Ch09 - Cost of Capital 12112020 125813pm
Ch09 - Cost of Capital 12112020 125813pm
Ch09 - Cost of Capital 12112020 125813pm
9-1 Calculate the after-tax cost of debt under each of the following conditions:
a. Interest rate of 13%, tax rate of 0%
b. Interest rate of 13%, tax rate of 20%
c. Interest rate of 13%, tax rate of 35%
a. rd(1 - T) = 13%(1 - 0) = 13.00%.
D ps
rps =
V ps(1−F )
$ 4.50
= $50 (1−0.0)
= 9%.
9-4 Burnwood Tech plans to issue some $60 par preferred stock with a 6%
dividend. A similar stock is selling on the market for $70. Burnwood must pay
flotation costs of 5% of the issue price. What is the cost of the preferred stock?
$ 60(0 .06) $3.60
rps = $70 .00(1−0.05 ) = $66.50 = 5.41%.
9-5 Summerdahl Resort’s common stock is currently trading at $36 a share. The
stock is expected to pay a dividend of $3.00 a share at the end of the year (D1 =
$3.00), and the dividend is expected to grow at a constant rate of 5% a year. What
is its cost of common equity?
P0 = $36; D1 = $3.00; g = 5%; rs = ?
D1
rs = P0 + g = ($3.00/$36.00) + 0.05 = 13.33%.
9-6 Booher Book Stores has a beta of 0.8. The yield on a 3-month T-bill is 4%
and the yield on a 10-year T-bond is 6%. The market risk premium is 5.5%, and
the return on an average stock in the market last year was 15%. What is the
estimated cost of common equity using the CAPM?
rs = rRF + bi(RPM) = 0.06 + 0.8(0.055) = 10.4%.
9-7 Shi Importer’s balance sheet shows $300 million in debt, $50 million in
preferred stock, and $250 million in total common equity. Shi’s tax rate is 40%, rd
= 6%, rps = 5.8%, and rs = 12%. If Shi has a target capital structure of 30% debt,
5% preferred stock, and 65% common stock, what is its WACC?
30% Debt; 5% Preferred Stock; 65% Equity; rd = 6%; T = 40%; rps = 5.8%; rs = 12%.
9-8 David Ortiz Motors has a target capital structure of 40% debt and 60%
equity. The yield to maturity on the company’s outstanding bonds is 9%, and the
company’s tax rate is 40%. Ortiz’s CFO has calculated the company’s WACC as
9.96%. What is the company’s cost of equity capital?
40% Debt; 60% Equity; rd = 9%; T = 40%; WACC = 9.96%; rs = ?
Enter these values: N = 60, PV = -515.16, PMT = 30, and FV = 1000, to get I = 6% = periodic
rate. The nominal rate is 6%(2) = 12%, and the after-tax component cost of debt is
12%(0.6) = 7.2%.
CP + (FV + PV) / n
YTM = ________________
(FV + PV) / 2
9-10 The earnings, dividends, and stock price of Shelby Inc. are expected to grow at 7% per
year in the future. Shelby’s common stock sells for $23 per share, its last dividend was $2.00,
and the company will pay a dividend of $2.14 at the end of the current year.
a. Using the discounted cash flow approach, what is its cost of equity?
b. If the firm’s beta is 1.6, the risk-free rate is 9%, and the expected return on the market
is 13%, then what would be the firm’s cost of equity based on the CAPM approach?
c. If the firm’s bonds earn a return of 12%, then what would be your estimate of rs
using the over-own-bond-yield-plus-judgmental-risk-premium approach?
(Hint: Use the midpoint of the risk premium range.)
d. On the basis of the results of parts a through c, what would be your estimate of
Shelby’s cost of equity?
D1 $2.14
a. rs = P0 + g = $23 + 7% = 9.3% + 7% = 16.3%.
a. $6.50 = $4.42(1+g)5
(1+g)5 = $6.50/$4.42 = 1.471
(1+g) = 1.471(1/5) = 1.080
g = 8%.
9-12 Spencer Supplies’ stock is currently selling for $60 a share. The firm is expected to
earn $5.40 per share this year and to pay a year-end dividend of $3.60.
a. If investors require a 9% return, what rate of growth must be expected for
Spencer?
b. If Spencer reinvests earnings in projects with average returns equal to the
stock’s expected rate of return, then what will be next year’s EPS?
(Hint: g = ROE × Retention ratio.)
