OML751 Testing of Materials

DHIRAJLAL GANDHI COLLEGE OF
TECHNOLOGY For More Visit : www.LearnEngineering.in
Testing of Materials / Objective Questions Prepared by Mr.V.Vinoth & Mr.A.Inbasekaran AP / Mech

OML751 LTPC3003
TESTING OF MATERIALS
OBJECTIVES
 To understand the various destructive and non destructive testing
methods of materials and its industrial applications.
UNIT I INTRODUCTION TO MATERIALS TESTING 9
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Overview of materials, Classification of material testing, Purpose of testing,
Selection of material, Development of testing, Testing organizations and its
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committee, Testing standards, Result Analysis, Advantages of testing.
UNIT II MECHANICAL TESTING 9
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Introduction to mechanical testing, Hardness test (Vickers, Brinell, Rockwell),
Tensile test, Impact test (Izod, Charpy) - Principles, Techniques, Methods,
Advantages and Limitations, Applications. Bend test, Shear test, Creep and
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Fatigue test - Principles, Techniques, Methods, Advantages and Limitations,
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Applications.
UNIT III NON DESTRUCTIVE TESTING 9

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Visual inspection, Liquid penetrant test, Magnetic particle test, Thermography

test – Principles, Techniques, Advantages and Limitations, Applications.
Radiographic test, Eddy current test, Ultrasonic test, Acoustic emission-
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Principles, Techniques, Methods, Advantages and Limitations, Applications.
UNIT IV MATERIAL CHARACTERIZATION TESTING 9

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Macroscopic and Microscopic observations, Optical and Electron microscopy

(SEM and TEM) - Principles, Types, Advantages and Limitations, Applications.
Diffraction techniques, Spectroscopic Techniques, Electrical and Magnetic
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Techniques- Principles, Types, Advantages and Limitations, Applications.

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UNIT V OTHER TESTING 9

Thermal Testing: Differential scanning calorimetry, Differential thermal
analysis. Thermo-mechanical and Dynamic mechanical analysis: Principles,
Advantages, Applications. Chemical Testing: X-Ray Fluorescence, Elemental
Analysis by Inductively Coupled Plasma-Optical Emission Spectroscopy and
Plasma-Mass Spectrometry.
TOTAL : 45 PERIODS
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OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
1. The ability of a material to undergo plastic deformation without fracture

when subjected to uniaxial tensile force is ___
a) Ductility
b) Malleability
c) Tensile Strength
d) Yield Strength
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2. Which metal has the highest ductility?
a) Silver
b) Gold
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c) Platinum
d) Aluminium
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3. Ductility of ceramics is ___
a) Less than 1%
b) 2 – 4%
c) 4 – 40% e
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d) More than 40%
4. What is the ductility of annealed Cu?

a) 25%
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b) 35%
c) 40%
d) 45%
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5. What is the ductility of commercial pure Titanium?

a) 10%
b) 14%
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c) 16%
d) 25%
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6. Which factor increases ductility?

a) Cold working
b) Annealing
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c) Alloying
d) Inclusions
7. Which crystal structure materials possess the best ductility properties?

a) FCC
b) HCP
c) BCC
d) SC
8. Which factor decreases the ductility of materials?

a) Annealing
b) Spheroidization

c) Grain refinement
d) Alloying
9. Cast materials show better ductility than wrought materials.

a) True
b) False
10. Neutron irradiation by neutrons can ___ yield stress and ___ ductility.
a) Increase, increase
b) Increase, decrease
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c) Decrease, increase
d) Decrease, decrease
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11. With the increase in the degree of stress triaxiality, ductility of material
decreases.
a) True
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b) False
12. As the strain rate increases, the value of ductility ___

a) Increases e
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b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Changes independent of strain rate.
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13. Original gauge length of aluminium cylindrical spectrum is 2 inches and

fracture length is 2.78 inches. What is the ductility of specimen?
a) 38%
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b) 39%
c) 40%
d) 41%
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14. A cylindrical specimen having diameter of 12.8 mm is starting and 7.3 mm

at the fracture point. What is ductility?
a) 56%
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b) 64%
c) 67%
d) 78%
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15.The ability of a material to undergo plastic deformation without rupture,

when a compressive force is applied, is known as ______
a) Ductility
b) Formability
c) Compressive strength
d) Malleability
16. Which metal has maximum malleability?

a) Platinum
b) Gold


c) Silver
d) Aluminium
17. Which metal shows good malleability but poor ductility?

a) Silver
b) Gold
c) Lead
d) Aluminium
18. With an increase in temperature, malleability of material ______
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a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
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d) Varies independent of temperature
19. Malleability is the property of a material to be formed into ______
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a) Wires
b) Sheets
c) Bars
d) Billets e
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20. Malleable iron is made by heating white iron between _____ for a long time
period.
a) 200-300°C
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b) 400-500°C
c) 800-900°C
d) 1100-1200°C
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21. Malleable cast iron consists of _____

a) Graphite flakes
b) Graphite nodules
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c) Graphite clusters
d) Spheroidite
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22. Crystal structure of a material is an important factor, which affects the

malleability.
a) True
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b) False
23. Which statement is false regarding malleability?

a) Presence of interstitials decreases malleability
b) With an increase in temperature malleability of material decreases
c) FCC crystals generally have good malleability
d) Materials with weak metallic bond tend to have good malleability
24. Materials with stronger metallic bonds exhibit high malleability.

a) True
b) False


25. What is the inverse of stiffness?
a) Hardness
b) Stress
c) Flexibility
d) Toughness
26. A material’s resistance to elastic deflection is known as ___

a) stiffness
b) toughness
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c) hardness
d) elasticity
27. What is the SI unit of stiffness?
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a) N/m
b) N/m
c) Nm2
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d) N
28. How can stiffness of material be improved?

