11th Biology SQs-Full Book-NOTESPK

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B IOLOGY
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FLASH CARDS
CLASS 11Th FULL BOOK
BY
NABEEL AKHTAR
HOD BIOLOGY AT PGC
CONTACT: +923457949123
For more notes, papers, test series visit www.notespk.com

Chapter 1 Introduction to Biology
Q 1. What do you know about hypothesis?
Ans. An observer organizes observation into data form and gives a statement as per experience
and background knowledge of the event called hypothesis.
Q 2. Define clone?
Ans. A clone is defined as a cell or individual and all its asexually produced offspring. All
members of a clone are genetically identical except when a mutation occurs.
Q 3. What is deduction?
Ans. it is reasoning from general to the specific. It infers a specific conclusion. It often takes
from of an "if ....... then". It is frequently used to frame the testable hypothesis.
Q 4. What is the other name of seawater?
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Ans. it is marine water.
BIOLOGY 1st FLASH CARDS BY NABEEL AKHTAR LECTURER BIOLOGY
Q 5. Name the heavy metals which are released from the automobiles and the tanneries.
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Ans. These are lead and chromium.
Q 6. What is the gene therapy?

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Ans. Gene therapy is the treatment of the defective gene by introducing normal and healthy gene
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into the body through bone marrow cells.
Q 7. Name a fatal viral disease of human liver?

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Ans. Its name is hepatitis.

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Q 8. What are antibiotics?

Ans. The antibiotics are the organic compounds extracted from the organisms and used for the
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treatment of bacterial diseases.

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Q 9. Name the last period of the mesozoic era of the earth's history?
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Ans. Its name is cretaceous period.
Q 10. Define population?

Ans. Population is a group of individuals of one species that line in a particular geographic are at
the same line. Examples are the number of rats in a field of rice, the number of students in a class
room.
Q 11. What is a theory?

Ans. A tested hypothesis is called a theory.
Q 12. Write down the full name of disease AIDS and its causative agent
Ans. It is Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome Its causative agent is the Human Immuno
Deficiency Virus(HIV).

Q 13. What does the Latin word vacca mean?
Ans. It means cow.
Q 14. Name all the sixteen bio-elements.

Ans. Six are major elements these are carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, calcium, sulphur,
phosphorous, potassium, chlorine, sodium, magnesium, iron, copper, manganese, zinc and
iodine.
Q 15. What is the amount of potassium chlorine and magnesium in the body of man?
Ans. Their amount is 0.35%, 0.15% and 0.05% of the total mass of the body of the man.
Q 16. What is tissue culture technique?

Ans. A technique for manipulating fragments of animal or plant tissue or separated cells alive
after their removal from the organism. The tissue fragments ar kept usually within some sort of
glass vessel in a medium of the right properties.
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Q 17. Explain geological time scale.
Ans. It is a system of measuring the history of the earth by studying the rocks of the earth's crust.
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Q 18. What is the percentage of insects of the total known species of organism?
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Ans. It is 53.1%.
Q 19. What are the literal meanings of the word biology?

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Ans. The literal meanings of the word biology are the study of life.
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Q 20. What is the function of the glandular tissue?

Ans. The glandular tissue is specialized for secreting some thing useful for the body. e.g., gastric
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glands secrete gastric juice.

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Q 21. Name the bio-elements which occur only in traces in the human body?
Ans. These are copper, manganese, zinc and iodine.
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Q 22. Define theology.

Ans. The study of religion is known as theology.
Q 23. What does the word "Pathogenic" mean?

Ans. Pathogenic means "disease cause".
Q 24. What is pedigree?

Ans. Pedigree means the race of an organism.
Q 25. Name some most important and abundant organic compounds found in the bodies of
the living brings?
Ans. These are glucose, amino acids, fatty acids, glycerol and nucleotides.
Q 26. What is community?

