________

2. I’d have gone out last night if __________
3. If you hadn’t reminded me, __________
4. We wouldn’t have been late if __________
5. If I’d been able to get tickets, __________
6. Who would you phone if __________
7. Cities would be nicer places if __________
8. If there was no television, __________
IV. Put the verb into the correct form.
1. I feel sick. I wish __________ so much cake. (I/not/eat)

2. I’m fed up with this rain. I wish __________ raining. (it/stop)
3. It’s a difficult question. I wish __________the answer. (I/know)
4. I should have listened to you. I wish __________your advice. (I/take)
5. I wish__________here. She’d be able to help us. (Ann/be)
6. Aren’t they ready yet? I wish__________.(they/hurry up)
7. It would be nice to stay here. I wish__________to go now. (we/not/have)
8. When we were in London last year, we didn’t have time to see all the things we wanted to see I wish
__________more time (we/have)
9. It’s freezing today. I wish__________so cold. I hate cold weather. (it/not/be)
10. What’s her name again? I wish__________remember her name. (I/can)
11. What I said was stupid. I wish__________anything. (I/not/say)
12. (in a car) You’re driving too fast. I wish__________a bit. (you/slow down)
13. It was a terrible film. I wish__________to see it. (we/not/go)
14. You’re always tired. I wish __________to bed so late. (you/not/go)
DPP NO. 15
TOPIC : INTEGRATED GRAMMAR BASED ON CONDITIONALS
I. What do you say in these situations? Write sentences with I wish...would... .
1. It’s raining. You want to go out, but not in the rain. You say: ...I wish it would stop raining.
2. You’re waiting for John. He’s late and you’re getting impatient.
You say (to yourself): I wish_____________________________________________________________
3. You can hear a baby crying and you’re trying to study.
You say : I wish ______________________________________________________________________
4. You’re looking for a job - so far without success. Nobody will give you a job.
You say : I wish somebody _____________________________________________________________
5. Brian has been wearing the same clothes for years. You think he needs some new clothes.
You say (to Brian): ___________________________________________________________________
For the following situations, write sentences with I wish...wouldn’t... .
6. Your friend drives very fast. You don’t like this.
You say (to your friend): I wish you _____________________________________________________
7. Jack always leaves the door open. This annoys you.
You say (to Jack): ____________________________________________________________________
8. A lot of people drop litter in the street. You don’t like this.
You say: I wish people ________________________________________________________________
II. These sentences are about things that often happened in the past. Complete the sentences using
would + one of these verbs: forget shake share walk
1. Whenever Arthur was angry, he would walk out of the room.
2. I used to live next to a railway line. Whenever a train went past, the house____________________ .
3. You could never rely on George. It didn’t matter how many times you reminded him to do something,
he____________________always____________________ .
4. Brenda was always very generous. She didn’t have much but she____________________ what she had
with everyone else.
III. Put the verb into the correct form.
1. I didn’t know you were in hospital. If I’d know (I/know). I would have gone (I/go) to visit you.
2. Ken got to the station in time to catch his train. If____________________________________(he/miss)
it,____________________________________(he/be) late for his interview.
3. It’s good that you reminded me about Ann’s birthday____________________________________(I/forget)
it, if____________________________________(you/not/remind) me.
4. Unfortunately, I didn’t have my address book with me when I was in New York. If _____________________(I/
have) your address,____________________________________(I/send) you a postcard.
5. A: How was your holiday? Did you have a nice time?
B: It was OK, but___________________________(we/enjoy) it more if___________________________(the
weather/be) better.
6. I took a taxi to the hotel but the traffic was very bad___________________________(it/be) quicker
if___________________________(I/walk).
7. I’m not tired. If___________________________(I/be) tired, I’d go home now.
8. I wasn’t tired last night. If___________________________(l/be) tired, I would have gone home earlier.
IV. Write a sentence with if for each situation.
1 I wasn’t hungry, so I didn’t eat anything. If I’d been hungry, If I would have eaten something.
2. The accident happened because the driver in front stopped so suddenly. If the driver in front_________
____________________________________________________________________________________
3. I didn’t know that George had to get up early, so I didn’t wake him up. If I________________________
4. I was able to buy the car only because Jim lent me the money.
___________________________________________________________________________________
5. Margaret wasn’t injured in the crash because she was wearing a seat belt.
___________________________________________________________________________________
6. You didn’t have any breakfast, that’s why you’re hungry now.
___________________________________________________________________________________
7. I didn’t get a taxi because I didn’t have any money on me.
___________________________________________________________________________________
DPP NO. 16
TOPIC : REPORTED SPEECH
Direction : Change the following sentences into Indirect Speech :
1. My father said, “The sun rises in the east”.
2. The girl said, “What a fine picnic it has been !”
3. The leader said,”Many students have died in the agitation.”
4. The teacher said, “God helps those who help themselves.”.
5. He says, “Mohan is delivering a fine speech.”
6. The soldiers said, “Bravo ! We have fire.”
7. Ram will way, “Hari is a thief.”
8. Ram said, “Alas ! We have lost the match.”
9. A man said, “Life ends in death.”
10. Ravi said to Pawan, “Can you show me your pocket ?”
11. The old woman asked me, “ Do you live in that house ?”
12. Hari said to Shanker, “ Will you go to see the zoo today ?”
13. Manak said to his friend, “Didn’t you go to college today?”
14. Father said to his son, “Have you brought sweets from the market ?”
15. “Can you sing a song for me,” “the fox asked the crow?
16. Mohan said to his brother, “ Let’s go to the college today.”
18. The teacher said, “What a pity ! She has not learnt good manners.”
19. “Will you not wash your hands” asked the master of the house.
20. The master said to his servant, “Bring me a cup of milk.”
21. The begger said to my mother, “Please give me some food.”
22. “Sit down and learn your lesson, boys, “ said the teacher.
23. The old man said, “Good Heavens ! The hut has caught fire.”
24. The doctor said to the patient, “Do not take butter while you are under my treatment.”’
25. Mohan said to me, “Do not drive fast, as the road is very busy.”
DPP NO. 17
TOPIC : CLAUSES
1. Complete the following sentences keeping in mind the uses of clauses.
(a) Alexander Fleming was the man__________discovered penicillin.
(b) I like meeting people__________have travelled widely.
(c) The school__________I was educated has been demolished.
(d) The man__________I was talking to last week gave me another version of the events.
(e) I am working for a construction company__________head office is in London.
2. There is an error in following sentences. Find the error and rewrite the sentences correctly.
(a) The man which lives next door is very friendly.
(b) Everything what he said was correct.
(c) The person which I wanted to see was not available until Monday.
(d) Yesterday I met Mario who told me he was getting married.
(e) Mr Smith is going to Moscow where his daughter has been living for some time now.
3. Complete the following dialogue. There may be more than one possible answer.
Swati : Please tell me (a)__________
Sumedha : Can’t you see (b) __________?
Swati : I can also see (c)__________
4. Join the following sentences paying particular attention to word order.
(a) I was talking to a woman. Her husband was killed in the war.
(b) The man got on the bus. He was carrying a cat in a box.
(c) Somebody called while you were out. I can’t remember his name.
(d) I work mainly in the Marketing Department. It is the smallest department in the company.
(e) My boss decided to employ me as his assistant. His work takes him all over the worl .
5. Complete the following dialogue. There may be more than one possible answer.
Chaitanya : Could you tell me (a)__________?
Garima : From the shop (b)__________
Chaitanya : I will go there and see (c)__________
6. Join the following sentences paying particular attention to word order.
(a) The shoes are too big. My grandma bought them for me.
(b) The boy is very nice. I know him from school.
(c) We ate chicken at the restaurant. It was delicious.
(d) I have to learn new words. They are very difficult.
(e) The photographer could not develop the pictures. I had taken them in Australia.
(f) A girl is talking to Tom. Do you know the girl?
(g) The bananas are on the table. George bought them.
(h) ‘Kamal helps a man. The man is my teacher.
(i) I watched a film last night. The film was interesting.
(j) You are sitting on a bench. The paint on the bench is still wet.
DPP NO. 18
TOPIC : INTEGRATED GRAMAMR BASED ON REPORTED SPEECH & CLAUSES
1. There is an error in follwing sentences, find the error and rewrite the sentences correctly.
(a) Mr Carlisle, whom I spoke last night, is very interested in our new project.
(b) She couldn’t come to the conference that was a pity.
(c) Suzanna has many friends, most of which she went to school with.
(d) She tried on several jackets, none of whom fit her.
(e) Melanie, that has just bought a house near Gatwick, is getting married.
2. There is an error in the following sentences. Rewrite them correctly.
(a) She told me which she would be delighted to come.
(b) Pay careful attention to whom I am going to say.
(c) I went to see which had happened.
(d) Which you should cheat me, hurts me.
(e) I don’t know which I can get out of this mess.
(f) I don’t know whose he wants.
(g) I thought whom she would arrive tomorrow.
(h) He asked me unless I knew his name.
(i) I want to know whom she is angry with me.
(j) I often wonder whose he is getting on.
Direction : Read the followiing dialogues and then complete the report that follows.
3. Mansi : Do you know who will be presiding over our annual function ?
Priya : I was told an eminent poet has been invited.
Mansi : Are you talking about the Indian poet, Ramdhari Singh ‘Dinkar’ ?
Priya : Yes, he has composed a number of patriotic songs.
The curiosity about the chief guest was uncertain amont the students on the annual day function. Mansi
asked Priya if she knew (a)__________over their annual day function. Priya replied that (b)__________an
eminent poet had been invited. Mansi enquired (c)__________about the Indian poet, Ramdhari Singh ‘Dinkar’.
Priya replied in the affirmative and said that he had composed a numbe of patriotic songs.
4. Ankit : Where are you going?
Atul : To the airport
Ankit : May I drop you there in my car?
Atul : Thanks a lot. It will be a great help to me.
Ankit asked Atula where (a)__________ . Atul replied (b)__________airport. Ankit further asked him
(c)__________there in his car. Atul thanked him, adding that it would be a great help to him.
SOCIAL SCIENCE
CLASS IX - CBSE
DPP-1
TOPIC : INDIA-SIZE AND LOCATION
1. Indian Standard Time is how many hours ahead or behind of G.M.T. or Universal Time ?
(A) 5 hrs 30 min behind G.M.T. (B) 15 hrs ahead of G.M.T.
(C) 5 hrs 30 min ahead of G.M.T. (D) None of these
2. Which of the following has reduced India’s distance from Europe by 7000 km ?
(A) Suez Canal (B) Pananma Canal (C)
Indira Gandhi Canal (D) Buckingham Canal
3. Which of the following influences the duration of the day and night, as one moves from south to north ?
(A) Longitudinal extent (B) Latitudinal extent
(C) Standard Meridian (D) All the above
4. The Standard Meridian of India, 82°30’E passes through which of the following places ?
(A) Kanniyakumari in Tamil Nadu (B) Walong in Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Kachch in Gujarat (D) Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh
5. The sun rises two hours earlier in Arunachal Pradesh as compared to Gujarat. What time will the watch show
in Gujarat, if it is 6 am in Arunachal Pradesh ?
(A) 4.00 am (B) 7.44 am (C) 6 am (D) 5.44 am
6. From Gujarat to Arunchal Pradesh there is a time lag of -
(A) 24 hours (B) 12 hours (C) 2 hours (D) 30 minutes
7. Both the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India’s mainland is about 30°. But on looking at the map of
India, which of the following alternatives do you observ about India’s size?
(A) East-west extent appears to be smaller than north-south extent
(B) East-west extent appears to be larger than north-south extent
(C) East-west and north-south extent appears equal
(D) North-south extent appears to be smaller than east-west extent
8. By which geographical feature is India bounded in the north-west, north and north east ?
(A) Seas (B) Lava Plateaus
(C) Young Fold Mountains (D) Sandy Desert
9. What is India’s size with respect to other countries of the world ?
(A) First (B) Third (C) Fourth (D) Seventh
10. Which of the following figures shows the total area of India’s landmass ?
(A) 2.4 million square km (B) 3.28 million square km
(C) 32.8 million square km (D) 3.28 million km
11. Discuss the location of India.
12. What is a sub continent?
13. The latitudinal and longitudinal expanse is about 30° but the east – west expanse seems to be smaller than
the north – south expanse. Why?
14. Why do we need Standard Meridian in India? Explain.
15. What is the importance of Suez Canal ?
DPP NO. 2
TOPIC : THE FRENCH REVOLUTION
1. The Third Estate comprised
(A) Poor servants, small peasants and landless labour
(B) Peasants and artisans
(C) Big businessmen, merchants, lawyers etc.
(D) All the above
2. How does a subsistence crisis happen ?