a) By increasing the cross-sectional area e
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b) By decreasing the cross-sectional area
c) By increasing temperature
d) By increasing the length of spring
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29. Plasticizers in polymers ___ toughness and ____ stiffness.

a) increase, increase
b) increase, decrease
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c) decrease, increase
d) decrease, decrease
30. Stiffness and strength of polymer ___ with an increase in the degree of
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crystallinity.
a) increases
b) decreases
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c) remains constant
d) varies showing no relation to the degree of crystallinity
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31. Increasing the stiffness of material diminishes its impact strength.

a) True
b) False
32. A stiff material is always of high strength.

a) True
b) False
33. Which statement is true regarding stiffer?

a) A longer spring is stiffer
b) A spring with thin wire is stiffer


c) Copper wire spring is stiffer than steel wire spring
d) A spring with a smaller diameter of coils is stiffer
34. With an increase in temperature, elastic modulus of metals ____ and

stiffness ____
a) increases, increases
b) increases, decreases
c) decreases, increases
d) decreases, decreases
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35. The property of a material which enables it to absorb energy and deform
plastically without fracture is ______
a) Stiffness
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b) Toughness
c) Hardness
d) Resilience
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36. What is the SI unit of tensile toughness?
a) N/m
b) in.lbf.in-3 e
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c) Jm-3
d) Jm3
37. What is fracture toughness range of ceramics?

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a) 2-8 MN m-3/2
b) 1-10 MN m-3/2
c) 10-30 MN m-3/2
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d) 30-40 MN m-3/2
38. What is fracture toughness of magnesia in terms of stress intensity factor?

a) 1 MPa m1/2
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b) 2 MPa m1/2
c) 3 MPa m1/2
d) 5 MPa m1/2
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39. Match the following.

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Material KIc (MPa m1/2)

i) Titanium alloy p) 3-4
ii) Aluminium q) 0.2-1.4
iii) Concrete r) 44-66
iv) Silicon carbide s) 14-28
a) i-r, ii-s, iii-p, iv-q

b) i-s, ii-r, iii-q, iv-p
c) i-s, ii-r, iii-p, iv-q
d) i-r, ii-s, iii-q, iv-p


40. The toughness of material depends on _____ and _____ of material.
a) Ductility, yield strength
b) Ductility, tensile strength
c) Stiffness, tensile strength
d) Hardness, yield strength
41. Which factor decreases toughness of material?

a) Alloying
b) Temperature
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c) Grain refinement
d) Strain rate
42. What is the reason of low toughness of grey cast iron?
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a) Strain rate
b) Notch effect
c) Grain size effect
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d) Crystal structure
43. Which material, would you choose for high toughness property on lower
temperatures? e
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a) Steel
b) Aluminium
c) Zinc
d) SiC
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44. Stress intensity factor is not a function of _______

a) Loading
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b) Crack size
c) Volume
d) Structural geometry
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45. Material has tensile strength 40 MPa and fracture strain 0.39. What will be
approximate value of toughness?
a) 10.2 MJ/m3
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b) 15.6 MJ/m3
c) 16.7 MJ/m3
d) 18.9 MJ/m3
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46. A material has tensile strength 210 MPa, yield strength 117 MPa and
fracture strain 0.45. What will be approximate value of toughness?
a) 54.8 MJ/m3
b) 67.4 MJ/m3
c) 73.6 MJ/m3
d) 89.2 MJ/m3
47. Cast materials are tougher than wrought materials.

a) True
b) False


48. Which statement is false?
a) A matrix of thermoplastic provides higher toughness than thermoset in the
composite.
b) Microcracking can improve toughness in a composite
c) Tempering of martensite decreases toughness of steel
d) Copolymerization can improve the toughness of polymer
49. The toughness of the composite depends on the toughness of the matrix.
a) True
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b) False
50. ______ is the resistance of a material to plastic deformation by indentation.

a) Toughness
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b) Resilience
c) Hardness
d) Stiffness
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51. What is SI unit of hardness?
a) kg/m3
b) kg/m2 e
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c) g/m2
d) N/m
52. The hardness of martensite ______ with an increase in carbon content.

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a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
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d) First increases and then decreases
53. _____ is the strongest bond.

a) Van der Waals bond
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b) Metallic bond
c) Covalent bond
d) Hydrogen bond
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54. ______ improve hardness.

a) Strain hardening
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b) Plasticizers
c) Over aging
d) Tempering
55. What is the hardness of silicon carbides?

a) 5-10 HV
b) 10-14 HV
c) 15-20 HV
d) 20-30 HV
56. When hardness is measured under dynamic loading conditions, it is known

as _____ hardness.

a) Brinell
b) Rebound
c) Knoop
d) Rockwell
57. With an increase in temperature, hardness of material _____ and ductility

______
a) Increases, increases
b) Increases, decreases
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c) Decreases, increases
d) Decreases, decreases
58. Which process increases the hardness of the material?
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a) Tempering
b) Annealing
c) Quenching
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d) Over aging

a) Alloying increases hardness of the pure metale
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b) Dual phase alloys are harder than single phase alloys
c) Interstitial solid solutions are harder than substitutional solid solutions
d) Heat treatment always decreases the hardness of a material
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60. Which scale is not used to measure indentation hardness?

a) Rockwell
b) Bennett
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c) Shore
d) Brinell
61. Cooling rate _____ with distance from the quenched end, and the hardness
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_____
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62. Stamping operation increases hardness.

a) True
b) False
63. Which microconstituent of Steel is hardest?

a) Spheroidite
b) Pearlite
c) Bainite
d) Martensite


64. Coarse pearlite is harder than fine perlite for the same composition of Steel.
a) True
b) False
65.What is tensile strength of brass?

