Toefl Reading G

Name:Gilang Satia Laksana
NPM:1811040292
Both in what is now the eastern and the southwestern United States, the peoples
of the Archaic era (8,000-1,000 B.C) were, in a way, already adapted to
beginnings of cultivation through their intensive gathering and processing of wild
plant foods. In both areas, there was a well-established ground stone tool
technology, a method of pounding and grinding nuts and other plant foods, that
could be adapted to newly cultivated foods. By the end of the Archaic era,
people in eastern North America had domesticated certain native plants,
including sunflowers; weeds called goosefoot, sumpweed, or marsh elder; and
squash or gourds of some kind. These provided seeds that were important
sources of carbohydrates and fat in the diet.
The earliest cultivation seems to have taken place along the river valleys of the
Midwest and the Southeast, with experimentation beginning as early as 7,000
years ago and domestication beginning 4,000 to 2,000 years ago. Although the
term “Neolithic” is not used in North American prehistory, these were the first
steps toward the same major subsistence changes that took place during the
Neolithic (8,000-2,000 B.C.) period elsewhere in the world.
Archaeologists debate the reasons for beginning cultivation in the eastern part of
the continent. Although population and sedentary living were increasing at the
time, there is little evidence that people lacked adequate wild food resources;
the newly domesticated foods supplemented a continuing mixed subsistence of
hunting, fishing, and gathering wild plants, Increasing predictability of food
supplies may have been a motive. It has been suggested that some early
cultivation was for medicinal and ceremonial plants rather than for food. One
archaeologist has pointed out that the early domesticated plants were all weedy
species that do well in open, disturbed habitats, the kind that would form around
human settlements where people cut down trees, trample the ground, deposit
trash, and dig holes. It has been suggested that sunflower, sumpweed, and other
plants almost domesticated themselves, that is , they thrived in human –
disturbed habitats, so humans intensively collected them and began to control
their distribution. Women in the Archaic communities were probably the main
experimenters with cultivation, because ethnoarchaeological evidence tells us
that women were the main collectors of plant food and had detailed knowledge
of plants.
10. The passage mainly discusses which of the following aspects of the life of
Archaic peoples?
(A) The principal sources of food that made up their diet
(B) Their development of ground stone tool technology
(C) Their development of agriculture
(D) Their distribution of work between men and women
Kunci & Pembahasan:
Kunci Jawaban: (C) Their development of agriculture

Tipe soal: Main Idea Question
Cara Jawab:: lihat kalimat pertama setiap paragraf. Temukan keyword (biasanya
berulang-ulang atau berhubungan dari 1 paragraf ke paragraf lainnya) yang
menjadi pembahasan utama.
Paragraf 1: Both in what is now the eastern and the southwestern United States,
the peoples of the Archaic era (8,000-1,000 B.C) were, in a way, already adapted
to beginnings of cultivation through their intensive gathering and processing of
wild plant foods.
Paragraf 2: The earliest cultivation seems to have taken place along the river
valleys of the Midwest and the Southeast, with experimentation beginning as
early as 7,000 years ago and domestication beginning 4,000 to 2,000 years ago.
Paragraf 3: Archaeologists debate the reasons for beginning cultivation in the
eastern part of the continent.
Dapat kita temukan bahwa 'cultivation' menjadi keyword dari paragraf-paragraf

di atas. Pilihan jawaban C merupakan yang paling berhbungan dengan
'cultivation' yaitu agriculture.
11. The word “these” in line 13 refers to

(A) seeds
(B) river valleys
(C) the Midwest and the Southeast
(D) experimentation and domestication
Kunci & Pembahasan:
Kunci Jawaban: (D) experimentation and domestication

Tipe Soal: Reference Question (Pertanyaan ini menginginkan Anda untuk
mengidentifikasi noun yang diganti menjadi sebuah pronoun)
Cara Jawab:: temukan noun yang terletak sebelum pronoun 'these'.
--> The earliest cultivation seems to have taken place along the river valleys of
the Midwest and the Southeast, with experimentation beginning as early as
7,000 years ago and domestication beginning 4,000 to 2,000 years ago. Although
the term “Neolithic” is not used in North American prehistory, these were the
first steps toward the same major subsistence changes that took place during the
Neolithic (8,000-2,000 B.C.) period elsewhere in the world.
Dapat kita identifikasi bahwa pilihan yang paling tepat ialah pilihan D.
12 According to the passage, when did the domestication of plants begin in
North America?
(A) 7,000 years ago
(B) 4,000 to 2,000 years ago
(C) Long after the Neolithic period
(D) Before the Archaic period
Kunci & Pembahasan:
Kunci Jawaban: (B) 4,000 to 2,000 years ago

Tipe Soal: Factual Question (Pertanyaan seperti ini menginginkan Anda untuk
menemukan informasi spesifik yg ada dalam passage).
Cara Jawab: Temukan kalimat yang berisi informasi spesifik sesuai yang
dinyatakan pada pertanyaan.
Keyword: domestication of plants begin
--> The earliest cultivation seems to have taken place along the river valleys of
the Midwest and the Southeast, with experimentation beginning as early as
7,000 years ago and domestication beginning 4,000 to 2,000 years ago.
Jadi jawaban paling tepat ialah pilihan B.
13. The word “adequate” in line 18 is closest in meaning to

(A) sufficient
(B) healthful
(C) varied
(D) dependable
Kunci & Pembahasan:
Kunci Jawaban: (A) sufficient

Tipe Soal: Vocabulary-in-Context Question (Pertanyaan ini menginginkan Anda
mengidentifikasi arti dari kata yang digunakan dalam passage)
Cara Jawab: Sesuaikan makna jawaban dengan konteks kalimat.
'Adequate' merupakan sinonim dari 'sufficient'.
14. According to the passage, which of the following was a possible motive for
the cultivation of plants in eastern North America?
(A) Lack of enough wild food sources
(B) The need to keep trees from growing close to settlements
(C) Provision of work for an increasing population
(D) Desire for the consistent availability of food
Kunci & Pembahasan:
Kunci Jawaban: (D) Desire for the consistent availability of food

Keyword: motive
--> there is little evidence that people lacked adequate wild food resources.
(Pilihan A)
--> Increasing predictability of food supplies may have been a motive. (Pilihan D)
Bisa ditemukan bahwa pilihan A telah dibantah dalam passage (there is little
evidence ....).
15. The phrase “rather than” in line 21 is closest in meaning to

(A) in addition to
(B) instead of
(C) as a replacement
(D) such as
Kunci & Pembahasan:
Kunci Jawaban: (B) instead of

'Rather than' merupakan sinonim dari 'instead of'.
16. The plant “sumpweed” is mentioned in line 25 in order to

(A) contrast a plant with high nutritional value with one with little nutritional
value
(B) explain the medicinal use of a plant
(C) clarify which plants grew better in places where trees were not cut down
(D) provide an example of a plant that was easy to domesticate
Kunci & Pembahasan:
Kunci Jawaban: (D) provide an example of a plant that was easy to domesticate

Keyword: sumpweed
--> By the end of the Archaic era, people in eastern North America had
domesticated certain native plants, including sunflowers; weeds called
goosefoot, sumpweed, or marsh elder; and squash or gourds of some kind.
'Including' menunjukkan sebuah contoh (example). Pilihan tepat ialah D.
17. The word “thrived” in line 26 is closest in meaning to

(A) stayed
(B) originated
(C) grew well
(D) died out
Kunci & Pembahasan:
Kunci Jawaban: (C) grew well

'Thrived' merupakan sinonim dari 'grew well''.
18. According to the passage, which of the following is true about all early
domesticated plants?
(A) They were varieties of weeds.
(B) They were moved from disturbed areas.
(C) They succeeded in areas with many trees.
(D) They failed to grow in trampled or damaged areas.
Kunci & Pembahasan:
Kunci Jawaban: (A) They were varieties of weeds.

Keyword: early domesticated plants
--> One archaeologist has pointed out that the early domesticated plants were all
weedy species that do well in open, disturbed habitats, the kind that would form
around human settlements where people cut down trees, trample the ground,
deposit trash, and dig holes.
19. According to the passage, it is thought that most of the people who began
cultivating plants were
(A) medical workers
(B) leaders of ceremonies
(C) women
(D) hunters
Kunci & Pembahasan:
Kunci Jawaban: (C) women
Keyword: people who began cultivating plants were
--> Women in the Archaic communities were probably the main experimenters
with cultivation, because ethnoarchaeological evidence tells us that women were
the main collectors of plant food and had detailed knowledge of plants.
'experimenters with cultivation' mewakili makna 'began cultivating plants'.
Many ants forage across the countryside in large numbers and undertake mass
migrations; these activities proceed because one ant lays a trail on the ground
for the others to follow. As a worker ant returns home after finding a source of
food, it marks the route by intermittently touching its stinger to the ground and
depositing a tiny amount of trail pheromone—a mixture of chemicals that
delivers diverse messages as the context changes. These trails incorporate no
directional information and may be followed by other ants in either direction.
Unlike some other messages, such as the one arising from a dead ant, a food trail
has to be kept secret from members of other species. It is not surprising then
that ant species use a wide variety of compounds as trail pheromones. Ants can
be extremely sensitive to these signals. Investigators working with the trail
pheromone of the leafcutter ant Atta texana calculated that one milligram of this
substance would suffice to lead a column of ants three times around Earth.
The vapor of the evaporating pheromone over the trail guides an ant along the
way, and the ant detects this signal with receptors in its antennae. A trail
pheromone will evaporate to furnish the highest concentration of vapor right
over the trail, in what is called a vapor space. In following the trail, the ant moves
to the right and left, oscillating from side to side across the line of the trail itself,
bringing first one and then the other antenna into the vapor space. As the ant
moves to the right, its left antenna arrives in the vapor space. The signal it
receives causes it to swing to the left, and the ant then pursues this new course
until its right antenna reaches the vapor space. It then swings back to the right,
and so weaves back and forth down the trail.
20. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The mass migration of ants
(B) How ants mark and follow a chemical trail
(C) Different species of ants around the world
(D) The information contained in pheromones
Kunci & Pembahasan:
Kunci Jawaban: (B) How ants mark and follow a chemical trail
Tipe Soal: Main Idea Question
Cara Jawab: Cukup lihat baris pertama setiap paragraf
Paragraf 1: Many ants forage across the countryside in large numbers and
undertake mass migrations; these activities proceed because one ant lays a trail
on the ground for the others to follow.
Paragraf 2: Unlike some other messages, such as the one arising from a dead ant,
a food trail has to be kept secret from members of other species.
Paragaf 3: The vapor of the evaporating pheromone over the trail guides an ant
along the way, and the ant detects this signal with receptors in its antennae.
Cara termudah untuk tahu, tanpa berpikir panjang: Lihat keyword (kata yang
terulang). Kita lihat terdapat "ants" dan "trail". Dari pilihan jawaban sangat jelas
pilihan jawaban yang paling sesuai (Pilihan B).
21. The word “forage” in line 1 is closest in meaning to

(A) look up
(B) walk toward
(C) revolve around
(D) search for food
Kunci & Pembahasan:
Kunci Jawaban: (D) search for food

Cara Jawab: Temukan sinonim dari kata yang dipertanyakan. Jika dalam pilihan
jawaban terdapat lebih dari 1 sinonim, sesuaikan makna jawaban dengan
konteks kalimat.
forage: to go from place to place searching, especially for food

Jadi, pilihan jawaban yg sesuai / sinonim ialah jawaban D.
22. The word “intermittently” in live 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) periodically
(B) incorrectly
(C) rapidly
(D) roughly
Kunci & Pembahasan:
Kunci Jawaban: (A) periodically

konteks kalimat.
intermittent: not happening regularly or continuously; stopping and starting

repeatedly or with periods in between
Jadi, pilihan jawaban yg sesuai / sinonim ialah jawaban A.
23. The phrase “the one” in line 8 refers to a single

(A) message
(B) dead ant
(C) food trail
(D) species
Kunci & Pembahasan:
24. According to the passage, why do ants use different compounds as trail
pheromones?
(A) To reduce their sensitivity to some chemicals
(B) To attract different types of ants
(C) To protect their trail from other species
(D) To indicate how far away the food is
Kunci & Pembahasan:
Kunci Jawaban: (C) To protect their trail from other species

Keyword: different compounds
Unlike some other messages, such as the one arising from a dead ant, a food trail
has to be kept secret from members of other species. It is not surprising then
that ant species use a wide variety of compounds as trail pheromones.
(Paragraph 2)
a wide variety = different (keyword)

has to be kept secret from members of other specie = to protect their trail from
other species (answer key)
25. The author mentions the trail pheromone of the leafcutter ant in line 11 to
point out
(A) how little pheromone is needed to mark a trail
(B) the different types of pheromones ants can produce
(C) a type of ant that is common in many parts of the world
(D) that certain ants can produce up to one milligram of pheromone
Kunci & Pembahasan:
Kunci Jawaban: (A) how little pheromone is needed to mark a trail
Keyword: the trail pheromone of the leafcutter ant
Investigators working with the trail pheromone of the leafcutter ant Atta texana
calculated that one milligram of this substance would suffice to lead a column of
ants three times around Earth. (line 11-13)
one milligram of this substance = how little pheromone

would suffice to lead a column of ants = is needed to mark a trail
26. According to the passage, how are ants guided by trail pheromones?
(A) They concentrate on the smell of food.
(B) They follow an ant who is familiar with the trail
(C) They avoid the vapor spaces by moving in a straight line.
(D) They sense the vapor through their antennae.
Kunci & Pembahasan:
Kunci Jawaban: (D) They sense the vapor through their antennae.
Keyword: guided
The vapor of the evaporating pheromone over the trail guides an ant along the
way, and the ant detects this signal with receptors in its antennae. (line 14-15)
the ant detects this signal with receptors in its antenna = They sense the vapor
through their antennae.
27. The word “furnish” in line 16 is closest in meaning to

(A) include
(B) provide
(C) cover
(D) select
Kunci & Pembahasan:
Kunci Jawaban: (B) provide

konteks kalimat.
furnish: to provide with furniture; to put furniture in

Sangat jelas, jawabannya ialah B (provide).
28. The word “oscillating “ in line 17 is closest in meaning to

(A) falling
(B) depositing
(C) swinging
(D) starting
Kunci & Pembahasan:
Kunci Jawaban: (C) swinging

konteks kalimat.
oscillating: to move repeatedly from one position to another

swing: to move easily and without interruption backwards and forwards or from
one side to the other, especially from a fixed point, or to cause something or
someone to do this
29. According to the passage, the highest amount of pheromone vapor is found
(A) in the receptors of the ants
(B) just above the trail
(C) in the source of food
(D) under the soil along the trail
Kunci & Pembahasan:
Kunci Jawaban: (B) just above the trail

