Your Answer: Correct Answer:: Employee

1 Imposing discipline in the form of rules and regulations is an inalienable right of the
.
employee
Your Answer:
Correct management
Answer:
2 Which of the following is an objective of employee discipline?

.
All of the above
Your
Answer:
3 Getting the willing cooperation of the employees in voluntarily observing the discipline code
of an organization is the essence of
.
positive discipline
Your
Answer:
4 The threat of punishment as a key to imposing discipline is the basis of

.
negative discipline
Your
Answer:
5 Adopting a step-by-step approach in dealing with indiscipline problems is the fundamental

principle of
.
progressive discipline
Your
Answer:
6 Which of the following is not a disciplinary action against employees?

.
dismissal
Your Answer:
Correct increments
Answer:
7 Which of the following statements indicates a good disciplinary system?
.
An employee must be reprimanded in private.
Your
Answer:
8 Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Hot Stove Rule of Discipline?
.
secrecy
Your
Answer:
MGT501 solved mcqs

1. HRM is associated with the management of:
 General people
 Financial resources
 Organizational people
 Community members
2. Which of the following management function includes setting standards for everyone in the organization?
 Planning
 Organizing
 Leading
 Controlling
3. Motivating the employees is classified as:

 Informational role
 Interpersonal role
 Decisional role
 Conceptual role
4. Which of the following is the main responsibility of an HR department?

 Attracting candidates for job
 Ensure staff development
 Keep employees motivated
 All of the given options
5. HR managers are generally the _______________ managers:

 Line
 Middle
 Staff
 Top
6. Manufacturing was the main concern of personnel department during:

 Mechanistic period
 Catalytic period
 Organistic period
 Strategic period
7. Running the organizational activities is called:

 Management process
 Executive position
 Quality management
 D. Performance measurement
8. Jobs are identified & grouped while:

 Planning
 Organizing
 Leading
 Controlling
9. Effective HRM leads to:

 Organizational success
 Organizational failure
 Organizational complexity
 Organizational inefficiency
10. Organizational goals should be:

 Achievable
 Ambiguous
 Random
 Vague
11. Customers of an organization fall under which of the following category?

 Shareholders
 Staff
 Partners
 Stakeholders
12. What could be the best approach for an organization to sustain in a dynamic environment?
 Be stagnant
 Responsive to change
 Reluctant to change
 Merge with others
13. The thorough & detailed study regarding jobs within an organization is represented by:
 Job analysis
 Job description
 Job specification
 Job evaluation
14. A practice used by companies to assign their costly activities to outside providers is known as:
 Planning
 Decentralization
 Restructuring
 Outsourcing
15. Organizational behavior depicts the:

 Jargons used within the organization
 Collective behavior of employees
 Effect of society’s behavior on an organization
16. Leaders perform:

 Decisional roles
 Informal roles
 Informational roles
 Interpersonal roles
17. Organizations take inputs from:

 Rules & policies
 Internal environment
 External environment
 Legislations & litigations
18. Which of the following system represents interrelated activities?

 A closed system
 An isolated system
 An open system
 A clogged system
19. Brain drain is one of the:

 Organizational threat
 Organizational opportunity
 Organizational strength
 Organizational weakness
20. Shifting from manual to computerized system is resulted due to:

 Workforce diversity
 Technological advancement
 Stake holders involvement
 D. Globalization
21. Which of the following statement reflects the 'Age Discrimination Act' for workers?
 At the age of 40 to 70, workers can not be retired by force
 At the age below 18, workers can never be hired
 Having 10 years of experience, workers should be promoted
 Workers can never be rehired if retired once
22. Reactive approach to overcome the influence of discriminatory practices occurred

in the past is referred as:
 Equal employment opportunity
 Affirmative action
 HR planning
 Litigation process
23. Organizations put maximum effort in measuring performance of organizational

people because:
 It makes procedures cost effective
 It helps in detecting the problems
 It leads to product innovation
 D. It assists in implementing new technology
24. In order to promote unbiased management, organizations should develop:

 Powerful union
 Strategic alliance
 Legal compliance
 Stakeholder influence
25. Following are all included in 'Statistical Approach' of forecasting, EXCEPT:

 Trend analysis
 Sensitivity analysis
 Ratio analysis
 Regression analysis
26. Alternative work arrangements include all of the following, EXCEPT:

 Part-time work
 Flexible hours
 On-site child care
 Job sharing
27. How often HR planning process is implemented within an organization?

 Continuously
 Annually
 Bi-annually
 Quarterly
28. Which of the following reflects the relationship between MIS & HRIS?
 Both are same
 MIS is one aspect of HRIS
 HRIS is one aspect of MIS
 No relationship exists
29. ‘Strengths’ & ‘Weaknesses’ are ____________________ to an organization.

 Important
 Internal
 External
 D. Central
30. Which of the following statement best reflects the Job analysis?
 Conceptual process
 Written statement
 Recruitment method
 Legal clause
31. Standards are established to:

 Achieve desired outcomes
 Meet legal compliance
 Achieve competitive advantage
 Promote goodwill in market
32. Which of the following constraint does NOT affect the recruiting efforts?

 Compensation of the job
 Image of the organization
 Internal organizational policies
 D. None of the given options
33. Job evaluation is based on the:

 Physical skills required by the job
 Relative job worth for an organization
 Complexity of the job to perform
 Conceptual skill required by the job
34. Who is in the best position to observe and evaluate an employee’s performance for the purposes of a
performance appraisal?
 Peers
 Customers
 Top management
 Immediate supervisor
35. Which of the following is a stated outcome of 'Job Analysis'?

 Job description
 Job evaluation
36. Which of the following term is used as an indicator of missing information by the applicant while making selection
decision?
 Red flag
 Red alert
 High alert
 Alarming situation
37. Which of the following best defines recruitment in an organization?

 Forecast the supply of outside candidates
 Develop an appropriate applicant pool
 Determine the importance of job applicants
 D. All of the given options
38. Which of the following term is used for choosing the individual who is best suited to a particular position and to the
organization from a group of potential applicants?
 Recruitment
 Staffing
 Enrollment
 Selection
39. Followings are included in contingent workers, EXCEPT:

 Part-timers
 Contractors
 Directors
 Temporaries
40. Which of the following term contains information regarding machines & equipments used at workplace?
 Job analysis
 Job description
 Job evaluation
41. HRM is associated with the management of;

 General people
 Financial resources
 Organizational people
 Community members
42. Cost of human resources refers to;

 Company profits
 Employee shares
 Salary packages
 Earned revenues
43. Top level managers require __________________ skills the most;

 Technical
 Interpersonal
 Conceptual
 Mechanical
44. Matching the job description with the individuals’ qualification is an important aspect of;
 IS
 MIS
 HRIS
 DBMS
45. HR managers are generally the _______________ managers;

 Line
 Middle
 Staff
 Top
46. Manufacturing was the main concern of personnel department during;

 Mechanistic period
 Catalytic period
 Organistic period
 Strategic period
47. SWOT Analysis is a tool for;

 Determining organization’s mission
 Developing organizational goals
 Formulating strategies
 Environmental scanning
48. Jobs are identified & grouped while;
 Planning
 Organizing
 Leading
 Controlling
49. According to the Hawthorne studies, the productivity of employees;

 Increased by increasing light
 Decreased by decreasing light
 Increased by observing them
 No change in their productivity
50. Organizational goals should be;

 Achievable
 Ambiguous
 Random
 Vague
51. Which one of the following is NOT the source of workforce diversity?

 Age
 Gender
 Education
 Resentment
52. To anticipate the human resource needs of the organization based on some previous data or managerial
judgment is known as;
 Demand forecasting
 Supplies forecasting
 Financial forecasting
 Sales forecasting
53. The thorough & detailed study regarding jobs within an organization is represented by;
 Job analysis
 Job description
 Job evaluation
54. A practice used by companies to assign their costly activities to outside providers, (for the purpose of cost
saving), rather than completing it internally is called;
 Planning
 Restructuring
 Outsourcing
55. Organizational behavior depicts the;

 Jargons used within the organization
 Collective behavior of an organization
 Effect of society’s common behavior on an organization
 Culture prevails in an organization
56. Leaders perform;

 Decisional roles
 Informal roles
 Informational roles
 Interpersonal roles
57. Organizations take inputs from its;

 Rules & Policies
 Internal Environment
 External Environment
 Legislations
58. As organizational activities are interrelated, it is said to be;
 A closed system
 An isolated system
 An open system
 A clogged system
59. Management sciences department is one of the _______________ of the VU;

 System
 Subsystem
 Board
 Structure
60. Shifting from manual to computerized system is resulted due to;

 Workforce diversity
 Technological advancement
 Stake holders involvement
 Globalization
61. Rewards offered to labors involved in production, are categorized as;

 Salary
 Fringe benefits
 Wage
 D. Commission
62. The goal of pre-retirement educational programs is to;

 Improve job satisfaction
 Increase employee commitment
 Minimize medical claims from retirees
 D. Ease the transition from working life to retirement
63. Organizations put maximum effort in measuring performance of organizational people because;
 It makes procedures cost effective
 It helps in detecting the problems
 It leads to product innovation
 It assists in implementing new technology
64. Willingness, capacity & opportunity to perform are said to be;

 Performance outcomes
 Determinants of performance
 Performance appraisals
 Types of performance standards
65. One of the major barriers to career advancement experiencing by working ladies is;
 Difficulty in balancing work and family life
 Top management is usually male oriented
 Lack of educational opportunities
 Common perception that woman can not be better boss
66. Alternative work arrangements include all of the following EXCEPT;

 Part-time work
 Flexible hours
 On-site child care
 Job sharing
67. Mr. Ahmed is a cashier and he feels dissatisfied at work. What best justifies this situation?
 His job may not be structured to suit his preferences
 It involves physical toughness
 It requires mental toughness
 It involves too much customer interaction
68. The _____ problem occurs when supervisors tend to rate all their subordinates consistently high.
 Central tendency
 Leniency
 Strictness
 Halo effect
69. The relationship between critical incident method & BARS (behaviorally anchored rating scale) is;
 No relationship exists
 Different methods to evaluate performance
 Both are similar PA methods
 Comparison method is used for PA, while BARS is related to training evaluation
70. What is another term for 360-degree feedback?

 Feedback loop
 Multi-source assessment
 Upward feedback
 Circle feedback
71. Standards are established to;

 Achieve desired outcomes
 Meet legal compliance
 Achieve competitive advantage
 Promote goodwill in market
72. The point method to evaluate job is an extension of;

 Ranking method
 Factor comparison method
 Classification method
 Point factor method
73. Job evaluation is based on the;

 Physical skills required by the job
 Relative job worth for an organization
 Complexity of the job to perform
 Conceptual skill required by the job
74. Who is in the best position to observe and evaluate an employee’s performance
for the purposes of a performance appraisal?
 Peers
 Customers
 Top management
 Immediate supervisor
75. Groups are called ______________ if jobs are similar.

 Classes
 Grades
 Scales
 Roles
76. Train the raters prior to conduct the performance appraisal is an important
responsibility of;
 Top management
 HR department
 Line managers
 Production department
77. Currently Organizations are providing benefits to their employees;

 To attract new blood in the organization
 To create stronger customer relationship
 To enhance the market share
 All of the above
78. Following are all examples of direct compensation EXCEPT;

 Pension
 Salary
 Bonus
 Income
79. One of the main flaws of Classification method to evaluate the jobs is;
 It is an expensive method
 Only beneficial for small organizations
 Maximum probability of biasness
 Not useful when jobs are different
80. Which of the following measurement methods rates employee performance relative to other employees?
 Graphic rating scale
 Comparative method
 Essay method
 Critical incident method
81. A system used to acquire, store, manipulate, analyze, retrieve, and distributed information related to the
company's human resources is called a(n) _______________
 HRIS
 Progressive discipline system
 IRS
 Contingent workforce system
82.Which of these is a major dimension of HRM practices contributing to company competitiveness?