Ans. Community is an ecological term for any naturally occurring group of different organism in
habiting a common environment interacting with each other, especially thorough food
relationships, and relatively independent of the other groups. Communities may be of varying
sizes and larger ones may contain smaller ones.
Q 27. Are the protists unicellular or multicellular organism?

Ans. The majority of the protists are unicellular organisms.
Q 28. Enumerate the various kinds of interaction between the organisms of a community.
Ans. These are the predation, parasitism, commensalism, mutualism and competition.
Q 29. Who introduced the technique of vaccination and when?

Ans. Edward Jenner introduced this technique in 1795.
Q 30. How many percent of the total known organisms of the are the vascular plants in the
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world>
Ans. They are 17.6 percent of the total known organisms of the world.
Q 31. What do you mean by hypothesis?
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Ans. An observer organizes observations into data form and gives a statement as per experience
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and background knowledge of the event. This statement is the hypothesis. Or hypothesis is the
statement made by a scientist on the basis of observation or available information.
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Q 32. How does law differ from theory?
Ans. A theory is made from hypothesis which has been tested by many experiments. A good
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theory is predictive and has explanatory power. One of the most important features of a good
theory is that it may suggest new and different hypothesis. A theory of this kind is called
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productive.
If a theory survives skeptical approach of other scientists and continues to be supported by
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experimental evidences, it becomes a scientific law. A scientific law is a uniform or constant fact
of nature.
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Q 33. What is deduction?

Ans. The logical consequence of a hypothesis is called a deduction.
Q 33. Define Vaccination.

Ans. Vaccination is the injection of vaccine to make the people immune from the intending
degree of their being exposed to the virus or bacteria at the time of epidemics or in some diseases
the individuals are vaccinated in their early life to make them immune to those diseases.
Q 34. Write a short note on cloning.

Ans. Cloning is a technology for achieving eugenic aims. A clone is defined as a cell or
individual and all its asexually produced offspring. All members of a clone are genetically
identical except when a mutation occurs.
Generally no normal animal reproduced naturally by cloning. Several insects and many plants
do, in some circumstance whereas few do so regularly.

In 1997 scientists in Scotland succeeded in cloning a sheep. In this procedure the nucleus from a
fertilize egg is removed and a nucleus from a cell of a fully developed individual is inserted in its
place. The altered Zygotes is then implemented in a suitable womb where it completes its
development. The new individual formed in this way is a genetically identical clone of the
individual whose nucleus was used. Thus cloning could make multiple copies of a desired
genotype.
Types of Cloning:
There are three types of cloning:
1. Gene Cloning.
2. Cell Cloning / Tissue Culture.
3. Organism Cloning.

Gene Cloning: It is manipulation of genes. In this process, desired genes or pieces of DNA are
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introduced into a host by means of a carrier system. The foreign DNA becomes permanent
feature of the host. It is replicated and passed on to daughter cells along with host DNA. Thus a
number of clones of desired genes are formed. The foreign DNA could come from another
organism or might be an artificially synthesized gene.
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Cell Cloning / Tissue Culture: Multiplication or asexual production of a line of cells genetically
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identical to the original is called cell cloning or tissue culture. It is now common on plants
however not yet possible in animals Bacteria and yeast naturally exercise this technique. In
plants, cells from leaves, roots or other tissues are isolated and cultured in special medium. A
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small tumor like mass of cells called callus is formed. All cells of callus are genetically identical.
When supplied with growth hormones, callus may develop into small plant-lets. The plant-lets
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may produce mature plants when planted in soil.

Organism Cloning: Organisms with desired characters may be produced in large numbers by
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asexual process without the involvement of meiosis and fertilization. Such production of
organisms is called organism cloning.
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Embryo Twining: Another type of cloning involves the division of a single egg or early embryo
into one or more separate embryos. This is the same process the normally creates identical twins.
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Offspring from this type of cloning are genetically identical but carry chromosomes from each of
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the two parents. This type of cloning has already been used to produce genetically identical cattle
and other farm animals. Man is likely to develop cloning - techniques for production of valuable
animals of known pedigree such as horses etc.
Human Cloning: At some places scientists are making attempt to clone human embryo which
they believe can serve as transplant donor. There is a lot of controversy in public as to whether
human cloning should be attempted or not.