Keyword: highest amount
A trail pheromone will evaporate to furnish the highest concentration of vapor

right over the trail, in what is called a vapor space. (line 16-17
the highest amount = the highest concentration (keyword)

over the trail = just above the trail (kunci jawaban)
The Quakers, also called the Society of Friends, are a Christian group that arose
in the mid-17th century in England and the American colonies. Quakerism came
into being in England on or around 1652, when George Fox began to organize
converts to preach his doctrine of "God in every man". The Friends were silent at
their meetings, waiting for the "inward light". They believed people should sense
God inside of themselves, without church buildings, appointed preachers,
written liturgy, or many of the outward trappings associated with Christianity.
The Society of Friends is part of the left wing of the 17th -century English Puritan
movement; in America, Quakers were persecuted by Puritans. Quakers
experienced much official persecuted by Puritans. Quakers experienced much
official persecution, including imprisonment and execution, for their belief that
worship of God should be very personal. The term "Quaker" may refer to their
penchant for "quaking" during religious services, or it may be a derogatory
reference to supposed Quaker cowardliness and belief in pacifism.
Quakerism in the American colonies existed mainly in the northeast. The

American Quaker population surged after 1682 when Quaker William Penn
founded the state of Pennsylvania as a haven for Quakers and a "holy
experiment" in religious toleration. Quakers were prominent and powerful in the
Pennsylvania state government in the period before the American Revolution.
During and after the Revolution, Friends concerned themselves with the plight of
Native Americans. They also worked with escaped slaves and for the abolition of
slavery. They continued to be known for their efforts at social reform.
13. In which of the following publications would this passage be most likely to
appear?
(A) an anthology of English literature
(B) an introductory American history book
(C) a book about Eastern religions
(D) a basic math textbook
Pembahasan Jawaban:
Cara menjawab soal seperti ini (menanyakn topik bacaan) ialah cukup dengan
membaca kalimat pertama setiap paragraf. Kadang juga kalimat terakhir dari
paragraf pertama dan kalimat pertama untuk paragraf selanjutnya.
14. The word 'their' in line 4 refers to:

(A) trappings
(B) preachers
(C) religious services
(D) the Friends
Pembahasan Jawaban:
Soal ini terkait 'pronoun referent' yang menanyakan ke noun yang mana sebuah
pronoun (kata ganti) menunjuk.
Untuk menjawab soal seperti ini, Anda mesti melihat kata-kata sebelum 'their'
yang berbentuk jamak.
--> The Friends were silent at their meetings, waiting for the "inward light".
Nampak bahwa hanya kata 'the friends' yang terletak sebelum 'their' sementara
pilihan lain terletak setelahnya.
15. The word 'persecuted' in line 10 in closest in meaning to:

(A) scrutinized
(B) lauded
(C) harassed
(D) believed
Pembahasan Jawaban:
scrutinized --> to examine something very carefully in order to discover
information
laud --> to praise
harass --> to continue to annoy or upset someone over a period of time
prosecute --> to treat someone unfairly or cruelly over a long period of time
because of their race, religion, or political beliefs or to annoy someone by
refusing to leave them alone
Dari bebarapa pengertian di atas kata yang paling sesuai dg makna 'persecuted'
ialah 'harassed'.
16. Where in the passage does the author give an example of Quaker
involvement in social issues?
(A) lines 3 - 4
(B) lines 9 - 10
(C) lines 16 - 17
(D) lines 19 - 20
Pembahasan Jawaban:
-> During and after the Revolution, Friends concerned themselves with the plight
of Native Americans. (lines 16 - 17)
Pertanyaan ini meminta Anda untuk menentukan di mana (baris ke berapa)
suatu informasi ditemukan atau dibahas.
Cara menjawab soal yg seperti ini ialah memahami terlebih dahulu ide pokok
yang ada dipertanyaan. Kemudian eliminasilah jawaban satu persatu.
Metode yang baik digunakan ialah 'skimming'. Temukan 'keyword' pada
pertanyaan dan carilah pada setiap baris (sesua dg pilihan jawaban).
17. Which of the following would be an example of "the outward trappings

associated with Christianity" referred to in lines 6 - 7?
(A) clergy
(B) silent, leaderless worship
(C) concern for social reform
(D) the doctrine of "God in every man"
Pembahasan Jawaban:
Soal ini sedikit mudah untuk ditemukan pada text (bacaan) karena keywordnya
'the outward trappings associated with Christianity' pada pertanyaan 100%
ditemukan pada bacaan.
--> They believed people should sense God inside of themselves, without church
buildings, appointed preachers, written liturgy, or many of the outward trappings
associated with Christianity.
church buildings, preachers, liturgy berhubungan dengan clergy.
18. It can be inferred from the passage that early Quakers experienced official
persecution because:
(A) they were known for "quaking" during religious services
(B) they helped found the state of Pennsylvania
(C) they came to America from England
(D) their religious beliefs were considered subversive
Pembahasan Jawaban:
Keyword pada pertanyaan ialah 'persecution'. dari teks bacaan dapat ditemukan
kalimat yg memuatnya.
--> 'Quakers experienced much official persecution, including imprisonment and
execution, for their belief that worship of God should be very personal. '
19. Why does the author mention 'execution' in line 11?

(A) It is an example of the persecution Quakers faced
(B) It is an outward trapping of Christianity
(C) This serves as an example of William Penn's policies
(D) Many religions were concerned with this issue
Pembahasan Jawaban:
--> Quakers experienced much official persecution, including imprisonment and
execution, for their belief that worship of God should be very personal.
including = termasuk
20. The paragraph after this passage would most likely be about:
(A) the decline of the Quaker population since World War I
(B) The similarities and differences between Quakers and Puritans
(C) Ways in which Quakers today show concern for others
(D) Social reforms enacted by Quakers during American Revolution
Pembahasan Jawaban:
Soal ini menanyakan topik apa yang akan menjadi pembahasan pada paragraf
selanjutnya. Anda mesti menarik kesimpulan secara tersirat (not directly stated).
Cara menjawab soal ini ialah dengan melihat bagian akhir dari kalimat akhir pada
paragraf terakhir.
--> They continued to be known for their efforts at social reform.
sesuai dengan 'Ways in which Quakers today show concern for others'
21. From the passage, it can be inferred that the Puritans were:
(A) Friends
(B) persecuted
(C) intolerant
(D) executed
Pembahasan Jawaban:
Keyword dari pertanyaan ialah 'Puritants'
--> Quakers were persecuted by Puritans. Quakers experienced much official
persecuted by Puritans.
Dari kalimat dari baccan yang memuat 'Puritants' tampak bahwa 'Puritants' tidak
punya toleransi yg baik (intolerant).
22. The word 'penchant' in the line 12 most nearly means:

(A) appreciation
(B) propensity
(C) disinclination
(D) proposition
Pembahasan Jawaban:
penchant --> a liking for, an enjoyment of, or a habit of doing something,
especially something that other people might not like
propensity --> a tendency towards a particular way of behaving, especially a bad
one
disinclination --> a feeling of not wanting to do something
23. Why did the American Quaker population surge after William Penn founded
Pennsylvania?
(A) Pennsylvania tolerated the Quaker religion
(B) Pennsylvania forbade religions other than Quakerism
(C) The Pennsylvania government tried to help escaped slaves
(D) Social reform was important to most Americans
Pembahasan Jawaban:
Keyword dari pertanyaan ialah 'Quaker population surge'
--> The American Quaker population surged after 1682 when Quaker William
Penn founded the state of Pennsylvania as a haven for Quakers and a "holy
experiment" in religious toleration.
Europe is the smallest of planet Jupiter's four largest moons and the second
moon out from Jupiter. Until 1979, it was just another astronomy textbook
statistic. Then came the close-up images obtained by the exploratory spacecraft
Voyager 2, and within days, Europe was transformed--in our perception, at
least--into one of the solar system's most intriguing worlds. The biggest initial
surprise was the almost total lack of detail, especially from far away. Even at
close range, the only visible features are thin, kinked brown lines resembling
cracks in an eggshell. And this analogy is not far off the mark.
The surface of Europe is almost pure water ice, but a nearly complete absence of
craters indicates that Europe's surface ice resembles Earth's Antarctic ice cap.
The eggshell analogy may be quite accurate since the ice could be as little as a
few kilometers thick--a tree shell around what is likely a subsurface liquid ocean
that, in turn, encases a rocky core. The interior of Europe has been kept warm
over the cons by tidal forces generated by the varying gravitational tugs of the
other big moons as they wheel around Jupiter. The tides on Europe pull and relax
in an endless cycle. The resulting internal heat keeps what would otherwise be
ice melted almost to the surface. The cracklike marks on Europe's icy face appear
to be fractures where water or slush oozes from below.
Soon after Voyager 2's encounter with Jupiter in 1979, when the best images of
Europe were obtained, researchers advanced the startling idea that Europe's
subsurface ocean might harbor life. Life processes could have begun when
Jupiter was releasing a vast store of internal heat. Jupiter's early heat was
produced by the compression of the material forming the giant planet. Just as
the Sun is far less radiant today than the primal Sun, so the internal heat
generated by Jupiter is minor compared to its former intensity. During this warm
phase, some 4.6 billion years ago, Europe's ocean may have been liquid right to
the surface, making it a crucible for life.

(A) The effect of the tides on Europe's interior
(B) Temperature variations on Jupiter's moons
(C) Discoveries leading to a theory about one of Jupiter's moons
(D) Techniques used by Voyager 2 to obtain close-up images
Pembahasan Jawaban
Skill: Main Idea Question (Pertanyaan Ide Pokok)
Cara menjawab ide pokok ialah dengan melihat kalimat pertama setiap paragraf.
2. The word "intriguing" in line 5 is closest in meaning to

(A) changing
(B) perfect
(C) visible
(D) fascinating
Pembahasan Jawaban
Skill: Vocabulary Question (Pertanyaan tentang pemahaman kosakata)
Cara menjawab soal kosakata ialah dengan menyesuaikan konteks makna
kalimat dari kosakata yang ditanyakan.
3. In line 7, the author mentions "cracks in an eggshell" in order to help readers

(A) visualize Europe as scientists saw it in the Voyager 2 images
(B) appreciate the extensive and detailed information available by viewing
Europe from far away
(C) understand the relationship of Europe to the solar system
(D) recognize the similarity of Europe to Jupiter's other moons
Pembahasan Jawaban
Cara menjawab soal seperti ini ialah dengan memahami kalimat di mana phrase
tersebut dan kalimat-kalimat sebelumnya.
Then came the close-up images obtained by the exploratory spacecraft Voyager
2, and within days, Europe was transformed--in our perception, at least--into one
of the solar system's most intriguing worlds. The biggest initial surprise was the
almost total lack of detail, especially from far away. Even at close range, the only
visible features are thin, kinked brown lines resembling cracks in an eggshell.
4. It can be inferred from the passage that astronomy textbooks prior to 1979
(A) provided many contradictory statistics about Europe
(B) considered Europe the most important of Jupiter's moons
(C) did not emphasize Europe because little information of interest was available
(D) did not mention Europe because it had not yet been discovered
Pembahasan Jawaban: Jawaban terdapat pada sebagian besar paragraf
pertama.
Europe is the smallest of planet Jupiter's four largest moons and the second
moon out from Jupiter. Until 1979, it was just another astronomy textbook
statistic. Then came the close-up images obtained by the exploratory spacecraft
Voyager 2, and within days, Europe was transformed--in our perception, at
least--into one of the solar system's most intriguing worlds. The biggest initial
surprise was the almost total lack of detail, especially from far away.
5. What does the author mean by stating in line 7 that "this analogy is not far off
the mark"?
(A) The definition is not precise.
(B) The discussion lacks necessary information.
(C) The differences are probably significant.
(D) The comparison is quite appropriate.
Pembahasan Jawaban: Pahami kalimat dari phrase dan kalimat-kalimat
sebelumnya.
Even at close range, the only visible features are thin, kinked brown lines
resembling cracks in an eggshell. And this analogy is not far off the mark.
6. It can be inferred from the passage that Europe and Antarctica have in
common which of the following?
(A) Both appear to have a surface with many craters.
(B) Both may have water beneath a thin, hard surface.
(C) Both have an ice cap that is melting rapidly.
(D) Both have areas encased by a rocky exterior.
Pembahasan Jawaban: complete absence (betul-betul tidak ada)
The surface of Europe is almost pure water ice, but a nearly complete absence of
craters indicates that Europe's surface ice resembles Earth's Antarctic ice cap.
7. The word "endless" in line 14 is closest in meaning to

(A) new
(B) final
(C) temporary
(D) continuous
Pembahasan Jawaban: endless (tak berujung) = continuous (berkelanjutan)
8. According to the passage, what is the effect of Jupiter's other large moons on
Europe?
(A) They prevent Europe's subsurface waters from freezing.
(B) They prevent tides that could damage Europe's surface.
(C) They produce the very hard layer of ice that characterizes Europe.
(D) They assure that the gravitational pull on Europe is maintained at a steady
level.
Pembahasan Jawaban: Jawaban terdapat pada kalimat Jupiter's early heat was
produced by the compression of the material forming the giant planet.
9 According to the passage, what is believed to cause the thin lines seen on
Europa’s surface?
(A) A long period of extremely high tides
(B) Water breaking through from beneath the surface ice
(C) The continuous pressure of slush on top of the ice
(D) Heat generated by the hot rocky core
Next to its sheer size, the profound isolation of its many small islands is the most
distinctive feature of the Pacific Ocean. Over 25,000 islands are scattered across
the surface of the Pacific, more than in all the other oceans combined, but their
land area adds up to little more than 125,000 square kilometers, about the size
of New York State, and their inhabitants total less than two million people, about
a quarter of the number that live in New York City. The oceanic islands of the
Pacific are some of the most isolated places on Earth. Many are uninhabitable, by
virtue of their small size and particular characteristics, but even the most favored
are very isolated fragments of land, strictly circumscribed by the ocean, strictly
limited in terms of the numbers of people they can support. This basic fact of
environmental circumstance has been the most pervasive influence in
determining the social arrangements, and cultural practices of the people that
settled in the Pacific Islands.
The peopling of the Pacific Islands has been described as the greatest feat of
maritime colonization in human history. Contrary to the conclusions of Thor
Heyerdahl's Kon-Tiki expedition of 1946, the evidence of plant dispersal,
archaeology, linguistics, and genetics now shows quite conclusively that the
Pacific Islands were not populated from tile east by South Americans who drifted
on balsa-wood rafts and the prevailing wind and current, but from the west, by
groups from mainland Asia who gradually spread from island to island out into
the Pacific. The process began over 40,000 years ago and reached Easter Island
the most isolated place on Earth-about 1.500 years ago. It ended about 1,000
years ago, when people first settled in Hawaii and New Zealand.
Simply surviving those ocean crossings of indeterminate length, in open canoes,

to arrive on the shores of uninhabited and hitherto unknown islands, was a
formidable achievement. But having found an oasis of land in a watery
wilderness, crossed its reef, and landed, on its shores, the survivors then faced a
series of pressing problems for which solutions had to be found quickly if the
small group was to become a vigorous, self- sustaining island population.
32. The word "scattered" in line 2 is closest in meaning toD

(A) widely known
(B) usually estimated
(C) rarely inhabited
(D) irregularly distributed
33. Why does the author mention New population of the Pacific York City in line
5?
(A) To emphasize how small the Islands is
(B) To emphasize the extreme distances between the Pacific Islands and other
regions
(C) To note the economic ties of the Pacific Islands to other regions
(D) To note the lack of urban environments on the Pacific Islands
34.The phrase "by virtue of" in line 6 is closest in meaning to