 Compensating human resources
 Acquiring and preparing human resources
 Managing the human resource environment
83.HRM has primary responsibility for all of these implementation variables except:
 Task design
 People
 Reward systems
 Organization structure
84.Which of these is the process of getting detailed information about jobs?

 Job design
 Job description
 Job analysis
 Job skills
85.In which of these steps, the HR manager attempts to ascertain the supply of and demand for various types
of human resources?
 Forecasting
 Program implementation
 Evaluation
 Goal setting
86.Which of these is defined as any practice or activity carried on by the organization with the primary
purpose of identifying and attracting potential employees?
 A leading indicator analysis
 Recruitment
 Personnel policies
 Selection
87.Scientific management was one of the earliest and best-known statements of the _____________
approach.
 Biological
 Motivational
 Perceptual-Motor
 Mechanistic
88.Most HR functions spend very little time on:
 Traditional activities
 Transactional activities
 Transformational activities
 Day-to-day operational activities
89.Playing the role of ____________ requires designing and delivering efficient and effective HR systems,
processes, and practices.
 Administrative Agent
 Change Agent
 Strategic Partner
 Employee Advocate
90.Which of these refers to the degree to which decision-making authority resides at the top of the
organizational chart?
 Job design
 Unity of command
 Centralization
91.Career development consists of skills, education and experiences as well as behavioral modification and
refinement techniques that allow individuals to work better and add value.
92.Mentoring & Coaching has become increasingly important over the years because the employees who
aspire to higher management levels in the organization often need the assistance and advocacy of someone
higher up in the organization.
93.The goal of measuring performance is to improve the effectiveness & efficiency of the organization by
aligning the employee’s work behaviors & results with the organization’s goals, improving the employee’s
work behaviors & results.
94.Innovation entails developing skills to discover new products and processes and designing adaptable
structures and cultures.
95.Labor union might affect the appraisal process by stressing seniority as the basis for promotions and pay
increases.
96.MBO requires that supervisors and employees determine objectives for employees to meet during the
rating period and the employees appraise how well they have achieved their objectives.
97.Organizational approaches that are becoming increasingly popular in dealing with the needs
of dual career couples are flexible work schedules, telecommuting, and the offering of child-care services.
98.The workers must look across company lines to other organizations to determine what skills are
transferable, and then go and get them
99.Performance feedback should do more than informing learners whether they were right or wrong. Just
notifying the trainees that they were wrong is not as effective as telling them why they were wrong and how
they can avoid making those mistakes in future.
100.Assistant to Position employees are given the opportunity to work under a successful manger, often in
different areas of organization. In doing so, these employees get exposure to wide variety of management
activities and are groomed for assuming the duties of next higher level.
101.One reason for falling union membership in recent years is that __________
Legislation protects workers in a way that was once only offered by the unions
 Unions have been seen as largely ineffectual
 Union membership is too expensive
 Manufacturers will not hire union members
 Union members earn less on average compared to non-union members
102.All of the following types of organizations are covered by the Occupational Safety and Health Act except
__________
 Federal agencies
 Hospitals
 Schools
 Self-employed persons
 Manufacturing facilities
103.There is fairly strong evidence that traits can predict _________ more accurately than leadership
effectiveness
 Leadership emergence
 Extraversion in leaders
 Leadership awareness
 Leadership competence
 The conscientiousness of leaders
104.Which one of the following is not implied in the definition of power?

 Influence
 Potential
 Dependency
 Actualization
 Capacity
105.The conflict-handling intention of accommodating is ________

 assertive and uncooperative
 assertive and cooperative
 unassertive and uncooperative
 unassertive and cooperative
 reflective and emotional
106.Which department enforces the standards set out in the Occupational Safety and Health Act?
 Department of Health Services
 Department of Labor
 Department of Defense
 Department of Financial Services
 Economic Development Department
107.Family issues, economic problems, and personality characteristics are examples of the __________
factor of potential stress
 Social
 Environmental
 Personnel
 Psychological
 Personal
108.The ___________ form of union security means that it is up to the workers whether or not they join the
union and only those who join must pay dues.
 Closed shop
 Union shop
 Agency shop
 Open shop
 Maintenance of agreement
109.The dimension of assertiveness refers to situations ________

 in which one party attempts to satisfy his/her own concerns
 in which there is an expression of competition
 involving a major behavior change that lead to conflict
 in which one party behaves generously
110.Which of the following benefits could be awarded as workers’ compensation?

 Cash benefit
 Medical services
 Time off with pay
 Time off without pay
 a and b
111. Appraisal of a worker’s performance can be described as:
 Planning Activity
 Organizing Activity
 Controlling Activity
 Leading Activity
112. Hawthorne studies depict the effects of work environment on:
 Human Behavior
 Human Performance
 Human Satisfaction
 All the given options
113. Process of working with different resources to accomplish organizational goals is known as:
 Strategic management
 Human Resource management
 Management
 Team work
114. The concept of how a person behaves in a group can be attributed to:
 Thermodynamics
 Group Dynamics
 MBO (Management by objectives)
 Group Behavior
115. The study of Organizational Behavior is closely related to:
 Human Psychology
 Human Behavior in general
 Human Behavior at work
 Human-Machine Interaction
116. Essential component of an organization is:
 Team
 Structure
 Individual
 None of the given options
117. The whole is greater than the sum of its parts is known as:
 Efficiency
 Effectiveness
 Productivity
 Synergy
118. Virtual teams can contribute to better coordination among the team members because:
 Technology brings them together on a forum.

 Team members meet physically with each other
 Team members share views among themselves via communication links.
 Team members have the real time environment for interaction.
119. Setting standards should be left to the employee rather than organization leads to self controlling because:
 It follows the management by objective approach.
 It increases the productivity of the worker
 It increases the confidence of workers
 Workers come up to the high standard since they have no pressure from his superiors.
120. Which one is not basic component of OB (Organizational Behavior) Model?
 Organization
 Group
 Team
 Individual
121. Job posting is:

 Internal advertisement by an organization to attract candidates from the existing employees, against a
vacancy.
 The system of transferring existing employees to comparable new jobs available in the organization.
 An arrangement of in house training of employees for career advancement.
 Grouping together of a family of similar jobs, under a single title to establish uniformity of standards in controls and
compensations.
122. Realistic job preview is a:
 Technique for listing elements of job before selecting someone to perform it.
 Performance appraisal technique.
 A selection device that enables the candidates to learn both the negative and positive information about the
job and organization.
123. Job analysis can be performed in all of the following ways except:
 Observing hourly work

 Reviewing interviews conducted with departing employees
 Studying diaries or daily journals that manager kept over a three-month period
 Giving workers checklists to indicate which tasks on the list are performed during job execution
124. Considering continuous process improvement activities in organizations,

Should “Zero defects” really be a goal?
 Yes perfection is reasonable goal.

 No, 0.1 percent errors can be corrected much more efficiently than they can be prevented
 Yes most industries find this an attainable goal.
 Sometimes, for some mistakes, cost benefits can not be calculated
125. Organizational efficiency is expressed as:

 Planning for long-run goals
 Making the best use of scarce resources
 Goal attainment
 Meeting deadlines
126. Goal setting is:

 Top down process
 Bottom up process
 A process of top down support and bottom up development
 A function of senior management
127. When the firm changes the way it operates, the process is known as:
 Downsizing
 Brain drain
 Restructuring
 Outsourcing
128. Which one is not included in the hiring process?

 Recruitment
 Socialization
 Selection
129. Effectiveness is -----------
 Do right things

 Do things right
 Productivity
130. Extents of individual freedom and discretion employees have in performing

their jobs is Known as
 Capitation
 Flextime
 Empowerment
 Autonomy
131.Based on the concept of qualified privilege, some courts have ruled that employers must be able to talk to one
another about employees.
132.Control and Coordination of headquarters may be impeded in selecting Host-Country Nationals
133.Pre-arrival stage explicitly recognizes that each individual arrives in organization with a set of organizational
values, attitudes, and expectations.
134.Training involves planned learning activities designed to improve an employee’s performance at her/his current
job.
135.The analysis that identifies the kinds of the skills and behaviors required for the incumbents of a given job and
the standards of performance that must be met is called Task/Operational Analysis.
136.Clear task instructions and model appropriate behavior are required for Effective learning.
137.Training to be more effective, is supposed to be followed with careful evaluation.
138.The benefits gained by a T & D program must outweigh the cost associated with providing the learning
experience.
139.Succession planning programs are considerations of the job openings that presently exist in an organization,
the openings that are likely to occur in the future, and how these positions might be filled.
140.In Assistant to Position method, employees with demonstrated potential are given the opportunity to work
under a successful manger, often in different areas of organization.
141.A process that significantly affects organizational success by having managers and employees work together to
set expectations, review results, and reward performance.
 Management by Objectives
 Performance Appraisal
 Performance Management
 Organizational Planning
142.________________ is solely responsible for managing individual’s career.

 Individual
 Team
 Organization
 HR Manager
143.The evaluator uses a list of behavioral descriptions and checks off those behaviors that apply to the employee.
This method of appraisal is called
 Forced-Choice Appraisal
 Forced Distribution Appraisal
 Checklist Appraisal
 Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales
144.Any compensation method that ties pay to the quantity or quality of work the person produces is called
 Gain-sharing Plan
 Incentive Plan
 Compensation Plan
 Pay for performance Plan
145.Employee evaluations are directly affected by a “supervisor’s perceptions of who is believed to be in control of
the employee’s performance – the employer or the manager.” This theory is known as
 Attribution Theory
 Stereotype
 Halo Effect
 None of above options
146.Which has an impact on job pricing and the ultimate determination of an individual’s financial compensation?
 The Organization
 The Job
 The Employee
 All of the above options
147.Office environment that contain harmful airborne chemicals, asbestos, or indoor pollution is referred to
 Homicide
 Sick Building
 Green Environment
 Environment pollution
148.Benefits offered to employees reflect many of the trends existing in our

 Country
 Environment
 Organization
 Labor Force
149.Recognition, positive reinforcement and employees’ empowerment can be used to avoid the
 Turnover
 Conflict
 Accident
 Frustration
150.Not giving a compliment for a job done very well can cause
 Punishment
 Extinction
 Negative Reinforcement
 De-motivation
151.Feed back is information about some behavior and its effects.
152.Supportive communication is honest, accurate interpersonal communication that focuses on building and

enhancing relationships.
153.The extent to which members of a culture give preference to an in-group over individual goals is collectivism.
154.Contributory Plans are group health-care plans in which employees share in the cost of the premiums.
155.Stress is complex issue; it can affect the performance in positive as well as negative ways.
156.A Developing trend toward integrating disability coverage with workers, compensation and, eventually, with group
health care is known as managed health.
157.Union shop, a union security provision stipulating that, as a condition of continued employment, an individual
must join the union that represents employees after a probationary period.
158.In negotiations, the bargaining posture that assumes that the goals of the parties are irreconcilable is win lose
bargaining/distributive bargaining.
159.All the practices that implement the philosophy and policy of an organization with respect to employment are
called employee relations.
160.Whistle –blowing, Disclosure by former or current organization members of illegal, immoral, or illegitimate

practices under the control of their employers.
161.Which is a common law doctrine stating that employers have the right to hire, fire, demote, or promote whomever
they choose, unless there is a law or contract to the contrary .
 Management Rights
 Employment at Will
 Statutory Rights
 Contractual Rights
162.The ability of one person to influence another is

 Power
 Responsibility
 Authority
 All given options
163.The first formal stage of the disciplinary procedure is

 Written Verbal Warning
 Written Warning
 Employee Separation
 Show-Cause Notice
164.A worker surplus forecasted results in