a) 550 MPa
b) 220 MPa
c) 350 MPa
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d) 760 MPa
66. Match the following?
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Tensile strength
Material
(in MPa)
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i) Annealed silver p) 15
ii) Rubber q) 33
iii) Brass r) 170
iv) Glass s) 550 e
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a) i-q, ii-p, iii-r, iv-s
b) i-r, ii-p, iii-s, iv-q
c) i-p, ii-r, iii-q, iv-s
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d) i-r, ii-p, iii-q, iv-s
67. Which one of the following, is not a unit of ultimate tensile strength?
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a) MPa
b) N/m2
c) Kg/m3
d) psi
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68. The ability of the material to withstand tensile force, without breaking, is
known as ______
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a) Yield strength
b) Tensile strength
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d) Creep strength
69. With an increase in the degree of cold working, tensile strength of material
______
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) First decreases then increase
70. Which one of the following factor decreases the tensile strength?
a) Cold working
b) Alloying

c) Temperature rise
d) Grain refinement

a) With an increase in the degree of cold working, UTS increases.
b) UTS increases with a decrease in temperature.
c) UPS increases with an increase in grain size.
d) Larger the difference between the radius of solute and solvent atoms of
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alloy, higher is the tensile strength.
72. Tensile strength is used as a design criterion for ductile materials.

a) True
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b) False
73. If the Brinell hardness of a steel specimen is measured 149 HBN. What will
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be the UTS?
a) 431 MPa
b) 514 MPa
c) 608 MPa e
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d) 637 MPa
74. Brinell hardness of a steel specimen is 151 HBN. Give the value of UTS of
Steel in psi.
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a) 520 psi
b) 42050 psi
c) 75500 psi
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d) 86200 psi
75. Find the minimum tensile strength of spring material ASTM A232 having
diameter 3 millimeter, exponent m = 0.155 and constant A = 173 kpsi.
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a) 120 kpsi
b) 146 kpsi
c) 158 kpsi
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d) 167 kpsi
76. Tensile strength depends on the molecular structure of the material.

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a) True
b) False
77. Tensile strength increases with increasing ______

a) Temperature
b) Molecular weight
c) Purity
d) Grain size
78. What is yield strength of Kevlar?

a) 1650 MPa

b) 1737 MPa
c) 3620 MPa
d) 3757 MPa
79. What is yield strength of annealed titanium?

a) 130 MPa
b) 138 MPa
c) 450 MPa
d) 830 MPa
.in
80. What is SI unit of yield strength?
a) N
b) N/m2
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c) Nm2
d) g/cm2
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81. Strain offset of _____ is commonly used.
a) 0.002
b) 0.004
c) 0.006 e
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d) 0.008
82. _____ is the maximum stress that can be applied to the material without
causing plastic deformation.
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a) Tensile strength
b) Fatigue strength
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d) Yield strength
83. As the temperature of a material is lowered, the yield stress _____ and the
fracture stress _____
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84. With decreasing grain size, yield strength of material ________

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a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) First increases then decrease
85. Which material shows the yield point phenomenon?

a) Copper
b) Aluminium
c) Steel
d) Silver


86. Which factor deteriorates yield strength?
a) Cold working
b) Annealing
c) Work hardening
d) Grain refinement
87. Yield point phenomenon creates problems in deep drawing operations of

sheet Steels.
a) True
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b) False
88. Which one of the following, gives the relation between work hardening and
yield strength of material?
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a) Δσy = Gbρ
b) Δσy = Gb√ρ
c) Δσy = G√ρb
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d) Δσy = Gρ√b
89. Work hardening causes a decrease in yield strength of the material.

a) True e
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b) False
90. _____ is the ability of a material to sustain impact forces without fracture.
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a) Impact strength
b) Toughness
c) Tensile strength
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d) Compressive strength
91. Moisture absorption causes ___ in impact strength and ___ in the strength
of polymers.
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a) Increase, Increase
b) Increase, decrease
c) Decrease, Increase
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d) Decrease, decrease
92. What is Izod impact energy of Nylon 6/6?

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a) 10-50 J/m
b) 12-20 J/m
c) 50-100 J/m
d) 100-210 J/m
93. Which factor increases impact toughness?

a) Cold working
b) Precipitation hardening
c) Water absorption in polymer
d) Notches


94. What is izod impact energy of poly-carbonates?
a) 53 J/m
b) 10-50 J/m
c) 430-850 J/m
d) 12-20 J/m
95. Cleavage in bcc materials take place along ___ plane.

a) {001}
b) {110}
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c) {123}
d) {112}
96. Brittle fracture needs more energy than the ductile fracture.
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a) True
b) False
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97. Ductile-brittle transition temperature increases with strain rate.
a) True
b) False
e
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98. Which statement is false according to impact strength?
a) Notch serves as a stress concentration zone
b) Lowering the temperature reduces the impact strength in BCC materials
c) Generally, strong metals have a lower impact strength
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d) In polymers, impact strength keeps on the increase with

temperature
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99. What is the cross section of izod test specimen?

a) 10×10 mm
b) 10×12 mm
c) 12×12 mm
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d) 8×10 mm
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100. _____ occurs when metal is subjected to a constant tensile load at an

elevated temperature?
a) Fatigue
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b) Creep
c) Impact
d) Wear
101. Creep is a ____ dependent phenomenon.

a) Temperature
b) Time
c) Load
d) Stress cycle
102. Creep occurs due to sliding of _____

a) Vacancies

b) Voids
c) Grain boundaries
d) Dislocations
103. Which one of the following, is a static mechanical property?

a) Impact strength
b) Creep strength
c) Fatigue strength
d) Rebound hardness
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104. The ______ the melting point and the _____ the elastic modulus, the
higher is creep strength.
a) Lower, lower
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b) Lower, higher
c) Higher, lower
d) Higher, higher
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105. In _____ creep, atoms diffuse along grain boundaries and grains elongate
in stress axis. e
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a) Dislocation
b) Nabarro-Herring
c) Coble
d) Solute drag
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106. With which factor, a magnitude of creep doesn’t increase?