(A) regarding
(B) because of
(C) taking advantage of
(D) in place of
35. The word "circumscribed" in line 7 is closest in meaning to

(A) located
(B) flooded
(C) restricted
(D) pushed
36. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as evidence used to determine the
origins of Pacific Islands people?
(A) Oral histories
(B) Plant dispersal
(C) Linguistics
(D) Archaeology
37. According to the-passage, where did the original inhabitants of the Pacific
Islands come from?
(A) South America
(B) Hawaii
(C) New Zealand
(D) Asia
38.The word "It” in line 16 refers to

(A) Pacific
(B) process
(C) isolated place
(D) Earth
39. The word "indeterminate" in line 18 is closest in meaning to

(A) undecided
(B) uncertain
(C) unacceptable
(D) increasing
40. The passage is most likely followed by a discussion of

(A) how settlers adapted to newly discovered Pacific Ocean Islands
(B) the design and construction of canoes used in the Pacific Islands
(C) the characteristics sties of reefs in the Pacific Islands
(D) how early explorers of the Pacific Ocean found their way from island to island
The languages spoken by early Europeans are still shrouded in mystery. There is
no linguistic continuity between the languages of Old Europe (a term sometimes
used for Europe between 7000 and 3000 B.C.) and the languages of the modem
world, and we cannot yet translate the Old European script, Scholars have
deciphered other ancient languages, such as Sumerian, Akkadian, and
Babylonian, which used the cuneiform script, because of the fortuitous discovery
of bilingual inscriptions, When cuneiform tablets were first discovered in the
eighteenth century, scholars could not decipher them. Then inscriptions found in
baa at the end of the eighteenth century provided a link: these inscriptions were
written in cuneiform and in two other ancient languages, Old Persian and New
Elamite--languages that had already been deciphered. It took several decades,
but scholars eventually translated the ancient cuneiform script via the more
familiar Old Persian language.
Similarly, the hieroglyphic writing of the Egyptians remained a mystery until

French troops unearthed the famous Rosetta stone in the late eighteenth
century. The stone carried the same message written in ancient Greek, Egyptian
hieroglyphs, and Egyptian hieratic, a simplified form of hieroglyphs. The Rosetta
stone thwarted scholars' efforts for several decades until the early nineteenth
century when several key hieroglyphic phrases were decoded using the Greek
inscriptions. Unfortunately, we have no Old European Rosetta stone to chart
correspondences between Old European script and the languages that replaced
it.
Tim incursions of Indo-European tribes into Old Europe from the late fifth to the
early third millennia B.C. caused a linguistic and cultural discontinuity. These
incursions disrupted the Old European sedentary farming lifestyle that had
existed for 3,000 years As the Indo-Europeans encroached on Old Europe from
the east, the continent underwent upheavals. These severely affected the
Balkans, where the Old European cultures abundantly employed script. The Old
European way of life deteriorated rapidly, although pockets of Old European
culture remained for several millennia, ~ new peoples spoke completely different
languages belonging to the Indo-European linguistic family. The Old European
language or languages, and the script used to write them, declined and
eventually vanished.

(A) Reasons for the failure to understand the written records of Old European
culture
(B) Influences on the development of Old European script
(C) Similarities between Old European script and other ancient writing systems
(D) Events leading to the discovery of Old European script
23. According to the passage, New Elamite is
(A) a language that was written in the cuneiform script
(B) a modem language that came from Old Persian
(C) one of the languages spoken by the Old Europeans
(D) a language that was understood by the late eighteenth century
24. According to the passage, scholarswere able to decipher cuneiform script

with the help of
(A) the Sumerian, Akkadian, and Babylonian languages
(B) Old Persian
(C) tablets written in Old European
(D) a language spoken in eighteenth century Iran
25. The word “fortuitous” in line 5 is closet in meaning to

(A) important
(B) sudden
(C) early
(D) lucky
26. The word "them" in line 6 refers to

(A) Sumerian, Akkadian, and Babylonian
(B) bilingual inscriptions
(C) cuneiform tablets
(D) scholars
27. When does the passage suggest that ancient Egyptian hieroglypttic script was
finally deciphered?
(A) At around the same time as cuneiform script was deciphered
(B) Shortly before the Rosetta stone was unearthed
(C) As soon as additional bilingual inscriptions became available to scholars
(D) A few decades after the hieratic script was decoded
28. According to the passage, which of the following is true of the Rosetta stone?
(A) It was found by scholars trying to decode ancient languages.
(B) It contains two versions of hieroglyphic script.
(C) Several of its inscriptions were decoded within a few months of its discovery.
(D) Most of its inscriptions have still not been decoded.
29. The word "thwarted" in line 14 is closest in meaning to

(A) continued
(B) influenced
(C) encouraged
(D) frustrated
30. According to the passage, Indo-European incursions caused Old European
populations to
(A) separate into different tribes
(B) move eastward
(C) change their ways of living obtaining food
(D) start recording historical events in Writing
31. The author mentions the Balkans in the passage in order to explain why
(A) Indo-European languages were slow to spread in Old Europe
(B) the inhabitants of Old Europe were not able to prevent Indo-European
incursions
(C) the use of the Old European script declined
(D) the Old European culture survived for a time after the Indo-European
incursions
The changing profile of a city in the United States is apparent in the shifting
definitions used by the United States Bureau of the Census. In 1870 the census
officially distinguished the nation's “urban” from its “rural” population for the
first time. “Urban population” was defined as persons living in towns of 8,000
inhabitants or more. But after 1900 it meant persons living in incorporated
places having 2,500 or more inhabitants.
Then, in 1950 the Census Bureau radically changed its definition of “urban” to
take account of the new vagueness of city boundaries. In addition to persons
living in incorporated units of 2,500 or more, the census now included those who
lived in unincorporated units of that size, and also all persons living in the
densely settled urban fringe, including both incorporated and unincorporated
areas located around cities of 50,000 inhabitants or more. Each such unit,
conceived as an integrated economic and social unit with a large population
nucleus, was named a Standard Metropolitan Statistical Area (SMSA).
Each SMSA would contain at least (a) one central city with 50,000 inhabitants or
more or (b) two cities having shared boundaries and constituting, for general
economic and social purposes, a single community with a combined population
of at least 50,000, the smaller of which must have a population of at least
15,000. Such an area included the county in which the central city is located, and
adjacent counties that are found to be metropolitan in character and
economically and socially integrated with the county of the central city. By 1970,
about two-thirds of the population of the United States was living in these
urbanized areas, and of that figure more than half were living outside the central
cities.
While the Census Bureau and the United States government used the term SMSA
(by 1969 there were 233 of them), social scientists were also using new terms to
describe the elusive, vaguely defined areas reaching out from what used to be
simple “towns” and “cities”. A host of terms came into use : “metropolitan
regions,” “polynucleated population groups,” “conurbations,” “metropolitan
clusters,” “megalopolises,” and so on.

(A) How cities in the United States began and developed
(B) Solutions to overcrowding in cities
(C) The changing definition of an urban area
(D) How the United States Census Bureau conducts a census
40. According to the passage, the population of the United States was first
classified as rural or urban in
(A) 1870
(B) 1900
(C) 1950
(D) 1970
41. The word “distinguished”in line 3 is closest in meaning to

(A) differentiated
(B) removed
(C) honored
(D) protected
42. Prior to 1900, how many inhabitants would a town have to have before being
defined as urban?
(A) 2,500
(B) 8,000
(C) 15,000
(D) 50,000
43. According to the passage, why did the Census Bureau revise the definition of
urban in 1950?
(A) City borders had become less distinct.
(B) Cities had undergone radical social change.
(C) Elected officials could not agree on an acceptable definition.
(D) New businesses had relocated to larger cities.
44. The word “those”in line 9 refers to

(A) boundaries
(B) persons
(C) units
(D) areas
45. The word “constituting” in line 16 is closest in meaning to

(A) located near
(B) determined by
(C) calling for
(D) making up
46. The word “which ” in line 18 refers to a smaller

(A) population
(B) city
(C) character
(D) figure
47. Which of the following is NOT true of an SMSA?

(A) It has a population of at least 50,000
(B) It can include a city's outlying regions.
(C) It can include unincorporated regions.
(D) It consists of at least two cities.
48. By 1970, what proportion of the population in the United States did NOT live
in an SMSA?
(A) 3/4
(B) 2/3
(C) 1/2
(D) 1/3
49. The Census Bureau first used the term “SMSA” in

(A) 1900
(B) 1950
(C) 1969
(D) 1970
50. Where in the passage does the author mention names used by social
scientists for an urban area?
(A) Lines 4-5
(B) Line 7-8
(C) Line 21-23
(D) Line 27-29
The ability of falling cats to right themselves in midair and land on their feet has
been a source of wonder for ages. Biologists long regarded it as an example of
adaptation by natural selection, but for physicists it bordered on the miraculous.
Newton's laws of motion assume that the total amount of spin of a body cannot
change unless an external torque speeds it up or slows it down. If a cat has no
spin when it is released and experiences no external torque, it ought not to be
able to twist around as it falls.
In the speed of its execution, the righting of a tumbling cat resembles a

magician's trick. The gyrations of the cat in midair are too fast for the human eye
to follow, so the process is obscured. Either the eye must be speeded up, or the
cat's fall slowed down for the phenomenon to be observed. A century ago the
former was accomplished by means of high-speed photography using equipment
now available in any pharmacy. But in the nineteenth century the capture on film
of a falling cat constituted a scientific experiment.
The experiment was described in a paper presented to the Paris Academy in

1894. Two sequences of twenty photographs each, one from the side and one
from behind, show a white cat in the act of righting itself. Grainy and quaint
though they are, the photos show that the cat was dropped upside down, with
no initial spin, and still landed on its feet. Careful analysis of the photos reveals
the secret ; As the cat rotates the front of its body clockwise, the rear and tail
twist counterclockwise, so that the total spin remains zero, in perfect accord with
Newton's laws. Halfway down, the cat pulls in its legs before reversing its twist
and then extends them again, with the desired end result. The explanation was
that while no body can acquire spin without torque, a flexible one can readily
change its orientation, or phase. Cats know this instinctively, but scientists could
not be sure how it happened until they increased the speed of their perceptions
a thousandfold.

(A) The explanation of an interesting phenomenon
(B) Miracles in modern science
(C) Procedures in scientific investigation
(D) The differences between biology and physics
32. The word “process”in line 10 refers to

(A) the righting of a tumbling cat
(B) the cat's fall slowed down
(C) high-speed photography
(D) a scientific experiment
33. Why are the photographs mentioned in line 16 referred to as an
“experiment”?
(A) The photographs were not very clear.
(B) The purpose of the photographs was to explain the process.
(C) The photographer used inferior equipment.
(D) The photographer thought the cat might be injured.
34. Which of the following can be inferred about high-speed photography in the
late 1800's ?
(A) It was a relatively new technology.
(B) The necessary equipment was easy to obtain.
(C) The resulting photographs are difficult to interpret.
(D) It was not fast enough to provide new information.
35. The word “rotates” in line 19 is closest in meaning to

(A) drops
(B) turns
(C) controls
(D) touches
36. According to the passage, a cat is able to right itself in midair because it is
(A) frightened
(B) small
(C) intelligent
(D) flexible
37. The word “readily”in line 24 is closest in meaning to

(A) only
(B) easily
(C) slowly
(D) certainly
38. How did scientists increase “the speed of their perceptions a

thousandfold”(lines 25-26)?
(A) By analyzing photographs
(B) By observing a white cat in a dark room
(C) By dropping a cat from a greater height
(D) By studying Newton's laws of motion
Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods
only in season. Drying, smoking, and salting could preserve meat for a short time,
but the availability of fresh meat, like that of fresh milk, was very limited; there
was no way to prevent spoilage. But in 1810 a French inventor named Nicolas
Appert developed the cooking-and-sealing process of canning. And in the 1850's
an American named Gail Borden developed a means of condensing and
preserving milk. Canned goods and condensed milk became more common
during the 1860's, but supplies remained low because cans had to be made by
hand. By 1880, however, inventors had fashioned stamping and soldering
machines that mass-produced cans from tinplate. Suddenly all kinds of food
could be preserved and bought at all times of the year.
Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to
vary their daily diets. Growing urban populations created demand that
encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers to raise more produce. Railroad
refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to ship perishables great
distances and to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the 1890's, northern
city dwellers could enjoy southern and western strawberries, grapes, and
tomatoes, previously available for a month at most, for up to six months of the
year. In addition, increased use of iceboxes enabled families to store perishables.
An easy means of producing ice commercially had been invented in the 1870's,
and by 1900 the nation had more than two thousand commercial ice plants,
most of which made home deliveries. The icebox became a fixture in most
homes and remained so until the mechanized refrigerator replaced it in the
1920's and 1930's.
Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat
mainly foods that were heavy in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone
could afford meat. Nevertheless, many families could take advantage of
previously unavailable fruits, vegetables, and dairy products to achieve more
varied fare.

(A) Causes of food spoilage
(B) Commercial production of ice
(C) Inventions that led to changes in the American diet
(D) Population movements in the nineteenth century
21. The phrase “in season” in line 2 refers to

(A) a kind of weather
(B) a particular time of year
(C) an official schedule
(D) a method of flavoring food
22. The word “prevent” in line 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) estimate
(B) avoid
(C) correct
(D) confine
23. During the 1860's, canned food products were

(A) unavailable in rural areas
(B) shipped in refrigerator cars
(C) available in limited quantities
(D) a staple part of the American diet
24. It can be inferred that railroad refrigerator cars came into use
(A) before 1860
(B) before 1890
(C) after 1900
(D) after 1920
25. The word “them ” in line 14 refers to

(A) refrigerator cars
(B) perishables
(C) growers
(D) distances
26. The word “fixture” in line 20 is closest in meaning to

(A) luxury item
(B) substance
(C) commonplace object
(D) mechanical device
27. The author implies that in the 1920's and 1930's home deliveries of ice
(A) decreased in number
(B) were on an irregular schedule
(C) increased in cost
(D) occurred only in the summer
28. The word “Nevertheless” in line 24 is closest in meaning to

(A) therefore
(B) because
(C) occasionally
(D) however
29. Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the
passage?
(A) Drying
(B) Canning
(C) Cold storage
(D) Chemical additives
30. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?