 Creative Recruiting
 Special Training Programs
 Reduced Hours
 Succession Planning
165.Which theory suggests that a leader should adapt his/her leadership style to the task?
 Path-Goal Leadership Theory
 Vroom-Jago-Yetton Model
 LMX Theory
 The Situational Leadership Model
166.To be effective, leaders must provide a _________________that is a general statement of the organization’s
intended direction that evokes positive emotional feelings in organization members.
 Vision
 Mission
 Goal
 Declaration
167.These rights Protect employees from discrimination, Safe working conditions, Right to form unions
 Statutory Rights
 Contractual Rights
 Employment policies
 Civil Rights
168.For simplicity’s sake, we can classify the most frequent violations of discipline into _____________ categories.
 Two
 Three
 Four
 Six
169.To Becoming a Leader do all except

 Build Your Power Base
 Develop Your Judgment
 Use Your Management Skills
 Do Not Trust Anyone
170.A forecasting tool that uses mathematical equations to predict the behavior of one variable on the basis of other
known variable/s is known as
 Managerial judgment
 Regression analysis
 Trend analysis
 Ratio analysis
171.Reduced hours technique is used to

 increase layoffs
 cope with surplus
 initiate creative recruiting
 provide training
172.The actual hiring decision is done after

 physical exam
 interview
 background investigation
 conditional job offer
173.The jobs having challenging assignments, career oriented and having good remuneration increase
 government influence
 recruiting cost
 image of organization
 attractiveness of job
174.Organizations assess the training needs through

 company record
 customer complaints
 both of the given options
 none of the given options
175.The purpose of overtime is to

 restrict recruiting
 increase working hours
 reduce variable cost
 provide contingent workers
176.The process in which organization notifies its employees about job openings through notice boards, company
publications or letters is called
 internal recruitment
 job posting
 job advertisement
 open house
177.election criteria may includes all except

 education
 competencies
 applicant pool
 integrity
178.To conduct job analysis, HR manager work together with all except
 worker
 recruit
 supervisor
 consultant
179.The test that measures ability to learn and to perform the job is called
 aptitude test
 work sample test
 vocational interest test
 job knowledge test
180. Hiring process completes by

 selection
 recruitment
 training
 orientation
181.McClelland believes the needs for _____________________ are most important.

 expectancy, instrumentality, and valance
 existence, relatedness, and growth
 positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement, and punishment
 affiliation, power, and achievement
182.___________are programs designed to help employees whose job performance is suffering because of physical,
mental, or emotional problems.
 Employee Assistance Programs
 Wellness Programs
 Safety Programs
 Managed health
183.The 360 degree appraisal

 works best in large organizations.
 provides feedback from a verity of individuals.
 aids in developing competitive intelligence.
 diminishes the effect of development in the appraisal process.
184.Following are the phases of the Motivational Process except

 Need Identification
 Selecting Goals
 Extinction
 Consequences of performance Reward/punishments
185.Placing a dollar value on the worth of a job is known as

 Job Pricing
 Pay Grades
 Pay Ranges
 Single-Rate System
186.Total compensation constitutes of

 direct rewards
 indirect rewards
 both of the given options
 none of the given options
187.Following ways can be used to avoid the high turnover of employees except
 Use Recognition
 Use money
 Use Positive Reinforcement
 Empower Employees
188.A system of retirement benefits that provides benefits like disability insurance, survivor’s benefits, and Medicare
is called _________.
 Social Security
 Unemployment Compensation
 Workers’ Compensation
 Security benefit
189.Upward appraisal is done by

 Immediate Supervisor
 Peers
 Subordinates
190.____________ exists when individuals performing similar jobs for the same firm are paid according to factors
unique to the employee
 Employee Equity
 Team Equity
 Internal Equity
191._________ is the process of acquiring, training, appraising and compensating employees, attending to
their labor relations, health and safety and fairness concerns.
 Labor Relations
 Organizational Behavior
 Human Resource Management
 Organizational Health and Safety Management
192.Which of these refers to the temporary, part-time and self-employed workers?

 Internal labor force
 Contingent work force
 High-performance work systems
 Downsized employees
193.Which basic function of management includes delegating authority to subordinates and establishing
channels of communication?
 Planning
 Organizing
 Leading
 Staffing
194.Over the past 25 years, all of these areas of legal environment have influenced HRM except:
 Equal employment opportunity legislation
 Employees pay and benefits
 Employee competition legislation
 Job security
195.One of the most popular methods of increasing employee responsibility and control is _______.
 Outsourcing
 "Military model" of management
 HRIS
 Work teams
196.Which of these is a major dimension of HRM practices contributing to company competitiveness?

 Compensating human resources
 Acquiring and preparing human resources
 Managing the human resource environment
197.How has technology changed HRM practices?

 Recruiting using the web generates smaller, more focused applicant pools.
 Employee training is offered through scheduled classes rather than on demand.
 Electronic resumes take less time to evaluate than paper resumes.
 None of the given options.
198.How do companies facilitate workforce diversity?

 Rely on external support systems for minority workers.
 Encourage employees to challenge the beliefs and values of other employees.
 Build in accountability through surveys and audits.
 Reinforce traditional values.
199.Employee involvement requires extensive additional HRM activity in which of these areas?
 Training
 Benefits
 Labor negotiation
 Marketing
200.Managers who meet designated goals are _______.

 Assertive
 Efficient
 Effective
 Entitled
201.David conducts new employee orientation for a large organization. His work is within which basic HRM
function?
 Management
 Motivation
 Career planning
 Training and development
202.Employee relations specialists are involved in which of these activities?

 Handling employee complaints
 Working with position control specialists in compensation
 Negotiating benefits packages
 Coordinating interview schedules
203.The father of scientific management is ________.

 Deming
 Burns
 Taylor
 Hawthorne
204.A large organization is an EEO employer with an affirmative action plan. Which of these activities is
performed as part of the plan?
 All job applicants must have a recommendation from current or past employee
 Insurance premiums from former employers of all applicants are analyzed
 Job requirements are determined based on skills, knowledge and abilities
 Job announcements are posted on the company bulletin board
205.Which of these items would be in the highest security category of a typical HRIS?
 Employee name
 Former employers
 Salary
 Work location
206.Which of these decreases in the labor supply is the easiest to predict?

 Transfers-in
 Retirements
 Voluntary quits
 Prolonged illnesses
207.Wal-Mart differentiates its business by offering the lowest prices. Offering the lowest prices is Wal-Mart’s
_________.
 Functional strategy
 Competitive advantage
 Distinctive competence
 Corporate strategy
208.__________ is the process of assessing progress toward strategic goals and taking corrective action as
needed.
 Strategic management
 Strategic planning
 Strategic control
 Diversification
209._________ is the right to make decisions, to direct the work of others and to give orders.
 Leadership
 Authority
 Delegation
 Management
210.Which of the following is considered a qualitative approach to job analysis?

 Position analysis questionnaire
 Interviews
 Department of Labor approach
 Functional job analysis
211.Which of the following personality characteristics are associated with people who are likely to exhibit
violent behavior on the job?
 Neurotic
 Optimistic
 Extraverted
 Type A
212.Which of these suggestions is an effective way to deal with stress?

 Meditation
 Exercise
 Talking with others
213.In most large facilities, who is responsible for reducing unsafe working conditions and reducing unsafe
acts by employees?
 Chief executive officer
 Chief safety officer
 Occupational safety and health officer
 Chief operations officer
214.Who distinguished between intrinsic motivation and extrinsic motivation?

 Frederick Taylor
 Frederick Herzberg
 David McClelland
 Edward Deci
215.Which of the following is categorized as an indirect payment portion of employee compensation?

 Wages
 Salaries
 Employer-paid insurance
 Commissions
216.Stress can affect not only your health, but also other aspects of your life. What else can be affected by
stress?
 Family relationships
 Work performance
 Your attention to safety
217.Unemployment benefits are typically about __________ percent of a person's earnings and last
for__________.
 50; 26 weeks
 75; 1 year
 100; 2 years
 25; 4 weeks
218.Unsafe acts can be reduced through all of the following methods except:

 Job rotation
 Screening
 Training
 Incentive programs
219.Which of these is the most common type of retirement plan?

 Defined benefit
 ERISA
 Defined contribution
 Money purchase plan
220.Which one of the following statements is correct in relation to monetary rewards in accordance with
Herzberg’s Two-Factor theory?
 Pay increases are a powerful long-term motivator
 Inadequate monetary rewards are a powerful dissatisfied
 Monetary rewards are more important than non-monetary rewards
 Pay can never be used as a motivator
221.Which pattern of communication is the quickest way to send a message?

 The circle
 The chain
 The Y
 The wheel
222.Chronic stress is the stress that wears at people day after day. Which of these is an example of chronic
stress?
 An unhappy marriage
 Ongoing money problems
 Dissatisfaction with a job
223.The relative position of an organization's pay incentives compared to other companies in the same
industry is known as:
 Pay structure
 Pay appraisal
 Pay level
 Pay feedback
224.Poor quality lateral communication will result in which of the following?

 Lack of direction
 Lack of coordination
 Lack of delegation
 Lack of control
225.Which of the following is a health hazard in the work place?

 Uncollected waste paper
 Heavy object
 Frayed crypt
226.Managers can motivate people to avoid performing dysfunctional behaviors by using:

I. Extinction
II. Punishment
III. Negative reinforcement
 I, II, III
 I and III
 II and III
 I and II
227.Workers' compensation benefits fall into all of these major categories except:

 Medical care
 Retirement benefits
 Disability income
 Death benefits
228.Expectancy theory focuses on the relationships between which three factors?

 Needs, effort and persistence
 Needs, performance and inputs
 Inputs, performance and outcomes
 Needs, performance and outcomes
229.A horizontal extension of the object to increase task variety is called:

 Job evaluation
 Job enrichment
 Job enlargement
 Job rotation
230.Communication between two members of a project team from different function, but the same level of
authority is ________ communication.
 UP ward
 Downward
 Lateral
 Diagonal
231. All of the following are External Environmental Factors except

 Legal Considerations
 The Labor Force
 Customers
 Corporate Culture
232. The people who perform tasks in a wide variety of human resource-related areas are called
 HR Executives
 HR Generalists
 HR Specialist
233. A strategy intended to achieve fair employment by urging employers to hire certain groups of people who were
discriminated against in the past is known as
 Fair employment
 Equal Employment Opportunity (EEO)
 Affirmative action
 Employment discrimination
234. Generally, the goal setting is a

 Top down process
 Bottom up process
 Process of top down support and bottom up development
 Function of senior management
235. Following are the reasons for conducting job analysis except

 Staffing workers
 Observing workers
 Training and Development
 Legal Considerations
236. The method that uses the organization’s current level of employment as the starting point for determining future staffing
needs is
 Zero Based Forecasting
 Bottom-Up Approach
 Forecasting Human Resource Availability
237. job analysis can be performed in all of the following ways except

 Interviews conducted with departing employees
 Analyzing log books
 Observing hourly workers
 Giving workers checklist to indicate which tasks on the list are performed during job.
238. What specific activities listed below are part of the organizing function?
 Giving each subordinate a specific task
 Recruiting prospective employees
 Training and developing employees
 Developing rules and procedures
239. _____ are authorized to direct the work of subordinates.