a) Temperature
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b) Time
c) Grain size
d) Stress
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107. Crosslinking in Polymers increases creep strength.

a) True
b) False
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108. Which statement is correct regarding creep strength?

a) Wrought materials have higher creep strength than cast materials
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b) With an increase in temperature, steady state creep rate decreases

c) Creep strength can be improved by precipitation hardening
d) Aromatic rings in polymer decrease creep strength
109. Creep occurs only at high temperatures.

a) True
b) False
110. Nabarro-Herring creep predicts a strain rate which is a function of _____

a) D
b) D-2


c) D-3
d) D-1
111. Match the following.
Material Creep temperature

i) Carbon steel p) > 50-150°C
ii) Alloy steel q) > room temperature
iii) Light metal and alloy r) > 450°C
.in
iv) tin r) > 420°C
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a) i-r, ii-s, iii-p, iv-q
b) i-s, ii-r, iii-p, iv-q
c) i-r, ii-s, iii-q, iv-p
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d) i-s, ii-r, iii-q, iv-p
112. The ability of a metal workpiece to undergo plastic deformation without

being damaged is known as ____ e
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a) Formability
b) Stiffness
c) Resilience
d) Yield strength
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113. Which instrument is used to measure formability?

a) Universal testing machine
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b) Impact testing machine

c) Erichsen machine
d) Fatigue testing machine
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114. What is the reason of orange-peel effect?

a) Coarse grain structure
b) Fine grain structure
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c) Inclusions
d) Impurities
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115. ______ increases the formability of the metal sheet.

a) Annealing
b) Cold working
c) Inclusions
d) Grain coarsening
116. Erichsen value of formability ______ with the thickness of the metal
sheet.
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) First increases and then decreases

117. Formability of sheet metal ____ with an increase in normal anisotropy.
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Varies independently
118. In the _____ test, the specimen is bent between two rollers until an angle
between 30° to 45° is reached.
a) Free bending test
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b) Olsen cup test
c) Swift cup test
d) Fukui conical cup test
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119. What is the value of lankford coefficient (r) for good deep drawable
material?
a) ≤ 1
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b) ≤ 2
c) ≤ 3
d) ≤ 4
e
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120. Inclusions don’t affect formability of materials.
a) True
b) False
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121. Lack of symmetry in crack shows anisotropy in a material.

a) True
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b) False
122. What is the deformation per unit length?

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a) Strain
b) Stress
c) Toughness
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d) Resilience
123. Ductility is indicated by _________

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a) Percentage elongation
b) Percentage reduction
c) Poisson’s ratio
d) Elasticity
124. If a bar is doubled in length, what will be the strain induced?

a) 0.5
b) 1.0
c) 1.5
d) 2.0


125. Ductility is the opposite concept of _________
a) Toughness
b) Plasticity
c) Brittleness
d) Resilience
126. What term is used for the ratio of lateral strain to linear strain?
a) Bulk modulus
b) Elastic modulus
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c) Shear strain
d) Poisson’s ratio
127. Material, if show identical properties in all directions, is said to be
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_________
a) Isotropic
b) Elastic
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c) Ideal
d) Homogeneous
128. Which material has higher elasticity? e

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a) Rubber
b) Glass
c) Steel
d) Copper
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129. _________ does not show linear stress strain relationship.

a) Rubber
arn
b) Ceramic
c) Steel
d) Copper
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130. The maximum stress up to which stress is proportional to strain is known

as ________
a) Tensile stress
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b) Compressive stress
c) Modulus of elasticity
d) Proportional limit
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131. Yield strength represents resistance against _________

a) Fracture
b) Elastic deformation
c) Bending
d) Plastic deformation
132. Strain hardening causes more deformation on less stress application.

a) True
b) False


133. Necking causes drop in load after an ultimate tensile point.
a) True
b) False
134. What is an expression of true stress?

a) Pu / Ai
b) Pu / A0
c) P / Ai
.in
d) P / A0
135. True strain is ____ than the engineering strain corresponding to a given
load.
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a) Larger
b) Smaller
c) Equal
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d) Either smaller or equal
136. What is a relation between true and engineering strain?

a) ƐT = ln (1 + Ɛ) e
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b) ƐT = ln (L/L0)
c) ƐT = ln (ΔL/L0)
d) ƐT = ΔL/L0
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137. What is the relation between true and engineering stress?

a) σT = ln (L/L0)
b) σT = ln (1 + Ɛ)
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c) σT = σ (1 + Ɛ)
d) σT = σ (1 – Ɛ)
138. What term defines plastic instability?

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a) dP = constant
b) dP = 0
c) dP < 0
w.
d) dP > 0
139. Plastic instability occurs when the slope of the true stress strain curve
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____ the true stress at the point.

a) Exceeds
b) Equals
c) Is less
d) Is less or higher
140. True value of stress experience by material _____ than the conventional
one for a given load.
a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Equal
d) Higher or lower

141. What is considered more in mechanical working processes?
a) Yield stress
b) Shear stress
c) True stress
d) Engineering stress
142. True stress strain curve _______

a) Continuously rises
.in
b) After yield point comes down
c) After yield point remains constant
d) Uncertain after yield point
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143. The points on the true stress strain curve ______ the conventional stress
strain curves up to the onset of necking.
a) Lie on the left of
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b) Lie on the right of
c) Superimpose
d) May lie on left or right
e
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144. Materials in general have higher elastic strain of 50% order.
a) True
b) False
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145. True stress value is affected by strain hardening.

a) True
b) False
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146. With increasing gauge length, % elongation _____

a) Increases
b) Decreases
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c) Remains constant
d) First increases then decrease
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147. What gauge length is commercially used?

a) 10 mm
b) 20 mm
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c) 30 mm
d) 50mm
148. What is not a variable which affects tensile properties?