(A) Tin cans and iceboxes helped to make many foods more widely available.
(B) Commercial ice factories were developed by railroad owners.
(C) Most farmers in the United States raised only fruits and vegetables.
(D) People who lived in cities demanded home delivery of foods.
With Robert Laurent and William Zorach, direct carving enters into the story of
modern sculpture in the United States. Direct carving ― in which the sculptors
themselves carve stone or wood with mallet and chisel ― must be recognized as
something more than just a technique. Implicit in it is an aesthetic principle as
well: that the medium has certain qualities of beauty and expressiveness with
which sculptors must bring their own aesthetic sensibilities into harmony. For
example, sometimes the shape or veining in a piece of stone or wood suggests,
perhaps even dictates, not only the ultimate form, but even the subject matter.
The technique of direct carving was a break with the nineteenth-century

tradition in which the making of a clay model was considered the creative act
and the work was then turned over to studio assistants to be cast in plaster or
bronze or carved in marble. Neoclassical sculptors seldom held a mallet or chisel
in their own hands, readily conceding that the assistants they employed were far
better than they were at carving the finished marble.
With the turn-of-the-century Crafts movement and the discovery of

nontraditional sources of inspiration, such as wooden African figures and masks,
there arose a new urge for hands-on, personal execution of art and an
interaction with the medium. Even as early as the 1880's and 1890's,
nonconformist European artists were attempting direct carving. By the second
decade of the twentieth century, Americans ― Laurent and Zorach most notably
― had adopted it as their primary means of working.
Born in France, Robert Laurent(1890-1970)was a prodigy who received his

education in the United States. In 1905 he was sent to Paris as an apprentice to
an art dealer, and in the years that followed he witnessed the birth of Cubism,
discovered primitive art, and learned the techniques of woodcarving from a
frame maker.
Back in New York City by 1910, Laurent began carving pieces such as The
Priestess, which reveals his fascination with African, pre-Columbian, and South
Pacific art. Taking a walnut plank, the sculptor carved the expressive, stylized
design. It is one of the earliest examples of direct carving in American sculpture.
The plank's form dictated the rigidly frontal view and the low relief. Even its
irregular shape must have appealed to Laurent as a break with a long-standing
tradition that required a sculptor to work within a perfect rectangle or square.
1. The word “medium”in line 5 could be used to refer to

(A) stone or wood
(B) mallet and chisel
(C) technique
(D) principle
2. What is one of the fundamental principles of direct carving?

(A) A sculptor must work with talented assistants.
(B) The subject of a sculpture should be derived from classical stories.
(C) The material is an important element in a sculpture.
(D) Designing a sculpture is a more creative activity than carving it.
3. The word “dictates” in line 8 is closest in meaning to

(A) reads aloud
(B) determines
(C) includes
(D) records
4. How does direct carving differ from the nineteenth-century tradition of

sculpture?
(A) Sculptors are personally involved in the carving of a piece.
(B) Sculptors find their inspiration in neoclassical sources.
(C) Sculptors have replaced the mallet and chisel with other tools.
(D) Sculptors receive more formal training.
5.The word “witnessed” in line 23 is closest in meaning to

(A) influenced
(B) studied
(C) validated
(D) observed
6. Where did Robert Laurent learn to carve?

(A) New York
(B) Africa
(C) The South Pacific
(D) Paris
7. The phrase “a break with ”in line 30 is closest in meaning to

(A) a destruction of
(B) a departure from
(C) a collapse of
(D) a solution to
8. The piece titled The Priestess has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT
(A) The design is stylized.
(B) It is made of marble.
(C) The carving is not deep.
(D) It depicts the front of a person.
A distinctively American architecture began with Frank Lloyd Wright, who had
taken to heart the admonition that form should follow function, and who
thought of buildings not as separate architectural entities but as parts of an
organic whole that included the land, the community, and the society. In a very
real way the houses of colonial New England and some of the southern
plantations had been functional, but Wright was the first architect to make
functionalism the authoritative principle for public as well as for domestic
buildings. As early as 1906 he built the Unity Temple in Oak Park, Illinois, the first
of those churches that did so much to revolutionize ecclesiastical architecture in
the United States. Thereafter he turned his genius to such miscellaneous
structures as houses, schools, office buildings, and factories, among them the
famous Larkin Building in Buffalo, New York, and the Johnson Wax Company
Building in Racine, Wisconsin.

(A) The architecture of public buildings
(B) An architectural pioneer
(C) New England architecture
(D) principles of architecture
2. The phrase “taken to heart” in lines 1-2 is closest in meaning to which of the
following?
(A) Taken seriously
(B) Criticized
(C) Memorized
(D) Taken offence
3. The word “admonition” in line 2 is closest in meaning to

(A) monition
(B) support
(C) discussion
(D) consideration
4. The word “entities” in line 3 is closest in meaning to
(A) principles
(B) existences
(C) subtractions
(D) properties
5. In what way did Wright's public buildings differ from most of those built by
earlier architects?
(A) They were built on a larger scale.
(B) Their materials came from the southern United States.
(C) They looked more like private homes.
(D) Their designs were based on how they would be used.
6. The author mentions the Unity Temple because it

(A) was Wright's first building
(B) influenced the architecture of subsequent churches
(C) demonstrated traditional ecclesiastical architecture
(D) was the largest church Wright ever designed
7. Which of the following statements best reflects one of Frank Lloyd Wright's
architectural principles?
(A) Beautiful design is more important than utility.
(B) Ecclesiastical architecture should be derived from traditional designs.
(C) A building should fit into its surroundings.
(D) The architecture of public buildings does not need to be revolutionary.
8. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a type of structure Frank Lloyd

Wright made ?
(A) houses
(B) factories
(C) southern plantations
(D) churches
Kunci Jawaban
1. B 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. D 6. B 7. C 8. C
Lichens, probably the hardiest of all plants, live where virtually nothing else
can---not just on rugged mountain peaks but also on sunbaked desert rocks.
They are usually the first life to appear on a mountainside that has been scraped
bare by an avalanche. Unlike other members of the plant kingdom, lichens are
actually a partnership between two plants. The framework of a lichen is usually a
network of minute hairlike fungus that anchors the plant. The other component
is an alga (similar to the green film of plant life that grows on stagnant pools)
that is distributed throughout the fungus. Being green plants, algae are capable
of photosynthesis--that is, using energy from the Sun to manufacture their own
food. The fungi are believed to supply water, minerals, and physical support to
the partnership.
Lichens are famous for their ability to survive ~ water shortage. When water is
scarce (as is often the case on a mountain), lichens may become dormant and
remain in that condition for prolonged periods of time. Some lichens can even
grow where there is no rain at all, surviving on only occasional dew--the moisture
that condenses on the surface of the plants at night. And unlike most other
plants, lichens are little affected by the strong ultraviolet rays in the mountains.
Lichens use little energy, for they grow slowly. Some grow so slowly and are so
old that they are called "time stains." You may find lichens that are centuries old;
certain of these lichen colonies have been established for an estimated 2,000
years. For decades, scientists wondered how the offspring of an alga and a
fungus got together to form a new lichen, it seemed unlikely that they would just
happen to encounter one another. It was finally discovered that in many cases
the two partners have never been separated. Stalklike "buds" that form on
certain lichens are broken off by the wind or by animals; these toll or are blown
to a new location
1. Which of the following questions does the passage answer?

(A) Where can the oldest lichen be found?
(B) How long does it take for lichens to establish themselves?
(C) How large can lichens he?
(D) Where do lichens usually occur?
Kunci Jawaban: (D) Where do lichens usually occur?
Cara Jawab: Cukup lihat baris pertama setiap paragraf (juga biasa di kalimat
terakhir paragraf pertama)
-->
Paragraf 1: Lichens live where virtually nothing else can
Paragraf 2: Lichens are famous for their ability to survive
Paragraf 3: Lichens use little energy
2. The word "hardiest" in line 1 is closest in meaning to

(A) most unusual
(B) most basic
(C) most abundant
(D) most vigorous
Kunci Jawaban: (D) most vigorous
Tipe Soal: Vocabulary in Context Question (Pertanyaan ini menginginkan Anda
Cara Jawab: (1)Temukan sinonim dari kata yang dipertanyakan; (2) Jika dalam
pilihan jawaban terdapat lebih dari 1 sinonim, sesuaikan makna jawaban dengan
konteks kalimat
-> hardiest = most vigorous = strongest
3. The word "framework" in line 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) structure
(B) fragment
(C) condition
(D)environment
Kunci Jawaban: (A) structure
konteks kalimat
-> framework = structure
4, The author mentions "the green film of plant life that grows on stagnant
pools" (lines 5-6) in order to explain
(A) how the sun affects lichens
(B) why plants depend on water
(C) where fungi become algae
(D) what algae are
Kunci Jawaban: (D) what algae are
Tipe soal: Factual Information Question (learner diminta u/ mengidentifikasi
informasi spesifik yg secara explicit ditampilkan dalam passage)
-->
he other component is an alga (similar to the green film of plant life that grows
on stagnant pools) that is distributed throughout the fungus.
5. It can be inferred from the passage that lichens use less energy and grow more
slowly when
(A) the environment is polluted
(B) they are exposed to ultraviolet rays
(C) they are very old
(D) the supply of water is inadequate
Kunci Jawaban: (D) the supply of water is inadequate
Tipe Soal: Inference Question (learner diminta u/ mengidentifikasi informasi
spesifik yg TIDAK secara explicit ditampilkan dalam passage)
Cara Jawab: (1) Jika sebuah effect dinyatakan dl passage, maka yg diujikan ialah
cause. (2) Jika sebuah comparison dl passage, pertanyaan yg diujikan basis of the
comparison. (3) Jika deskripsi dari new phenomenon, yg diujikan karakteristik
dari old phenomenon.
-->
Lichens are famous for their ability to survive ~ water shortage. When water is
scarce (as is often the case on a mountain), lichens may become dormant and
remain in that condition for prolonged periods of time.
6. Which of the following term is defined in the passage?

(A) "anchors" (line 5)
(B) "stagnant" (line 6)
(C) "dew" (line 11)
(D) "ultraviolet" (line 13)
--> dew--the moisture that condenses on the surface of the plants at night
7. The word "prolonged" in line 10 is closest in meaning to

(A) precise
(B) extended
(C) approximate
(D) regular
Kunci Jawaban: (B) extended
konteks kalimat
-> prolonged = extended = panjang (lama)
8. All of the following are mentioned in the discussion of lichens EXCEPT

(A) They are capable of producing their own food.
(B) They require large amounts of minerals to prosper.
(C) They are a union of two separate plants.
(D) They can live thousands of years.
Kunci Jawaban: (B) They require large amounts of minerals lo prosper.
-->
(paragraph 1) --> ... lichens are actually a partnership between two plants. The
framework of a lichen is usually a network of minute hairlike fungus that anchors
the plant. The other component is an alga (similar to the green film of plant life
that grows on stagnant pools) that is distributed throughout the fungus. Being
green plants, algae are capable of photosynthesis--that is, using energy from the
Sun to manufacture their own food. The fungi are believed to supply water,
minerals, and physical support to the partnership.
(paragraph 2) --> Some lichens can even grow where there is no rain at all,
surviving on only occasional dew--the moisture that condenses on the surface of
the plants at night. And unlike most other plants, lichens are little affected by the
strong ultraviolet rays in the mountains.
(Paragrah 3) You may find lichens that are centuries old;
9. What does the phrase "lichen colonies (line 15) suggest?

(A) Nothing but lichens live in some locations.
(B) Many lichens live together in one area.
(C) Lichens displace the plants that surround them.
(D)Certain groups of lichens have never been separated.
Kunci Jawaban: (B) Many lichens live together in one area.
konteks kalimat
-> colony = a group of animals, insects or plants of the same type that live
together
10. The word "encounter" in line 17 is closest in meaning to

(A) lose
(B) support
(C) meet
(D) create
Kunci Jawaban: (B) Many lichens live together in one area.
konteks kalimat
-> encounter = meet = bertemu
11. The word "these" in line 19 refers to

(A) partners
(B) buds
(C) lichens
(D) animals
Kunci Jawaban: (B) buds
mengidentifikasi noun yang diganti menjadi sebuah pronoun / siapa atau apa
yang dirujuk oleh kata ganti tertentu)
Cara Jawab: Idetifikasi pronoun (kata ganti) -letak jawabannya sebelum pronoun.
-->
Stalklike "buds" that form on certain lichens are broken off by the wind or by
animals; these toll or are blown to a new location
After 1785, the production of children's books in the United States increased but
remained largely reprints of British books, often those published by John
Newbery, the first publisher to produce books aimed primarily at diverting a child
audience. Ultimately, however, it was not the cheerful, commercial-minded
Newbery, but Anglo-Irish author Maria Edgeworth who had the strongest
influence on this period of American children's literature. The eighteenth century
had seen a gradual shift away from the spiritual intensity of earlier American
religious writings for children, toward a more generalized moralism. Newbery
notwithstanding, Americans still looked on children's books as vehicles for
instruction, not amusement, though they would accept a moderate amount of
fictional entertainment for the sake of more successful instruction. As the
children's book market expanded, then, what both public and publishers wanted
was the kind of fiction Maria Edgeworth wrote: stories interesting enough to
attract children and morally instructive enough to allay adult distrust of fiction.
American reaction against imported books for children set in after the War of
1812 with the British. A wave of nationalism permeated everything, and the self-
conscious new nation found foreign writings (particularly those from the British
monarchy) unsuitable for the children of a democratic republic, a slate of self-
governing, equal citizens. Publishers of children's books began to encourage
American writers to write for American children. When they responded, the
pattern established by Maria Edgeworth was at hand, attractive to most of them
for both its rationalism and its high moral tone. Early in the 1820's, stories of
willful children learning to obey, of careless children learning to take care, of
selfish children learning to "tire for others," started to flow from American
presses, successfully achieving Edgeworth's tone, though rarely her lively style.
Imitative as they were, these early American stories were quite distinguishable
from their British counterparts. Few servants appeared in them, and if class
distinctions had by no means disappeared, there was much democratic
insistence on the worthiness of every level of birth and work. The characters of
children in this fiction were serious, conscientious, self-reflective, and
independent-testimony to the continuing influence of the earlier American
moralistic tradition in children's books.
(A) The career of Maria Edgeworth as an author of children's books
(B) The development of children's literature in the United States
(C) Successful publishers of children's books in Britain and North America
(D) Basic differences between British and American
Kunci & Pembahasan:
Kunci Jawaban: (B) The development of children's literature in the United States

Cara Jawab: Cukup lihat baris pertama setiap paragraf
-->
Paragraf 1: After 1785, the production of children's books in the Untied States
increased but remained largely reprints of British books ....
Paragraf 2: American reaction against imported books for children set in after the
War of 1812 with the British.
2. The publisher John Newbery is principally known for which of the following
reasons?
(A) He produced and sold books written by Maria Edgeworth.
(B) He had more influence on children American children's literature than any
other publisher
(C) He published books aimed at amusing children rather than instructing them.
(D) He was commercially minded and cheerful.
Kunci & Pembahasan:
Kunci Jawaban: (D) He was commercially minded and cheerful.

dinyatakan pada pertanyaan -keyword: John Newbery is principally known
-->
1. ... often those published by John Newbery, the first publisher to produce
books aimed primarily at diverting a child audience.
2. it was not the cheerful, commercial-minded Newbery, but Anglo-Irish author
Maria Edgeworth who had the strongest influence on this period of American
children's literature.
3. The word "notwithstanding" in line 8 is closest in meaning to

(A) in spite of
(B) in addition to
(C) as a result of
(D) as a part of
Kunci & Pembahasan:
(A) in spite of
konteks kalimat
--> notwithstanding = in spite of = despite (walaupun ->kontrast)
4. The word "they" in line 9 refers to

(A) children
(B) Americans
(C) books
(D) vehicles
Kunci & Pembahasan:
Kunci Jawaban: (B) Americans

mengidentifikasi noun yang diganti menjadi sebuah pronoun / siapa atau apa
yang dirujuk oleh kata ganti tertentu)
Cara Jawab: Idetifikasi pronoun (kata ganti) -letak jawabannya sebelum pronoun.
-->
Newbery notwithstanding, Americans still looked on children's books as vehicles
for instruction, not amusement, though they would accept a moderate amount
of fictional entertainment for the sake of more successful instruction.
5. The word "allay" in line 11 is closest in meaning to