Chapter 2 Biological Molecules
Q 1. Define Biochemistry? Why study of biochemistry is essential in the field of biology or
in the study of living organisms?
Ans. Biochemistry is a branch of Biology, which deals with the study of chemical components
and the chemical processes in living organisms.
Importance of Biochemistry: A basic knowledge of biochemistry is essential for understanding
anatomy and physiology, because all of the structures of an organism have biochemical
organization. Photosynthesis, respiration, digestion, muscle contraction can all be described in
biochemical terms.
Q 2. Name the most important organic and inorganic compounds in living organisms.
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Ans. Most important organic compounds in living organisms are carbohydrates, proteins, lipids
and nucleic acids. Among inorganic substances are water carbon dioxide, acids, bases and salts.
Q 3. Compare the chemical composition of bacterial and mammalian cell.
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Ans. Chemical Components % Total Cell Weight Bacterial Cell Mammalian Cell
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Water 70% 70%
Proteins 15% 15%
Carbohydrates 3% 4%
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Lipids 2% 3%
DNA 1% 0.25%
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RNA 6% 1.1%
Other organic molecules(Enzymes, hormones, metabolites) 2% 2%
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Inorganic ions (Na+, K+. Ca+2, Mg+2, Cl-, (SO-2)4) 1% 1%

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Q 4. Differentiate between Metabolism, Catabolism and Anabolism.

Ans. Metabolism: All the chemical reactions taking place within a cell are collectively called
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metabolism.
Metabolism = Anabolism + Catabolism
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Energy is taken and released simultaneously.

Anabolism: Those reactions in which substances are combined to form complex
substances are called anabolic reactions. Anabolic reactions need energy.
Catabolism: The breakdown of complex molecules into simpler ones, such reactions are
called catabolic reactions. Energy is released during catabolic reactions.
Q 5. Why carbon is considered as the basic element of organic compounds?

Ans. Carbon is considered as the basic element of organic compounds, because it is tetravalent.
Due to its unique properties, carbon occupies the central position in the skeleton of life. It can
react with oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen, phosphorus and sulphur forming covalent bonds. It is also
important due to following associations.
Carbon-Hydrogen Bond: It is potential source of chemical energy for cellular activities.
Carbon-Oxygen Bond: Carbon Oxygen association in glycosidic linkages provides stability to
complex carbohydrate molecules.

Carbon-Nitrogen Bond: Carbon combines with nitrogen in amino acids linkages to form
peptide bonds and forms proteins which are very important due to their diversity in structure and
functions. BIOLOGY 1st FLASH CARDS BY NABEEL AKHTAR LECTURER BIOLOGY
Q 6. What is the percentage of water in bone cells and brain cells of human?
Ans. Human tissue contain about 20 percent water in bone cells and 85 percent water in brain
cells.
Q 7. Water is excellent solvent for polar substances. Justify this statement.

Ans. Due to its polarity, water is an excellent solvent for polar substances. Ionic substances when
dissolves in water, dissociate into positive and negative ions. Non-ionic substances having
charged groups in their molecules are dispersed in water. Almost all the reactions in cell occur in
aqueous media.
Q 8. What is the function of non-polar substances?
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Ans. Non-polar organic molecules such as fats, are insoluble in water and help to maintain
membranes which make compartments in the cell.
Q 9. Define specific heat capacity of water.
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Ans. The number of calories required to raise the temperature of 1g of water from 15-16C is 1.
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This is called specific heat capacity of water.
Q 10. How water works as a temperature stabilizer for living organisms?