a) Gauge length
b) Temperature
c) Load
d) Strain rate
149. For L/D ratio greater than ___________ the reduction in area is
independent of ratio.
a) 0.2

b) 2
c) 5
d) 10
150. Specimen with L/D = 0 gives _________ strength.

a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Equal
d) Higher or lower
.in
View Answer
151. With an increase in strain rate, ductility ______ and tensile strength
_____
ng
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152. Yield and flow strength at lower plastic strain is more dependent on _____
than ______ e
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a) Strain rate, tensile strength
b) Tensile strength, strain rate
c) Strain rate, temperature
d) Temperature, tensile strength
En
153. At strain rates _____ behaviour of the material is characterized by creep.

a) Low, 104 per second
arn
b) Low, 10-4 per second

c) High, 104 per second
d) High, 10-4 per second
Le
154. Elastic modulus and strength ____ and ductility ___ as the temperature of
material increases.
w.
ww
155. Tensile curve gets lower down with an increase in temperature.

a) True
b) False
156. In FCC metals, yield stress increases rapidly with decreasing temperature.
a) True
b) False
157. Which metal is capable of maintaining its mechanical strength on working

temperature?
a) Pb

b) Zn
c) Fe
d) Sn
158. With an increase in temperature, the modulus of elasticity ____________

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) First Increases, then decreases
.in
159. With increases in temperature, yield strength __________ and tensile
strength ___________
ng
eri
160. Softening process dominates over hardening process in ___________
stage of creep. e
gin
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
d) Quaternary
En
161. Stress rupture curves show the variation in stress as a function of

___________
arn
a) Temperature
b) Time
c) Cycles
d) Notch depth
Le
162. The first stage of creep is also known as ___________ creep.

a) Transient
w.
b) Viscous
c) Flow
d) Tertiary
ww
163. Second stage of creep is also known as ___________ creep.

a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Transient
d) Viscous
164. Viscous creep is represented by _________ constant in Andrade empirical

equation.
a) β
b) k


c) ε
d) t
165. Transient creep is also known as _________ flow.

a) k
b) β
c) ε
d) t
166. k represents elongation per unit length at a constant rate.
.in
a) True
b) False
ng
167. The most common creep rate corresponds to which the creep strength is
specified is _________
a) 1% in 100 hrs
eri
b) 1% in 1000 hrs
c) 1% in 10,000 hrs
d) 1% in 100,000 hrs
e
gin
168. In what terms, fatigue life is measured?
a) Time of failures
b) Number of cycles of failure
c) Stress of failure
En
d) Appearance of fracture
169. Fatigue curves are popularly known as __________ curves.

arn
a) S
b) R
c) N
d) S-N
Le
170. What term is used for the maximum stress at which material fail on a
specified number of cycle?
w.
a) Fatigue strength
b) Fatigue life
c) Ultimate tensile strength
ww
d) Endurance limit
171. Word “endurance limit” is used for _____________

a) Plastics
b) Ferrous materials
c) Nonferrous materials
d) Alloys
172. Which ferrous material doesn’t show fatigue limit?

a) Cast iron
b) Wrought iron


c) Austenitic stainless steel
d) Low carbon steel
173. Which of the following show a fatigue limit?

a) Titanium
b) Cast iron
c) Magnesium
d) Al-Mg alloys
174. What is the reason for fatigue failure?
.in
a) Movement of Dislocations
b) Submicroscopic cracks
c) Dynamic recovery
ng
d) Vacancy coalescence
175. What cycles range is chosen for endurance limit?
eri
a) 102 – 103
b) 105 – 106
c) 107 – 108
d) 1011 – 1012 e
gin
176. What is the relation between stress at the tension side and diameter of the
fatigue test specimen?
a) σt α d
En
b) σt α d2
c) σt α 1/d2
d) σt α 1/d3
arn
177. Which of the following is not a reason for crack initiation?

a) Inclusions
Le
b) Gas pores
c) Local soft spots
d) Vacancy
w.
178. Crack mostly starts at _________

a) Surface
ww
b) Inclusion
c) Pore
d) Soft spots
179. Orowan’s theory is related to _________

a) Grain boundaries
b) Weak crystal
c) Slip band
d) Gas pores
180. Wood’s theory is described by _________

a) Microscopic voids

b) Microscopic slip bands
c) Weak crystal
d) Grain boundaries
181. Slip band are notch root of _________ dimensions.

a) Micro
b) Macro
c) Nano
d) Atomic
.in
182. Which theory defines fatigue failure using microscopic slip bands?
a) Orowan’s theory
b) Wood’s theory
ng
c) Cottrell’s theory
d) Dislocation theory
eri
183. What term is used for initial crack formation during fatigue?
a) Cracking
b) Stage I fatigue
c) Stage II fatigue e
gin
d) Micro cracking
184. Stage of crack growth is called _________

a) I stage
En
b) II stage
c) III stage
d) IV stage
arn
185. Material with a high surface to volume ratio have _________ fatigue life.
a) Very low fatigue life
Le
b) Very high fatigue life

c) Lower fatigue life
d) Improved fatigue life
w.
186. Which of the following material fails by both hysteric heating and crack
propagation?
ww
a) Nylon
b) Polyethylene
c) Propylene
d) PMMA
187. Paris-Erdogan relationship is applicable to some ceramics and plastics

along with metals.
a) True
b) False
188. Indentation hardness gives a rough idea of ____________

a) Yield strength

b) Toughness
c) Tensile strength
d) Compressive strength
189. Which one is a micro-indentation test?

a) Brinell
b) Rockwell
c) Shore
d) Knoop
.in
190. __________ is used for measuring the hardness of brittle materials.
a) Brinell hardness test
b) Rockwell hardness test
ng
c) Shore hardness test
d) Vickers hardness test
eri
191. For hardness test, where test load is larger than 1 kgf, is categorized as
__________
a) Micro-hardness test
b) Macro-hardness test e
gin
c) Scratch hardness test
d) Reboud hardness test
192. Which one of the following is not an indentation hardness test?