(A) clarify
(B) attack
(C) reduce
(D) confirm
Kunci & Pembahasan:
Kunci Jawaban: (C) reduce

konteks kalimat
--> allay = reduce (mengurangi)
6. It can be inferred from the passage that American children's books sold before
1785 were almost always
(A) written by Maria Edgeworth
(B) attractive and interesting to children
(C) written by American authors
(D) intended only for religious and moral instruction
Kunci & Pembahasan:
Kunci Jawaban: (D) intended only for religious and moral instruction
Tipe Soal: Inference Question (learner diminta u/ mengidentifikasi informasi
spesifik yg TIDAK secara explicit ditampilkan dalam passage)
Cara Jawab: (1) Jika sebuah effect dinyatakan dl passage, maka yg diujikan ialah
cause. (2) Jika sebuah comparison dl passage, pertanyaan yg diujikan basis of the
comparison. (3) Jika deskripsi dari new phenomenon, yg diujikan karakteristik
dari old phenomenon.
-->
The eighteenth century had seen a gradual shift away from the spiritual intensity
of earlier American religious writings for children, toward a more generalized
moralism.
7. By the end of the eighteenth century, the publishers of children’s looks in the
United States were most concerned about which of the following?
(A) Attracting children with entertaining stories that provided lessons of correct
behavior
(B) Publishing literature consisting of exciting stories that would appeal to both
children and adults
(C) Expanding markets for books in both Britain and the United States
(D) Reprinting fictional books from earlier in the century
Kunci & Pembahasan:
Kunci Jawaban: (B) Publishing literature consisting of exciting stories that would
appeal to both children and adults
dinyatakan pada pertanyaan -keyword: the end of eighteenth century
-publishers (USA) most concerned
-->
As the children's book market expanded, then, what both public and
publishers wanted was the kind of fiction Maria Edgeworth wrote: stories
interesting enough to attract children and morally instructive enough to allay
adult distrust of fiction.
8. The word "permeated" in line 15

(A) opposed
(B) improved
(C) competed with
(D) spread through
Kunci & Pembahasan:
Kunci Jawaban: (D) spread through
konteks kalimat
--> permeated = spread trough (menyebar ke seluruh)
9. According to the passage, American children's stories differed from their

British equivalents in that the characters in American stories were
(A) children who showed a change of behavior
(B) children who were well behaved
(C) rarely servants
(D) generally not from a variety of social classes
Kunci & Pembahasan:
Kunci Jawaban: (C) rarely servants

dinyatakan pada pertanyaan -keyword: differed from
-->
Imitative as they were, these early American stories were quite
distinguishable from their British counterparts. Few servants appeared in
them ....
Few berarti hampir tidak ada atau jarang (rarely)
10. The word" testimony to" in line 28 is closest in meaning to

(A) inspiration for
(B) evidence of
(C) requirement for
(D) development of
Kunci & Pembahasan:
Kunci Jawaban: (B) evidence of

konteks kalimat
--> testimony to (kesasksian) = evidence of (bukti)
The reasons for the extinction of a species, and for the rapid rates of change in
our environment, are currently a focus of much scientific research. An individual
species' susceptibility to extinction depends on at least two things: the taxon (the
biological group - kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, or genus) to which a
species belongs, and the overall rate of environmental change. Fossil evidence
shows that more mammals and birds become extinct than do mollusks or insects.
Studies of the extinction of the dinosaurs and other reptiles during the
Cretaceous Period show that a changing environment affects different taxa in
different ways. Some may be dramatically affected; others less so.
The best way to answer the question of what causes an extinction is to combine
fields of inquiry and viewpoints. Using the fossil record and historical
documentation, the different rates of extinction of various taxa and different
responses to environmental change can be detected. Then, the evolutionary
development of the different species can be compared and traits that may be
disadvantageous can be singled out. Finally, researchers can use mathematical
formulas to determine whether a population is likely to adopt itself tо the
changing environment or disappear. Hopefully, as more of this information is
collected, specialists in different fields -physiological and behavioral ecology,
population ecology, community ecology, evolutionary biology and systematics,
biogeography, and paleobiology - will work together to make predictions about
the broader changes that might occur in the ecosystem.
1. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?

A. assessment of the work of specialists concerned with ecology
B. a discussion of possible causes of extinction, and of ways to make predictions
about environmental change
C. the changing aspects of our environment
D. a comparison of the existing rates of different taxa
2. The word susceptibility in line 3 is closest in meaning to:

A. insensitivity
B. receptiveness
C. immunity
D. vulnerability
3. An example of a taxon would be:

A. a phylum
B. the rate of environmental change
C. a fossil
D. studies of extinction
4. The author compares mammals and birds to:

A. mollusks and insects
B. phylum and class
C. dinosaurs and reptiles
D. ecologists and biologists
5. It can be inferred from the passage that a significant event of the Cretaceous
Period was:
A. the appearance of many taxa
B. the dramatic effect of the dinosaur on the environment
C. the extinction of birds
D. the extinction of dinosaurs
6. It can be inferred from the passage that dinosaurs:

A. included species that were mammals
B. were better represented in the fossil record than other species
C. possessed disadvantageous traits
D. were not susceptible to extinction
7. The word dramatically in line 8 means:

A. strongly
B. inspiringly
C. flimsily
D. visually
8. The word fields in the line 9 is closest in meaning to:

A. areas
B. meadows
C. studies
D. careers
9. From the passage it can be inferred that disadvantageous traits are:

A. occurring at different rates
B. a contributing cause of extinction
C. adaptable
D. learned by mathematical formulas
10. The expression singled out in line 15 is closest in meaning to:

A. isolated
B. blamed
C. seen
D. divided
11. According to the passage, the likelihood of a population becoming extinct can
be:
A. lessened by the efforts of a few concerned specialists
B. unaffected by environmental change
C. determined by mathematical formulas
D. almost impossible to ascertain
12. The word broader in line 20 is closest in meaning to:

A. fatter
B. extra
C. wider
D. many
Kunci Jawaban dan Pembahasan

1. B. a discussion of possible causes of extinction, and of ways to make
predictions about environmental change
Pembahasan: Soal ini yaitu terkait soal main idea. Cara menjawab soal semacam
ini cukup dengn membaca kalimat pertama setiap paragraf. Untuk belajar lebih
jauh terkait skill ini, klik Tips Menjawab Soal Reading TOEFL: Main Idea Question.
Kata kunci utama terdapat pada The reasons for the extinction of a species
(Paragraf 1) dan what causes an extinction (Paragraf 2)
2. D. vulnerability
Pembahasan: Cara menjawab soal pertanyaan kosakata seperti ini yaitu dengan
mencari sinonim di pilihan jawaban yang sesuai dengan konteks kalimat.
3. A. a phylum
Pembahasan: Jawaban terdapat pada the taxon (the biological group - kingdom,
phylum, class, order, family, or genus).
4. A. mollusks and insects

Pembahasan: Jawaban terdapat pada more mammals and birds become extinct
than do mollusks or insects.
5. D. the extinction of dinosaurs

Pembahasan: Soal bentuk ini masuk dalam kategori soal Implied Detail
Questions -di mana Anda mesti menyimpulkan ide dari kalimat atau key word
tertentu.
Jawaban terdapat pada Studies of the extinction of the dinosaurs and other
reptiles during the Cretaceous Period show that a changing environment affects
different taxa in different ways.
6. C. possessed disadvantageous traits

tertentu.
Jawaban terdapat pada Then, the evolutionary development of the different
species can be compared and traits that may be disadvantageous can be singled
out.
7. A. strongly
mencari sinonim di pilihan jawaban yang paling sesuai dengan konteks kalimat.
8. C. studies
9. B. a contributing cause of extinction

tertentu.
Jawaban terdapat pada the different rates of extinction of various taxa and
different responses to environmental change can be detected. Then, the
evolutionary development of the different species can be compared and traits
that may be disadvantageous can be singled out.
10. isolated
11. C. determined by mathematical formulas

Pembahasan: Jawaban terdapat pada researchers can use mathematical
formulas to determine whether a population is likely to adopt itself tо the
changing environment or disappear.
12. C. wider
The locations of stars in the sky relative to one another do not appear to the
naked eye to change, and as a result stars are often considered to be fixed in
position. Many unaware stargazers falsely assume that each star has its own
permanent home in the nighttime sky.
In reality, though, stars are always moving, but because of the tremendous
distances between stars themselves and from stars to Earth, the changes are
barely perceptible here. An example of a rather fast-moving star demonstrates
why this misconception prevails; it takes approximately 200 years for a relatively
rapid star like Bernard's star to move a distance in the skies equal to the
diameter of the earth's moon. When the apparently negligible movement of the
stars is contrasted with the movement of the planets, the stars are seemingly
unmoving.
1. Which of the following is the best title for this passage?

a. What the eye can see in the sky
b. Bernard's star
c. Planetary Movement
d. The Evermoving stars
2. The expression‍"naked eye" in line 1 most probably refers to

a. a telescope
b. a scientific method for observing stars
c. unassisted vision
d. a camera with a powerful lens
3. According to the passage, the distances between the stars and Earth are
a. barely perceptible
b. huge
c. fixed
d. moderate
4. The word "perceptible" in line 5 is closest in meaning to which of the

following?
a. noticeable
b. persuasive
c. conceivable
d. astonishing
5. In line 6, a "misconception" is closest in meaning to a (n)

a. idea
b. proven fact
c. erroneous belief
d. theory
6. The passage states that in 200 years Bernard's star can move
a. around Earth's moon
b. next to the earth's moon
c. a distance equal to the distance from earth to the moon
d. a distance seemingly equal to the diameter of the moon
7. The passage implies that from earth it appears that the planets
a. are fixed in the sky
b. move more slowly than the stars
c. show approximately the same amount of movement as the stars
d. travel through the sky considerably more rapidly than the stars
8. The word "negligible" in line 8 could most easily be replaced by

a. negative
b. insignificant
c. rapid
d. distant
9. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

a. starts do not appear to the eye to move.
b. the large distances between stars and the earth tend to magnify movement to
the eye
c. Bernard's star moves quickly in comparison with other stars
d. although stars move, they seem to be fixed
10. The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses

a. the movement of the planets
b. Bernard's star
c. the distance from earth to the moon
d. why stars are always moving
11. This passage would most probably be assigned reading in which course?
a. astrology
b. geophysics
c. astronomy
d. Geography
Directions: This section is designed to measure your ability to read and

understand short passages similar in topic and style to those that students are
likely to encounter in North American universities and colleges. This section
contains reading passages and questions about the passages.
Leonardo da Vinci was born on April 15, 1452 in Vinci, Italy. He was the
illegitimate son of Ser Piero, a Florentine notary and landlord, but lived on the
estate and was treated as a legitimate son.
In 1483, Leonardo da Vinci drew the first model of a helicopter. It did not look
very much like our modern day “copter,” but the idea of what it could do was
about the same.
Leonardo was an artist and sculptor. He was very interested in motion and
movement and tried to show it in his art. In order to show movement, he found
it helpful to study the way things moved. One subject he liked to study was birds
and how they flew. He spent many hours watching the birds and examining the
structure of their wings. He noticed how they cupped air with their wings and
how the feathers helped hold the air. Through these studies, Leonardo began to
understand how birds were able to fly.
Like many other men, Leonardo began to dream of the day when people would
be able to fly. He designed a machine that used all the things he had learned
about flight, and thus became the first model of a helicopter.
Poor Leonardo had only one problem, however. He had no way to give the
necessary speed to his invention. You see, motors had not yet been invented and
speed 19 was an important part of the flying process. It would be another four
hundred years before the engine was invented and another fifty years before it
was put to the test in an airplane. Leonardo’s dream of a helicopter finally came
to pass in 1936.
The Italian painter, sculptor, architect, engineer, and scientist, Leonardo died on
May 2, 1519, and was buried in the cloister of San Fiorentino in Amboise.
1. What is the author’s main point?
a. The invention of the helicopter.
b. Birds cup air with their wings and use feathers to help hold the air.
c. An overview of one of Leonardo da Vinci’s many skills.
d. Leonardo da Vinci was born in 1452 and died in 1519.
2. The word problem in paragraph five could best be replaced by the word:

a. dilemma
b. mistake
c. danger
d. pain
3. The word it in paragraph two refers to:
a. Leonardo da Vinci
b. The first model helicopter
c. 1483
d. motion and movement
4. Which paragraph explains why Leonardo’s helicopter was not successful in his
lifetime:
a. paragraph 1
b. paragraph 2
c. paragraph 4
d. paragraph 5
5. The word illegitimate in paragraph one is closest in meaning to:
a. against the law or illegal
b. not in correct usage
c. incorrectly deduced; illogical
d. born out of wedlock
6. The following sentence would best complete which paragraph?
“Since then people have been living out Leonardo’s dream of flying.”
a. paragraph 3
b. paragraph 4
c. paragraph 5
d. paragraph 2
7. What was the main problem with Leonardo’s invention?
a. motors were not yet invented
b. the birds lost their feathers
c. he was illegitimate
d. he couldn’t draw
8. The word they in the third paragraph refers to:
a. the feathers
b. the birds
c. the studies
d. the wings
9. In what year was the first helicopter flown
a. 1483
b. 1452
c. 1519
d. 1936
10. What two things did birds have that Leonardo da Vinci noticed helped them
to fly?
a. wings and beaks

b. feathers and talons
c. wings and feathers
d. cups and feathers
11. The word thus in the fourth paragraph could best be replaced by:
a. Hence
b. After
c. Unsuitably
d. Inappropriately
Kunci Jawaban
1. a. The invention of the helicopter.
2. a. dilemma
3. b. The first model helicopter
4. d. paragraph 5
5. d. born out of wedlock
6. c. paragraph 5
7. a. motors were not yet invented
8. b. the birds
9. d. 1936
10. c. wings and feathers
11. a. Hence
The next artist in this survey of American artist is James Whistler; he is included
in this survey of American artist because he was born in the United States,
although the majority of his artwork was completed in Europe. Whistler was
born in Massachusetts in 1834, but nine years later his father moved the family
to St. Petersburg, Russia, to work on the construction of a railroad. The family
returned to the United States in 1849. Two years later Whistler entered the U.S.
military academy at West Point, but he was unable to graduate. At the age of
twenty-one Whistler went to Europe to study art despite familial objections, and
he remained in Europe until his death.
Whistler worked in various art forms, including etchings and lithographs.

However, he is most famous for his paintings, particularly Arrangement in Gray
and Black No. 1: Portrait of the Artist’s Mother or Whistler’s Mother, as it is more
commonly known. This painting shows a side view of Whistler’s mother, dressed
I black and posing against a gray wall. The asymmetrical nature of the portrait,
with his mother seated off-center, is highly characteristic of Whistler’s work.
1. The paragraph preceding this passage most likely discusses

A. a survey of eighteenth-century art
B. a different American artist
C. Whistler’s other famous paintings
D. European artists
2. Which of the following best describes the information in the passage?

