ECO - Chaps - 11-18
ECO - Chaps - 11-18
ECO - Chaps - 11-18
I. Money Aggregates
A. Narrow Definition of Money: M1
• M1: Currency (including coins) held by the nonbanking public, checkable deposits,
and traveler’s checks.
• Money aggregates: Measures of the money supply defined by the Federal
Reserve (e.g., M1).
B. Broader Definition of Money: M2:
• Assets that perform the store of value function and can be converted into currency
or checkable deposits.
• M2: Includes M1 as well as savings deposits, small-denomination time deposits,
money market mutual fund accounts, and other miscellaneous near-monies.
C. Credit Cards and Debit Cards: What’s the difference?
• Credit card issuers lend money to pay for purchases. You don’t need money until
you repay the credit card. Therefore, credit cards merely delay the use of money.
• Debit cards reduce your bank balance immediately, electronic transfer (M1).
B. Starting a Bank:
To obtain a charter, first owners must apply to the state banking authority. Next,
owners issue themselves shares of stock, called owners’ equity or net worth, and start
accepting deposits. The bank’s balance sheet consists of assets, liabilities, and net
worth. Assets must always equal liabilities plus net worth.
C. Reserve Accounts:
• Required reserves: The Fed requires banks to hold a minimum percentage of
their deposits in reserve. Computed by multiplying checkable deposits by the
required reserve ratio.
• Required Reserve Ratio: Dictates the minimum portion of deposits the bank
must hold in reserve.
• Excess Reserves: Bank reserves in excess of required reserves; can be used to
make loans or purchase interest-bearing assets.
D. Liquidity Versus Profitability:
The bank manager must structure the portfolio of assets with an eye toward liquidity
but must not forget that the banks’ survival depends on profitability.
• Liquidity: The ease with which an asset can be converted into cash without a
significant loss of value.
o The most liquid asset is bank reserves, but cash earns no interest and reserves
held at the Fed earn only a small rate of interest.
o Because reserves earn little or no interest, banks try to keep excess reserves to
a minimum.
• Federal funds market: Provides day-to-day lending and borrowing among banks
of excess reserves on account at the Fed.
• Federal funds rate: Interest rate paid in the federal funds market for excess
reserves at the Fed. The Fed targets this rate as a tool of monetary policy.
IV. The Phillips Curve: Shows possible combinations of the inflation rate and the
unemployment rate.
A. The Phillips Framework: Dilemma of 1970s led to reexamination of the Phillips
curve.
B. The Short-Run Phillips Curve: Assumes a given expected inflation rate; exhibits an
inverse relationship between inflation and unemployment.
C. The Long-Run Phillips Curve: A vertical line at the economy’s natural rate of
unemployment; the unemployment rate is independent of the inflation rate. Policy
makers cannot choose between unemployment and inflation in the long run. They can
only choose among alternative rates of inflation.
D. The Natural Rate Hypothesis:
• In the long run the economy tends toward the natural rate of unemployment.
• This natural rate of unemployment is independent of any aggregate demand
stimulus.
• The optimal long-run policy is one that results in low inflation.
E. Evidence of the Phillips Curve
• Each short-run Phillips curve is drawn for a given expected inflation rate.
• A change in inflationary expectations shifts the short-run Phillips curve.
I. Balance of Payments
A. International Economic Transactions: The balance-of-payments measures
economic transactions between a country and the rest of the world, whether these
transactions involve goods and services, real and financial assets, or transfer payments.
B. The Merchandise Trade Balance: The value of merchandise exports minus the
value of merchandise imports.
C. Balance on Goods and Services: The export value of goods and services minus the
import value of goods and services, or net exports, a component of GDP.
D. Net Investment Income: U.S. investment earnings from foreign assets minus
foreigners’ earnings from their U.S. assets.
E. Unilateral Transfers and Current Account Balance: Government transfers to
foreign residents, foreign aid, money workers send to families abroad, personal gifts to
friends and relatives abroad, and charitable donations.
• Net unilateral transfers abroad: Unilateral transfers received from abroad by U.S.
residents minus unilateral transfers sent to foreign residents by U.S. residents.
• Balance on current account: The sum of the country’s net unilateral transfers and net
exports of goods and services and net investment income from assets owned abroad.