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Ans. Water has great ability of absorbing heat with minimum of change in its own temperature.
This is because much of the energy is used to break hydrogen bonds. Water thus works as
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temperature stabilizer for organisms in the environment and hence protects living material
against sudden thermal changes.
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Q 11. How heat of vaporization of water is beneficial in daily life?

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Ans. The specific heat of vaporization of water is 574 K cal/kg, which pays an important role in
the regulation of heat produced by oxidation. It also provides cooling effect to plants when water
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is transpired, or to animals hen water is respired.

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Q 12. What is the concentration of H+ and OH- ions in pure water at 25C?
Ans. At 25C the concentration of each H+ and OH- ions in pure water is about 10-7 mole/litre of
earch.
Q 13. How water act as an effective lubricant?

Ans. Water is effective lubricant that provides protection against damage resulting from friction.
For example, tears protect the surface of eye from the rubbing of eyelids, water also forms a fluid
cushion around organs that helps to protect them from trauma.
Q 14. List some important functions of carbohydrates.

Ans. Carbohydrates occur abundantly in living organisms. They are found in all organisms and
in almost all parts of the ell. Carbohydrates play both structural and functional roles. Simple
carbohydrates are the main source of energy in cells. Some carbohydrates are the main
constituent of cell walls in plants and

microorganisms. Cellulose of wood cotton an paper, starches present cereals, roots tubers, cane
sugar and milk sugar are all examples of carbohydrates.
Q 15. What are carbohydrates?

Ans. The word carbohydrate literally means hydrated carbons. They are composed of carbon,
oxygen and hydrogen.
Formula:
Their formula is Cn(H2O)n.
Chemical Definition:
Chemically, carbohydrates are defined as polyhydroxy aldehydes, or complex substances which

no hydrolysis yield polyhydroxy aldehyde or ketone subunits.
Q 16. What is hydrolysis?
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Ans. Hydrolysis involves the breakdown of large molecules into smaller ones utilizing water
molecules.
Q 17. Carbohydrates are classified into how many groups?
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Ans. Carbohydrates are classified into three groups:
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1. Mono saccharides
2. Oligosacchardies
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3. polysaccharides
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Q 18. What are Mono-saccharides? Give some of its properties and examples.
Ans. Mono saccharides are simple sugars. They are sweet in taste, are easily soluble in water,
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and cannot by hydrolyzed into simple sugar. Chemically they are either polyhydroxy aldehydes
or ketones. The sugar with aldehyde group is called also sugar and with keto group is called keto
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sugar. Examples are glyceraldehyde. ribose and glucose, etc.

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Q 19. How glucose is prepared / produced naturally?

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Ans. Glucose is naturally produced in green plants which take carbon dioxide from air and
water from the soil to synthesize glucose. Energy is consumed in this process which is provided
by sunlight. That is why this process is called photosynthesis.
Q 20. How much glucose our blood contains?

Ans. Our blood normally contains 0.08% glucose.
Q 21. How much energy is used to synthesize 10g of glucose?

Ans. 717.6 K cal of solar energy is required for the synthesis of 10g of glucose.
Q 22. What are digosaccharides? Give some examples of important disacchraides.

Ans. These are comparatively less sweet in taste, and less soluble in water. On hydrolysis
oligosacchardies yield from to to ten mono saccharides. The one yielding two mono saccharides
are known as disaccharides, those yielding three are known as trisaccharides and so on. The

covalent bond between two mono saccharides is called glycosidic bond.
Q 23. What are polysaccharides? Name some biologically important polysaccharides.

Ans. Poly saccharides are the most complex and most abundant carbohydrate in nature. They are
usually branched and tasteless. They are formed by several mono saccharides units linked by
glycosidic bonds. Polysaccharides have high molecular weights and are only sparingly soluble in
water. Some biologically important poly saccharides are starch, a gas, glycogen, cellulose,
dextrins, pectin and chitin.
Q 24. Differentiate between amylase and amylopectin.