(A) Bad harvest leads to scarcity of grains
(B) Rising food prices and the poorest cannot buy bread
(C) Leads to weaker bodies, diseases, deaths and even food riots
(D) All the above
3. Which of the following believed social position must depend on merit ?

(A) Middle class (B) Nobility (C) Workers (D) Peasants
4. The word livres stands for

(A) unit of currency in France (B) tax levied by the church
(C) tax to be paid directly to the state (D) none of these
5. What was the effect of the rise of population of France from about 23 million in 1715 to 28 million in 1789 ?
(A) Education became difficult (B) Rapid increase in the demand for foodgrains
(C) Housing problem occurred (D) None of the above
6. What was the name of tax which was directly paid to the state by the Third Estate ?
(A) Tithe (B) Livre (C) Taille (D) All of these
7. The term ‘Old Regime’ is usually used to describe

(A) France before 1000 BC
(B) Society of France after 1789 AD
(C) Society and institutions of France before 1789 AD
(D) None of the above
8. In the context of France, ‘the fall of Bastille’ took place on

(A) 14th July 1789 (B) 20th June 1789 (C) 4th Aug 1789 (D) 5th May 1789
9. Tax from peasants to Church was called

(A) Taille (B) Tithe (C) Lagan (D) Jazia
10. Which of the following refuted the doctrine of divine and absolute right ?
(A) John Locke (B) Rousseau (C) Montesquieu (D) Voltaire
11. Explain the terms liberty, Equality and Fraternity.
12. What was the main aim of the National Assembly?
13. What is the National Anthem of France and who composed it?
14. What was the impact of the French Revolution on France?
15. Explain how the new political system worked in the France?
DPP NO. 3
TOPIC : THE STORY OF VILLAGE PALAMPUR
1. Farmers grow ............... as third crop in multiple cropping.

(A) tomatoes (B) potatoes (C) both (D) None of these
2. Which of the following is fixed capital?

(A) tools (B) machine (C) building (D) all of these
3. Which of the following is not a non-farming activity?

(A) Manufacturing (B) Shop keeping (C) Transport (D) Sowing crops
4. One of the non-farming activities in Palampur is-

(A) Dairy (B) Small scale manufacturing
(C) Transport (D) All of the above
5. Which of the following is grown in the rainy season ?

(A) Jowar & bajra (B) Wheat (C) Gram (D) Mustard
6. Which Kharif crop is used for cattle feed ?

(A) Sugarcane (B) Potato (C) Jowar and bajra (D) Wheat
7. The minimum wages for a farm labourer set by the government is

(A) Rs 120 (B) Rs. 115 (C) Rs. 220 (D) Rs. 250
8. The factor of production which combines and arranges all the factors of production is
(A) land (B) labour (C) capital (D) entrepreneur
9. Efficiency of which factor of production can be increased through training

(A) land (B) labour (C) capital (D) None of these
10. Workers engaged in non-farm activities in rural areas on an average are

(A) 12% (B) 13% (C) 18% (D) 25%
11. What was the impact of electricity on village Palampur?
12. Define Multiple Cropping?
13. Explain the type of non-farming activities in which people of village Palampur are engaged?
14. How do the small farmers obtain capital for farming?
15. How land is distributed in village Palampur?
DPP NO. 4
TOPIC : PHYSICAL FEATURES OF INDIA
1. Which of the following is responsible for the variation in the colour of soil in different parts of India ?
(A) Difference in rock formations (B) Weathering
(C) Erosion and deposition (D) Land use
2. Which of the following has not been a factor in the creation and modification of India’s relief features?
(A) Geological formations (B) Population density
(C) Weathering (D) Erosion and deposition
3. Which of the following is a plausible theory presented by Earth scientists to explain the formation of conti-
nents and oceans and the various landforms ?
(A) Theory of Motion (B) Theory of Plate Tectonics
(C) Theory of Evolution (D) Theory of Relativity
4. According to the ‘Theory of plate Tectonics’, the earth’s crust is formed of how many major plates ?
(A) Three (B) Five (C) Seven (D) Ten
5. According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics’, the movement of the plates result in some geological activity.
Which one of the following is not such a geological activity ?
(A) Volcanic activity (B) Folding (C) Faulting (D) Glaciation
6. The wet and swampy belt of the Northern Region is known locally as
(A) Bhabar (B) Bhangar (C) Doab (D) Terai
7. Kulu and Kangra valleys are localed in

(A) Himadri (B) Aravalli (C) Siwalik (D) Himachal
8. Kanchanjunga peak is located in

(A) Himachal (B) Himadri (C) Sahyadri (D) Annamalai
9. The Indo-Gangetic plain located between

(A) Deccan Plateau and Narmada Range (B) Deccan Plateau and Aravalli Range
(C) Peninsular Plateau and the Narmada Range (D) Peninsular Plateau and the Himalayas
10. Which of the following physical features forms a natural barrier to the north of India ?
(A) Kunlun Mountains (B) Plateau of Tibet
(C) River Brahamaputra (D) The Himalayas
11. What is an alluvial plain?
12. Describe any three features of the Purvanchal Range of the Himalayas.
13. Which three river systems form the Northern Plains ? Explain the diverse relief features of the Northern
Plains
14. Give an account of the Island groups of India.
15. Describe the Peninsular Plateau of India.
DPP NO. 5
TOPIC : WHAT IS DEMOCRACY? WHY DEMOCRACY?
1. Legal Framework Order was issued in

(A) January 2000. (B) April 2001. (C) August 2002. (D) December 2003.
2. After Independence, who became the first Prime Minister and then the President of Ghana?
(A) Patrice Lumamba (B) Jomo Kenyatta (C) Sam Nujoma (D) Kwame Nkrumah
3. Mexico holds elections after every

(A) four years. (B) five years. (C) six years. (D) seven years.
4. Who led a military coup in Pakistan in 1999 ?

(A) Benazir Bhutto (B) Nawaz Sharif (C) Pervez Musharraf (D) None of these
5. Which party ruled Iraq since 1968 ?

(A) Baa’th Party (B) Socialist Baa’th Party
(C) Arab Socialist Baa’th Party (D) None of these
6. In which period did China face one of the worst famines that have occured in the world ?
(A) 1932-36 (B) 1958-61 (C) 2001-02 (D) 2004-07
7. ‘One person, one vote’ means

(A) One person is to be voted by all (B) One person has one vote and each vote has one value
(C) A person can vote only once in his life (D) Both (A) and (C)
8. How many members are elected to the National People’s Congress from all over China?
(A) 3050 (B) 3000 (C) 4000 (D) 2000
9. Why can the Chinese government not be called a democratic government even though elections are held
there?
(A) Army participates in election
(B) Government is not accountable to the people
(C) Some parts of China are not represented at all
(D) Government is always formed by the Communist Party
10. Which party always won elections in Mexico since its independence in 1930 until 2000?
(A) Revolutionary Party (B) Mexican Revolutionary Party
(C) Institutional Revolutionary Party (D) Institutional Party
11. What is referendrum ?
12. What was the major decision taken by General Perez Musharraf in 1999?
13. Mention the features of democracy.
14. ‘A democratic government rules within the limits set by constitutional law and citizens’ rights’. Explain?
15. Which methods were adopted by the PRI in Mexico to win the election?
DPP NO. 6
TOPIC : PEOPLE AS RESOURCE
1. People as a resource refers to their

(A) Educational skills (B) Productive skills (C) Health skills (D) None of these
2. What is the major aim of ‘Sarva Siksha Abhiyan”?

(A) To provide elementary education to women
(B) To provide elementary education to rural poor
(C) To provide elementary education to all children in the age group of 6-14 years
(D) To provide elementary education to urban poor.
3. Which one of the following is related to the tertiary sector?

(A) Agriculture (B) Forestry (C) Mining (D) Communication
4. What was the literacy rate of India in 2010-11 ?

(A) 60% (B) 50% (C) 65% (D) 74%
5. Which one of the following is an activity of the secondary sector?

(A) Manufacturing (B) Agriculture (C) Education (D) Mining
6. In which of the following fields disguised unemployment is mostly present?