F. The Financial Account: Records a country’s international purchases of assets,
including financial assets, such as stocks, bonds, and bank balances, and real assets
such as land, housing, factories, and other physical assets. The Statistical Discrepancy:
A fudge factor (1) measuring the net error in the balance-of-payments and (2)
satisfying the double-entry bookkeeping requirement that total debits must equal total
credits.
G. Deficits and Surpluses: Any surplus or deficit in one account must be offset by
deficits or surpluses in other balance-of-payments accounts.
CHAPTER 11
1. Financing expansionary fiscal policy by increasing the deficit does not generally affect
interest rates.
True False
2. Automatic stabilizers will reduce tax revenues during recessions and increase tax
revenues during periods of strong economic growth.
True False
3. A federal budget surplus means that government revenues exceed its expenditures.
True False
4. Financing public debt increases interest rates and reduces private investment spending.
True False
13. If the Congress passes legislation to cut taxes to counter the effects of a severe
recession, then this would be an example of a(n):
A. political business cycle.
B. contractionary fiscal policy.
C. expansionary fiscal policy.
D. nondiscretionary fiscal policy.
CHAPTER 12
17. A government budget deficit occurs when government revenues exceed government
expenditures.
True False
18. If there is a federal budget surplus, then government revenues are greater than its
expenditures.
True False
19. Over the past five years, most countries' debt-to-GDP ratios have risen as a result of the
global recession.
True False
20. Crowding out is the offsetting effect on private expenditures caused by the
government's sale of bonds to finance expansionary fiscal policy.
True False
21. The financing of the public debt can increase interest rates and reduce private
investment spending.
True False
22. If government has no debt initially but then annual revenues are $8 billion for 10 years
while annual expenditures are $11 billion for 10 years, then the government has a:
A. deficit of $3 billion per year and a debt of $30 billion.
B. surplus of $3 billion per year and a debt of $30 billion.
C. deficit of $30 billion and a debt of $3 billion per year.
D. surplus of $30 billion and a debt of $3 billion per year.
23. If the national debt increases in any given year, it follows that the government:
A. sold bonds in that year to finance a budget surplus.
B. bought bonds in that year to finance a budget surplus.
C. sold bonds in that year to finance a budget deficit.
D. bought bonds in that year to finance a budget deficit.
25. If the debt of the federal government increases by $10 billion in one year the budget:
A. deficit in that year must be $10 billion.
B. surplus in that year must be $10 billion.
C. deficit in that year increased by $10 billion.
D. surplus in that year decreased by $10 billion.
28. If the cyclically adjusted budget deficit increases from $200 billion to $250 billion and
GDP remains constant over the two years:
A. fiscal policy is expansionary.
B. fiscal policy is contractionary.
C. fiscal policy is neutral.
D. the tax system is progressive.
29. The public debt is the:
A. amount of U.S. paper currency in circulation.
B. ratio of all past deficits to all past surpluses.
C. total of all past deficits minus all past surpluses.
D. difference between current government expenditures and revenues.
32. Issuing new U.S. Treasury bonds to replace bonds that have matured is:
A. Debt refinancing.
B. Debt servicing.
C. Income transfers.
D. Discretionary fiscal spending.
CHAPTER 13
33. Cash is an example of a liquid financial asset.
True False
34. The United States faced the most serious financial crisis since the Great Depression
during the period of 2007-2008.
True False
35. Money doesn't have to have any inherent value to function as a medium of exchange.
True False
39. In POW camps during World War II, everything was traded for cigarettes. For example,
one bar of soap cost two cigarettes and two candy bars cost four cigarettes. During the
time of the POW camps, cigarettes:
A. did not serve as money because their value was not backed by government.
B. did not serve as money because no one controlled the supply of cigarettes.
C. served as money for those who smoked.
D. served as money because they served as a unit of account, medium of exchange, and
store of wealth.