 Staff managers
 Line managers
 Leaders
 Advisory board members
240. What tactic will employers likely have to take to fill openings left by retiring employees?
 Instituting flexible work hours
 Providing elder care
 Hiring more women
 Rehiring retirees
241.Following are the basic principles or conditions that facilitate learning except
 Participation
 Relevance
 Feedback
 Education
242.Career Development is:

 A formal approach taken by an organization to help its people acquire the skills and experiences needed to
perform current and future jobs.
 An employee’s progresses vertically upward in the organization from one specific job to the next.
 Both a vertical sequence of jobs and a series of horizontal opportunities.
 Self-understanding for future jobs. Then, the person is in a position to establish realistic goals and determine how to
achieve these goals.
243.___________ can provide an opportunity for the employee to share in decision making, to learn by watching
others, and to investigate specific organizational problems.
 Lectures & Seminars
 Assistant to Position
 Committee Assignments
 Simulations:
244.______ is a career-path method recognizing that technical specialists can and should be allowed to continue to
contribute their expertise to a company without having become managers.
 Demotion
 Lateral skill path
 Dual-career path
245.Training instruction for a small group, which employs such techniques as role-playing or simulation etc. and
encounters give and take sessions and problem-solving techniques is called:
 Career counseling
 Workshop
 Development Plan
 On the job training
246.Barriers to career advancement include:

 Lack of time
 Rigid job specifications
 Short-term focus
247.The basic skills possessed by the individual that are required to give certain performance are termed as:
 Ability
 Motivation
 Experience
 Performance
248.Using the __________ approach, managers evaluate organizational effectiveness.

 External resource
 Internal systems
 Technical
 Systems
249.A career stage in which one begins to search for work and finds a first job is:
 Exploration period
 Establishment period
 Middle stage
250.Without proper feedback about an employee’s effort and its effect on performance, we run the risk of decreasing
his/ her _________.
 Salary
 Experience
 Motivation
 Performance appraisal
251. The ____ trust is based on the behavioral predictability that comes from a history of interaction
 Deterrence-based
 Knowledge-based
 Identification-based
252. ______ is the process whereby union members vote out their union as their representative.
 Authorization card
 Representation certification
 Representation decertification
 Trade union election
253. We can define ____ as activities people perform to acquire, enhance, and use power and other resources to
obtain their preferred outcomes in a situation of uncertainty or disagreement.
 Organizational politics
 Executing authority
 Collective bargaining
 Position power
254. Protection from discrimination, safe working conditions and union formulation are _____ rights, provided to
employees.
 Contractual
 Individual
 Statutory
 Organizational
255. A situation in labor – management negotiation whereby management prevents union members from returning to
work is called _____.
 Grievance
 Strike
 Arbitration
 Lockout
256. The ______ leadership is a set of abilities that allows the leader to recognize the need for change, to create a
vision to guide that change, and to execute that change effectively.
 Transformational
 Charismatic
 Autocratic
 Transactional
257. The first formal stage of the disciplinary procedure is

 Written Verbal Warning
 Written Warning
 Suspension
 Dismissal
258. The cost associated with employee separations and turnover includes:
 Recruitment & Selection costs
 Training cost
 Separation costs
259. According to _____, leaders may use different styles with different members of the same work group.
 Path-goal leadership
 Vroom-Jago-Yetton model
 Leader-member exchange theory
 The situational leadership theory
260. Following the ____, discipline should be immediate, provide ample warning, be consistent, and be impersonal.
 Disciplinary rules
 Corrective action
 Punitive action
 Hot-stove rule
UNIT- V JOB EVALUATION AND PERFORMANCE APPRAISAL (MCQ)
Que:1 Relative worth of a job is known by

a. Job design b. Job analysis c. Job evaluation d. Job change Ans: c
Que: 2 Methods of job evaluation are

a. Qualitative method b. Quantitative method c. Both (a) and (b) d. None of these Ans: c
Que: 3 Quantitative job evaluation method are
a. Ranking method b. Point rating method c. Factor comparison method d. Both (b) and (c) Ans: d
Que: 4 Qualitative job evaluation method are

a. Ranking b. Grading c. Point Rating d. Both (a) and (b) Ans: (d)
Que: 5 Process of studying and collecting information about a job is known as

a. HRP b. Job design c. Job analysis d. Job evaluation Ans: (c)
Que: 6 Jobs analysis results in

a. Job description b. Job specification c. Job evaluation d. All of (a), (b) and (c) Ans: (d)
Que: 7 Job description is a statement containing items like

a. Job title, location and duties b. Machines, tools and equipment c. Materials, working conditions and
hazards. d. All of these. Ans: (d)
Que: 8 …………..is a factual statement of tasks & duties involved in a job.

a. Job description b. Job specification c. Job Analysis d. Job evaluation Ans: (a)
Que: 9 Job Specification is a statement of

a. Min qualification required for o job b. Technical job requirement c. Machines to be used d. None of
these Ans. (a)
Que:10 Job analysis is helpful in

a. HRP, recruitment and selection b. Training and development c. Job evaluation and performance
appraisal d. All of these Ans: d
Que: 11 ------ arranges the job in numerical order from highest rank to lowest rank on the basis of duties
and responsibilities.
a. Ranking method b. Grading method c. Point rating method d. Factor comparison method Ans: a
Que: 12 ----- a predetermined groups or classes are established and jobs are assigned to each
classification:
a. Ranking method b. Grading method c. Point rating method d. Factor comparison method Ans: b
Que: 13 ----- the more compensable factor a job possess the more points are assigned to it:
a. Ranking method b. Grading method c. Point rating method d. Factor comparison Ans: c
Que:14 ------ few key jobs are selected and compared in terms of common factors:
a. Factor comparison method b. Ranking method c. Grading method d. Point rating method Ans: a
Que: 15 ------- is the systematic, periodic and impartial rating of an employee excellence in matters
pertaining to his present job and his potential for a better job.
a. Performance appraisal b. Compensation and motivation c. Training and Development d. Performance
indicator Ans: a
Que: 16 Traditional method of performance appraisal includes
a. Confidential reports b. Paired comparison method c. Free form or easy method d. All of these Ans: d
Que: 17 Modern method of performance appraisal are:

a. Assessment centre method b. Management by objectives c. BARS ( Behaviourally anchored rating
scale) d. All of these Ans: d
Que: 18 ------- is a performance appraisal technique in which appraisers rate critical employee
behaviour.
a. MBO b. BARS c. BOS d. BOSS Ans: b
Que: 19 ------ is a performance appraisal technique that involves agreement between employee and
manager on goals to be achieved in a given period.
a. Rating scales b. BARS c. BOS d. MBO Ans: d
Que: 20 The combination of peer, superior, subordinate and self-review appraisal is known asa. 360°
appraisal b. Human resource accounting system c. All round review d. Feed forward Ans: a NOTES:
Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on HRM (Human

Resource Management )
Q.1. The process of locating and encouraging potential applicants to apply for an
existing or an anticipated job openings is called_________.
(a) selection
(b) placement
(c) recruitment
(d) induction
Ans. (c)
ADVERTISEMENTS:
Q.2. Who said “Recruitment is the process of searching for prospective employees and
stimulating them to apply for jobs in organisation”?
(a) Frederick Herzberg
(b) David McClelland
(c) Douglas McGregor
ADVERTISEMENTS:
(d) Edwin B. Flippo