(A) Transport (B) Communication (C) Industries (D) Farming
7. Which one among the following is the most labour absorbing sector?
(A) Agriculture (B) Fisheries (C) Poultry farming (D) Mining
8. Quality of population depends upon

(A) Literacy rate (B) Health (C) Skill (D) All of these
9. Services of housewives are included in

(A) National income (B) Domestic income (C) Household income (D) None of these
10. PHC stands for

(A) Public Health Club (B) Private Health Club
(C) Primary Health Centre (D) None of these
11. Define infant mortality rate?
12. What is meant by life expectancy?
13. Differentiate between market activities and non market activities.
14. How does unemployment adversely affect an economy ?
15. What do you understand by the virtuous cycle of human development?
DPP NO. 7
TOPIC : SOCIALISM IN EUROPE & THE RUSSIAN REVOLUTION
1. From 1929 Stalin promoted Kolkhoz. What were Kolkhoz?

(A) Large scale industries (B) Small scale industries
(C) Collective farms (D) None of these
2. Karl Marx wanted workers to overthrow

(A) capitalism (B) rule of private property
(C) accumulation of profits by capitalists (D) radicals
3. To coordinate the efforts of socialists all over Europe, an international body was formed in Europe (in 1889)
called the
(A) Second International (B) Commune
(C) Labour Party (D) Social Democratic Party
4. According to the views held by the people of Europe regarding social change, they came to be called
(A) liberals (B) radicals (C) conservatives (D) all of these
5. Which of the following factors made autocracy unpopular in Russia?

(A) The German orgin of the Tsarina Alexandra (B) Poor advisors like the Monk Rasputin
(C) the huge cost of fighting in the World War I (D) All of these
6. What were the demands made by the workers in St. Petersburg who went on a strike?
(A) Reduction of working time to eight hours (B) Increase in wages
(C) Improvement in working conditions (D) All the above
7. Soviet Union broke in the year

(A) 1930 (B) 1900 (C) 1991 (D) 2001
8. Industrialisation did not lead to which of the following problems?

(A) poor wages (B) long hours of work
(C) liberalism (D) development of new industrialised regions
9. When did Lenin return to Russia from his exile?

(A) March 1917 (B) April 1917 (C) August 1917 (D) July 1918
10. What was ‘Duma’?

(A) Parliament (B) Court (C) Trade Union (D) Group of Nobles
11. Who were socialists ?
12. Who were Bolsheviks?
13. Who was Lenin? Name the three demands of Lenin’s ‘April Theses’.
14. Describe the incident of ‘Bloody Sunday’ during the Russian Revolution?
15. What social changes were seen in the society after industrialization?
DPP NO. 8
TOPIC : DRAINAGE
1. The river that causes great destruction during floods in northeastern states of India is
(A) Brahmaputra River (B) Ganga River (C) Meghna River (D) Teesta River
2. Radial pattern of drainage has

(A) right angles structure (B) jointly rock terrain
(C) dome like structure (D) branch like structure
3. Rivers of peninsular India flowing towards Arabian sea are

(A) Krishna- Kaveri (B) Mahanadi – Mahi (C) Ganga- Jamuna (D) Narmada- Tapi
4. River system having the largest drainage system in India is

(A) Godavari (B) Indus
(C) Ganga (D) Brahmaputra
5. The group of depositional features formed by the Himalayan rivers is

(A) Dunes, Corrosion , U-shaped valley (B) Bars, Lagoons, Atolls
(C) Meanders, Oxbow lake, Delta (D) Meanders, V- shaped valley, Cliff
6. Delta formed by Ganga- Brahmaputra in India is

(A) Sundri delta (B) Sunderban delta (C) Chandrabhaga delta(D) Sansa delta
7. India can only use 20% of water of Indus due to one of following treaty
(A) Chenab treaty, 1965 (B) Jhelum treaty 1961
(C) Ravi treaty 1972 (D) Indus Water Treaty 1960
8. Narmada rises from

(A) Chhattisgarh (B) Betul (C) Amarkantak (D) Nasik
9. The waterfall made by the river kaveri that supplies hydropower to Bangalore, Mysore and Kolar is
(A) Jog falls (B) Krishna falls (C) China falls (D) Sivasamudram falls
10. An appropriate reason to the fact that in Tibet, Brahmaputra does not create devastation by floods is
that it
(A) carries large volume of water
(B) carries smaller volume of water and less silt
(C) is very cold in this region and it remain frozen most of the year
(D) is very small stream in this area
11. What is a lagoon? How does it differ from a lake?
12. What is a braided stream ?
13. Compare the east flowing and the west flowing rivers of the peninsular plateau?
14. Why are most of the peninsular rivers draining into the Bay of Bengal ? Give reasons.
15. What are the causes of water pollution ? How can it be controled ?
DPP NO. 9
TOPIC : CONSTITUTIONAL DESIGN
1. The Constituent Assembly met for how many days?

(A) 165 (B) 280 (C) 365 (D) 150
2. Where was the 1931 session of Indian National Congress held?

(A) Nagpur (B) Karachi (C) Calcutta (D) Delhi
3. Which one of the following is a feature of Socialism?

(A) People have supreme right to make decisions on internal as well as external matters.
(B) Citizens cannot be discriminated on the grounds of caste, religion and gender.
(C) All are equal before law in the Indian society.
(D) Wealth generated in a society should be shared equally by all the members of the Society.
4. Election for the constituent assembly were held on

(A) July 1946 (B) Feb 1947 (C) Jan 1950 (D) Aug 1947
5. Who amongst these was not a member of the Constituent Assembly?

(A) B. R. Ambedkar (B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (C) Jawaharlal Nehru (D) Mahatma Gandhi
6. When did the Indian Constitution come into force ?

(A) 26th Nov, 1949 (B) 15th August, 1947 (C) 26th Jan, 1650 (D) 26th Jan, 1950
7. Who prepared the draft of a Constitution for India in 1928 ?

(A) Motilal Nehru (B) B.R. Ambedkar (C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (D) Jawaharlal Nehru
8. When was the Constitution of India adopted ?

(A) 26th Nov. 1949 (B) 26th Jan, 1949 (C) 26th Jan, 1950 (D) 26th Nov, 1950
9. Mahatma Gandhi wrote

(A) Young India (B) New India (C) Discovery of India (D) A Wonder That Was India
10. In the constituent assembly, the first captain of the Indian hockey team also had a role.
(A) Baldev Singh (B) Somnath Lahiri (C) Jaipal Singh (D) K.M. Munshi
11. Describe the composition of the Constituent Assembly.
12. What is meant by segregation ?
13. How was the Indian Constitution framed?
14. ‘Like South Africa, India’s constitution was also drawn up under very difficult circumstances.’ Explain.
15. What is the importance of Preamble ?
DPP NO. 10
TOPIC : POVERTY AS A CHALLENGE
1. AAY stands for
(A) Anti Allergic Yojana (B) Antyodaya Anna Yozana
(C) All Anna Yozana (D) Anti Action yozana
2. The basis for estimating poverty line in India is

(A) clothing (B) shelter (C) calorie intake (D) medical care
3. Measure aiming at redistribution of assets in rural areas is

(A) land development (B) land reform
(C) land output (D) land distribution
4. For the year 2011-12, the poverty line for rural areas is fixed at
(A) Rs. 816 per month. (B) Rs. 428 per month. (C) Rs. 528 per month. (D) Rs. 628 per month.
5. A common method used to measure poverty is based on the income or

(A) investment levels (B) production levels (C) expenditure levels (D) consumption levels
6. Which state has the largest percentage of poor in India?

(A) Bihar (B) Orissa (C) Kerala (D) Punjab
7. One of the important anti-poverty measure taken by the government to remove poverty is
(A) Mid Day Meal Scheme (B) Foreign Direct Investment Programme
(C) National Food for Work Programme (D) Rural Electricity Programme
8. NREGA is the scheme known as

(A) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (B) National Real Employment Guarantee Act
(C) National Report Ensuring Guarantee Act (D) National Rural Ensuring Guarantee Act
9. Pradhan Mantri Gramodya Yozna was launched in

(A) 1980 (B) 1990 (C) 2000 (D) 2002
10. Poverty as defined by World Bank implies living below

(A) $ 1 per person per day (B) $ 1.25 per person per day
(C) $ 1.90 per person per day (D) $ 2 per person per day
11. Define the term vulnerability.
12. What is the full form of NSSO ?
13. What are the major dimensions of poverty?
14. What is poverty line and how is it estimated?
15. Discuss the major reasons for poverty in India.
DPP NO. 11
TOPIC : ELECTORAL POLITICS
1. Election Commission of India is a permanent

(A) constitutional body (B) semi-governmental body
(C) statutory body (D) extra-constitutional body
2. The famous slogan ‘Protect the Self-Respect of the Telugus’ was given by
(A) Alluri Sitaramaraju. (B) P Chidambaram.
(C) N. T. Rama Rao. (D) D. Rama Naidu.
3. In India the minimum age of voting was 21 years till the year
(A) 1967 (B) 1976 (C) 1989 (D) 1990
4. Fraud and malpractices indulged by a party or candidate to increase its votes is termed as
(A) booth robbery. (B) political extortion. (C) swindling. (D) rigging.
5. In India, the symbols to political parties are allotted by the

(A) Vice President of India. (B) Election Commission.
(C) Electoral committee of political party. (D) Chief Justice of India.
6. How is the Chief Election Commissioner chosen?