43. The measure of money that best fulfills the medium of exchange function because it is
most liquid is:
A. M1.
B. M2.
C. M3.
D. L.
44. When the Fed prints and issues bills, it creates:
A. a financial liability for the holder of the IOU.
B. a financial asset for itself.
C. a real asset.
D. money.
46. The goldsmith's ability to create money was based on the fact that:
A. gold receipts were rarely exchanged for gold.
B. the goldsmith was required to keep 100 percent gold reserves.
C. consumers preferred to use gold for transactions.
D. withdrawals of gold tended to exceed deposits of gold.
49. The leaders of the Federal Reserve System headquartered in Washington, D.C. are the:
A. Federal Reserve Bank of Washington, D.C.
B. Federal Open Market Committee.
C. Federal Economic Advisory Board.
D. Board of Governors.
50. The Federal Open Market Committee makes decisions about ______ policy.
A. monetary
B. fiscal
C. banking
D. deposit insurance
51. The most important, convenient, and flexible way the Federal Reserve affects the supply
of bank reserves is through:
A. conducting open-market operations.
B. changing the Federal Reserve discount rate.
C. changing bank reserve requirement ratios.
D. changing interest rates.
52. A banking panic is an episode in which:
A. depositors, spurred by news or rumors of possible bankruptcy of one bank, rush to
withdraw deposits from the banking system.
B. commercial banks, fearing Federal Reserve sanctions, unwillingly participate in open-
market operations.
C. commercial banks, concerned about high interest rates, rush to borrow at the Federal
Reserve discount rate.
D. depositors, afraid of increasing interest rates, attempt to engage in discount-window
borrowing at the Federal Reserve.
53. Which of the following were factors in the financial crisis of 2007-2008?
A. Mortgage default crisis.
B. Lax lending standards.
C. Subprime mortgage loans.
D. All of these.
CHAPTER 14
55. When a bank creates loans, it also creates money.
True False
56. The Federal funds rate is the rate that banks charge other banks for overnight loans of
excess reserves.
True False
58. Firms that extend credit to borrowers using funds from savers are called:
A. bond dealers.
B. stock brokers.
C. central banks.
D. financial intermediaries.
61. Which of the following components is not included in the M2 definition of money?
A. M1.
B. Savings and money market accounts.
C. Small-denomination time deposits.
D. Bonds.
63. Consumers shifting money out of checking accounts and paying credit cards will affect:
A. M1.
B. M2.
C. M3.
D. L.
64. Banks hold people's cash for free, and may pay for the privilege of holding it, because:
A. they are nice.
B. deposits allow banks to make profitable loans.
C. the Federal Reserve requires that they do so.
D. the cash can be deposited at the Federal Reserve Bank to earn interest.
67. Suppose total deposits in the First Bank of Commerce are $200,000 and required
reserves are $10,000. Based on this information, the required reserve ratio is:
A. 0.05.
B. 0.10.
C. 0.20.
D. 20.0.
68. A reserve ratio of 0.10 means that a bank can lend an amount equal to:
A. 10 percent of its deposit liabilities.
B. 10 percent of its excess reserves.
C. 90 percent of its deposit liabilities.
D. 90 percent of its excess reserves.
69. A single bank has a reserve requirement of 10 percent. This means that if a customer
deposits $100 million, the bank may lend out:
A. $9 million.
B. $10 million.
C. $90 million.
D. $91 million.
72. Suppose the required reserve ratio is 0.20. Total bank deposits are $200 million and the
bank holds $50 million in reserves. How much more money could the bank create if it
does not hold excess reserves?
A. $5 million
B. $25 million
C. $30 million
D. $50 million
CHAPTER 15
75. In the AS/AD model, an increase in the money supply causes an increase in the
interest rate and an increase in investment spending.
True False
76. If nominal GDP is $2000 billion and the amount of money demanded for transactions
purposes is $500 billion, then on average each dollar will be spent about four times.
True False
77. The discount rate is the interest rate at which commercial banks lend to their best
corporate customers.
True False
78. The most frequently used instrument of the Federal Reserve System to control
changes in the money supply is the required reserve ratio.
True False
79. The Federal funds rate is the interest rate that banks charge other banks for
overnight loans of excess reserves in the banking system.