En
a) Rockwell
b) Shore
c) Vickers
arn
d) Brinell
193. __________ measures the resistance of a sample to material deformation

due to a constant compression load from a sharp object.
Le
a) Scratch hardness
b) Rebound hardness
c) Indentation hardness
w.
d) Leeb test
ww
194. For higher __________ indentation hardness is also higher.

a) Ductility
b) Plasticity
c) Stiffness
d) Ductility
195. Indentation hardness is measured by _____________

a) Size of indentation
b) Penetration
c) Height of rebound
d) Area under stress-strain curve


196. Hardness steel ball is used in __________ test.
a) Knoop
b) Vickers
c) Brinell
d) Rockwell
197. Vickers hardness test gives accurate readings.

a) True
b) False
.in
198. Leeb is an indentation hardness test.
a) True
b) False
ng
199. What indenter is used for Brinell test?
a) Hardened steel ball
eri
b) Diamond ball
c) Diamond prism
d) Steel prism
e
gin
200. What test force is applied for nonferrous materials in Brinell test?
a) 50 kgf
b) 500 kgf
c) 1000 kgf
En
d) 3000 kgf
201. What test force is applied for steels and cast irons in Brinell test?
arn
a) 500 kgf
b) 1000 kgf
c) 2000 kgf
d) 3000 kgf
Le
202. What is the most important source of error in the Brinell test?
a) Surface roughness
w.
b) Indentation measurement
c) Coarse structure
d) Indenter error
ww
203. What is the ball diameter taken for indenter of 500 kgf load in Brinell test?
a) 50 mm
b) 1 mm
c) 5 mm
d) 10 mm
204. What is the ball diameter taken for 1 kgf test load in Brinell test?
a) 1 mm
b) 5 mm


c) 10 mm
d) 50 mm
205. Brinell hardness number is not a function of ____________

a) Ball diameter
b) Impression diameter
c) Surface roughness
d) Load
206. Brinell test method is defined in _________
.in
a) ASTMB10
b) ASTME20
c) ASTME10
ng
d) ASTMB20
207. For Brinell hardness test _________ is kept constant.
eri
a) P
b) P/D
c) P*D
d) P/D2 e
gin
208. For very hard metals _________ ball is used in Brinell test.
a) Hardened steel
b) Alloyed steel
En
c) Tungsten carbide
d) Diamond
arn
209. A ball Indenter of _________ mm and _________ kgf load is used in case
of gray cast iron.
a) 10, 3000
b) 5, 750
Le
c) 10, 1000
d) 10, 500
w.
210. Brinell test is sensitive to surface roughness.

a) True
b) False
ww
211. The load is applied for a standard time in Brinell test.

a) True
b) False
212. ___________ Indenter is used in Vickers hardness test.

a) Hardened steel ball
b) Diamond ball
c) Diamond pyramid
d) Tungsten carbide


213. Vickers indenter has _________ angle between opposite faces of a
diamond.
a) 90°
b) 120°
c) 136°
d) 180°
214. Which standards define Vickers hardness test?

a) ASTM E92-72
.in
b) ASTME10
c) ASTME19-74
d) ASTME334-69
ng
215. Up to a Vickers hardness of _________ the VHN agrees with the BHN.
a) 30
b) 100
eri
c) 350
d) 1000
e
216. What is the disadvantage of the Vickers test?
gin
a) Accurate readings
b) One type indenter for all type materials
c) Hardness above 450 BHN can be measured
d) Large floor-standing machines
En
217. Why Brinell and Vickers hardness test results show similarities?
a) Same material indenter
arn
b) Geometrically similar indentations

c) Applied load is same
d) Same size indenter
Le
218. One division of the main scale equals _________ in Vickers test.
a) 0.1 mm
b) 0.01 mm
w.
c) 1.0 mm
d) 0.001 mm
ww
219. Which of the following is an advantage of the Vickers test?

a) Rough surface preparation
b) Cheaper
c) Accurate readings
d) Large floor-standing machine
220. What is Vickers hardness of martensite?

a) 140 VHN
b) 180 VHN
c) 1000 VHN
d) 1200 VHN

221. What is the hardness of the diamond in VHN?
a) 1000 HV
b) 1200 HV
c) 9000 HV
d) 10000 HV
222. Yield strength is given as HV/0.3.

a) True
b) False
.in
223. Thickness of sample doesn’t affect the Vickers test.
a) True
b) False
ng
224. Which hardness test is most widely used in the US?
a) Brinell
eri
b) Vickers
c) Shore
d) Rockwell
e
gin
225. Rockwell test utilizes ___________ a measure of hardness.
a) Load
b) Depth of indentation
c) Diameter of indentation
En
d) Time of loading
226. A minor load of _________ is applied to seat the specimen in the Rockwell
arn
test.
a) 1 kg
b) 5 kg
c) 10 kg
Le
d) 150 kg
227. What is a limitation of the Rockwell test?

w.
a) Slow speed
b) Personal error
c) Bigger size of indentation
ww
d) Different indenters
228. What minimizes the amount of surface preparation in Rockwell test?

a) Minor load
b) Indenter surface
c) Indenter geometry
d) Heat-treatment
229. How much penetration is indicated by each division in dial in Rockwell

test?
a) 0.2 mm

b) 0.02 mm
c) 0.002 mm
d) 0.0002 mm
230. Hardened steel is tested on the C scale with ________ indenter and a
_______ kg major load.
a) Diamond, 100
b) Diamond, 150
c) 1.6 mm steel ball, 100
.in
d) 3.2 mm steel ball, 150
231. Which scale is used to test softer materials?

a) A
ng
b) B
c) C
d) D
eri
232. What is the hardness of low brass?
a) HRB 40
b) HRB 55 e
gin
c) HRC 55
d) HRC 60
233. What is the hardness of martensite?