(A) appointed by the President (B) elected by the people
(C) elected by the MPs (D) elected by MPs and MLAs
7. As per the 73rd amendment of the constitution, the number of seats reserved for women in the Panchayati
Raj are
(A) one-third. (B) one-fourth. (C) one-fifth. (D) one-sixth.
8. Before contesting elections, every candidate has to make a legal declaration giving full details of his
(A) family and friends. (B) political party.
(C) vehicle number. (D) educational qualification
9. The supreme head of the Election Commission in India is the

(A) Chief Election Commissioner (B) Prime Minister
(C) President (D) Vice President
10. How many seats are reserved in Lok Sabha for the scheduled tribes ?
(A) 40 (B) 47 (C) 51 (D) 71
11. What do you mean by election ? Why is it needed in a democracy.
12. Explain the term ‘Booth capturing’ used in the context of elections.
13. What is a reserved constituency?
14. Describe briefly the different process of election ?
15. Why the candidates are required to give a detailed account of their property?
DPP NO. 12
TOPIC : NAZISM AND THE RISE OF HITLER
1. Helmuth’s father killed himself in the spring of 1945 because

(A) He was depressed by Germany’s defeat in the Second World War
(B) He feared allied forces will mishandle him and his family
(C) He was the supporter of Nazis
(D) He wanted to die because of the guilt of the crimes, which he had committed during Nazi rule in Germany.
2. Places of worship for people of Jewish faith

(A) Churches (B) Synagogues
(C) Temples (D) Mosques
3. The meaning of the term ‘Ghetto’ is a separately marked area used for keeping
(A) jews (B) officers
(C) landlords (D) the police force
4. The Article 48 in Weimar Republic constitution makes it more unstable form of republic because
(A) President’s decree based on this article makes him more powerful than the republic
(B) Weimer republic was a fragile experiment
(C) The unstable nature of republic made it unpopular in public
(D) The Republic could not fulfill the aspirations of German public
5. The Great Depression in Germany gave Nazism a new lease of life because.
(A) during the Great Depression Nazi propaganda stirred hopes of better future among people
(B) Nazi party earned huge fortunes in election
(C) Hitler became a force to reckon with
(D) Nazis were favoured by the people of Germany
6. Match the following:

Column I Column II
(A) Genocide (i) Make up for wrong done
(B) Reparation (ii) Reduce, empty out
(C) Proletarianisation (iii) Destruction of large section of people by killings
(D) Deplete (iv) To become impoverished to the level of working class
(A) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv) (B) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)
(C) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv) (D)-(ii) (D) (A)-(iv) (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)
7. Using Darwins idea to advocate his racial needs Hitler intervened in the
(A) natural process of selection (B) Biased process of selection
(C) idealogical process of selection (D) negative process of selection
8. The Act which gave Adolf Hitler wider powers as a dictator of Germany was
(A) Fire decree (B) Chancellor Act
(C) Enabling Act (D) Repression Act
9. Name the book written by Charlotte Beradt about dreams of Jew :
(A) Fearfull Drams (B) Third Reich of Dreams
(C) Dreams of Death (D) Dreams of Reich
10. The most suitable meaning for the term Lebensraum projected by Nazi ideology was
(A) Acquisition of more territories
(B) Living space for Germans, which required annexation of new territories
(C) Capture of Poland only
(D) Defeat of Russia only
11. Discuss why Nazism became popular in Germany by 1930.
12. What was the state of Jews in Nazi Germany?
13. What do you mean by Holocaust? How the world came to know about it ?
14. Explain why the attack on Soviet Union by Hitler is termed as a Historic Blunder.
15. Explain the following terms :

(i) Holocaust
(ii) Concentration camp
(iii) Wall Street Exchange
DPP NO. 13
TOPIC : CLIMATE
1. From which of the followign presssure belts do the north-easterly trade winds originate ?
(A) Equatorial low pressure belt
(B) Subtropical high pressure belt of the Northen hemisphere
(C) Subtropical high pressure belt of the Southern hemisphere
(D) Tropical low pressure belt of the Northen hemisphere
2. Due to which of the following reasons are the southwest monsoons rainbearing winds ?
(A) They blow from low pressure area of northeastern India towards the seas
(B) they are seasonal winds
(C) They blow over warm Indian Ocean and gather moisture
(D) They strike the Himalayas
3. Main cause behind peninsular India not having well defined cold season is
(A) Monsoon. (B) low pressure.
(C) moderate sea weather. (D) high pressure.
4. ‘Loo’ is experienced in
(A) northeast part of India. (B) northwestern part of India.
(C) northernmost part of India. (D) southern part of India.
5. The place that receives highest rainfall in the world is

(A) Silchar. (B) Cherrapunji. (C) Mawsynram. (D) Guwahati.
6. Bengal, Orisaa and Andhra Pradesh coasts are frequented by cyclones because
(A) The level coastline makes the cyclones penetrate these areas earlier
(B) These areas ae close to a volcano
(C) Low pressure conditions in northwest India lead to the creation of depression over Andaman sea.
(D) Heavy rainfall in these parts encourage strong wind conditions
7. The fast flowing cold air currents in the upper atmosphere are called
(A) Coriolis Force. (B) Jet streams. (C) Trade winds. (D) Western disturbance.
8. Mango showers occur in which one of the following group of two states ?
(A) Bihar and West Bengal (B) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka and Kerala (D) Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh
9. Winter rainfall in Tamil Nadu is caused by

(A) retreating monsoons. (B) depression over Bay of Bengal.
(C) cold winds coming from Tibet. (D) western disturbances.
10. In winter the western cyclonic disturbances originate from which sea?
(A) Mediterranean Sea (B) Indian Ocean (C) Caspian Sea (D) Arbian Sea
11. What is El Nino? Mention any of its two effects.
12. What are jet streams and how do they afffect the climate of India?
13. What is southern oscillation? State an important feature of it.
14. What are the major controls of the climate of a place? Explain them.
15. Inspite of Deccan plateau lying in leeward side, it still receives little rainfall? Give reason.
DPP NO. 14
TOPIC : FOOD SECURITY IN INDIA
1. Public Distribution System is associated with

(A) Fair price shops (B) Cooperative Stores (C) Super Bazaar (D) None of these
2. The intensive utilisation of water in the cultivation of rice has led to

(A) more production. (B) less production.
(C) environmental degradation. (D) shortage of food.
3. The stock of food grains, namely wheat and rice procured by the government through Food Corporation of
India is called
(A) buffer stock. (B) distribution of stock. (C) storage of stock. (D) foodgrain stock.
4. Antyodaya cards are related to :

(A) All poor (B) Poorest of the poor
(C) Persons below poverty line (D) None of these
5. Malpractice done by PDS dealers is like

(A) selling goods to ration card holders. (B) selling goods at less than market price.
(C) selling poor quality grains. (D) selling goods to poor people.
6. The function of Academy of Development Science (ADS) in Maharashtra is

(A) strengthening rationing system.
(B) identifying poor families below poverty line.
(C) facilitating network for setting up grain banks in different regions.
(D) fixing Minimum Support Price.
7. Under the Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS) foodgrains given per family per month is
(A) 40 Kg (B) 35 Kg (C) 25 Kg (D) 20 Kg
8. Seasonal hunger is prevalent in rural areas because

(A) people with low income are unable to buy food.
(B) agricultural activities depend on natural factors.
(C) green revolution was introduced.
(D) loans are not easily available.
9. The special stamp entitled ‘Wheat Revolution’ was released in

(A) July 1968. (B) March 1972. (C) June 1980. (D) May 1999.
10. Food within reach of every person is called

(A) accessibility. (B) affordability. (C) availability. (D) food insecurity.
11. What is the Minimum Support Price?
12. What are the limitations of the Public Distribution System?
13. Describe the negative effects of increase in Minimum Support Price of foodgrains in India.
14. Explain the role of Co-operatives in providing food and related items in different parts of the country.
15. Mention any five functions of Food Corporation of India.
DPP NO. 15
TOPIC : WORKING OF INSTITUTIONS
1. The Mandal Commission was established in

(A) 1979. (B) 1989. (C) 1990. (D) 1995.
2. The no-confidence motion can be moved only in the

(A) Lok Sabha (B) Rajya Sabha (C) Senate (D) House of Lords
3. The seat of Supreme Court of India is

(A) Mumbai. (B) Kolkata. (C) Chennai. (D) New Delhi.
4. Council of Ministers work on the principle of

(A) individual responsibility. (B) collective responsibility.
(C) separate authority. (D) collective leadership.
5. The disputes between the government and the citizens over the decisions of the government are settled by
(A) non governmental organisation. (B) supreme court.
(C) committee members. (D) civil servants.
6. Political association occupying a definite territory, having an organized government and possessing power to
make domestic and foreign policies is known as
(A) State. (B) Government. (C) Parliament. (D) Executive.
7. Permanent executive is also known as

(A) Prime Ministerís office. (B) President.
(C) Civil Servants. (D) Political Parties.
8. Ministers who are usually in-charge of smaller Ministries are termed as

(A) Cabinet ministers. (B) Council of ministers.
(C) Ministers of State with independent charge. (D) Ministers of State.
9. Who heads the Rajya Sabha?

(A) Vice President (B) President (C) Chief Minister (D) Prime Minister
10. For how long can the Rajya Sabha delay a Money Bill ?
(A) 7 days (B) 14 days (C) 15 days (D) 1 month
11. Why do we need a parliament?
12. Explain No Confidence Motion.
13. How can the Judge of the Supreme Court be removed?
14. Explain the major powers and functions of the Prime Minister.
15. Explain the major powers and functions of the Parliament.
DPP NO. 16
TOPIC : NATURAL VEGETATION AND WILDLIFE
1. The most dominant species of trees found in the tropical deciduous forest is
(A) sal. (B) shisham. (C) teak. (D) deodar.
2. The union territories in India with maximum forest cover area is

(A) Chandigarh. (B) Dadra and Nagar Haveli.
(C) Andaman and Nicobar. (D) Lakshadweep
3. Natural vegetation grown naturally without human aid and has been left undisturbed by the humans for a long
time is called as
(A) endemic vegetation. (B) virgin vegetation.
(C) flora. (D) endangered.
4. Arid areas of Rann of Kutch and Thar desert is a natural habitat for
(A) elephants. (B) lions.
(C) one horned rhinoceros. (D) wild ass and camels.
5. The percentage suitable for any area for the forest cover in a region is
(A) 25%. (B) 26%. (C) 33%. (D) 36%.
6. The biosphere-reserves that have been included in world network of biosphere-reserves is

(A) Pachmari,Madhya pradesh. (B) Gulf of Mannar, Tamil Nadu
(C) Great Nicobar,Nicobar. (D) Nokrek,Meghalaya.
7. In which of the following states is the Simlipal bio-reserve located?

(A) Delhi (B) Punjab (C) West-Bengal (D) Orissa
8. What is the rank of India in the world in respect of plant diversity?

(A) 10th (B) 12th (C) 5th (D) 6th
9. Guindy is a
(A) medicinal plant. (B) national park
(C) Indian blue bull. (D) tibetan wild association.
10. The scripture associated with medicinal plants, herbs and shrubs is
(A) Ayurveda. (B) Samveda. (C) Rigveda. (D) Yajurveda.
11. Define Biosphere.
12. Distinguish between the Tropical Evergreen Forest and Tropical Deciduous Forest.
13. Why there is a need to conserve bio-diversity?
14. Write a short note on the flora and fauna of India.
15. Discuss the type of vegetation found in a thorn forest.
DPP NO. 17
TOPIC : DEMOCRATIC RIGHTS
1. What is meant by the term writ?
(A) written laws (B) a document containing an order of the court
(C) basic features of the constitution (D) none of these
2. Fundamental rights are universal, which means that they are granted to all the
(A) ambassadors. (B) citizens of India. (C) aliens. (D) diplomats.
3. Abolition of untouchability belongs to

(A) fundamental duty. (B) legal right.
(C) fundamental right. (D) directive principle of state policy.
4. The freedom that is not available to Indian citizens is

(A) freedom to criticize the government. (B) participate in armed rebellion.
(C) practice any religion. (D) freedom to form associations.
5. Right to property was ommitted from the list of Fundamental Rights by the
(A) Congress Government. (B) CPI Government.
(C) Janta Government. (D) BJP Government.
6. How many fundamental rights does the Indian constitution provide?