A. Several artists are presented
B. One artist’s life and works are described
C. Various paintings are contrasted
D. Whistler’s family life is outlined.
3. Whistler is considered an American artist because

A. he was born in America
B. he spent most of his life in Americat
C. he served in the U.S. military
D. he created most of his famous art in America
4. The world “majority” in line 2 is closest in meaning to

A. seniority
B. maturity
C. large pices
D. high percentage
5. It is implied in the passage that Whistler’s family was

A. unable to find any work at all in Russia
B. highly supportive of his desire to pursue art
C. working class
D. military
6. The word “objections” in line 7 is closest in meaning to

A. protests
B. goals
C. agreements
D. battles
7. In line 8, the “etchings” are

A. a type of painting
B. the same as a lithograph
C. an art form introduced by Whistler
D. an art form involving engraving
8. The word “asymmetrical” in line 11 is closest in meaning to

A. proportionate
B. uneven
C. balanced
D. lyrical
9. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passsage?

A. Whistler work with a variety of art forms.
B. Whistler’s Mother is not the official name of his painting.
C. Whistler is best known for his etchings.
D. Whistler’s Mother is painted in somber tones.
10. where in the passage does the author mention the types of artwork that
Whistler was involved in?
A. Lines 1-3
B. Lines 4-5
C. Lines 6-7
D. Lines 8-10
Kunci Jawaban
BBADC ADBCD
Carbon tetrachloride is a colorless and inflammable liquid that can be produced

by combining carbon disulfide and chlorine. This compound is widely used in
industry today because of its effectiveness as a solvent as well as its use in the
production of propellants.
Despite its widespread use in industry, carbon tetrachloride has been banned for
home use. In the past, carbon tetrachloride was a common ingredient in cleaning
compounds that were used throughout the home, but it was found to be
dangerous: when heated, it changes into a poisonous gas that can cause severe
illness and even death if it is inhaled. Because of this dangerous characteristic,
the United States revoked permission for the home use of carbon tetrachloride
in 1970. The United States has taken similar action with various other chemical
compounds.
1. The main point of this passage is that

A. carbon tetrachloride can be very dangerous when it is heated
B. the government banned carbon tetrachloride in 1970
C. although carbon tetrachloride can legally be used in industry, it is not
allowed in home products.
D. carbon tetrachloride used to be a regular part of cleaning compounds
2. The word “widely” in line 2 could most easily be replaced by

A. grandly
B. extensively
C. largely
D. hugely
3. The word “banned” in line 4 is closest in meaning to

A. forbidden
B. allowed
C. suggested
D. instituted
4. According to the passage, before 1970 carbon tetrachloride was

A. used by itself as a cleanser
B. banned in industrial use
C. often used as a component of cleaning products
D. not allowed in home cleaning products
5. It is stated in the passage that when carbon tetrachloride is heated, it becomes

A. harmful
B. colorless
C. a cleaning compound
D. inflammable
6. The word “inhaled” in line 7 is closest in meaning to

A. warmed
B. breathed in
C. carelessly used
D. blown
7. The word “revoked” in line 8 could most easily be replaced by

A. gave
B. granted
C. instituted
D. took away
8. It can be inferred from the passage that one role of the U.S. government is to
A. regulate product safety
B. prohibit any use of carbon tetrachloride
C. instruct industry on cleaning methodologies
D. ban the use of any chemicals
9. The paragraph following the passage most likely discusses

A. additional uses of carbon tetrachloride
B. the banning of various chemical compounds by the U.S. government
C. further dangerous effects of carbon tetrachloride
D. the major characteristic of carbon tetrachloride
Kunci Jawaban

C. although carbon tetrachloride can legally be used in industry, it is not
allowed in home products.
A. grandly
B. extensively
C. largely
D. hugely
A. forbidden
B. allowed
C. suggested
D. instituted


A. harmful
B. colorless
D. inflammable
A. warmed
B. breathed in
C. carelessly used
D. blown
A. gave
B. granted
C. instituted
D. took away


Tampa, Florida, owes a great deal of its growth and prosperity to a Cuban cigar
manufacturer named Vicente martinez Ybor. When civil war broke out in 1869,
he was forced to flee his country, and he moved his business to south Florida.
Sixteen years later, labor union problems in Key West caused him to seek a
better location along the west coast of the state. He bought a forty-acre tract of
land and made plans to set up his cigar factory on the site. This original sixteen-
block stretch of land later expanded to one hundred acres near Tampa. This
newly developed area was called Ybor City in his honor. Spanish, Italian, and
Cuban immigrants flocked to the area as the demand for workers in the cigar
factory increased. One fifth of the city’s twenty thousand resident enjoyed the
high-paying jobs there. At the end of the 1800s, Jose Marti, a Cuban poet and
freedom fighter, organized a revolution from Ybor City and managed to get
considerable support for his movement. Teddy Roosevelt’s “Rough Riders” were
stationed there during the Spanish-American War in 1898. Much of the
prosperity of this region is due to Ybor’s cigar factory established more than one
hundred years ago.
42. Where is Ybor City located?

A. South Florida
B. Cuba
C. West Florida
D. Marti
43. The word “flee” in line 4 means most nearly the same as
A. Escape
B. Return to
C. Fight
D. disembody
44. The word “seek” in line 6 is closest in meaning to

A. Purchase
B. Pursue
C. Elude
D. develop
45. Why will people probably continue to remember Ybor’s name?

A. He suffered a great deal
B. An area was named in his honor
C. He was a Cuban revolutionary
D. He was forced to flee his homeland
46. In line 12, the word “flocked” is closest in meaning to

A. Came in large numbers
B. Escaped hurriedly
C. Increased rapidly
D. Prospered greatly
47. In the early years, how many residents of Ybor City worked in the cigar
factory
A. 4,000
B. 5,000
C. 10,000
D. 20,000
48. What is the best title for the passage?

A. The Spanish-American War
B. Cuban Contributions in the Development of Ybor City
C. Ybor’s Contribution to developing part of the Tampa Area
D. The Process of Cigar Manufacturing
49. In line 8, “site” is closest in meaning to

A. Location
B. View
C. Vision
D. Indebtedness
50. Who was Jose marti

A. A good friend of Ybor
B. One of Teddy Roosevelt’s “Rough Riders”
C. A Cuban writer who sought to free his country
D. A worker in the cigar factory
Pembahasan Kunci Jawaban Soal TOEFL

42. Soal ini menanyakan di mana lokasi Ybor City. Dari kalimat "Sixteen years
later, labor union problems in Key West caused him to seek a better location
along the west coast of the state" dapat diketahui bahwa lokasi dari Ybor City
terletak di West Florida. Jawaban yang benar ialah pilihan C.
43. "Flee" merupakan sinonim dari "escape" yang bermakna meninggalkan atau
meloloskan diri dari .... Pilihan yang benar ialah A. Escape.
44. "Seek" mempunyai makna yang sama dengan kata pursue bermakna
mencari. Pilihan jawaban yang sesuai ialah pilihan B.
45. Jawaban yang benar yaitu B. Dari bacaan dapat diduga / disimpulkan bahwa
Ybor akan dikenang karena nama Ybor City diagkat atas penghormatan terhadap
Ybor (An area was named in his honor).
46. "Flocked" dalam klaimat tersebut bermakna "came in large numbers." Kunci
jawaban yang benar yaitu pilihan A.
47. Jawaban yang sesuai bacaan yaitu pilhan A. Jawaban soal ini bisa didapatkan
dari kalimat "One fifth of the city’s twenty thousand residents enjoyed the high-
paying jobs there." one fifth of twenty thousands (1/5 x 20,000) = four thousand
(4,000).
48. Secara keseluruhan bisa dilihat reading di atas membahas terkait "Ybor’s
Contribution to developing part of the Tampa Area." Jawaban yang tepat ialah
C.
49. "Site" semakna dengan kata "location". Jadi kunci jawabannya ialah pilihan
A.
50. Dari kalimat "At the end of the 1800s, Jose Marti, a Cuban poet and freedom
fighter, organized a revolution from Ybor City and managed to get considerable
support for his movement" bisa diketahui bahwa Jose Marti merupkan "A Cuban
writer who sought to free his country." Jadi jawaban yang benar ialah pilihan C.
In 776 B.C., the first Olympic Games were held at the foot of Mount Olympus to
honor the Greeks’ chief god, Zeus. The warm climate for outdoor activities, the
need for preparedness in war, and their lifestyle caused the Greeks to create
competitive sports. Only the elite and military could participate at first, but later
the games were open to all free Greek males who had no criminal record. The
Greeks emphasized physical fitness and strength in their education of youth.
Therefore, contest in running, jumping, discuss and javelin throwing, boxing, and
horse and chariot racing were held in individual cities, and the winners competed
every four years at Mount Olympus. Winners were greatly honored by having
olive wreaths placed on their heads and having poems sung about their deeds.
Originally these contests were held as games of friendship, and any wars in
progress were halted to allow the games to take place. They also helped to
strengthen bonds among competitors and the different cities represented.
The Greeks attached so much importance to the games that they calculated time
in four-year cycles called “Olympiads,” dating from 776 B.C. The contest
coincided with religious festivities and constituted an all-out effort on the part of
the participants to please the gods. Any who disobeyed the rules were dismissed
and seriously punished. These athletes brought shame not only to themselves,
but also to the cities they represented.
32. Which of the following is NOT true ?

A. Winners placed olive wreaths on their own heads.
B. The games were held in Greece every four years.
C. Battles were interrupted to participate in the games.
D. Poem glorified the winners in song.
33. The word “elite” in line 5 is closest in meaning to…

A. aristocracy
B. Brave
C. intellectuals
D. muscular
34. Why were the Olympic Games held?

A. To stop wars
B. To honor Zeus
C. To crown the best athletes
D. To sing songs about the athletes
35. Approximately how many years ago did these games originate?
A. 800 years
B. 1200 years
C. 2300 years
D. 2800 years
36. What conclusion can we draw about the ancient Greeks?

A. They were pacifists
B. They believed athletic events were important
C. They were very simple
D. They couldn't count, so they used “Olympiads” for dates
37. What is the main idea of this passage?

A. Physical fitness was an integral part of the lives of the ancient Greeks
B. The Greeks severely punished those who did not participate in physical
fitness programs
C. The Greeks had always encouraged everyone to participate in the games
D. The Greeks had the games coincide with religious festivities so that they
could go back to war when the games were over
38. In line 14, the word “deeds” is closest in meaning to…

A. Accomplishments
B. Ancestors
C. Documents
D. Property
39. Which of the following was ultimately required of all athletes competing in
the Olympics?
A. They must have completed military service.
B. They had to attend special training sessions
C. They had to be Greek males with no criminal record
D. They had to be very religious
40. The word “halted” in line 16 means most nearly the same as…
A. Encourages
B. Started
C. Curtailed
D. Fixed
41. What is an “Olympiad”?
A. The time it took to finish the games
B. The time between games
C. The it took to finish a war
D. The time it took the athletes to train
Pembahasan
32. Jawaban bisa dilihat pada kalimat "Winners were greatly honored by having
olive wreaths placed on their heads and ...." Dari kata by having olive wreaths
placed ini menandakan ada orang ke tiga yang diperintahkan atau bertugas
untuk menaruh olive wreaths di atas kepala mereka. Ingat pelajaran Causative
(Have + Object + VIII). Jadi, jawaban yang benar yaitu jawaban A (Winners
placed olive wreaths on their own heads).
33. "Only the elite and military could participate." Elite sudah seharusnya bukan
masalah lagi bagi kebanyakan pelajar Indonesia mengingat kata ini juga
digunakan dalam bahasa Indonesia (peyerapan). Pilihan yang paling sesuai
dengan kata elite yaitu aristocracy. Jadi, jawaban yang benar yaitu pilihan A
(Arisctocracy).
34. "... Olympic Games were held ... to honor the Greeks’ chief god, Zeus." Dari
kalimat ini dapat diketahui bahwa tujuan penyelenggararan Olympic Games
yaitu to honor Zeus (B).
35. Dari kalimat pertama paragraf pertama kita lihat bahwa Olympic Game untuk
pertama kalinya di adakan pada tahun 776 SM. Diantara pilihan jawaban yang
ada pilihan bagian D (2, 800) tahun years merupakan pilihan yang paling dekat.
Jadi, jawaban yang benar yaitu pilihan D.
36. Jawaban yang tepat yaitu pilihan B. Soal ini merupakan jenis pertanyaan
interferensi. Pilihan jawaban A saalah, karena mereka juga kadang ikut dalam
pertempuran. Pilihan C juga salah karena tidak ada pembahasan dalam reading
mengatakan bahwa mereka simple. Juga jawaban D, tidak ada data menunjukkan
bahwa mereka tidak mempu count. Karena seluruh teks di atas secara
kesuluruhan membahas tentang athletic maka hanya jawaban B yang logis.
37. Jawaban yang tepat yaitu A. Dari kalimat "The Greeks emphasized physical
fitness and strength in their education of youth." menandakan bahwa "Physical
fitness was an integral part of the lives of the ancient Greeks." Pilihan B tidak
disebutkan dalam bacaan. Pilihan C juga salah karena hanya orang-orang
tertentu yang boleh ikut dalam Olympic Games dinyatakan pada kalimat "Only
the elite and military could participate at first, but later the games were open to
all free Greek males who had no criminal record. " Pleasing the gods pada festival
keagamaan merupakan tujuan dari penyelenggaraan perlombaan ini bukan
untuk kembali pada peperangan (D).
38. Arti dari kalimat "deed" secara umum yaitu perbuatan. Dalam konteks
kalimat di atas "deed" yang dimaksud yaitu accompalishment (A).
39. Dari pilihan jawaban yang ada hanya pilihan C yang sesuai dengan bacaan.
Lihat kalimat ke tiga paragraph 1 "Only the elite and military could participate at
first, but later the games were open to all free Greek males who had no criminal
record."
40. Jawaban benar ialah pilihan C. "Halted" paling sesui dengan makna
"curtailed."
41. Jawaban yang benar yaitu pilihan B (The time between games). Bisa
diketahui dari kalimat pertama paragraf 2 "The Greeks attached so much
importance to the games that they calculated time in four-year cycles called
“Olympiads,” dating from 776 B.C."
Questions 11 through 18 are based on the following passage.
In 1920, after some thirty-nine years of problems with disease, high costs, and
politics, the Panama Canal was officially opened, finally linking the Atlantic and
Pacific Oceans by allowing ships to pass thorough the fifty-mile canal zone
instead of travelling some seven thousand miles around Cape Horn. It takes a
ship approximately eight hours to complete the trip through the canal and costs
an average of fifteen thousand dollars, one tenth of what it would cost an
average ship to round the Horn. More than fifteen thousand ships pass through
its locks each year.
The French initiated the project but sold their rights to the United States, which
actually began the construction of the project. The latter will control it until the
end of the twentieth century when Panama takes its duties.
11. Who currently controls the Panama Canal?