En
a) 40 HRB
b) 64 HRB
c) 40 HRC
arn
d) 64 HRC
234. In A scale, steel ball indenter is used.

a) True
Le
b) False
235. Diamond indenter is known as ‘Brale indenter’.

w.
a) True
b) False
ww
236. What is test load used in Micro hardness test?

a) 2-200 gmf
b) 5-1000 gmf
c) 60 gmf
d) 100 gmf
237. Which of the following is a Microhardness test?

a) Brinell
b) Knoop
c) Rockwell
d) Shore


238. What is the shape of indentation by knoop indenter?
a) Semi spherical
b) Square
c) Cone
d) Rhombohedral
239. What is the diagonals’ ratio of Knoop indenter?

a) 1:1
b) 1:2
.in
c) 7:1
d) 10:1
240. Which test is more preferred for testing hardness of electroplated surface?
ng
a) Dynamic hardness test
b) Scratch hardness test
c) Macrohardness test
eri
d) Microhardness test
241. Which of the following is an angle between opposite faces in Knoop

indenter? e
gin
a) 130°
b) 120°
c) 136°
d) 122°
En
242. What is the disadvantage of the Knoop hardness test?

a) Elastic recovery
arn
b) Soft indenter
c) High load required
d) Cannot use thin specimen
Le
243. What is Knoop hardness of diamond?

a) 100 HK
b) 1000 HK
w.
c) 7000 HK
d) 9000 HK
ww
244. What is Knoop hardness of gold foil?

a) 68 HK
b) 69 HK
c) 343 HK
d) 820 HK
245. In microhardness test, Vickers test uses load less than 1 kgf.
a) True
b) False
246. Microhardness test gives average hardness.

a) True

b) False
247. What is the formula for Knoop hardness number?

a) KHN = h – 500t
b) KHN = 1.854P/L2
c) KHN = P/ D2
d) KHN = P/L2C
248. Which of the following is a dynamic hardness test?
.in
a) Brinell
b) Poldi
c) Knoop
ng
d) Vickers
249. What is the standard height of impact for shore test?
eri
a) 125 mm
b) 250 mm
c) 500 mm
d) 750 mm e
gin
250. What is a weight of hammer in shore test?
a) 2.0 gm
b) 2.3 gm
En
c) 2.4 gm
d) 3.0 gm
arn
251. As the height of rebound enhances the material’s hardness ___________

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) First Increases and then decreases
Le
d) Remains constant
252. Specimen less than 1 kg must be clamped because of ________

w.
a) Elastic recovery
b) Penetration
c) Inertial effect
ww
d) Personal error
253. What is a disadvantage of shore test?

a) Very slow
b) Deep indentation
c) Clamping problem
d) Heavy machinery
254. Which test should be preferred for finished lathe machine bed?
a) Brinell
b) Poldi


c) Shore
d) Rockwell
255. What is the height of Poldi apparatus?

a) 10 mm
b) 100 mm
c) 150 mm
d) 250 mm
256. What is the disadvantage of Poldi hardness test?
.in
a) Expensive
b) Not portable
c) Not accurate
ng
d) Can’t perform on heavy machinery
257. Poldi hardness test gives a value of ________ also along with dynamic
eri
hardness.
a) Yield strength
b) Tensile strength
c) Toughness e
gin
d) Young’s modulus
258. Tensile strength is given in tonnes per square inch in Poldi test.
a) True
En
b) False
259. Hardness of heavy components can’t be measured by Poldi test.

arn
a) True
b) False
260. What is the disadvantage of LPI?

Le
a) Expensive
b) Slow
c) Not reliable
w.
d) Depth restriction
261. LPI can’t be used on __________ specimen.

ww
a) Large
b) Simple
c) Complex
d) Internally defected
262. Which order is right for LPI?

a) Penetrant apply, development, inspection, surface preparation
b) Surface preparation, penetrant apply, development, inspection
c) Penetrant apply, development, surface preparation, inspection
d) Development, surface preparation, penetrant apply, inspection


263. What is general dwell time?
a) 20 seconds
b) 2 minutes
c) 20 minutes
d) 2 hours
264. __________ increases the visibility of the flaw in LPI.

a) Developer
b) Penetrant
.in
c) Benzene
d) Spirit
ng
265. Developer is chosen such as benzene.
a) True
b) False
eri
266. Small components are dipped in penetrant.
a) True
b) False e
gin
267. Which materials can be tested by MPI?
a) Magnetic
b) Non-magnetic
En
c) Paramagnetic
d) Ferromagnetic
arn
268. Which material can’t be tested by MPI?

a) Co
b) Fe
c) Ni
Le
d) Mg
269. What is Curie point for most of the ferrous magnetic materials?
w.
a) 550˚C
b) 760˚C
c) 910˚C
ww
d) 1133˚C
270. The minimum width of crack, which can be inspected by MPI, is

_________
a) 1nm
b) 1µm
c) 10µm
d) 1mm
271. What is the advantage of using DC in MPI?

a) Battery maintenance
b) Demagnetize easy

c) Variable voltage supply
d) Subsurface detection
272. Benzene and alcohol are used to decrease component.

a) True
b) False
273. Plain carbon steels are applied with magnetic particles by a residual
method?
a) True
.in
b) False
274. What principle defines eddy current inspection (ECI)?
ng
a) Lenz law
b) Biot-Savart Law
c) Electromagnetic induction principle
eri
d) Faraday’s law
275. ECI is generally restricted to a depth below ___________

a) 1µm e
gin
b) 1mm
c) 2mm
d) 6mm
En
276. What is the reason for the limitation of depth below 6mm in ECI?
a) Surface coating
b) Electron hole pair generation
arn
c) Skin effect
d) Residual stresses
277. The total resistance of the coil of ECI is known as __________