(A) 7 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 8
7. Right to Equality implies

(A) indiscrimination of citizen against religion, caste, ethnicity etc.
(B) discrimination against the people.
(C) issues related to the minorities.
(D) religious privileges to the people.
8. Non-Muslim residents in Saudi Arabia follow their religion in private and not in
(A) temple. (B) mosque. (C) public. (D) church.
9. In order to establish National Human Rights Commission, India enacted the

(A) Covenant on Civil and Political Rights Act.
(B) Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights Act.
(C) Protection of Human Rights Act.
(D) Protection of Civil Liberties Act.
10. In April 1999, the Albanian families of Kosovo were affected by

(A) independence. (B) ethnic massacre.
(C) election. (D) selection of political leaders.
11. India is a secular state. Explain.
12. What is meant by PIL?
13. What do you understand by fundamental rights? Discuss the various fundamental rights mentioned in the
Indian Constitution.
14. Why did Dr. Ambedkar consider the right to constitutional remedies as ‘soul of the constitution’?
15. What is the role of NHRC in India?
DPP NO. 18
TOPIC : POPULATION
1. The state with the lowest sex ratio is

(A) Punjab (B) Uttar Pradesh (C) Haryana (D) Orissa
2 ‘Demography’ is the study of

(A) infrastructures. (B) human population (C) human rights. (D) human behaviour.
3. First official census was held in India in

(A) 1870. (B) 1871. (C) 1881. (D) 1882.
4. Population density of India in the year 2001 was

(A) 326 persons per sq km. (B) 324 persons per sq km.
(C) 322 persons per sq km. (D) 326 persons per sq km.
5. Which one of the following states has very high population density?
(A) West Bengal (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Rajasthan (D) Arunachal Pradesh
6. The national population policy by the government of India started in year

(A) 1992. (B) 1952. (C) 2000. (D) 1999.
7. The annual growth rate in population is related to

(A) high birth rate. (B) high migration rate.
(C) increase in age composition. (D) decline in population.
8. India accounts for what percentage of the world population?

(A) 1.02% (B) 2.4% (C) 3.28% (D) 16.7%
9. The correct definition of ‘birth rate’ is

(A) Movement of people across regions and territories.
(B) No. of live births per thousand persons in a year.
(C) Number of person increased in per 100 of the base population.
(D) No. of deaths per thousand persons in a year.
10. Number of deaths per thousand persons in a year is called the

(A) death rate. (B) birth rate. (C) migration rate. (D) annual growth rate.
11. Mention any three disadvantages of large population.
12. What is a Census? When was the census first held in India? Why is the Census of India important?
13. Explain the occupational structure of population.
14. Explain the national population policy.
15. Explain the process of population growth.
DPP NO. 19
TOPIC : FOREST, SOCIETY AND COLONIALISM
1. Brandis set up the Indian Forest Service in

(A) 1864 (B) 1867 (C) 1868 (D) 1869
2. Alluri Sitarama Raju, one of rebels against the colonial domination of the forest areas was from
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Bengal (C) Bombay (D) Madras
3. The Bastar kingdom was merged with Kanker kingdom and became Bastar district in Madhya Pradesh in
the year
(A) 1917 (B) 1927 (C) 1937 (D) 1947
4. Java is an island that is located in

(A) Brazil (B) Cuba (C) Indonesia (D) Singapore
5. Bastar is located in the southernmost part of

(A) Assam (B) Bengal (C) Chhattisgarh (D) Orissa
6. Which of the following is not a local name of shifting cultivation?

(A) Jhum (B) Kharif (C) Tavy (D) Milpa
7. The number of families that followed the ideas of Surontiko Samin by 1907 was
(A) 1,000 (B) 2,000 (C) 3,000. (D) 4,000
8. The Indian Forest Act of 1865 was amended two times in the years
(A) 1878 and 1927 (B) 1890 and 1900 (C) 1895 and 1928 (D) 1943 and 1945
9. The book The Forests of India written in the year 1923 was authored by
(A) Warren Hastings (B) Lord Dalhousie (C) E.P. Stebbing (D) E.P.Thompson
10. The new system introduced by the Imperial Forest institute was
(A) Scientific forestry (B) Scientific farming (C) Scientific irrigation (D) Scientific plantation
11. How did the Forest Act affect the common man’s life in India?
12. How did commercial farming lead to a decline in forest covers during colonial period?
13. Where is Bastar located? Discuss its history and its pepole.
14. What is shifting cultivation? Why did the European foresters regard this practice as harmful for the forests?
15. How did the forest rules affect cultivation?
DPP NO. 20
TOPIC : PASTORALISTS IN THE MODERN WORLD
1. The autumn crop that is usually harvested between September and October is known as
(A) Kharif (B) kuruvai (C) Rabi (D) Samba
2. When was the Criminal Tribes Act passed?

(A) 1889 (B) 1871 (C) 1878 (D) 1870
3. The Colonial state wanted to extract more and more land

(A) area (B) pasture. (C) revenue. (D) yield.
4. The massai cattle herders live primarily in_____________

(A) east Africa (B) West Africa (C) south Africa (D) north Africa
5. The colonial rule changed the life of pastoralists dramatically because

(A) The grazing ground expanded in numbers
(B) Their movement increased constantly
(C) They were prevented from using Pasture, Forest and Agricultural land by colonial rule
(D) They enjoyed state security
6. Forest having commercially valuable wood are termed as

(A) protected (B) village (C) reserved (D) none of these
7. In India, the villages of Maldhari herders are in

(A) Rann of Kutch. (B) Maharashtra. (C) Kashmir valley. (D) Rajasthan.
8. Serengeti National Park lie in

(A) Tanzania (B) South America (C) Kenya (D) Taiwan
9. The yearly camel fair is held in

(A) Rajasthan. (B) Punjab. (C) Kashmir. (D) Gujarat.
10. The Kinnauris, a pastoral community belongs to

(A) Assam. (B) Bengal. (C) Karnataka. (D) the Himalayas.
11. Where do the Gujjar cattle herders live in summer and winter?
12. Why was the Maasailand cut into half?
13. What were the efforts taken by the colonial government to bring waste lands under cultivation? How did it
create problems for pastoralists?
14. What happened to the animal stock when pasture lands were turned into cultivated lands?
15. What restrictions were imposed by the colonial rule on the African pastoralist?
DPP NO. 21
TOPIC : PEASANT AND FARMERS
1. When did the white American move into Missisippi valley?

(A) 1800-1820 (B) 1820-1850
(C) 1850-1860 (D) 1860-1870
2. The quantity of tea imported to England from China in 1785 was about
(A) 15 million pounds. (B) 17 million pounds.
(C) 19 million pounds. (D) 21 million pounds.
3. Till the 1780s, white America settlement was confined to a small narrow strip of coastal land in the
(A) East (B) West
(C) North (D) South
4. Which of the following was not a feature of strip cultivation?

(A) Cultivable land around villages was divided into strips.
(B) Beginning of each year villagers were allocated a number of strips to cultivate.
(C) Strips were a mix of good and bad land.
(D) Common land was divided into strips.
5. The first mechanical reaper was invented in 1831 by

(A) Cyrus McCormick. (B) Murray Murphy.
(C) John Gudenberg. (D) Stephen Hawkins.
6. In the 17th century the crop that improved the fertility of the soil and was a good fodder crop was
(A) Carrot. (B) Spinach.
(C) Clover. (D) Turnip.
7. Why did the white settlers want to push away the Indian Americans from their lands?
(A) the land possessed by the Indians could be turned into cultivated fields
(B) Forest timber could be exported, animals hunted for skins, mountains mined for gold and minerals
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) It was a committed policy of the US Government.
8. The American leader under whom maximum expansion of wheat cultivation took place was
(A) President Wilson. (B) President Lincoln.
(C) President Bush. (D) President Clinton.
9. Who was Captain Swing?

(A) A farmer (B) A labourer
(C) A mythic name (D) A landlord
10. With the rise in the price of wool, rich farmers
(A) increased wages of the labour. (B) started enclosing common land.
(C) moved westward. (D) started fighting with natives.
11. What was the impact of the westward expansion of the settlers in the USA ?
12. ‘From the late 19th century, there was a dramatic expansion of wheat production in the USA’. Give four
reasons for this expansion.
13. What was the impact of enclosures on the poor farmers?
14. What was the enclosure system?
15. How were unwilling cultivators made to produce opium in India? Explain.


PHYSICS
CLASS IX - CBSE
DPP NO. 1
TOPIC : MOTION
1. A 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. A
8. A 9. D 10. B 13. : 2 2
DPP NO. 2
TOPIC : MOTION
1. B 2. A 3. A 4. B 5. D 6. D 7. A
8. B 9. D 10. B 13. 6 km/hr. 14. 10 m/s2 15. 0.4 m/s2
DPP NO. 3
TOPIC : MOTION
1. B 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. A 7. A
8. B 9. D 10. B 11. 2.5 s 12. 270 m 14. 15 m/s2 15. 1:3:5
DPP NO. 4
TOPIC : MOTION
1. D 2. D 3. D 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. D
8. A 9. B 10. A
DPP NO. 5
1. D 2. D 3. C 4. C 5. D 6. C 7. C
8. A 9. D 10. D
DPP NO. 6
1. A 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. D 7. D
2
8. A 9. C 10. D 15. 4 m/s
DPP NO. 7
1. C 2. D 3. D 4. B 5. B 6. B 7. D
2
8. B 9. B 10. D 13. 360 kg m/s 14. 10,000 kg m/s 15. 1s
DPP NO. 8
1. D 2. B 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. B
8. A 9. B 10. B
DPP NO. 9
TOPIC : GRAVITATION
1. C 2. D 3. D 4. D 5. A 6. C 7. B
–11
8. B 9. C 10. C 12. 6.67 × 10 N 13.(a) 2 times; (b) 1/4 times; (c) 4 times
DPP NO. 10
TOPIC : GRAVITATION
1. C 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. D 6. C 7. A
2
8. C 9. A 10. C 12. 40/3 N 13. 1.96 m/s
DPP NO. 11
TOPIC : GRAVITATION
1. B 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. D 6. B 7. B
8. D 9. A 10. A
DPP NO. 12
TOPIC : FLUID
1. D 2. D 3. D 4. B 5. A 6. A 7. C
8. B 9. D 10. C
DPP NO. 13
TOPIC : FLUID
1. D 2. D 3. B 4. A 5. D 6. C 7. B
8. D 9. B 10. D
DPP NO. 14
TOPIC : FLUID
1. B 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. B 6. C 7. B
8. B 9. A 10. B 11. 25 N
DPP NO. 15
1. C 2. C 3. A 4. C 5. D 6. B 7. C
8. C 9. A 10. B
DPP NO. 16
1. B 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. D 6. B 7. C
8. A 9. A 10. B 11. 100% 12. 1:9 13. Reduce by 50%
DPP NO. 17
1. B 2. A 3. A 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. A
8. D 9. B 10. D 11. 6,250 J
DPP NO. 18
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. C 7. C
4 5
8. D 9. B 10. D 11. 2 × 10 J 12. 9,000 N, 4.5 × 10 J
13. 750 W 14. 5N 15. 10 m
DPP NO. 19
TOPIC : SOUND
1. D 2. D 3. C 4. C 5. A 6. B 7. D
8. A 9. C 10. A
DPP NO. 20
TOPIC : SOUND
1. B 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. A
8. A 9. C 10. C
DPP NO. 21
TOPIC : SOUND
1. C 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. A 6. C 7. D
8. D 9. A 10. A 15. 20 m
CHEMISTRY
CLASS IX - CBSE
MATTER IN OUR SURROUNDINGS