A. France B. United States C. Panama D. Canal Zone
12. The word ‘locks’ in line 6 is closest in meaning to

A. Securities B. latches C. lakes D. canal gates
13. On the average, how much would it cost a ship to travel around Cape Horn?
A. $1,500 B. $15,000 C. $150,000 D. $1,500,000
14. In what year was construction begun on the canal?
A. 1881 B. 1920 C. 1939 D. 1999
15. It can be inferred from this passage that

A. The canal is costly project which should be reevaluated
B. Despite all the problems involved, the project is beneficial
C. Many captains prefer to sail around Cape Horn because it is less expensive
D. Problems have made it necessary for these governments to control the
canal over the years
16. In line 2, the word ‘linking’ is closest in meaning to

A. Controlling B. dispersing C. detaching D. joining
17. In paragraph 2, ‘initiated’ is nearest in meaning to

A. Purchased B. Launched C. forfeited D. forced
8. All of the following are true EXCEPT

A. it cost so much to pass through the locks because very few ships use them
B. the United State received the rights to the canal from the French
C. ship can pass through the canal in only eight hours
D. passing through the canal saves thousands of miles of travel time around Cape
Horn.
Pembahasan SOAL TOEFL Reading

11. Soal ini mempertanyakan siapa yang mengontrol Panamal Canal untuk
sekarang saat ini. Hal ini dibahas pada paragraf dua, pada kalimat: The latter will
control it until the end of the twentieth century .... Kata the latter merujuk
kepada subject "united states." Jadi jawaban yang tepat yaitu jawaban B (united
States). Anda perlu mengetahui terkait kata the latter. Pasangan kata the latter
yaitu the former. The latter bermkana the second sementara teh former
bermakna the first. Dalam paragraf dua kita lihat bahwa ada dua subjek yang
disebutkan di awal kalimat yaitu the french dan the uinted stated. Jadi the
former mengarah ke the french sementara the latter mengarah ke the united
states.
12. Lock bisa bermakna pintu jadi dalam kalimat ini yang dikatkan sebagai pintu
yaitu canal gates.
13. Paragraf pertama pada reading di atas menjelaskan bahwa untuk complete
the trip through the canal menghabiskan biaya sebanyak fifteen thousand dollars
($15, 000) dan untuk trip hanya di Horn berbiaya one tenth (1/10) dari biaya
untuk complete the trip through the canal ($15, 000).$15, 000 X 1/10 = $1, 500.
Jadi jawaban yang benar yaitu jawaban A ($1, 500).
14. Soal ini menanyakan kapan dimulainya pembangunan canal yang dimkasud
dalam bacaan. Kita lihat bahwa canal itu resmi dibuka pada tahun 1920 stelah 39
tahun lamanya. Jadi 1920-39 = 1881. Jawaban yang benar yaitu jawaban A 1881.
15. Di antara pilihan jawaban, hanya pilihan jawaban B yang agaks sesuai dengan
bacaan.
16. Linking merupakan sinonim dari joining.
17. Initiated bermakna commenced / launched.
18. Pilihan jawaban yang tidak sesuai bacaan yaitu jawaban A. Jawaban A
mengatakan bahwa very few use them (locks). Very few bermkana jampir tidak
ada atau sangat sedikit .Sementara pada bacaa menagtakan bahwa fifteen
thousan ships melewati locks.
(1) Hot boning is an energy-saving technique for the meat processing industry. It
has received significant attention in recent years when increased pressure for
energy conservation has accentuated the need for more efficient methods of
processing the bovine carcass. Cooling an entire carcass requires a considerable
amount of refrigerated space, since bone and trimmable fat are cooled along
with muscle. It (5) is also necessary to space the carcasses adequately in the
refrigerated room for better air movement and prevention of microbial
contamination, thus adding to the volume requirements for carcass chillers.
Conventional handling of meat involves holding the beef sides in the cooler for
24 to 36 hours before boning. Chilling in the traditional fashion is also associated
with a loss of carcass weight ranging from 2 (10) percent to 4 percent due to
evaporation of moisture the meat tissue.
Early excision, or hot boning , of muscle prerigor followed be vacuum packaging

has several potential advantages. By removing only the edible muscle and fat
prerigor, refrigeration space and cost are minimized, boning labor is decreased,
and storage yields increased. Because hot boning often result in the toughening
of meat, a more recent approach, hot boning following electrical stimulation, has
been (15) used to reduce the necessary time of rigor mortis.
Some researchers have found this method beneficial in maintaining tender meat,
while others have found that the meat also becomes tough after electrical
stimulation.
1. The word "accentuated" in the line 2 is closest in meaning to.
(A) de-emphasized
(B) speeded up
(C) caused
(D) highlighted.
2. All of the following are mentioned as drawbacks of the conventional method

of boning EXCEPT
(A) Storage space requirements
(B) Energy waste
(C) Loss of carcass weight
(D) Toughness of meat
3. In the line 2, the word "pressure" is closest in meaning to

(A) urgency
(B) weight
(C) flavor
(D) cooking texture
4. Hot boning is becoming very popular because

(A) it causes meat to be very tender
(B) it helps conserve energy and is less expensive than conventional methods
(C) meat tastes better when the bone is adequately seared along with the meat
(D) it reduces the weight of the carcass
5. In the line 7, "carcass" is nearest in meaning to

(A) a refrigerator for the animal body
(B) a method of boning meat
(C) electrical stimulation of beef
(D) early excision
6. In the line 11, "early excision" is closest in meaning to

(A) vacuum packaging
(B) hot boning
(C) carcass chilling
(D) electrical stimulation
7. The toughening of meat during hot boning has been combatted by

(A) following hot boning with electrical stimulation
(B) tenderizing the meat
(C) using electrical stimulation before hot boning
(D) removing only the edible muscle and fat prerigor
8. The word "bovine" in line 3 is nearest in meaning to
(A) cold
(B) electrically stimulated
(C) beef
(D) pork
9. The word "this" in line 16 refers to

(A) hot boning
(B) hot boning following electrical stimulation
(C) rigor mortis
(D) removing edible muscle and fat prerigor
10. In line 3, the word "carcass" is closest in meaning to

(A) deboned meat
(B) body
(C) refrigerator
(D) fat
11. The word "considerable" in line 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) frigid
(B) kind
(C) lesser
(D) substantial
12. One reason it is recommended to remove bones before refrigerating is that

(A) it makes the meat more tender
(B) the bones are able to be used for other purposes
(C) it increases chilling time
(D) it saves cooling space by not refrigerating parts that will be discarded
13. The word "trimmable in line 4 is nearest in meaning to

(A) unsaturated
(B) removable
(C) unhealthy
(D) chillable
Pembahasan Jawaban test TOEFL

1. Jawaban yang benar yaitu pilihan D. Kalimat itu mengindikasikan bahwa
kebutuhan untuk memelihara energy sudah semakin highlighted
(jelas/terbuka).
2. Jawaban yang sesuai yaitu D. Yang dipertanyakan oleh soal yaitu terkait
apa yang TIDAK menjadi drawback dari conventional method. Kita lihat
dari pilihan jawaban kita lihat bahwa pilihan D Toughness of meat
merupakan drawback dari hot boning (metode pengganti conventional
method). Sementara pilihan lain A, B, dan C merupakan drawback dari
conventional method.
3. (A) kalimat di atas mengindikasikan bahwa ada urgency dalam

memelihara energy.
14. Soal bagian ini mempertanyakan terkait alasan metode Hot Boning
menajadi sangat popular pada saat ini. Itu berarti hal yang mesti kita pilih
terkait kelebihan yang dipunyai oleh Hot Boning . Kelebihan yang mana
menutupi kekurangand ari metode conventional. Yang sangat sesuai akan
kelebihan dari metode Hot Boning pada pilihan jawaban yatitu pilihan B.
5. (A) Jika Anda mengetahui bahwa carcass meruapakan sinonim dari

body dan to chill sinonim dari to cool maka akan lebih cepat. Tapi tanpa
mengetahui arti kata secara pasti pun, Anda tetap bias mengetahui
sinonim dari kata carcass chiller hanya dengan membaca teks. Anda bisa
melihat bahwa objeck yang dibacarakan dalam bacaan terkait meat. Dan
carcass termasuk benda yang di cooling (lihat baris 5). Dan dari kata
chiller, Anda bisa mengetahui bahwa chiller mengarah ke suatu alat
dengan alasan penggunaan akhiran –er. Olehnya, Anda hanya perlu
mencari jawaban yang menandakan suatu alat.
6. (B) Sangat jelas. Penggunaan kata or menandakan bahwa early excision

merupakan kata lain dari hot boning. Jawabannya yaitu B.
7. Jawaban dari soal ini dapat Anda lihat pada paragraf ke tiga "Because
hot boning often result in the toughening of meat, a more recent
approach, hot boning following electrical stimulation, has been used to
reduce the necessary time of rigor mortis." Toughening of meat
merupakan salah satu masalah dalam penggunaan metode hot boning.
Masalah ini telah di -combatted dengan "hot boning following electrical
stimulation" atau "following hot boning with electrical stimulation."
8. Bovine bermakna daging sapi. Jadi pilihan yang tepat yaitu C beef.
9. Menjawab soal TOEFL reading terkait referensi artikel termasuk hal

yang mudah. Anda bisa melihat kalimat sebelum dari letak artikle yang
dipertanyakan. Artikel this merupakan referensi kata dari hot boning.
10. Keseluruhan bacaan membahas tentang perlakuan pada body of dead

animal yang mana disebut dengan sebutan carcass. Jawaban yang benar
yaitu B.
11. Kata considerable memodifikasi kata amount (jumlah). Itu berarti

makna considerable harus menjadi ukuran besar atau kecil. Considerable
amount mesti bermakna jumlah yang besar atu mungkin jumlah yang
kecil. Dari pilihan jawaban yang ada jawaban A dan D tidak sesuai dengan
konteks ini. Sementara jawaban C (Lesser) juga tidak karena lesser
menandakan adanya yang dibandingkan (masuk dalam kategori
comparison). Semnetara dalam kalimat kita tidak melihat ada yang
dibandingkan. Jadi jelas jawaban yang benar yaitu jawaban D.
12. Bacaan di atas menyatkan bahwa metode hot boning menghasilkan

daging yang lebih kuat (tougher meat) jadi jawaban A jelas salah. Bacaan
tidak membahasa terkait penggunaan (purposes) dari bone jadi jawaban
B juga jelas salah. Bagian C juga sangat jelas salah; meningkatkan waktu
memasak (menghabiskan waktu yang lebih lama) tentu saja bukan hal
yang menguntungkan. Jadi jawaban yang benar yaitu jawaban D.
13. Trimmable berasal dari kata trim yang bermkana to cut atau to
remove. Jadi jawaban yang benar adalah B.
3. The stone age was a period of history which began in approximately 2
million B.C and lasted until 3000 B.C. Its name was derived from the stone
tools and weapons that modern scientists found. This period was divided
into the Paleolithic, Mesolithic, and Neolithic Ages. During the first period
(2 million to 8000 B.C), the first hatchet and use of fire for heating and
cooking were developed. As s result of the Ice Age, which evolved about I
million years into the Paleolithic Age, people were forced to seek shelter
in caves, wear clothing, and develop new tools.
During the Mesolithic Age (8000 to 6000 B.C.), people made crude
pottery and the first fish hooks, took dogs hunting, and developed the
bow and arrow, which were used until the fourteenth century A.D.
The Neolithic Age (6000 to 3000 B.C.) saw humankind domesticating
sheep, goats, pigs, and cattle, being less nomadic than In previous eras,
establishing permanent settlements, and creating governments.
1. Into how many periods was the stone age divided?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
2. In line 3, the word “derived”is closest in meaning to

A. Originated
B. Destroyed
C. Hallucinated
D. Discussed
3. Which of the following was developed earliest?

A. Fish hook
B. Hatchet
C. Bow and arrow
D. Pottery
4. Which of the following developments is not related to the conditions of

the Ice Age?
A. Farming
B. Clothing
C. Living indoors
D. Using fire
5. The word “crude” in line 12 is closest in meaning to

A. Extravagant
B. Complex
C. Vulgar
D. Primitive
6. The author states that the stone age was so named because
A. It was very durable like stone
B. The tools and weapons were made of stone
C. There was little vegetation
D. The people lived in stone caves
7. In line 17, “nomadic” is closest in meaning to

A. Sedentary
B. Wandering
C. Primitive
D. Inquisitive
8. With what subject in the passage mainly concerned?

A. The Neolithic Age
B. The Paleolithic Age
C. The stone Age
D. The Ice Age
9. Which of the following best describes the Mesolithic age?

A. People were inventive
B. People stayed indoors all the time
C. People were warriors
D. People were crude
10. In line 17, the word “eras” is closest in meaning to

A. Families
B. Periods
C. Herds
D. Tools
4. Pemabahasan Kunci Jawaban

5. 1. Jawaban yang sesuai text yaitu jawaban B. Jadi Periode Stone Age
dibagi ke dalam 3 masa: masa Paleolithic, Mesolithic, dan Neolithic.
2. Jawaban yang paling mirip maknanya dengan kata derived yaitu

originated. Derived dan originated dalam kontek kalimat Its name was
derived from the stone bermkna berasal dari.
3. Yang ditanyakan soal yaitu tentang benda apa yang paling lebih dahulu
dikembangkan. Masa paling awal yaitu masa Paleolithic, jadi bendanya
mesti berasal dari masa ini. Dari bacaan di atas kita bisa lihat benda yang
paling dahulu dikembangkan yaitu hatchet dan penggunaan fire untuk
memanasi dan memasak. Di pilhan jawaban hanya ada hatchet. Jadi
jawaban yang benar yaitu B. Hachet.
4. Ice Age masuk ke dalam Paleolithic Age. Kita lihat di teks bahawa di
masa Ice Age orang-orang mesti mencari perlindungan dalam cave,
penggunaan baju, dan mesti mengembangkan alat-alat baru lainnya. Di
jawaban kita lihat bahwa clothing, living indoors, dan penggunaan api
serta farming. Diantara ke empat jawaban hanya farming yang tidak
berhubungan dengan masa Ice Age.
5. Kata crude sesuai dengan kata primitive.
6. Pertanyaan ini meminta Anda menganalisa mengapa masa itu disebut

masa Stone Age. Kita lhat phrase the stone tools and weapons. Phrase ini
bermakna senjata dan alat-alat batu (terbuat dari batu). Jadi jawaban
yang benar yaitu the tools and weapons were made of stone (jawaban B).
7. Kita lihat kata tersebut menandakan perbedaan anatara masa

Mesolithic dan masa Neolithic. Di masa Mesolhitic penduduk masih sering
hunting menggunakan dog sementara kita lihat di masa Neolithic
binatang yang dibahas terkait binatang peliharaan (peternakan). Jadi,
jawaban yang benar yaitu masa Neolithic kurang wandering.
8. Sangat jelas yang menjadi pokok pembicaraan terkait stone age

sebagai garis besar.
9. Dari teks di atas kita bisa lihat bahwa masa Mesolithic merupakan
masa paling berkembang dibanding ke dua masa lainnya. Olehnya
dipilihan jawaban yang sesuai yaitu jawaban A (people were inventive.)
10. Teks dari awal membahas tentang periods. Jadi eras paling dekat
maknanya dengan periods.
SECTION 3
READING COMPREHENSION
Time-55 minutes
(including the reading of the directions)
Now set your clock for 55 minutes.
This section is designed to measure the ability to read and understand short
passages similar in topic and style to those found in North American universities
and colleges.
Directions: In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by
a number of questions about it. You are to choose the one best answer, A, B, C or
D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you
have chosen.
Answer all questions about the information in a passage on the basis of what is
stated or implied in that passage.
Read the following passage:
John Quincy Adams, who served as the sixth president of the United States from
1825 to 1829, is today recognized for his masterful statesmanship and
diplomacy. He dedicated his life to public service, both in the presidency and in
the various other political offices that he held. Throughout his political career he
demonstrated his unswerving belief in freedom of speech, the antislavery cause,
and the right of Americans to be free from European and Asian domination.
Example I
To what did John Quincy Adams devote his life?
(A) Improving his personal life

(B) Serving the public
(C) Increasing his fortune
(D) Working on his private business
According to the passage, John Quincy Adams "dedicated his life to public
service." Therefore, you should choose (B).
Example II
In line 4, the word "unswerving" is closest in meaning to
(A) movable
(B) insignificant
(C) unchanging
(D) diplomatic
The passage states that John Quincy Adams demonstrated his unswerving belief
"throughout his career." This implies that the belief did not change. Therefore,
you should choose (C).
Now begin work on the questions.
Questions 1-9
Carbon tetrachloride is a colorless and inflammable liquid that can be produced
by combining carbon disulfide and chlorine. This compound is widely used in
industry today because of its effectiveness as a solvent as well as its use in the
production of propellants.
Despite its widespread use in industry, carbon tetrachloride has been banned for
home use. In the past, carbon tetrachloride was a common ingredient in cleaning
compounds that were used throughout the home, but it was found to be
dangerous: when heated, it changes into a poisonous gas that can cause severe
illness and even death if it is inhaled. Because of this dangerous characteristic,
the United States revoked permission for the home use of carbon tetrachloride
in 1970. The United States has taken similar action with various other chemical
compounds.