Ans. (d)
Q.3. Employee referral is______________ .
(a) an internal method of recruitment
(b) an indirect method of recruitment
(c) third party method of recruitment
(d) an internet recruiting
Ans. (a)
Q.4. Advertisements, television, radio ad.s, and newspaper ad.s are_______________
method of recruitment
(a) an internal method of recruitment
(b) an indirect method of recruitment
(c) third party method of recruitment
(d) direct recruiting
Ans. (b)
Q.5. _____________ is an extended work sample.
(a) Intelligence test
(b) Assessment Centre
(c) Personality test
(d) Interest test
Ans. (b)
Q.6. Attributing characteristics to individuals based on their inclusion or membership
in a particular group is called____________ .
(a) resort to snap judgment
(b) stereotyping
(c) leniency
(d) halo effect
Ans. (b) stereotyping
Q.7. Assigning a specific rank and responsibility to an employee is known
as__________.
(a) job
(b) task
(c) placement
(d) selection
Ans. (c)
Q.8. Inputs to the selection process include all but_____________.
(a) job analysis
(b) supervision
(c) HR planning
(d) job applicants
Ans. (b)
Q.9. Which among the following tests measure self-confidence, motivation, emotional
balance etc.?
(a) Intelligence test
(b) Preference test
(c) Personality test
(d) Interest test
Ans. (c)
Q.10. Positive features and benefits offered by an organisation to attract job applicants
is known as ___________.
(a) inducement
(b) increment
(c) package
(d) compensation
Ans. (a)
Q.11. In which of the following method of recruitment, employees are encouraged to
recommend the names of their friends working in other organisations for possible
vacancy in the near future.
(a) job posting
(b) gate hiring
(c) campus recruitment
(d) employee referrals
Ans. (d)
Q.12. Job posting is______________ .
(a) posting of an employee
(b) a method of Recruitment
(c) is an appraisal technique
(d) an internet recruitment
Ans. (b)
Q.13. In which method of recruitment, the organisation publicises job openings on
bulletin boards, electronic media and similar outlets?
(a) Employee referrals
(b) Job Posting
(c) Employment detail
(d) Job Opening
Ans. (b)
Q.14. Compensation will be perceived as fair if it is comprised of a system of
components developed to maintain ______________.
(a) internal equity
(b) external equity
(c) both internal and external equity
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
Q.15. Health insurance, retirement pension, payment for overtime, etc., are
__________.
(a) base pay
(b) variable pay
(c) benefits
(d) all of these
Ans. (c)
Q.16. Wage and salary survey ensures about_______________ .
(a) Internal equity
(b) External equity
(c) INDIVIDUAL equity
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (b)
Q17. Which among the following allowances is paid to employees in order to enable
them to face the increasing price of essential commodities?
(a) Bonus
(b) Rent allowance
(c) Increment in salary
(d) Dearness allowance
Ans. (d)
Q.18. Which among all the three wages, minimum wage, fair wage and living wage is
the highest kind of wage?
(a). Fair wage
(b) Minimum wage
(c) Living wage
(d) All of these
Ans. (c)
Q.19. The minimum wage can be fixed by______________ .
(a) hour
(b) day
(c) month
(d) all of these
Ans. (d)
Q.20. Under which plan if a worker reaches the standards, he will be paid time wage
plus a bonus at fixed percentage (20%) of normal time wage?
(a) Gantt Task and Bonus Plan
(b) Merrick plan
(c) Halsey Plan
(d) Rowan plan
Ans. (a)
Q.21. Deciding how much an employee should be paid observing internal as well as
external equity is called _________.
(a) comparable worth
(b) wage curve
(c) salary survey
(d) compensation administration
Ans. (d)
Q.22. Rewards that one gets from the employer, usually money, a promotion or benefits
is called _____________________.
(a) intrinsic rewards
(b) extrinsic rewards
(c) self-motivated reward
(d) organisation reward
Ans. (b)
Q.23. Fringe Benefits are______________ .
(a) supplementary compensation
(b) base compensation
(c) merit Plan
(d) bonus
Ans. (a)
Q.24. Remuneration to blue collar workers is called______________ .
(a) wage
(b) salary
(c) compensation
(d) payment
Ans. (a)
Q.25. When efficiency of a worker reaches____________ he gets bonus under
Emerson’s Efficiency Plan?
(a) Efficiency reaches 67%
(b) efficiency reaches 50%
(c) efficiency reaches 76%
(d) efficiency reaches 20%
Ans. (a)
Q.26. A dyadic relationship between a manager who is offering help and an employee to
whom such help is given. This is known as____________.
(a) Mentoring
(b) Counselling
(c) Coaching
(d) Helping
Ans. (b)
Q.27. The range of destructive stress or Distress is from______________ .
(a) low to moderate
(b) moderate to high
(c) high to low
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
Q.28. The belief that conflict is a natural and inevitable outcome in any group is a
_____________ .
(a) traditional view
(b) human relation view
(c) interactionist view
(d) functional view
Ans. (b)
Q.29. Job enlargement, Job enrichment, Job rotation and Job simplifications are the
various techniques used in an exercise.
(a) job analysis
(b) job rotation
(c) job enlargement
(d) Moods
Ans. (a)
Q.30. Job Characteristics model was developed by_______________ .
(a) Hackman and Oldham
(b) Herzberg
(c) Taylor
(d) Fredrick
Ans. (a)
Q.31. _________ helps to develop Job design.
(a) job analysis
(b) job rotation
(c) job enlargement
(d) Moods
Ans. (a)
Q.32. Which of the following is a written statement of the skills, knowledge, abilities,
and other characteristics needed to perform a job effectively?
(a) Job Analysis
(b) job specification
(c) job enlargement
(d) Job design
Ans. (b)
Q.33. The job characteristics approach was popularised by_____________ .
(a) Maslow
(b) Hackman and Oldham
(c) Taylor
(d) Mayo
Ans. (b)
Q.34. Which one of the following is not an approach to work design?
(a) engineering approach
(b) motivational theories (two factor theories)
(c) socio-technical system method
(d) scientific approach
Ans. (d)
Q.35. Vertical enhancement of job is known as________________ .
(a) job enrichment
(b) job rotation
(c) job enlargement
(d) Moods
Ans. (a)
Q.36. The method that depends mainly on the ability and experience of the supervisors
for gathering relevant information about the job is called the
(a) work simplification method
(b) data collecting method
(c) Critical Incident
(d) Technical conference Method
Ans. (d)
Q.37. Who has given “Hierarchy of Needs” theory?
(a) Abraham Maslow
(b) McClelland
(c) Fredreick Herzberg
(d) Henry Fayol
Ans. (a)
Q.38. Two-Factor Theory is also known as ______________ .
(a) Theory X and Y
(b) Motivation-hygiene theory
(c) Negative and Positive
(d) All of the above
Ans. (b)
Q.39. Who proposed ERG Theory?
(a) Gene Broadwater
(b) Edwin Locke
(c) Victor Vroom
(d) Clayton Alderfer
Ans. (d)
Q.40. MBO Stands for____________ .
(a) Management by objectives
(b) Management by observation
(c) Management by ownership
(d) Management by operation
Ans. (a)
Q.41. ESOP stands for_____________ .
(a) Employee Stock Ownership Plans
(b) Employees Share Ownership Plans
(c) Employer Stock Ownership Plans
(d) Employer Share Ownership Plans
Ans. (a)
Q.42. Compensation based on some established formula designed around a company’s
profitability is known as____________ .
(a) profit sharing plan
(b) gain sharing
(c) bonuses
(d) piece-rate pay plan
Ans. (a)
Q.43. Reinforcement Theory has an impressive record of predicting______________ .
(a) dependent variables
(b) performance variables
(c) absenteeism
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
Q.44. A participative process that uses entire capacity of employees and is designed to
encourage increased commitment to the organisation’s success, is known as
______________ .
(a) Works council
(b) Employee participation
(c) Employee involvement
(d) Participative management
Ans. (c)
Q.45. Who proposed “Theory X and Theory Y”?
(a) Frederick Herzberg
(b) David McClelland
(d) Abraham Maslow
Ans. (c)
Q.46. Works council and board representative are forms of______________ .
(a) employee Participation
(b) employee involvement
(c) quality circle
(d) participative management
Ans. (b)
Q.47. Company-established benefits plans in which employees acquire stock as part of
their benefits is known as,____________.
(a) fringe benefit
(b) bonus
(c) flexible benefit
(d) ESOP
Ans. (d)
Q48. Which of the following tasks represents a leadership responsibility?
(a) Budgeting
(b) Aligning people
(c) Organising
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
Q.49. Emotional Intelligence____________.
(a) is genetic
(b) can be learned
(c) cannot be improved
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
Q.50. Recognising and rewarding success form part of the ______________ process of
motivating and inspiring.
(a) Leadership
(b) Management
(c) Negotiation
(d) Motivation
Ans. (a)
Q.51. A charismatic leadership has which of the following characteristics?
(a) Builds a strong and distinctive image for the organisation
(b) Seeks to pick up the mood of the audience
(c) Employs a clear chain of command
(d) Takes the view that rewards and punishment motivate staff
Ans. (a)
Q.52. A democratic leadership style has which of the following characteristics?
(a) Split power
(b) Genuine
(c) Dictatorial leader
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
Q.53. Performance appraisal is conducted for_______________ .
(a) manager
(b) employees
(c) executives
(d) subordinates
Ans. (b)
Q.54. BARS is combination of______________.
(a) confidential report and rating scale
(b) forced choice method and confidential report
(c) critical incident technique and rating scale
(d) checklist and critical incident technique
Ans. (c)
Q.55. This among the followings is not a method of Performance Appraisal,
(a) Self-appraisal
(b) Rating scale
(c) Group Appraisal
(d) 360-degree
(e) None of these
Ans. (e)
Q.56. Forced choice method is______________
(a) used to correct the tendency of a rater to give consistently high or low ratings to all the
employees.
(b) multi person evaluation method
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
Q.57. Critical incident technique provides __________________ basis for conducting
employee’s performance.
(a) subjective
(b) objective
(c) non-quantitative
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
Q.58. The rater gives greater weightage to recent occurrence than earlier performance,
this type of judgmental error is known as____________ .
(a) Halo
(b) Horn effect
(c) Stereotyping
(d) Recency effect
Ans. (d)
Q.59. Which among the following techniques of performance appraisal was developed
to eliminate bias and the preponderance of high ratings that might occur in some
organisation?
(a) Confidential report
(b) Forced choice method
(c) Critical incident technique
(d) Checklist
Ans. (b)
Q.60. Ranking is:_____________ .
(a) multi-person evaluation method
(b) individual evaluation method
(c) other method
(d) all of these
Ans. (d)
Q.61. Essay evaluation method is______________ .
(a) subjective
(b) objective
(c) quantitative
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
Q.62. The management information system (MIS) responds to the need for___________
.
(a) electronic data processing
(b) managerial information
(c) accounting application
(d) utility billing information
Ans. (b)
Q.63. PERT and CPM are
(a) Project evaluation techniques
(b) Assignment techniques
(c) Network techniques
Ans. (c)
Q.64. A system must be composed of more than one______________ .
(a) subsystem
(b) element
(c) super system
(d) place
Ans. (b)
Q.65. Inventory is also referred to as_______________ .
(a) stock
(b) warehouse capacity
(c) materials
(d) materials in hand
Ans. (a)
Q.66. A long-range management information system plan provides __________ for the
development.
(a) direction
(b) finance
(c) control
(d) coordination
Ans. (a)
Q.67. In-basket method of training is helpful in enhancing
(a) interpersonal skills
(b) job knowledge
(c) decision-making skills
(d) organisational knowledge
Ans. (c)
Q.68. Job rotation and multiple management method of training is helpful in enhancing
____________.
(b) job knowledge
Ans. (d)
Q.69. Training Evaluation methods include all but _____________.
(a) questionnaire
(b) Cost benefit analysis
(c) human resource factor
(d) checklist
Ans. (d)
Q.70. A concept that people tend to repeat responses that give them some type of
positive reward and avoid actions associated with negative consequences is called
______________.
(a) Punishment
(b) Positive motivation
(c) Obsolescence
(d) Reinforcement
Ans. (d)
Q.71. All are simulation methods of training except one______________ .
(a) case studies
(b) decision games
(c) role playing
(d) lecture method
Ans. (b)
Q.72. On-the-job experiences, coaching and understudy methods of training is helpful
in enhancing ______________.
(b) job knowledge
Ans. (b)
Q.73. Business game and case study method of training is helpful in enhancing
(b) job knowledge
Ans. (c)
Q.74. Trade Union Act was passed in the year______________ .
(a) 1926
(b) 1936
(c) 1958
(d) 1916
Ans. (a)
Q.75. Rules and regulations which govern the conditions of employment of workers is
stated in ______________ .
(a) Standing Orders
(b) Industry Relations
(c) Factories Act
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
Q.76. JMC stands for_____________ .
(a) Junior Management Committee
(b) Junior Management Council
(c) Joint Management Committee
(d) Joint Management Council
Ans. (d)
Q.77. Out of provocation, workers may go on strike without notice or at a very short
notice, such strike is called ________________.
(a) Sectional strike
(b) Lightning strike
(c) Sit-down strike
(d) Unofficial strike
Ans. (b)
Q.78. JIT stands for_____________ .
(a) Job Instruction Training
(b) Job Information Training
(c) Job Incentive Technology
(d) Job Incentive Training
Ans. (a)
Q.79. Industrial Disputes Act commenced in the year_______ .
(a) 1946
(b) 1947
(c) 1948
(d) 1926
Ans. (b)
Q.80. A strike which is started without the consent of union is called______________ .
(a) Slow-down strike
(b) Bumper strike
(c) Hunger strike
(d) Unofficial strike
Ans. (d)
Q.81. Conciliation Officer is appointed by central or state government to mediate in all
disputes, and he is required to give his judgement within_____________ days of the
commencement of conciliation proceeding.
(a) 10
(b) 16
(c) 15
(d) 14
Ans. (d)
Q.82. Lockout means closing down the place of business but not the business itself.
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly true
(d) Partly false
Ans. (a)
Q.83. AIOE stands for______________ .
(a) All India Organisation of Employees
(b) All India Organisation of Employment
(c) All India Organisation of Employers
(d) All India Organisation of Empowerment
Ans. (c)
Q.84. A union whose members do one type of work, often using specialised skills and
training is known as ______________.
(a) Craft union
(b) Industrial union
(c) General union
(d) Federations
Ans. (a)
Q.85. How many members can constitute to form a registered Trade Union?
(a) 100
(b) 10
(c) 7
(d) 50
Ans. (c)
Q.86. Complaint and Grievance are one and the same thing,
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Cannot be determined
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
Q.87. When a worker faces a problem then according to Model Grievance Procedure,
given by National Commissions on Labour, firstly he/she will report to_____________ .
(a) Foreman
(b) Supervisor
(c) HOD
(d) Manager
Ans. (a)
Q.88. When dissatisfaction at the work place, mostly related to work is brought to the
notice of the management, it is known as____________ .
(a) Complaint
(b) Grievance
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Negative discipline
Ans. (b)
Q.89. In a model Grievance Procedure, the Supervisor has to respond against the
grievance within _______________.
(a) 2 days
(b) 3 days
(c) 7 days
(d) 5 days
Ans. (a)
Q.90. During suspension of an employee, employer is liable to pay 50% of wages/salary
as emoluments till enquiry is going on. What is the outer limit of that enquiry in terms
of days. Beyond that if enquiry goes on then 75% of salary/wages has to be paid to the
employee ______________.
(a) 60 days
(b) 30 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 45 days
Ans. (c)
Q.91. Termination from employment for any of the misconducts mentioned in the
Industrial Employment Act, 1946 is called___________ .
(a) Discharge
(b) Suspension
(c) Layoff
(d) Dismissal
Ans. (d)
Q.91. Quality circle was first established in______________ .
(a) Japan
(b) China
(c) America
(d) Korea
Ans. (a)
Q.92. Employee disclosure of an employer’s illegal, immoral or illegitimate practices to
persons or organisations that may be able to take corrective action is
called____________.
(a) Whistle-blowing
(b) Business ethics
(c) Responsible employee
(d) None of these
Ans. (a) Whistle-blowing
Q.93. If the number of days of suspension exceeds beyond 90 days, due to delay in the
enquiry from the part of employer then in such condition how much wages/salary +
D.A. employee will get thereafter?
(a) 50%
(b) 90%
(c) 60%
(d) 75%
Ans. (d) 75%
Q.94. Which model was accepted by Indian Labor Conference in its 16th session held in
1958, in India?
(a) Grievance procedural model
(b) Labor procedural model
(c) Wages procedural model
(d) Negotiation procedural model
Ans. (a) Grievance procedural model
Q.95. Collective Bargaining is a_______________ .