True False
80. Refer to the above graph; Dt is the transactions demand for money, Dm is the total
demand for money, and Sm is the supply of money. If the money market is in
equilibrium at a 6% interest and the money supply increases, then Sm2 will shift to:
A. Sm3 and the interest rate will be 4 percent.
B. Sm3 and the interest rate will be 8 percent.
C. Sm1 and the interest rate will be 8 percent.
D. Sm1 and the interest rate will be 4 percent.
84. Which of the following monetary policies raises aggregate demand and output?
A. An open market sale of government securities
B. An increase in the federal funds rate
C. An increase in the discount rate
D. A cut in the reserve requirement
85. Which of the following monetary policies reduces aggregate demand and output?
A. A cut in the federal funds rate
B. An open market purchase of government securities
C. An increase in the discount rate
D. A cut in the required reserve ratio
86. According to the AS/AD model, if the economy is in a recession and the Fed wants to
increase output and employment, it should:
A. act to increase the money supply.
B. act to decrease the money supply.
C. raise interest rates.
D. raise reserve requirements.
87. Other things equal, a rise in interest rates can be expected to:
A. increase the quantity of investment.
B. decrease the quantity of investment.
C. have no effect upon the quantity of investment.
D. increase equilibrium income.
92. Which of the following is not something the Fed can change directly?
A. The reserve requirement
B. The discount rate
C. Open market operations
D. The prime rate
95. Buying financial assets from banks and other financial institutions with newly created
money is referred to as:
A. credit easing.
B. Operation Twist.
C. quantitative easing.
D. precommitment policy.
CHAPTER 16
96. Automatic stabilizers are government programs or policies that will counteract the
business cycle without any new government action.
True False
97. The long-run Phillips curve shifts to the left or the right as expectations of inflation
change.
True False
98. Active stabilization policy may actually destabilize the economy since policy makers
A. Do not know the exact length of policy lags
B. Often do not know whether a disturbance is permanent or transitory
C. Base their decisions on incomplete information about the economy
D. All of the above
106. The slope of the long-run Phillips curve is thought by many economists to be:
A. horizontal.
B. vertical.
C. downward sloping.
D. backward bending.
107. Refer to the graph shown. If expected inflation increases from 0 percent to 6 percent
the:
A. short-run Phillips curve will shift from PC2 to PC1.
B. short-run Phillips curve will shift from PC1 to PC2.
C. economy will move from point C to point A.
D. economy will move from point B to point C.
CHAPTER 18
108. If a nation has a balance of payments deficit and exchange rates are flexible, the
price of that nation's currency in the foreign exchange markets will rise.
True False
109. When the supply of yen increases, the dollar will appreciate against the yen.
True False
110. Relatively high rates of U.S. inflation will increase the supply of, and decrease the
demand for, dollars in foreign currency markets.
True False
111. The expectations of speculators in the United States that the exchange rate for the
euro will fall in the future will increase the supply of euros in the foreign exchange
market and decrease the exchange rate for the euro.
True False
112. If the U.S. price level rises relative to the Japanese price level, purchasing power
parity predicts a long run increase in the value of the dollar relative to the yen.
True False
113. The record of international trade in goods and services and international transfer
payments is called
A. The balance of payments
B. The capital account
C. The current account
D. The foreign account
114. The difference between the value of goods exported and imported is the:
A. current account balance.
B. financial and capital account balance.
C. government financial balance.
D. balance of merchandise trade.
115. The accounting of all economic transactions between two countries is known as the:
A. balance of trade.
B. net capital outflow.
C. balance of payments.
D. trade surplus.
116. For the foreign exchange market, exports from the United States generate a:
A. supply of dollars and imports to the United States also generate supply of dollars.
B. supply of dollars and imports to the United States generate a demand for dollars.
C. demand for dollars and imports to the United States generate a supply of dollars.
D. demand for dollars and imports to the United States generate a demand for dollars
120. If an American can purchase 40,000 British pounds for $90,000, the dollar rate of
exchange for the pound is:
A. $1.40.
B. $2.00.
C. $2.25.
D. $6.00.
121. A market in which one nation’s money is exchanged for another nation’s money is a:
A. resource market.
B. bond market.
C. stock market.
D. foreign exchange market.
123. If the exchange rate changes so that more Mexican pesos are required to buy a
dollar, then:
A. the peso has appreciated in value.
B. Americans will buy more Mexican goods and services.
C. more U.S. goods and services will be demanded by the Mexicans.
D. the dollar has depreciated in value.
127. In an economy with a fixed exchange rate, when the market forces try to change the
exchange rate, the government:
A. must buy or sell its currency using its own reserve to bring equilibrium in the
market to where it has "fixed" it.
B. declares it can't change, and holds it constant.
C. often has to deal with an unhappy domestic population who are constantly dealing
with shortages or surpluses of their currency.
D. None of these statements is true.
Solutions to Practice Questions