C. although carbon tetrachloride can legally be used in industry, it is not allowed
in home products.

A. grandly
B. extensively
C. largely
D. hugely

A. forbidden
B. allowed
C. suggested
D. instituted


A. harmful
B. colorless
D. inflammable

A. warmed
B. breathed in
C. carelessly used
D. blown

A. gave
B. granted
C. instituted
D. took away

Questions 10-19
The next artist in this survey of American artist is James Whistler; he is included
in this survey of American artist because he was born in the United States,
although the majority of his artwork was completed in Europe. Whistler was
born in Massachusetts in 1834, but nine years later his father moved the family
to St. Petersburg, Russia, to work on the construction of a railroad. The family
returned to the United States in 1849. Two years later Whistler entered the U.S.
military academy at West Point, but he was unable to graduate. At the age of
twenty-one Whistler went to Europe to study art despite familial objections, and
he remained in Europe until his death.
Whistler worked in various art forms, including etchings and lithographs.

However, he is most famous for his paintings, particularly Arrangement in Gray
and Black No. 1: Portrait of the Artist’s Mother or Whistler’s Mother, as it is more
commonly known. This painting shows a side view of Whistler’s mother, dressed
I black and posing against a gray wall. The asymmetrical nature of the portrait,
with his mother seated off-center, is highly characteristic of Whistler’s work.

A. A survey of eighteenth-century art
B. a different American artist
C. Whistler’s other famous paintings
D. European artists
11. Which of the following best describes the information in the passage?
A. Several artists are presented
B. One artist’s life and works are described
C. Various paintings are contrasted
D. Whistler’s family life is outlined.
12. Whistler is considered an American artist because
A. he was born in America
B. he spent most of his life in Americat
C. he served in the U.S. military
D. he created most of his famous art in America
13. The world “majority” in line 2 is closest in meaning to

A. seniority
B. maturity
C. large pices
D. high percentage
14. It is implied in the passage that Whistler’s family was

A. unable to find any work at all in Rusia
B. highly supportive of his desire to pursue art
C. working class
D. military
15. The word “objections” in line 7 is closest in meaning to

A. protests
B. goals
C. agreements
D. battles
16. In line 8, the “etchings” are

A. a type of painting
B. the same as a lithograph
C. an art form introduced by Whistler
D. an art form involving engraving
17. The word “asymmetrical” in line 11 is closest in meaning to

A. proportionate
B. uneven
C. balanced
D. lyrical
18. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passsage?

A. Whistler work with a variety of art forms.
B. Whistler’s Mother is not the official name of his painting.
C. Whistler is best known for his etchings.
D. Whistler’s Mother is painted in somber tones.
19. where in the passage does the author mention the types of artwork that
Whistler was involved in?
A. Lines 1-3
B. Lines 4-5
C. Lines 6-7
D. Lines 8-10
Questions 20-30
The locations of stars in the sky relative to one another do not appear to the
naked eye to change, and as a result stars are often considered to be fixed in
position. Many unaware stargazers falsely assume that each star has its own
permanent home in the nighttime sky.
In reality, though, stars are always moving, but because of the tremendous
distances between stars themselves and from stars to Earth, the changes are
barely perceptible here. An example of a rather fast-moving star demonstrates
why this misconception prevails; it takes approximately 200 years for a relatively
rapid star like Bernard's star to move a distance in the skies equal to the
diameter of the earth's moon. When the apparently negligible movement of the
stars is contrasted with the movement of the planets, the stars are seemingly
unmoving.
20. Which of the following is the best title for this passage?
a. What the eye can see in the sky
b. Bernard's star
c. Planetary Movement
d. The Evermoving stars
21. The expression‍"naked eye" in line 1 most probably refers to

a. a telescope
b. a scientific method for observing stars
c. unassisted vision
d. a camera with a powerful lens
22. According to the passage, the distances between the stars and Earth are
a. barely perceptible
b. huge
c. fixed
d. moderate
23. The word "perceptible" in line 5 is closest in meaning to which of the

following?
a. noticeable
b. persuasive
c. conceivable
d. astonishing
24. In line 6, a "misconception" is closest in meaning to a (n)

a. idea
b. proven fact
c. erroneous belief
d. theory
25. The passage states that in 200 years Bernard's star can move
a. around Earth's moon
b. next to the earth's moon
c. a distance equal to the distance from earth to the moon
d. a distance seemingly equal to the diameter of the moon
26. The passage implies that from earth it appears that the planets
a. are fixed in the sky
b. move more slowly than the stars
c. show approximately the same amount of movement as the stars
d. travel through the sky considerably more rapidly than the stars
27. The word "negligible" in line 8 could most easily be replaced by

a. negative
b. insignificant
c. rapid
d. distant
28. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?

a. starts do not appear to the eye to move.
b. the large distances between stars and the earth tend to magnify movement to
the eye
c. Bernard's star moves quickly in comparison with other stars
d. although stars move, they seem to be fixed
29. The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses

a. the movement of the planets
b. Bernard's star
c. the distance from earth to the moon
d. why stars are always moving
30. This passage would most probably be assigned reading in which course?
a. astrology
b. geophysics
c. astronomy
d. geography
Questions 31-40
It has been noted that, traditionally, courts have granted divorces on fault
grounds: one spouse is deemed to be at fault in causing the divorce. More and
more today, however, divorces are being granted on a no-fault basis.
Proponents of no-fault divorces argue that when a marriage fails, it is rarely the
case that one marriage partner is completely to blame and the other blameless.
A failed marriage is much more often the result of mistakes by both partners.
Another argument in favor of no-fault divorce is that proving fault in court, in a

public arena, is a destructive process that only serves to lengthen the divorce
process and that dramatically increases the negative feelings present in a
divorce. If a couple can reach a decision to divorce without first deciding which
partner is to blame, the divorce settlement can be negotiated more easily and
equitably and the postdivorce healing process can begin more rapidly.

a. Traditional grounds for divorce
b. Who is at fault in a divorce
c. Why no-fault divorces are becoming more common
d. The various reasons for divorces
32. The word "spouse" in line 1 is closest in meaning to a

a. judge
b. problem
c. divorce decree
d. marriage partner
33. according to the passage, no-fault divorces

a. are on the increase
b. are the traditional form of divorce
c. are less popular that they used to be
d. were granted more in the past
34. It is implied in the passage that

a. there recently has been a decrease in no-fault divorces
b. not all divorces today are no-fault divorces
c. a no-fault divorce is not as equitable as a fault divorce
d. people recover more slowly from a no-fault divorce
35. The word "proponents" in line 4 is closest in meaning to which of the
following?
a. Advocates
b. Recipients
c. Authorities
d. Enemies
36. The passage states that a public trial to prove the fault of one spouse can
a. be satisfying to the wronged spouse
b. lead to a shorter divorce process
c. reduce negative feelings
d. be a harmful process
37. Which of the following is NOT listed in this passage as an argument in favor
of no-fault divorce?
a. Rarely is only one marriage partner to blame for a divorce
b. A no-fault divorce generally costs less in legal fees
c. Finding fault in a divorce increases negative feelings
d. A no-fault divorce settlement is generally easier to negotiate
38. The word "present" in line 9 could most easily be replaced by

a. existing
b. giving
c. introducing
d. resulting
39. The word "settlement" in line 10 is closest in meaning to

a. development
b. serenity
c. discussion
d. agreement
40. The tone of this passage is

a. emotional
b. enthusiastic
c. expository
d. reactionary
Questions 41-50
Whereas literature in the first half of the eighteenth century in America had
been largely religious and moral in tone, by the latter half of the century the
revolutionary fervor that was coming to life in the colonies began to be reflected
in the literature of the time, which in turn served to further influence the
population. Although not all writers of this period supported the Revolution, the
two best-known and most influential writers, Ben Franklin and Thomas Paine,
were both strongly supportive of that cause.
Ben Franklin first attained popular success through his writings in his brother's
newspaper, the New England Current. In these articles he used a simple style of
language and common sense argumentation to defend the point of view of the
farmer and the Leather Apron man. He continued with the same common sense
practicality and appeal to the common man with his work on Poor Richard's
Almanac from 1733 until 1758. Firmly established in his popular acceptance by
the people, Franklin wrote a variety of extremely effective articles and pamphlets
about the colonist's revolutionary cause against England.
Thomas Paine was an Englishman working as a magazine editor in Philadelphia at

the time of the Revolution. His pamphlet Common Sense, which appeared in
1776, was a force in encouraging the colonists to declare their independence
from England. Then throughout the long and desperate war years he published a
series of Crisis papers (from 1776 until 1783) to encourage the colonists to
continue on with the struggle. The effectiveness of his writing was probably due
to his emotional yet oversimplified depiction of the cause of the colonists against
England as a classic struggle of good and evil.

a. how literature influence the population
b. religious and moral literature
c. literature supporting the cause of the American Revolution
d. what made Thomas Paine's literature successful
42. The word "fervor" in line 2 is closest in meaning to

a. war
b. anxiety
c. spirit
d. action
43. The word "time" in line 3 could best be replaced by

a. hour
b. period
c. appointment
d. duration
44. It is implied in the passage that

a. some writers in the American colonies supported England during the
Revolution
b. Franklin and Paine were the only writers to influence the Revolution
c. because Thomas Paine was an Englishman, he supported England against the
colonies
d. authors who supported England did not remain in the colonies during the
Revolution
45. The pronoun "he" in line 8 refers to

a. Thomas Paine
b. Ben Franklin
c. Ben Franklin's brother
d. Poor Richard
46. The expression "point of view" in line 9 could best be replaced by

a. perspective
b. sight
c. circumstance
d. trait
47. According to the passage, the tone of Poor Richard's Almanac is

a. pragmatic
b. erudite
c. theoretical
d. scholarly
48. The word "desperate" in line 16 could best be replaced by

a. unending
b. hopeless
c. strategic
d. combative
49. Where in the passage does the author describe Thomas Paine's style of
writing?
a. lines 4-6
b. lines 8-9
c. lines 14-15
d. lines 18-20
50. The purpose of the passage is to

a. discuss American literature in the first half of the eighteen century
b. give biographical data on two American writers
c. explain which authors supported the Revolution
d. describe the literary influence during revolutionary America
Kunci Jawaban
CBAC ABDA BBBA DCAD BCDD CBAC DDBB ACCD ABAD BADC BCBA BAAB DD

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Name:Gilang Satia Laksana

Kunci Jawaban: (C) Their development of agriculture

Dapat kita temukan bahwa 'cultivation' menjadi keyword dari paragraf-paragraf

11. The word “these” in line 13 refers to

Kunci Jawaban: (D) experimentation and domestication

Kunci Jawaban: (B) 4,000 to 2,000 years ago

Jadi jawaban paling tepat ialah pilihan B.

13. The word “adequate” in line 18 is closest in meaning to

Kunci Jawaban: (A) sufficient

'Adequate' merupakan sinonim dari 'sufficient'.

Kunci Jawaban: (D) Desire for the consistent availability of food

Tipe Soal: Factual Question (Pertanyaan seperti ini menginginkan Anda untuk

15. The phrase “rather than” in line 21 is closest in meaning to

Kunci Jawaban: (B) instead of

Tipe Soal: Vocabulary-in-Context Question (Pertanyaan ini menginginkan Anda

'Rather than' merupakan sinonim dari 'instead of'.

16. The plant “sumpweed” is mentioned in line 25 in order to

Kunci Jawaban: (D) provide an example of a plant that was easy to domesticate

Tipe Soal: Factual Question (Pertanyaan seperti ini menginginkan Anda untuk

17. The word “thrived” in line 26 is closest in meaning to

Kunci Jawaban: (C) grew well

'Thrived' merupakan sinonim dari 'grew well''.

Kunci Jawaban: (A) They were varieties of weeds.

Tipe Soal: Factual Question (Pertanyaan seperti ini menginginkan Anda untuk

20. What does the passage mainly discuss?

21. The word “forage” in line 1 is closest in meaning to

Kunci Jawaban: (D) search for food

forage: to go from place to place searching, especially for food

22. The word “intermittently” in live 4 is closest in meaning to

Kunci Jawaban: (A) periodically

intermittent: not happening regularly or continuously; stopping and starting

23. The phrase “the one” in line 8 refers to a single

Kunci Jawaban: (C) To protect their trail from other species

a wide variety = different (keyword)

one milligram of this substance = how little pheromone

27. The word “furnish” in line 16 is closest in meaning to

Kunci Jawaban: (B) provide

furnish: to provide with furniture; to put furniture in

28. The word “oscillating “ in line 17 is closest in meaning to

Kunci Jawaban: (C) swinging

oscillating: to move repeatedly from one position to another

Kunci Jawaban: (B) just above the trail

A trail pheromone will evaporate to furnish the highest concentration of vapor

the highest amount = the highest concentration (keyword)

Quakerism in the American colonies existed mainly in the northeast. The

14. The word 'their' in line 4 refers to:

15. The word 'persecuted' in line 10 in closest in meaning to:

17. Which of the following would be an example of "the outward trappings

19. Why does the author mention 'execution' in line 11?

22. The word 'penchant' in the line 12 most nearly means:

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?

2. The word "intriguing" in line 5 is closest in meaning to

3. In line 7, the author mentions "cracks in an eggshell" in order to help readers

7. The word "endless" in line 14 is closest in meaning to

Simply surviving those ocean crossings of indeterminate length, in open canoes,

32. The word "scattered" in line 2 is closest in meaning toD

34.The phrase "by virtue of" in line 6 is closest in meaning to

35. The word "circumscribed" in line 7 is closest in meaning to