(a) bipartite process
(b) tripartite process
(c) arbitration process
(d) conciliation process
Ans. (a) bipartite process
Q.96. Arbitration may be____________ .
(a) voluntary
(b) compulsory
(c) both a and b
(d) none of these
Ans. (c) both a and b
Q.97. Reservation price is also known as_____________ .
(a) Walkaway
(b) BATNA
(c) ZOPA
(d) None of these
Ans. (a) Walkaway
Q.98. Which among the following negotiators’ role is not to settle the issues but to
improve the relation so as they can reach the settlement themselves?
(a) Mediator
(b) Arbitrator
(c) Conciliator
(d) Consultant
Ans. (d) Consultant
Q.99. When does complain become a grievance?
(a) When it is known by one employee to another
(b) Both are same
(c) When it is brought to the notice of management
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Ans. (c) When it is brought to the notice of management
Q.100. Development aims at improving_______________ .
(a) Total personality of an individual
(b) Specific skill relating to job
(c) Organisation culture
(d) All of these
Ans. (a) total personality of an individual
Q.101. In international, labour, family and community disputes which method of
negotiation is extensively used ___________________.
(a) mediation
(b) arbitration
(c) conciliation
(d) consultant
Ans. (c) conciliation
Q.102. EFI stands for ______________.
(a) Employees’ Federation of India
(b) Employers’ Federation of India
(c) Employers’ Federation of Industries
(d) Employees’ Federation of Industries
Ans. (b) Employers’ Federation of India
Q.103. A Procedure by which the terms and conditions of employment of workers are
governed by agreements between their bargaining agents and employers is known as
_______________ .
(a) Collective bargaining
(b) Negotiation
(c) Good Faith bargaining
(d) Bargaining zone
Ans. (a) Collective Bargaining
Q.104. All among the following methods are Off-the-job Methods except one.
(a) Vestibule training
(b) Committee Assignment
(c) Role playing
(d) Lecture method
Ans. (b) Committee Assignment
Q.105. Employee’s dissatisfaction is not because of any valid reason but because of
wrong perception, wrong attitude or wrong information he has. This type of grievance
is known as ______________.
(a) Factual
(b) Imaginary
(c) Disguised
(d) None of these
Ans. (b) Imaginary
Q106. Which among the followings is a method of training?
(a) Job enrichment
(b) Job enlargement
(c) Job rotation
(d) None of these
Ans. (c) Job rotation
Q.107. An interpersonal process used by two or more parties whereby both or all
modify their demands to reach an agreement is called____________ .
(a) Collective bargaining
(b) Negotiation
(c) Good Faith bargaining
(d) Bargaining zone
Ans. (b) Negotiation
Q.108. The practical application of the collaborating and compromising approaches to
conflict management is known as ____________.
(a) Arbitration
(b) Negotiating
(c) Meditating
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
Q.109. Who has given ‘Red Hot Stove Rule’?
(a) Selye
(b) Henry Fayol
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
Q.110. In which of the following methods of training a senior manager in an
organisation assumes the responsibility for grooming a junior person?
(a) Coaching
(b) JIT
(c) Mentoring
(d) Apprenticeship training
Ans. (c)
Q111. Kirkpatrick Four-level Approach for training Impact Evaluation include all
but_____________ .
(a) reaction
(b) learning
(c) behavior
(d) return on investment
Ans. (d)
Q112. Court of Enquiry needs to submit its report after solving the dispute
within________.
(a) 10 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 5 months
(d) 12 months
Ans. (b)
Q.113. Temporary closure of a unit called from the side of employer is known
as__________.
(a) Strike
(b) Lockout
(c) Closure
(d) Shutdown
Ans. (b)
Q114. What are the roles played by HRM?
(i) Advisory Role
(ii) Functional Role
(iii) Service Role
(iv) Specialist Role
(a) i, ii, iii
(b) ii, iii, iv
(c) i, ii, iv
Ans. (d)
Q115. Human capital is the ______________
(a) Knowledge & skill that individuals acquire through their life & use to produce goods,
services or ideas for productive purposes
(b) Sum of people skills, knowledge, attributes, motivation & efforts
Ans. (c)
Q116. Organisation is-
(a) The coming together of individuals in order to attain a common goal or purpose
(b) The rational coordination of the activities of a number of people for the achievement of
some explicit purpose or goal, through division of labour & function & through a hierarchy
of authority & responsibility
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
Q117. The attribute of a formal organisation is –
(a) Flexibility
(b) Room for discretion
(c) Method for recognition of individual talent & capacity
Ans. (d)
Q118. A __________ can be defined as several individuals who come together to
accomplish a particular task or goal.
(a) matter
(b) group
(c) achievement
Ans. (b)
Q119. __________ stage is characterized by the recognition of individual differences
and shared expectation.
(a) Forming
(b) Storming
(c) Norming
(d) Performing
Ans. (c)
Q120. Group roles may be classified into –
(a) Work Roles
(b) Maintenance Roles
(c) Blocking Roles
Ans. (d)
Q121._______ roles are task – oriented activities that involve accomplishing the group’s
goals.
(a) work
(b) maintenance
(c) blocking
Ans. (a)
Q122.________ refers to the bonding of group members and their desire to remain part
of the group.
(a) Cohesiveness
(b) Norms
(c) team
(d) Structure
Ans. (a)
Q123. “Managers are the basic resource of the business enterprise”. The definition is
given by —
(a) Henry Fayol
(b) Peter Ducker
(c) Dancil Goleman
(d) Hellriegel
Ans. (b)
Q124. ________ is a management process, deductive in nature and designed to produce
orderly results, not change.
(a) Planning
(b) organising
c) Directing
d) Controlling
Ans. (a)
Q125. Performance benchmarking —
(a) allows the initiator firm to assess their Competitive position by comparing products and
services with those of target firms.
(b) involves studying the leading competitor or the company that best carries out a specific
function
(c) embraces everything from staffing and productivity to office flow and analysis of
procedures performed.
d) All of the above.
Ans. (a)
Q126. __________ means that the same standard can be applied to any organization
large or small, whatever its product or service, in any sector of activity, and whether it
is a business enterprise, a public administration, or a government department.
(a) Generic
(b) Genesis
(c) Quality
(d) Product
Ans. (a)
Q127. The key element of Responsibility Charting is –
(a) Decisions or tasks
(b) Stakeholders
(c) Level of participation of each stakeholders in each decision of task
Ans. (d)
Q128._______ is critical to the bank’s future business success and the bank’s
performance is linked to people development amounting to investing in the future.
(a) Development
(b) Training
(c) Economic Welfare
(d) Compensation
Ans. (a)
Q129. Describe the Changing role of HRM?
(a) New functions are being added to HR like manpower planning, employee development &
performance management
(b) Becomes integral part of management & equally accountable for business results
(c) HR must be actively involved in the process and preparation of business plans &
strategies and fulfillment of such plans
Ans. d
Q130. Out of the following, which one is the difference between Leadership &
Management?
(a) Management involves planning & budgeting; Leadership involves setting direction
(b) Management involves organisation & staffing; Leadership involves aligning people
(c) Management provides control & solves problem; Leadership provides motivation
Ans. d
Q131. The area of group behaviour that are addressed for teams to be effective is _____
(a) Hardworking
(b) Right mix of skills
(c) Appropriate approaches to problem solving
Ans. d
Q132. The fundamental group needs for group effectiveness is –
(a) Acceptance & Potential
(b) Purpose & Bond
(c) Impact & Reality
Ans. d
Q133. ____ groups are formed by members who enjoy similar social activities, political
beliefs, religious values, or other common bonds.
(a) task
(b) project
(c) command
(d) friendship
Ans. d
Q134. Formal group may take the form of —
(a) command groups
(b) Task Groups
(c) Functional Groups
Ans. d
Q135. What are the factors that contribute to the teams effectiveness?
(i) The task itself should be motivating
(ii) The task itself should be worthwhile with a clear visible outcome so that the people can
feel a sense of ownership
(iii) The outcome of the task should be perceived as being important to other people’s lives
(iv)The job should provide the team with an opportunity for self- regulation
(a) i, ii, iii
(b) ii, iii, iv
(c) i, ii, iv
Ans. d
Q136. The organisational structure in Quality Circle for its effective performance are –
(i) A Steering Committee
(ii) Coordinator
(iii) Facilitator
(iv) Circle Leader
(v) Staff time
(vi) Development
(a) i, ii, iii, iv
(b) ii, iii, iv, v
(c) iii, iv, v, vi
Ans. a
Q137. How a change is managed?
(i) Involve & solicit support from people within the system
(ii) Understand where the organisation is at the moment
(iii) Understand where one wants to be, when, why, & what the new measures will be,
having got there
(iv) Communicate, involve, enable & facilitate involvement from people as early & openly
and as fully as possible
(a) i, ii, iii
(b) ii, iii, iv
(c) i, ii, iv
Ans. d
Q138. The selection of employees done on the basis of –
(i) Knowledge
(ii) Skills
(iii) Talent
(iv) Identifying the unique strength
(a) i, ii, iii
(b) ii, iii, iv
(c) i, ii, iv
Ans. d
Q139. Knowledge Management is –
(a) Defined in the context of know-why, know-who, know-what & know-when.
(b) An intangible form of asset of an organisation
Ans. c
Q140. What are the significant features of Knowledge Management?
(i) KM initiatives can substantially contribute towards cost cutting, product & process
innovations, competitiveness & hence can ensure improved operational efficiency as well as
better systems, procedures & internal control system
(ii) KM can tremendously improve the competency profile of the employees in an
organisation in respect of their skills and knowledge levels
(iii) Organisational value gets enhanced progressively as it is used
(iv) KM initiatives can significantly contribute towards creation & addition of value in
organisations
(v) KM initiatives can significantly contribute towards customer service to a large extent
(vi) KM can provide inputs in assessing the risks associated with a loan proposal & hence
can help in taking more informed & objective credit decisions
(a) i, ii, iii, iv
(b) ii, iii, iv, v
(c) iii, iv, v, vi
Ans. d
Q.141. SWOT analysis should appraise a firm’s__________ .
(a) strength
(b) weakness and opportunity
(c) threats
(d) all of these
Ans. (d) all of these
Q.142. The rights inherent in a managerial position to give orders and to expect the
orders to be obeyed is known as___________.
(a) Responsibility
(b) Authority
(c) Chain of Command
(d) Span of control
Ans. (b) Authority
Q.143. Authority should be commensurate with____________.
(a) degree of coordination
(b) position in the hierarchy
(c) degree of responsibility
(d) degree of supervision
Ans. (c) degree of responsibility
Q.144. The beliefs, values and practices adopted by an organisation that directly
influence employee conduct and behaviour is known as__________.
(a) Corporate culture
(b) Corporate image
(c) Corporate values
(d) Corporate citizenship
Ans. (a) Corporate culture
Q.145. In which method of Performance Appraisal Employees are rated only two
factors – job performance and promotability, and they are placed between two
extremes good and bad _________.
(a) Man-to-man comparison method
(b) Graphic rating method
(c) Forced distribution method
(d) Straight ranking method
Ans. (c) Forced distribution method
Q.146. Wages are paid to ___________.
(a) blue collar worker
(b) white collar worker
(d) none of these
Ans. (a) Blue collar worker
Q.147. Salary paid to _________.
(a) blue collar worker
(b) white collar worker
(d) none of these
Ans. (b) white collar worker
Q.148. The process of establishing career objectives and determining appropriate
educational and developmental programmes to further develop the skills required to
achieve short- or long-term career objectives is called ______________.
(a) Career development
(b) Career ladder
(c) Career path
(d) Career planning
Ans. (d) Career planning
Q.149. Who has propounded Differential Piece Rate Plan?
(a) Henry Gantt
(b) Karl Marx
(c) Francis A. Walker
(d) Taylor
Ans. (d) Taylor
Q.150. The progression of jobs in an organisation’s specific occupational fields ranked
from highest to lowest based on level of responsibility and pay is called_____________.
(b) Career ladder
(c) Career path
(d) Career planning
Ans. (b) Career ladder
Q.151. The progression of jobs in an organisation’s specific occupational fields ranked
from lowest to highest in the hierarchical structure is called__________.
(b) Career ladder
(c) Career path
(d) Career planning
Ans. (c) Career path
Q.152. Which represent the lower limit of fair wages?
(a) Minimum wage
(b) Living wage
(c) Fair wage
(d) None of these
Ans. (a) Minimum wage
Q.153. Wages come under ____________.
(a) direct compensation
(b) indirect compensation
(d) none of these
Ans. (a) direct compensation
Q.154. According to the Committee of Fair Wages ___________ is the highest level of
wage.
(a) minimum wage
(b) living wage,
(d) none of these
Ans. (b) living wage
Q.155. Who propounded Task and Bonus System?
(a) Henry Gantt
(b) Karl Marx
(c) Francis A. Walker
(d) Taylor
Ans. (d) Taylor
Q156. The main objective of the__________ is to provide for registration of trade
unions and gives the registered trade Unions a legal status and immunity to their office
bearers from civil and criminal liability for pursuing legitimate union activities.
(a) Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970
(b) Bombay Shop and Establishments Act, 1948
(c) Trade Union Act, 1926
(d) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
Ans. c
Q157. The HR strategic measurement system is-
(a) Core efficiency measures
(b) Strategic efficiency measures
Ans. c
Q158. The type of managerial decisions which effect the workers of an industry is –
(a) Economic decision – methods of automation, production, mergers, layoff, shutdowns
(b) Personnel decision – work distribution, recruitment, selection, appraisals, transfers,
settlement of grievances
(c) Social decision – welfare measures, safety of workers, health, sanitation, work duration,
work rules
Ans. d
Q159. The major HR functions are –
(i) Acquisition of Employees
(ii) Training & Development
(iii) Performance Management
(iv) Reward System
(a) i, ii, iii
(b) ii, iii, iv
(c) i, ii, iv
Ans. d
Q160. What is Human Resources Planning?
(a) A Process which anticipates & maps out the consequences of business strategy on an
organisation human resources
(b) Involves forecasting the number of employees required and then working out the best
mode of obtaining them as & when they are needed
Ans. c
Q161. Discipline management means-
(a) Creating an environment where employees voluntarily obey rules & regulation.
(b) Handling cases of misconduct & Indiscipline
(c) Counseling the employees the need to follow rules
Ans. d
Q162. The underlying assumption of organisational communication is –
(a) Humans act rationally because they have access to all the information to articulate
(b) Communication is a mechanical process in which a message is constructed and encoded
by a sender transmitted through some channel & then received & decoded by the receiver.
(c) Organisations are mechanical things in which the parts are interchangeable
Ans. d
Q163. CRM stands for —
(a) Customer Relationship Management
(b) Career Relationship Management
(c) Capital Relationship Management
(d) Care Relationship Management
Ans. a
Q164. What are the advantages of internal recruitment process?
(i) Less Costly
(ii) Candidates already oriented towards organisation
(iii) Organisations have better knowledge about internal candidates
(iv) Employee motivation & morale is enhanced
(v) Traditional approach, play safe
(vi) It abets raiding
(vii) Candidates current work may be affected
(viii) Politics plays greater roles
(a) i, ii, iii, iv
(b) iii, iv, v, vi
(c) v, vi, vii, viii
Ans. d
Q165. The essentials of a good selection practice are –
(i) Detailed job description & job specifications prepared in advance & endorsed by HR and
Line Management
(ii) Trained panel of interviewers, with special emphasis on behavioural event viewing
(iii) Line Mangers involved at all possible stages
(iv) All newly appointed candidates are put through a well-designed training program
(a) i, ii, iii
(b) ii, iii, iv
(c) i, ii, iii, iv
(d) Only i and ii
Ans. c
Q166._____ can be focus on the strategic dimension of their function.
(a) Human Resource outsourcing
(b) Human Resource Management
(c) Human Resource business Process Outsourcing
(d) Performance Management outsourcing
Ans. b
Q167. Counseling is –
(a) An established process ensures better compliances to rules leading to more productive
employees
(b) Is an elaborate process which includes intent listening and adopting positive approach to
guide the employee the right way
(c) Giving necessary advice and taking corrective steps in implementation of the rules
Ans. d