D1
a. rs = P0 +g
$3.60
0.09 = $60.00 + g
0.09 = 0.06 + g
g = 3%.
9-14 Suppose a company will issue new 20-year debt with a par value of $1,000 and a coupon
rate of 9%, paid annually. The tax rate is 40%. If the flotation cost is 2% of the
issue proceeds, then what is the after-tax cost of debt? Disregard the tax shield from
the amortization of flotation costs.
Enter these values: N = 20, PV =1,000(1-0.02) = 980, PMT = -90(1- 0.4)=-54, and
FV = -1000, to get I/YR = 5.57%, which is the after-tax component cost of debt.
9-15 On January 1, the total market value of the Tysseland Company was $60 million.
During the year, the company plans to raise and invest $30 million in new projects.
The firm’s present market value capital structure, shown below, is considered to be
optimal. There is no short-term debt.
Debt $30,000,000
Common equity 30,000,000
Total capital $60,000,000
New bonds will have an 8% coupon rate, and they will be sold at par. Common stock
is currently selling at $30 a share. The stockholders’ required rate of return is estimated
to be 12%, consisting of a dividend yield of 4% and an expected constant
growth rate of 8%. (The next expected dividend is $1.20, so the dividend yield is
$1.20/$30 = 4%.) The marginal tax rate is 40%.
a. In order to maintain the present capital structure, how much of the new investment
must be financed by common equity?
b. Assuming there is sufficient cash flow for Tysseland to maintain its target capital
structure without issuing additional shares of equity, what is its WACC?
c. Suppose now that there is not enough internal cash flow and the firm must issue
new shares of stock. Qualitatively speaking, what will happen to the WACC? No
numbers are required to answer this question.
0.5($30,000,000) = $15,000,000.
After-Tax
Percent Cost = Product
Debt 0.50 4.8%* 2.4%
Common equity 0.50 12.0 6.0
WACC = 8.4%
c. ks and the WACC will increase due to the flotation costs of new equity.
9-16 The book and market value of the notes payable are $10,000,000.
V = $60([1/0.10]-[1/(0.1*(1+0.10)20)]) + $1,000((1+0.10)-20)
= $60(8.5136) + $1,000(0.1486)
= $510.82 + $148.60 = $659.42.
Alternatively, using a financial calculator, input N = 20, I/YR = 10, PMT = 60, and FV =
1000 to arrive at a PV = $659.46.
The total market value of the long-term debt is 30,000($659.46) = $19,783,800.
There are 1 million shares of stock outstanding, and the stock sells for $60 per share.
Therefore, the market value of the equity is $60,000,000.
The market value capital structure is thus:
Step 1.
Establish a set of market value capital structure weights. In this case, A/P and accruals
should be disregarded because they are not sources of financing from investors. Instead
of being incorporated into the WACC, they are accounted for when calculating cash
flows. For this firm, short-term debt is used to finance seasonal goods, and the balance is
reduced to zero in off-seasons. Therefore, this is not a source of permanent financing. and
should be disregarded when calculating the WACC.
Debt:
40
∑ (1$.06
40 $ 1 , 000
+
)t (1 . 06)40
V0 = t=1 = $699,
Preferred Stock:
$2
Pps = 0.11/ 4 = $72.73.
There are $5,000,000/$100 = 50,000 shares of preferred outstanding, so the total market
value of the preferred is
50,000($72.73) = $3,636,500.
Common Stock:
4,000,000($20) = $80,000,000.
Therefore, here is the firm's market value capital structure, which we assume to be
optimal:
We would round these weights to 20% debt, 4% preferred, and 76% common equity.
Step 2.
Debt cost:
There are three basic ways of estimating rs: CAPM, the dividend growth approach, and
judgmental risk premium over own bonds. None of the methods is very exact.
CAPM:
We would use rRF = T-bond rate = 10%. For RP M, we would use 4.5% to 5.5%. For beta,
we would use a beta in the 1.3 to 1.7 range. Combining these values, we obtain this
range of values for rs:
It would not be appropriate to base g on the 30% ROE, because investors do not expect
that rate.
Finally, we could use the analysts' forecasted g range, 10% to 15%. The dividend
yield is D1/P0. Assuming g = 12%,
DCF (ks) =
D1 $1 (1.12)
P0 = $ 20 + g = 5.6% + 12.5% = 18.1%
CAPM 17.5%
Dividend growth 18.1%
Risk Premium 17.0%
Step 3.