DPP NO. 01
TOPIC : PHYSICAL PROPERTIES AND STATES OF MATTER
1. D 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. A
8. A 9. B 10. C
DPP NO. 02
TOPIC : INTER CONVERSION OF STATES OF MATTER
1. B 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. D
8. D 9. C 10. C
DPP NO. 03
TOPIC : EVAPORATION AND FACTORS AFFECTING IT
1. B 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. D 7. D
8. A 9. D 10. D
IS MATTER AROUND US PURE ?
DPP NO. 04
TOPIC : ELEMENTS, COMPOUNDS AND MIXTURES
1. C 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. D 6. D 7. D
8. C 9. B 10. C
DPP NO. 05
TOPIC : TYPES OF MIXTURES, CONCENTRATION OF SOLUTIONS
1. A 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. D 6. A 7. C
8. D 9. D 10. C
DPP NO. 06
TOPIC : TYPES OF SOLUTIONS
1. A 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. C 6. C 7. C
8. C 9. B 10. B
DPP NO. 07
TOPIC : SEPARATION TECHNIQUES
1. D 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. B 6. C 7. A
8. B 9. A 10. A
DPP NO. 08
TOPIC : PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL CHANGES
1. C 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. D
8. A 9. D 10. B
ATOMS AND MOLECULES
DPP NO. 09
TOPIC : DALTON’S THEORY, LAWS OF CHEMICAL COMBINATION, SYMBOLS AND ATOMIC MASS
1. C 2. C 3. C 4. C 5. C 6. C 7. C
8. A 9. C 10. B
DPP NO. 10
TOPIC : Mole Concept
1. D 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. A 6. D 7. C
8. A 9. B 10. A
STRUCTURE OF ATOM
DPP NO. 11
TOPIC : DALTON’S ATOMIC THEORY
1. B 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. A 6. A 7. B
8. A 9. 10. B
DPP NO. 12
TOPIC : ATOMIC MODELS AND ISO-TERMS
1. B 2. D 3. C 4. C 5. D 6. B 7. C
8. B 9. C 10. A
BIOLOGY
CLASS IX - CBSE
DPP - 01
TOPIC : TOPIC: THE FUNDAMENTAL UNIT OF LIFE
1. C 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. D 7. B
8. B 9. B 10. C
DPP - 02
TOPIC : TISSUE
1. B 2. A 3. A 4. A 5. D 6. B 7. A
8. B 9. B 10. A
DPP - 03
TOPIC : DIVERSITY IN LIVING ORGANISMS
1. D 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. C 6. D 7. B
8. D 9. C 10. B
DPP - 04
TOPIC : WHY DO WE FALL ILL
1. B 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. A 6. B 7. A
8. A 9. D 10. C
DPP - 05
TOPIC : NATURAL RESOURCES
1. C 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. B 6. B 7. D
8. B 9. B 10. D
DPP - 06
TOPIC : IMPROVEMENT IN FOOD RESOURCES
1. C 2. D 3. C 4. C 5. A 6. C 7. A
8. B 9. C 10. A
MATHEMATICS
CLASS IX - CBSE
DPP NO. 1
1. B 2. D 3. A 4. A 5. A 6. D 7. A
8. B 9. B 10. B
47  21 5 19 41 6
11. (i) 6 – 35 (ii) (iii) 
2 5 30
12. (i) 6 + 4 3 + 7 6 (ii) 3 2 + 8 5 

(iii) 3 3 3  4 2  4  (iv) 2
3
(v) (vi) 2 3 (vii) 2
2
2 2 4 5
15. (i) 4 (ii)
3
DPP NO. 2
1. D 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. B
8. C 9. D 10. C
3201 411 2 14 1037

12. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
400 16 3 11 66
2
15. (i) a = 2, b = 1 (ii) a = –1, b = 1 (iii) a = 0, b =
3
DPP NO. 3
TOPIC : POLYNOMIALS
1. D 2. D 3. B 4. B 5. A 6. B 7. C
8. B 9. C 10. C
11. (i) x100 – 3 (there could be many answers) (ii) y23 (there could be many answers)
12. (i) 1 (ii) 3 (iii) 0 (iv) 7 (v) 10 (vi) 2
13. a = 23, b = – 14 15. a = –3, b = – 1
DPP NO. 4
TOPIC : POLYNOMIALS
1. B 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. A 6. B 7. D
8. A 9. C 10. B
3 2
11 (i) 9a b (3b – 5c) (ii) (3x + 4y)(3x – 4y) (iii) x(x + 1)(x – 1)
(iv) (y – 3)(y – 1) (v) (x + 3)(2 – x) (vi) (x + 2)(2x + 1)(2x – 1)
(viii) 3(p – q)(q – r)(r – p)
12. (i) 9,801 (ii) 99,70,02,999
13. 9 15. 341
DPP NO. 5
TOPIC : CO-ORDINATE GEOMETRY
1. B 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. B 6. A 7. C
8. D 9. C 10. C
12. (i) Fourth Quadrant (ii) Second Quadrant (iii) Third Quadrant (iv) First Quadrant
13. 5 square units
14. (i) x-axis (ii) y-axis
15. (i) B(–5, 2), C(–2, 3), E(3, –1) (ii) F (iii) 1 (iv) 0
DPP NO. 6
TOPIC : LINEAR EQUATION IN TWO VARIABLES
1. C 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. D 6. C 7. D
8. B 9. D 10. C
1
11. (2, 3) 12. b= 13. c=-(am+bn) 14. x = 15 - 6y, Yes
3
15. Fixed charge = Rs.15, charge for each extra day = Rs.3
DPP NO. 7
TOPIC : LINES AND ANGLES
1. D 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. B 6. B 7. B
8. C 9. C 10. C
12. 110º, 70º 13. x = 100º 15. x = 50º
DPP NO. 8
TOPIC : TRIANGLES
1. C 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. D
8. A 9. C 10. A 11. BOC = 125º 14. BOC=70º 15. x=90
DPP NO. 9
TOPIC : QUADRILATERALS
1. B 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. D 7. A
8. A 9. D 10. A 13. x = 70º 14. 12 15. x = 55º
DPP NO. 10
TOPIC : AREAS OF PARALLELOGRAM & TRIANGLES
1. D 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. D 6. C 7. B
8. A 9. A
DPP NO. 11
TOPIC : CIRCLES
1. D 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. A 6. D 7. D
8. C 9. B 10. D 11. 150º, 30º
DPP NO. 12
TOPIC : CONSTRUCTION
1. A 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. B 6. C 7. C
8. A 9. A 10. A
DPP NO. 13
TOPIC : HERON'S FORMULA
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. D
8. D 9. A 10. D
11. 672 cm2
12. Other diagonal = 48 cm, Area = 1320 cm2
13. 270 m2
14. 306 cm2 15. 20 30 cm
2
DPP NO. 14
TOPIC : SURFACE AREA AND VOLUME
1. C 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. B
8. C 9. A 10. B 11. 4:1 12. Rs. 539 13. 24 cm
14. 2541 15. 249.48 m , 523.91 m3.
2
DPP NO. 15
TOPIC : STATISTICS
1. B 2. D 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. B 7. C
8. D 9. A 10. D 12. O ,AB 15. 5
DPP NO. 16
TOPIC : PROBABILITY
1. D 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. D 6. B 7. A
8. D 9. C 10. A
9 11 1 3 2 3
11. 12. 13. (i) (ii) (iii) 14. 15. 0.734
40 20 5 10 15 32
DPP-18
TOPIC : INTEGRATED GRAMAMR BASED ON REPORTED SPEECH & CLAUSES
1. (a) Mr Carlisle, to whom I spoke last night, is very interested in our new project.
(b) She couldn’t come to the conference, which was a pity.
(c) Suzana has many friends, most of whom she went to school with.
(d) She tried on several jackets, none of which fit her.
(e) Melanie, who has just bought a house near Gatwick is getting married.
2. (a) She told me that she would be delighted to come.

(b) Pay careful attentino to what I am goint to say.
(c) I went to see what hazd happened.
(d) That you should cheat me, hurts me.
(e) I don’t know how I can get out of this mess.
(f) I don’t know what he wants.
(g) I thought that she would arrive tomorrow.
(h) He asked me if I knew his name.
(i) I want to know why she is angry with me.
(j) I often wonder how he is getting on.
3. (a) who would be presiding

(b) she had been told
(c) if she was talking
4. (a) he was going

(b) that he was going to the
(c) if he might drop him
20. The master ordered his servant to bring him a cup of milk.
21. The begger requested my mother to give him some food.
22. The teacher addressed the boys and asked to sit down and learn his lesson.
23. The old man exclaimed with surprise that the hut had caught fire.
24. The doctor forbade the patient to take butter while he was under his treatment.’
25. Mohan advised me not to drive fast as the road was very busy.
DPP-17
TOPIC : CLAUSES
1. (a) who (b) who (c) where (d) whom (e) whose
2. (a) The man who lives next door is very friendly.