Le
a) Impedance
b) Inductance
c) Reactance
w.
d) Capacitance
278. The density of eddy current ____________ with distance from the surface
ww
in center.
a) Increase linearly
b) Increase exponentially
c) Decrease linearly
d) Decrease exponentially
279. ECI is only used for ferromagnetic materials.

a) True
b) False


280. Standard penetration depth varies from material to material.
a) True
b) False
281. Which of the following is the poorest transmitter of sound?

a) Oil
b) Water
c) Air
d) Copper
.in
282. Which of the following is the best transmitter of sound?
a) Oil
b) Aluminum
ng
c) Steel
d) Copper
eri
283. What is the drawback of ultrasonic testing?
a) Low depth
b) High sensitivity
c) Shape restriction e
gin
d) Higher errors
284. What is a type of piezoelectric crystal?

En
a) Natural
b) Normal
c) Angle
arn
d) Transverse
285. The object under inspection must have parallel surfaces.

a) True
Le
b) False
286. Ultrasonic testing is destructive testing?

w.
a) True
b) False
ww
287. Radiographic inspection use _________

a) Sound waves
b) AC
c) X-rays
d) Visible light
288. The dark areas represent an object with ________

a) Lower density
b) High density
c) Porosity
d) Grain boundaries


289. The film in radiographic inspection is called __________
a) Plate
b) Radiograph
c) Micrograph
d) X-ray sheet
290. ________ produce light area on film.

a) Inclusions
b) Pores
.in
c) Voids
d) Blow holes
291. Radiography don’t give ________
ng
a) Thickness of material
b) Hardness
c) Blow holes in casting
eri
d) Pores in weldment
292. Planar defects can’t be detected by radiography.

a) True e
gin
b) False
293. The amount of absorption of rays depends on the density and thickness of
En
the material.
a) True
b) False
arn
294. What is the wavelength of X-rays?

a) 10 picometers
b) 0.01 to 10 nanometers
Le
c) 10 to 400 nanometers
d) 400 to 700 nanometers
w.
ww

.in
ng
e eri
gin
En
arn
Le
w.
ww


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DHIRAJLAL GANDHI COLLEGE OF

TECHNOLOGY For More Visit : www.LearnEngineering.in

Testing of Materials / Objective Questions Prepared by Mr.V.Vinoth & Mr.A.Inbasekaran AP / Mech

UNIT I INTRODUCTION TO MATERIALS TESTING 9

UNIT II MECHANICAL TESTING 9

UNIT III NON DESTRUCTIVE TESTING 9

Visual inspection, Liquid penetrant test, Magnetic particle test, Thermography

Principles, Techniques, Methods, Advantages and Limitations, Applications.

UNIT IV MATERIAL CHARACTERIZATION TESTING 9

Macroscopic and Microscopic observations, Optical and Electron microscopy

Techniques- Principles, Types, Advantages and Limitations, Applications.

UNIT V OTHER TESTING 9

For More Visit : www.LearnEngineering.in

Testing of Materials / Objective Questions Prepared by Mr.V.Vinoth & Mr.A.Inbasekaran AP / Mech

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

1. The ability of a material to undergo plastic deformation without fracture

4. What is the ductility of annealed Cu?

5. What is the ductility of commercial pure Titanium?

6. Which factor increases ductility?

7. Which crystal structure materials possess the best ductility properties?

8. Which factor decreases the ductility of materials?

Testing of Materials / Objective Questions Prepared by Mr.V.Vinoth & Mr.A.Inbasekaran AP / Mech

9. Cast materials show better ductility than wrought materials.

12. As the strain rate increases, the value of ductility ___

13. Original gauge length of aluminium cylindrical spectrum is 2 inches and

14. A cylindrical specimen having diameter of 12.8 mm is starting and 7.3 mm

15.The ability of a material to undergo plastic deformation without rupture,

16. Which metal has maximum malleability?

For More Visit : www.LearnEngineering.in

Testing of Materials / Objective Questions Prepared by Mr.V.Vinoth & Mr.A.Inbasekaran AP / Mech

17. Which metal shows good malleability but poor ductility?

18. With an increase in temperature, malleability of material ______

19. Malleability is the property of a material to be formed into ______

21. Malleable cast iron consists of _____

22. Crystal structure of a material is an important factor, which affects the

23. Which statement is false regarding malleability?

24. Materials with stronger metallic bonds exhibit high malleability.

For More Visit : www.LearnEngineering.in

Testing of Materials / Objective Questions Prepared by Mr.V.Vinoth & Mr.A.Inbasekaran AP / Mech

26. A material’s resistance to elastic deflection is known as ___

27. What is the SI unit of stiffness?

28. How can stiffness of material be improved?

29. Plasticizers in polymers ___ toughness and ____ stiffness.

31. Increasing the stiffness of material diminishes its impact strength.

32. A stiff material is always of high strength.

33. Which statement is true regarding stiffer?

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Testing of Materials / Objective Questions Prepared by Mr.V.Vinoth & Mr.A.Inbasekaran AP / Mech

34. With an increase in temperature, elastic modulus of metals ____ and

37. What is fracture toughness range of ceramics?

38. What is fracture toughness of magnesia in terms of stress intensity factor?

39. Match the following.

Material KIc (MPa m1/2)

a) i-r, ii-s, iii-p, iv-q

For More Visit : www.LearnEngineering.in

Testing of Materials / Objective Questions Prepared by Mr.V.Vinoth & Mr.A.Inbasekaran AP / Mech

41. Which factor decreases toughness of material?

42. What is the reason of low toughness of grey cast iron?

44. Stress intensity factor is not a function of _______

47. Cast materials are tougher than wrought materials.

29. Plasticizers in polymers _ toughness and __ stiffness.