Q168. The advantage of workers participation in decision making is –
(i) Reduction in confrontation helps workers in adapting to change Which helps in
implementing new methods easily
(ii) Management and workers have better communication which helps the implemented
decision to be effective
(iii) Reduction of conflicts & disputes due to joint decision, hence increase in productivity
(iv) All of the above
Ans. d
Q170. Compensation is –
(a) The remuneration received by an employee in return for his/her contribution to the
organisation
(b) It is an organised practice that involves balancing of work- employee relation by
providing monetary & non-monetary benefits to the organisation
Ans. c
Q171. The Function of Shop Council is –
(a) Increase in Production
(b) Overall efficiency
(c) Elimination of wastages
Ans. d
Q172. Strategic compensation is –
(a) Determining & providing the compensation packages that are aligned with the business
goals & objectives
(b) A process of determining the compensation package based on strategies
Ans. a
Q173. Employee Risk Assessment –
(a) Is a careful examination of what could harm the people, so that one can assess whether
they have taken enough precautions or should do more to prevent harm
(b) Helps to focus on the risks that really matter at the workplace, the ones with the potential
to cause harm
Ans. c
Q174. Under________ method, checklist of statements of traits of employee in the form
of Yes or No based questions is prepared.
(a) Rating Scales
(b) Trait Analysis
(c) Forced choice
(d) Forced distribution
Ans. b
Q175. The uses of Performance Appraisal are –
(i) Promotions
(ii) Confirmations
(iii) Training & development
(iv) Compensation reviews
(v) Competency Building
(a) i, ii
(b) iii, iv, v
Ans. c
Q176. What is a 360 degree appraisal?
(a) It is a technique which involves systematic collection of performance data on an
individual or group, derived from a number of stakeholders like immediate supervisors, team
members, customers, peers and self
(b) It is in a form of questionnaire which involves a group of people who gives useful
information on how an employee does a job
Ans. c
Q177. What are the Disadvantages of Assessment centers?
(i) Costly & time consuming
(ii) Ratings strongly influenced by assessee’s interpersonal skills
(iii) Good performers may feel suffocated in simulated situations
(iv) Non selected candidates will get affected
(a) i, ii, iii, iv
(b) iii, iv
(c) i, ii, iv
Ans. a
Q178. HRM Goals be defined as –
(i) To meet the needs of the business & management
(ii) To link human resource policies to the business goals & objectives
(iii) To find ways for human resources to “add value” to a business
(iv) To help business gain the commitment of employees to its values, goals & objectives
(a) i, ii, iii, iv
(b) ii, iii, iv
(c) I, iii, iv
Ans. a
Q179. Learning styles may be –
(a) Auditory
(b) Visual
(c) Kinesthetic
Ans. d
Q180. Motivation is –
(a) A psychological feature that arouses an organism to action toward a desired goal
(b) The reason for the action that gives purpose and direction to behaviour
(c) A psychological process that gives the behaviour purpose and direction, a predisposition
to behave in a purposive manner to achieve specific, unmet needs
Ans. d
Q181. The “Hierarchy of need” theory –
(i) Human beings have wants & desires which influences their behaviour. Only unsatisfied
needs influence behaviour
(ii) Prioritisation of needs is important
(iii) The person advances to the next level of need if the lower level is satisfied
(iv) Upward Progression will exhibit a person’s more individuality, humanness &
psychological health
(a) i, ii
(b) iii, iv
Ans. c
Q182._______ is the attempt to build in to jobs a higher sense of challenge and
achievement.
(a) Job Enlargement
(b) Job Enrichment
(c) Job Rotation
Ans. b
Q183. The objective of Training & Development is –
(a) To Improve Performance
(b) An attempt to improve the current or future employee performance by increasing an
employee’s ability to perform through learning, usually by increasing his / her skills and
knowledge
Ans. c
Q184. Under_______ method usually employees are put on different jobs turn by turn
where they learn all sorts of jobs of various departments.
(a) Job Rotation
(b) Job Coaching
(c) Job Instruction
(d) Apprenticeships
Ans. a
Q185. What are the merits of Job enrichment?
(i) It benefits employee & organisation in terms of increased motivation, performance,
satisfaction, job involvement and reduced absenteeism
(ii) Additional features in job meet certain psychological needs of jobholders due to skill
variety, identity, significance of job , etc.
(iii) It also adds to employee self-esteem & self-control
(iv) Gives status to jobholder and acts as a strong satisfier in one’s life
(v) Examine the jobs selected with the conviction that changes can be introduced
(vi) Screen the list for hygiene suggestions and retain only ideas classed as motivators
(vii) Remove the generalities from the list retaining only specific motivators
(viii) Avoid employee involvement in the design process
(a) i, ii, iii, iv
(b) iii, iv, v, vi
(c) v, vi, vii, viii
Ans. a
Q186. Motivation can be –
(a) Intrinsic
(b) Extrinsic
Ans. c
Q187. CRR Stands for –
(a) Cash revenue ratio
(b) Cash reserve ratio
(c) Cost revenue ratio
Ans. b
Q188. ______________ is a verbal lecture presentation by an instructor to a large
audience.
(a) Classroom lecture
(b) Audiovisual
(c) Simulation
(d) Laboratories
Ans. a
Q189. Which pair represents the quantitative methods of job evaluation?
(a) Ranking and point methods
(b) Job classification and factor comparison methods
(c) Factor comparison and point methods
(d) Job classification and point methods
Ans. c
Q190. The method of settling industrial disputes with direct state intervention does not
include
(a) compulsory establishment of bipartite committees
(b) adjudication
(c) collective bargaining
(d) compulsory conciliation
Ans. c
Q191. Which area does not require much attention in international HRM?
(a) concepts of wages
(b) remuneration paid by competing organisations
(c) statutory regulation of wages in the host country
(d) level of standard of living in the host country
Ans. a
Q192. A detailed and systematic statement of physical and mental attributes of an
individual who is to fill a job is called
(a) job evaluation
(b) job description
(c) job specification
(d) job classification
Ans. c
Q193. Management of change is concerned with context of
a. Organisation (inner and outer) / time of sequence
b. Change
c. Process of implementing change
d. All above
e. Both (a) + (c)
Ans. (d)
Q194. Human capital plays constructive role in M & A process. What is required for its
effectiveness?
a. ensuring effective communications
b. achieving cultural alignment + formation of mobile team of transition executives + (a)
above
c. treating those leaving with same respect and attention as those staying
d. Both (b) + (c)
Ans. (d)
Q195. The responsibility of the Line Managers in HR is to create conditions and
develop them in order to enable employee to
a. acquire and develop new condition
b. perceive possible outcome of such new capabilities + (a)
c. assess the self-growth and enjoy the growth process + (b) above d.
d. These are the responsibility of HR Manager
Ans. (c)
Q196. What are the requirements of an innovative recruitment?
a. Just hire even without specific job profile
b. Right leadership + (a)
c. Cross border and homing pigeon + (b)
d. Making its own leaders + (c)
Ans. (d)
Q197. What is the purpose of promotion?
a. Greater use to organisation
b. Recognition of individual performance + (a)
c. Promote job satisfaction + (b)
d. Provide opportunities to enhance employee’s skills and activities + (c)
e. Only (a) + (b)
Ans. (d)
Q198. Discuss the pitfalls of 360° performance appraisal
a. Cannot work in controlled, hierarchical environment
b. Collection of feedback, a discounting task
c. Subjectivity in rating/different behaviour and their different findings / tough task to rate
boss or colleagues / + (a) + (b)
d. Postponement of performance appraisal indefinitely when negative feedback / bosses tend
to become hard towards subordinates and give lower scores in the name of, better
administration
Ans. (c)
Q199. Maslow Theory of motivation is based on –
a. Human needs
b. Achievement
c. Power needs
d. Two factors
Ans. (a)
Q200. Off the job Training Method consists of –
a. Lecturers / conference / group discussions / e-learning
b. Apprenticeship / assistant to executives / job rotation
c. Step, by step training identified in a sequence
d. Training on similar to those actual practice
Ans. (a)
Q201. Advantages of e-learning are –
a. Self-paced, allows for consistency and incorporates built in guidance
b. All trainees ready for e-learning
c. Appropriate for leadership and cultural change
d. Lesser upfront cost and investment
Ans. (a)
Q202. Features of collective bargaining is / are –
a. Collectively / equal strength / sufficient flexibility
b. Negotiations voluntarily / continuous process / dynamic process / power relationship
c. Employer-employee do not retreat from their positions
d. Both (a) + (b) collective
Ans. (d)
Q203. What do you mean by factual grievance?
a. Legitimate needs remain unfulfilled
b. Legitimate needs are fulfilled but others are not
c. Wrong perception / wrong attitude / wrong information by employees
d. Both (b) + (c)
Ans. (a)
Q204. Causes of industrial disputes are –
a. Wages / Union rivalry / multiplicity of labour laws
b. Political interferences / unfair labour practices
c. Economic slowdown + (a) + (b)
d. Both (a) + (b)
Ans. (c)
Q205. Recruitment placement and employment in personnel management, includes
various features, which are –
a. Job analysis / HR planning / placement of right candidate
b. Introduction and orientation / internal mobility
c. Training / managerial skills development / career path development
d. All above
e. Only (a) + (b)
Ans. (e)
Q206. Frauds can be committed by –
a. Bank Staff
b. Bank Staff in collusion with outsiders
c. Frauds done by customers or outsiders
d. All above
Ans. (d)
Q207. How does works councils differ from Joint Committees of workers?
a. Works councils consist of members elected by employees; joint committees consist of
representative’s employees and employer
b. Works councils consist of nominated members both by employees and employers and
same is far Joint Committees
c. Works councils consist of representatives of employees while joint committees elected
members of employees
d. Both works councils and joint committee members are nominated by Labour Welfare
Officer
Ans. (a)
Q208. Total Quality Management refers to deep commitment to quality of products and
services. For this how the employees are involved by the organisation?
a. Extensive training in problem solving
b. Group decision making and statistical methods
c. To take responsibility for improving quality
d. Only (b) + (c)
e. All above
Ans. (e)
Q209. What is the purpose of Job-enrichment to workers?
a. Relieve the bore down of workers
b. Source of self-satisfaction
c. Substitute for workers participation
d. Both (a) + (b) only
e. All above
Ans. (d)
Q210. When does empowering occurs when
a. Power goes to employees
b. Feeling of sense of ownership
c. Feeling of that jobs belong to them
d. All above
e. Only (a) + (c)
Ans. (d)
Q211. Define Strike
a. A spontaneous and concerted withdrawal of labour temporarily
b. Collective stoppage of work by a group of workers for pressurising their employer to
accept their demands
c. Both (a) + (b)
d. Persons employed to discontinue to work, at the instance of their employers
Ans. (c)
Q212. Kinds of Industrial disputes is / are –
a. Strikes / Lockouts / Gherao / picketing and boycott
b. Picketing and boycott / gherao
c. Strikes and lockouts
d. Gherva / strikes
Ans. (a)
Q213. Describe the essential features of personnel management
a. Concerned with employees both as individual and group / development of human skills
b. Covers all categories of employees / applies in all type of organisation,
c. Aims at attaining the organisational goals / concerned mainly with managing HR work
d. Both (a) + (b) only
e. All above
Ans. (e)
Q214. Employees should believe that there is consistent response to rules’ violations,
which means
a. Discipline administration without discrimination
b. Without favouritism
c. Consistently
d. All above
Ans. (d)
Q215. Effective Discipline is of which types?
a. Appreciable and non-approvable
b. Positive and Negative
c. Harsh and Soft
d. Excusable and non-excusable
Ans. (b)
Q216. HRD environment eventually means actions, tendencies and commitments which
supports.
a. openness and risks taking
b. Proactivity and autonomy
c. Collides with each other
d. Only (a) + (b)
Ans. (d)
Q217. To achieve, workers increased productivity and organisational profitability, the
role of a HRD manager is –
a. to assist employees in obtaining knowledge / skills
b. to play enabling role for providing the right context
c. Intervention on individual and organisational effectiveness
d. Both (a) and (b)
e. All above
Ans. (e)
Q218. Define the basic steps needed in BPR
a. Implementation of traditional process / designing and preparing a prototype of new
process
b. Implementation of new process / reviewing and evaluating the progress.
c. Identification of I.T. levels / discarding the existing processes
d. Development of business vision keeping the old objectives
Ans. (b)
Q219. Members of the team take responsibility, for the team as a whole only if there is –
a. Co-operation
b. Support and trust
c. Common objective
d. Appropriate leadership
Ans. (d)
Q220. What are the expectations from HR department?
a. Change a fact of corporate life
b. Employee satisfaction
c. Employees commitment
d. All above
Ans. (d)
Q221. Important features of knowledge are –
a. Does not suffer from scarcity / location no longer matters
b. Trade business, laws, taxes etc., cannot be applied easily + knowledge is difficult to
quantify
c. Both (b) + (a)
d. Knowledge is difficult to quantify + (a) above
Ans. (d)
Q222. What is the major change in Public Sector Banks, after globalisation?
a. Shed off their traditional attitude
b. resorted to aggressive marketing
c. Used better technology and customer orientation as against private sector banks
d. Success depends on the ability of banks for financial potential
Ans. (a)
Q223. Essentials required in a good manager in an organisation, are –
a. Moral quotient
b. Should not sacrifice long term value
c. Spiritual quotient
d. All above
Ans. (d)
Q224. Psychological barriers in communication do not include –
a. Ill-considered judgements
b. Failure to listen oral or non-verbal communications
c. Loss by transmission and poor retention
d. Unwillingness to communicate upward
Ans. (d)
Q225. What is the object, under performance appraisal of the employee, in any
organisation?
a. Avoid discrimination in ranking the personnel
b. Avoid professionalism to base the career of the personnel
c. To assess as per whims of the seniors
d. To assess as per exit policy of the organisation
Ans. (a)
Q226. The leadership function is exercised by
a. The formal leader only
b. Members other than the formal leader
c. Leaders to produce result
d. Members to have goal clarity
Ans. (b)
Q227. The main activities of change management are –
a. Filtering changes / managing changes / management reporting
b. Reviewing and closing of requests for change
c. All above
d. Providing management information
Ans. (c)
Q228. Feedback is a regular interaction with the employee and shows:
a. response to acts and omission or commission
b. opportunity to improve his/her performance + (a)
c. sort of summary of an employee’s work
d. non-performance / performance / contribution of the employee
Ans. (b)
Q229. What is the job of work analysis in competency mapping?
a. Helps to describe skills required to carry out a function
b. tasks / responsibilities and skill requirements for successful job
c. Workforce of the future in line with the vision
d. All above
Ans. (a)
Q230. Anything which gives satisfaction to the person is called –
a. Incentive
b. Reward
c. Achievement
d. Involvement
Ans. (b)
Q231. State any three common causes of indiscipline
a. Unfair management practices / communication barriers / Non-uniform disciplinary action
b. Divide and Rule Policy / absence of effective leadership / adequate attention to personnel
problems
c. Delay in solving problems / frustration among individuals / mild pressures on subordinates
d. Dividing one’s own team / undertaking disciplinary actions leading to non-violent
protests/provision of upward communication.
Ans. (a)
Q232. What are the factors in the situation that influence perception?
(a) Interest and time
(b) Interest and social setting
(c) Work setting and time
(d) Experience and proximity
Ans. (c) Work setting and time
Q.233. Audits of managers are called ______________.
(a) Management inventory
(b) HR audit
(d) Skill, inventories
Ans. (a) Management inventory
Q.234. Favoritism shown to relatives by individuals in a position of authority, such as
managers or supervisors is known as ___________.
(a) Nepotism
(b) Favour
(c) Discrimination
(d) None of these
Ans. (a) Nepotism
Q.235. Judging someone on the basis of one’s perception of the group to which that
person belongs, is known as ___________.
(a) Selective perception
(b) Halo effect
(c) Contrast effect
(d) Stereotyping
Ans. (d) Stereotyping