(b) Everything that he said was correct.
(c) The person whom I wanted to see was not available until Monday.
(d) Yesterday I met Mario, who told me he was getting married.
(e) Mr Smith is going to Moscow, where his daughter has been living for some time now.
3. (a) what you are doing

(b) that I am doing my homework
(c) that you have committed many mistakes
4. (a) I was talking to a woman whose husband was killed during the war.
(b) A man, who was carrying a cat in a box, got on the bus.
(c) Somebody, whose name I can't remember, called while you were out.
(d) I work mainly in the Marketing Department, which is the smallest in the company.
(e) My-boss, whose work takes him all over the world, decided to employ me as his assistant.
5. (a) where you|bought these trousers from

(b) that is in the main market
(c) if I can find a similar pair for myself
6. (a) The shoes, my grandma bought for me, are too big.
(b) The boy I know from school is very nice.
(c) The chicken, we ate at the restaurant, was delicious.
(d) The new words, I have to learn, are very difficult.
(e) The photographer could not develop the pictures I had taken in Australia.
(f) Do you know the girl who is talking to Tom?
(g) The bananas George bought are on the table.
(h) The man Kamal helps is my teacher.
(i) The film, I watched last night, was interesting.
(j) The paint, on the bench you are sitting on, is still wet.
4. I’d had /I had had ... I’d have sent
/I would have sent
5. we’d have enjoyed / we would have
enjoyed ... the weather had been
6. It would have been ... I’d walked /
I had walked
7. I was /I were
8. I’d been tired /I had been tired
IV. 2. If the drivef in front hadn’t stopped so suddenly, the accident
wouldn’t have happened.
3. If I’d /I had known that George had to get up early, I’d /I would have woken him up.
4. If Jim hadn’t lent me the money, I wouldn’t have been able to buy the car. or ...I couldn’t have bought the
car.
5. If Margaret hadn’t been wearing a seat belt, she’d / she would have been injured.
6. If you’d / you had had (some) breakfast, you wouldn’t be hungry now.
7. If I’d /I had had some money on me, I’d /I would have got a taxi.
V. 2. I wish I’d /I had applied for it.
or ...for the job.
3. I wish I’d /I had learned to play a
musical instrument.
4. I wish I hadn’t painted it red. /
...painted the gate red.
5. I wish I’d /I had brought my camera.
6. I wish they’d / the had told me they were coming, or I wish I’d /I had known they were coming.
DPP-16
TOPIC : REPORTED SPEECH
1. My father said that the sun rises in the east.
2. The girl exclaimed with joy that it had been a fine picnic.
3. The leader said that many students had died in the agitation.
4. The teacher said that God helps those who help themselves.
5. He says that Mohan is delivering a fine speech.
6. The soldiers applauded and said that they had fire.
7. Ram will way that Hari is a thief.
8. Ram exclaimed with sorrow that they had lost the match.
9. A man said taht Life ends in death.
10. Ravi asked Pawan if he could show him his pocket.
11. The old woman asked me if I lived in that house.
12. Hari asked Shanker if he would go to see the zoo that day.
13. Manak asked his friend if he didn’t go to college that day.
14. Father asked his son if he had brought sweets from the market.
15. The fox asked the crow if he could sing a song for her.
16. Mohan asked his brother if he would give him some money the following day.
18. The teacher exclaimed and said that it was a pity she had not learnt good manners.
19. The master of the house asked if he would not wash his hands.
3. (a) who (b) after (c) and (d) while
(e) what (f) when
4. (a) before (b) as (c) which (d) because

(e) who
DPP-14
TOPIC : CONDITIONALS
I. (1) found (2) I’m not

(3) had known (4) rings
(5) were (6) is
(7) was/were (8) had been
(9) had (10) hadn’t had
(11) had driven/ had been driving (12) didn’t read
II. (1) Liz didn’t go to bed so late, she wouldn’t be tired all the time.
(2) came (to see us now)
(3) wouldn’t have disturbed you.
(4) If you hadn’t provoked the dog, it wouldn’t have attacked you.
(5) They would be upset if I told them what happened. /... what had happened
(6) I wouldn’t have got (so) wet if I’d had an umbrella
(7) If he hadn’t been (so) nervous, he wouldn’t have failed.
III. (1) I wasn’t feeling so tired. (2) I hadn’t had so much to do.
(3) I would have forgotten Jane’s (4) you hadn’t taken so long to get ready.
(5) I would have gone to the concert. (6) you were in trouble?
(7) there was no traffic. (8) people would go out more.
IV. (1) I hadn’t eaten (2) It would stop.

(3) I knew. (4) I’d taken/ I had taken
(5) Ann were/ Ann was (6) they’d hurry up/ they would hurry up
(7) we didn’t have (8) we’d had/ we had had
(9) it wasn’tit weren’t (10) I could
(11) I hadn’t said (12) you’d slow down/ you would slow down
(13) we hadn’t gone (14) you wouldn’t go/ you didn’t go
DPP-15
TOPIC : INTEGRATED GRAMMAR BASED ON CONDITIONALS
I. 2. I wish John would come. /
I wish he would come.
3. I wish the baby would stop crying.
4. I wish somebody would give me a job.
5. I wish you would buy some new clothes, or ...get some new clothes.
6. I wish you wouldn’t drive so fast.
7. I wish you wouldn’t (always) leave the door open.
8. I wish people wouldn’t drop litter in the street.
II. 2. would shake
3. would always forget
4. would share
III. 2. he’d missed / he had missed ... he
would have been / he’d have been
3. I would have forgotten / I’d have
forgotten ... you hadn’t reminded
DPP-11
TOPIC : INTEGRATED GRAMMAR BASED ON MODALS AND PREPOSITIONS
1. Incorrect Correct
(a) can should
(b) should may
(c) can could
(d) may not can’t
(e) can must
2. (a) must (b) should (c) can (d) must (e) may
(a) under at
(b) beyond of
(c) barring on
(d) beneath between
(e) across over
(f) without of
(g) till through
4. (a) to (b) into (c) to (d) to (e) on (f) at (g) to (h) around (i) to (j) with (k) at
DPP-12
TOPIC : CONNECTORS
I. 1. As 2. since 3. while 4. as
5. As 6. since 7. while 8. Since
9. As 10. while 11. while 12. since.
II. 1. just because 2. than 3. until 4. than

5. just because 6.than 7. until 8. until
9. just because 10. just then 11. than 12. just because
13. just then 14. just then 15. just because
DPP-13
TOPIC : INTEGRATED GRAMMAR BASED ON CONNECTORS
(a) which who
(b) since after
(c) As when
(d) while when
(e) Just while
2. Before Missing After

(a) Just as our
(b) wife who wanted
(c) cried when she
(d) Madam while the
(e) magazine and replied
(f) just then the
DPP-8
TOPIC : INTEGRATED GRAMMAR BASED ON SUBJECT VERB CONCORD AND ACTIVE-PASSIVE
1. (a) is said (b) is being sold (c) is reported (d) have heard
(e) was built (f) has had (g) to have stayed (h) has been living
(i) was being restored (j) had read (k) have been looking (l) did not find
2. (a) was appreciated (b) was turned (c) has been invited
3. (a)(i) costs (b)(i) has (c)(ii) hope (d) (ii) are
(e) (i) makes
4. (a)(i) likes (b)(i) is (c)(i) warns
(d)(ii) are (e)(i) cause
DPP-9
TOPIC : MODALS
I. (1) can’t be (2) must have gone

(3) could rain/ might rain (4) might have gone/ could have gone
(5) couldn’t go (6) couldn’t have seen/ can’t have seen
(7) should get (8) wouldn’t recognise/ might not recognise
(9) must have heard (10) should have turned
II. (1) she might be having lunch. (2) I shouldn’t have eaten so much.
(3) He must have forgotten. (4) You needn’t have gone home so early.
(5) It can’t be changed now. (6) She may be watching television.
(7) She must have been waiting for somebody. (8) he couldn’t have done it.
(9) You ought to have been here earlier. (10) I would have helped you.
(11) You should have been warned.
(12) He might not have been warned. very well./ He might not have felt very well.
DPP-10
TOPIC : PREPOSITIONS
I. (1) in (2) on
(3) at 9.30 on Tuesday (4) at
(5) on (6) at
(7) In (8) at
(9) during/in (10) on Friday.. since tehn
(11) for (12) at
(13) at the moment ... until Friday (14) by
II. (1) in (2) by
(3) at (4) on
(5) on your cheek ... .in the mirror (6) to a party at Linda’s house
(7) on (8) on
(9) to ... to (10) in Vienna .. at the age of 35
(11) in this photograph ... on the left (12) to the theatre ... in the front row
(13) on the wall by the door (14) at
(15) on (16) in a tower block .... on the fifteenth floor
(17) on (18) pay in cash or pay cash ... by credit card
(19) On the bus ... by car (20) on ... on
III.
1 (a) damaged (b) was discovered
(c) was injured (d) be rescused
(e) are believed to have been destroyed (f) is not known
2. (a) was forced (b) being threatened
(c) had been stolen (d) was later found
(f) had been abandoned (g) has been arrested
(h) is still being questioned
3. (a) is being resurfaced (b) are asked/ are being asked/ have been asked
(c) is expected (d) will be closed
(e) will be diverted
4. (a) was taken (b) was allowed
(c) was blocked (d) be diverted
(e) have been killed
DPP-7
TOPIC : READING COMPREHENSION
1. a. Article 48A of the Indian Constitution provides for the government to protect and improve the environment
and safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country. The result of its non-enformcement is that the
forests of the country are depleting at a very fast rate.
b. The population of mankind was about 1 billion in the year 1800, 2 billion in 1900 and the 20th century
added 3.7 billion. Today the population is estimated at 7.4 billion. This population growth has affected
society by distorting its future, with the rich getting richer and the poor remaining planning.
c. The poor remain poor because they beget children, which means more people without work. The remedy
suggested by the author is to control population by resorting to family planning.
d. The author’s vision of the emerning new world is that it has ushered in an era of responsibility of visualising
the world as an integrated ecological whose, rather than a dissociated collectino of parts.
e. spotlighted
f. changing
g. The transcendental concern is the survival not just of the people but of the planet.
h. growth of world population.
2. a. The first written public examinations were introduced with the establishment of the imperial examination
system in 606 AD in China.
b. The two features of the examination system in our country are its organisational design and the au-
tonomy.
c. The Amrik Singh Report (1997) made an analysis and reached the conclusion that CBSE. along with
Maharashtra board fared the best.
d. In terms of operating surplus, the CBSE board and Maharashtra board fare the best.
e. The Supreme Court issued directions that results should be declared within 45 days from the end of
examinations.
f. The National Institute of Open Schooling (NIOS) conducts examinations through the distance mode.
g. heterogeneity
h. Islamic educational
9. You or he is to be blamed for this.
10. Either you or I am in the wrong.
11. Chiku as well as his friends was present.
12. I with my friends am ready to go.
13. Honesty, in addition to labour is the key to success.
14. Not only the students but also the teacher was present.
15. Fifty miles is not a long distance to walk.
16. Ten years is a long period.
17. A number of students are present.
18. The number of students is ten.
19. Most students are laborious here.
20. Half of the books were useless.
21. Some pieces of furniture are required for my office.
22. I have an urgent piece of work to do.
23. Many items of information were supplied to me.
24. Physics is an important subject.
25. The wages of sin is death.
26. His wages are Rs. 5000/- a month.
27. The council has chosen its chairman.
28. The army has arrived to control the riot.
29. My family is an ideal one.
30. The audience was full of enthusiasm.
DPP-6
TOPIC : ACTIVE-PASSIVE VOICE
I. (1) are followed (2) can’t be explained

(3) was cancelled (4) has been repaired
(5) is being restored (6) is believed
(7) would be sacked (8) might have been thrown
(9) was taught (10) being arrested
(11) Have you ever been arrested (12) are reported.. have been injured
II. (1) was built (2) had built

(3) have sold (4) has been sold
(5) are made (6) might be stolen
(7) must have been stolen (8) must have taken
(9) can be solved (10) should have left
(11) is delayed (12) is being built...is expected
DPP-3
TOPIC : TENSE
1. (a) Abhishek had left for Chennai before Jaya reached there.
(b) Do you think you have seen him sometimes earlier also.
(c) Karina bought a new book last week.
(d) You won’t succeed until you work hard.
2. (a) comes (b) has finished (c) jogs
3. (a) fell (b) saw (c) has been working (d) had done
(e) hear (f) have known (g) have been studying
4. (a) is going (b) are working (c) are sleeping (d) has cooked
(e) sang (f) slept
DPP-4
TOPIC : INTEGRATED GRAMMAR BASED ON TENSES AND DETERMINERS
1. (a) travelled (b) enjoyed (c) didn’t sleep (d) was (e) listened (f) watched
(g) talked (h) stayed (i) invited (j) stopped (k) didn’t go
2. Error Correction
(a) Wrote Writing
(b) mastered can master
(c) replacing have replaced
(d) will are
(e) is still conducting are still conducted
(f) cultivating cultivate
(g) following follow
(h) was wrote is written
(i) are also calling is also called
(j) writing is written
3. (a) (ii) who (b) (iii) the (c) (i) on (d) (iv) as
(e) (ii) where (f) (iv) the
(a) the a
(b) much many
(c) a the
(d) the a
(e) any some
(f) their his
(g) the a
(h) many some
DPP-5
TOPIC : SUBJECT VERB CONCORD
Fill in the blanks with suitable verbs.
1. The horse and carriage is at the door.
2. The crown and glory of life is character.
3. A black and white cow was grazing.
4. A black and a white cow were grazing.
5. Every teacher in the school was present.
6. Neither party is ready to surrender.
7. Either you or your brother has done it.
8. Neither he nor his brother is responsible for this.
ENGLISH
CLASS IX - CBSE
DPP-1
TOPIC : DETERMINERS
I. 1. (a) - (b) a (c) the
2. (a) - (b) a (c) a
3. (a) - (b) - (c) the
4. (a) - (b) - (c) -
5. (a) an (b) - (c) - (d) - (e) -
6. (a) an (b) the (c) - (d) an (e) the
7. (a) the (b) the (c) the (d) - (e) the (f) the
8. (a) the (b) a (c) - (d) the (e) - (f) - (g) - (h) -
II.
1. D 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. B 6. A 7. D
8. A 9. D 10. B 11. D 12. A 13. B 14. C
15. C 16. A 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. D
DPP-2
TOPIC : READING COMPREHENSION (FACTUAL PASSAGE)
1. a. Sleep disorder has become a common problem in our country.

b. Aviral felt very uneasy at the office next day and had difficulty in concentrating on work.
c. According to Dr Jeffrey Lipsitz, a healthy adult requires just over 8 hours of sleep at night on an
average.
d. ailments
e. It was found that one-third adults have been experiencing sleep disorders. They get less than 7 hours
of sleep every night.
f. die, exercise
g. Indians should understand that the habit of early rising is good only if the principle of ‘early to bed’ is
followed.
h. Dr Kumar Menon and his colleagues stressed on the necessity of detecting sleep disorder problems
at an early stage and doctors should seriously consider it as a disorder.
2. a. Use of bamboo is gaining momentum because it is a reliable source of high quality and durable green
building material.
b. is a renewable source of building material.
c. Deforestation is alarming because it will hunder world economies, business and manufacturing prac-
tices.
d. It means that soil erosion takes place where hardwood lumber trees are harvested.
e. Bamboo
f. Traditional hardwood lumber trees, after harvesting
g. The problems of resource depletion, habitat loss, species extinction and ecosystem pollution are dis-
turbing the Earth.
h. bamboo
ANSWER KEY
DPP-1
TOPIC : INDIA-SIZE AND LOCATION
1. C 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. C 7. A
8. C 9. D 10. B
DPP-2
TOPIC : THE FRENCH REVOLUTION
1. D 2. D 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. C
8. A 9. B 10. A
DPP-3
TOPIC : THE STORY OF VILLAGE PALAMPUR
1. B 2. D 3. D 4. D 5. A 6. C 7. B
8. D 9. B 10. D
DPP-4
TOPIC : PHYSICAL FEATURES OF INDIA
1. A 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. D 6. D 7. D
8. B 9. D 10. D
DPP-5
TOPIC : WHAT IS DEMOCRACY? WHY DEMOCRACY?
1. C 2. D 3. C 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. B
8. B 9. D 10. C
DPP-6
TOPIC : PEOPLE AS RESOURCE
1. B 2. C 3. D 4. D 5. A 6. D 7. A
8. D 9. D 10. C
DPP-7
TOPIC : SOCIALISM IN EUROPE & THE RUSSIAN REVOLUTION
1. C 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. D 6. D 7. C
8. C 9. B 10. A
DPP-8
TOPIC : DRAINAGE
1. A 2. C 3. D 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. D
8. C 9. D 10. B
DPP-9
TOPIC : CONSTITUTIONAL DESIGN
1. A 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. D 6. D 7. A
8. A 9. A 10. C
DPP-10
TOPIC : POVERTY AS A CHALLENGE
1. B 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. D 6. A 7. C
8. A 9. C 10. C
DPP-11
TOPIC : ELECTORAL POLITICS
1. A 2. C 3. C 4. D 5. B 6. A 7. A
8. D 9. A 10. B
DPP-12
TOPIC : NAZISM AND THE RISE OF HITLER
1. B 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. A 6. C 7. A
8. C 9. B 10. B
DPP-13
TOPIC : CLIMATE
1. B 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. C 7. B
8. C 9. A 10. A
DPP-14
TOPIC : FOOD SECURITY IN INDIA
1. A 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. C 6. C 7. B
8. B 9. A 10. A
DPP-15
TOPIC : WORKING OF INSTITUTIONS
1. A 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. B 6. A 7. C
8. C 9. A 10. B
DPP-16
TOPIC : NATURAL VEGETATION AND WILDLIFE
1. C 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. B 7. D
8. A 9. B 10. A
DPP-17
TOPIC : DEMOCRATIC RIGHTS
1. B 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. B 7. A
8. C 9. C 10. B
DPP-18
TOPIC : POPULATION
1. C 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. A
8. D 9. B 10. A
DPP-19
TOPIC : FOREST, SOCIETY AND COLONIALISM
1. A 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. C
8. A 9. C 10. A
DPP-20
TOPIC : PASTORALISTS IN THE MODERN WORLD
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. C 7. A
8. A 9. A 10. D
DPP-21
TOPIC : PEASANT AND FARMERS
1. B 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. A 6. D 7. C
8. A 9. C 10. B
28
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PHYSICS

5. Odometer is a device, which is used to measure :

12. Give two examples each of vector and scalar quantities.

15. Define scalar quantity and give two examples.

1. At a particular instant the speedometer of a vehicle shows 30km/hr. It is the :

4. A car travelling on a busy road is an example of :

Answer the questions from 5 to 7 on the basis of information given below :

5. What is the total displacement ?

6. What is the average speed for the whole path ?

7. What is the average velocity for the whole path ?

9. The unit(s) of speed and velocity is/are :

11. Define uniform velocity. How is it different from uniform speed ?

12. Classify the following in scalar and vector quantities .

v1  v 2 v1t1  v 2 t 2 v1v 2 2v1v 2

7. Deceleration and retardation have units which are :

8. Slope of a displacement - time graph is negative. That means the velocity is :

time time time

3. Which of the acceleration - time graph is not possible ?

4. Which of the following is correct for uniformly accelerated motion ?

(A) (B) (C) (D) All are correct

Distance Distance Distance Distance

(A) (B) (C) (D)

9. If a particle covers unequal distances in equal time intervals. Then motion is :

12. What does this displacement time graph indicate ?

(a) What is the acceleration for the whole motion ?

1. When an object undergoes acceleration

2. Balanced forces may ____________ a body :

3. An unbalanced force acts on a body. The body :

6. If no force acts on a body, it will

7. If a body is not accelerated :

8. For moving a body from rest or stopping a moving body, we need

11. Give any two examples of contact and noncontact forces.

13. Does the force always produce an acceleration ?

15. With which law of motion, the name of Galileo is associated ?

1. Mass measures amount of ________ in a body :

2. Momentum measures amount of _________ in a body :

5. Definition of force can be deduced from :

10. Inertia depends upon :

11. Name two quantities on which the momentum of a body depends.

13. What is the SI unit of momentum ?

14. Is momentum a vector or scalar quantity ?

15. What is the acceleration produced by a force of 12 N exerted on an object of mass 3 kg ?

1. The momentum of a body of given mass is proportional to its :

2. If the momentum of a body is halved then the velocity will be :

3. If the momentum of a body is doubled, then the kinetic energy will be :

4. When a bullet is fired from a gun. The gun recoils to :

6. Kg m/s is the unit of :

12. How is impulse related to momentum?

3. A cannon after firing recoils due to :

4. Spring in vehicles are introduced to :

5. A man could swin in river because of :

7. The vector sum of action and reaction :

(A) Not an action-reaction pair (B) Is an action-reaction pair

4. Law of gravitation is applicable for :

14. Give five important characteristics of gravitational force.

15. Differentiate mass and weight.

1. When a body is thrown vertically upwards then :

3. Force of gravitation between two bodies of mass 1 kg each kept at a distance of 1m is :

4. The value of acceleration due to gravity g is :