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1 Imposing discipline in the form of rules and regulations is an inalienable right of the

2 Which of the following is an objective of employee discipline?

4 The threat of punishment as a key to imposing discipline is the basis of

5 Adopting a step-by-step approach in dealing with indiscipline problems is the fundamental

6 Which of the following is not a disciplinary action against employees?

MGT501 solved mcqs

3. Motivating the employees is classified as:

4. Which of the following is the main responsibility of an HR department?

5. HR managers are generally the _______________ managers:

6. Manufacturing was the main concern of personnel department during:

7. Running the organizational activities is called:

8. Jobs are identified & grouped while:

9. Effective HRM leads to:

10. Organizational goals should be:

11. Customers of an organization fall under which of the following category?

15. Organizational behavior depicts the:

16. Leaders perform:

17. Organizations take inputs from:

18. Which of the following system represents interrelated activities?

19. Brain drain is one of the:

20. Shifting from manual to computerized system is resulted due to:

22. Reactive approach to overcome the influence of discriminatory practices occurred

23. Organizations put maximum effort in measuring performance of organizational

24. In order to promote unbiased management, organizations should develop:

25. Following are all included in 'Statistical Approach' of forecasting, EXCEPT:

26. Alternative work arrangements include all of the following, EXCEPT:

27. How often HR planning process is implemented within an organization?

29. ‘Strengths’ & ‘Weaknesses’ are ____________________ to an organization.

31. Standards are established to:

32. Which of the following constraint does NOT affect the recruiting efforts?

33. Job evaluation is based on the:

35. Which of the following is a stated outcome of 'Job Analysis'?

37. Which of the following best defines recruitment in an organization?

39. Followings are included in contingent workers, EXCEPT:

41. HRM is associated with the management of;

42. Cost of human resources refers to;

43. Top level managers require __________________ skills the most;

45. HR managers are generally the _______________ managers;

46. Manufacturing was the main concern of personnel department during;

47. SWOT Analysis is a tool for;

49. According to the Hawthorne studies, the productivity of employees;

50. Organizational goals should be;

51. Which one of the following is NOT the source of workforce diversity?

55. Organizational behavior depicts the;

56. Leaders perform;

57. Organizations take inputs from its;

59. Management sciences department is one of the _______________ of the VU;

60. Shifting from manual to computerized system is resulted due to;

61. Rewards offered to labors involved in production, are categorized as;

62. The goal of pre-retirement educational programs is to;

64. Willingness, capacity & opportunity to perform are said to be;

66. Alternative work arrangements include all of the following EXCEPT;

70. What is another term for 360-degree feedback?

71. Standards are established to;

72. The point method to evaluate job is an extension of;

73. Job evaluation is based on the;

75. Groups are called ______________ if jobs are similar.

77. Currently Organizations are providing benefits to their employees;

78. Following are all examples of direct compensation EXCEPT;