Ans. Amylose:
1. Amylose starches have unbranched chains of glucose and
2. Are soluble in hot water
Amylopectin:
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1. Amylopectin starches have branched chains and
2. Are insoluble in hot or cold water
Q 25. Differentiate between starch, cellulose and glycogen.
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Ans. Starch: Is is found in fruits, grains and tubers. It is the main source of carbohydrates for
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animals. On hydrolysis, it yields glucose molecules. Starches are of two types, amylose and
amylopectin. Amylose starches have branched chains of glucose and are soluble in hot water.
Amylopectin starches have branched chains and are insoluble in hot or cold water. Give blue
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color with iodine.
Cellulose: It is most abundant in nature. Cotton is pure form of cellulose. It is the main
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constituent of cell wall of plants and is highly insoluble in water. On hydrolysis, it also yields
glucose molecules. Cellulose gives no color with iodine. It is not digested in human digestive
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system. In the herbivores, it is digested because of micro-organism in their digestive tract. These
micro-organisms secrete an enzyme called cellulase for its digestion.
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Glycogen: It is also called animal starch. It is the chief form of carbohydrate stored in animal
body. It is abundantly in liver and muscles, though found in all animal cells. It is insoluble in
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water and it also yields glucose on hydrolysis. Gives red color with iodine.
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Q 26.What are lipids?
Ans. The lipids are heterogenous group of compounds related to fatty acids. They are insoluble
in water but soluble in organic solvents such as ether, alcohol, chloroform and benzene. Lipids
include fats, oils, waxes, cholesterol and related compounds.
Q 27. What is the use of lipids in daily life?

Ans. Lipids as hydrophobic compounds are components of cellular membranes. They are used
to store energy. Some lipids provide insulation against atmospheric heat and cold and also act as
water proof material waxes, in the exoskeleton of insects and cutin, an additional protective layer
on the cuticle of epidermis of some plants organs. e.g., leaves fruits, seeds etc., protect them.
Q 28. Give the classification of lipids.
Ans. Lipids have been classified as acylglycerols, waxes, phospholipids, sphingolipids,
glycolipids, and terpenoids lipids including

carotenoids and steroids.
Q 29. What are acylglycerols?

Ans. Acylglycerols are composed of glycerol and fatty acids. The most widely spread
acylglycerol is triacylglycerol also triglycerides or neutral lipids. Chemically acylglycerol can be
defined as esters of fatty acids and alcohol. An ester is the compound produced as the result of a
chemical reaction of an alcohol with an acid and a water molecule is released.
Q 30. What are waxes? What is the importance of waxes?

Ans. Waxes are widespread as protective coatings on fruits and leaves Some insects also secrete
wax. Chemically, waxes are mixtures of long chain alkanes and alcohols, ketones and esters of
long chain fatty acids.
Importance: Waxes protect plants from water loss and abrasive damage. They also provide
barrier for insects, birds and animals such as sheep.
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Q 31. What are phospholipids?
Ans. Phospholipids are derivatives of phosphoric acid, which are composed of glycerol, fatty
acids and phosphoric acid. Nitrogenous bases such as choline ethanolamine and serine are
important components of phospholipids. They are widespread in bacteria, animal and plant cells
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and are frequently associated with membranes. Phosphatidylcholine is one of the common
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phospholipids.
Q 32. What are terpenoids?

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Ans. Terpenoids are a very large and important group of compounds which are made up of
simple repeating simple units, isoprenoid units. This unit by condensation in different ways give
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rise to compounds such as rubber, carotenoids, steroids terpenes etc.

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Q 33. What are proteins?

Ans. Proteins are the most abundant organic compounds to be found in cells and comprise over
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50% of their total dry weight.

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Q 34. Illustrate the important functions performed by proteins.

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Ans. BIOLOGY 1st FLASH CARDS BY NABEEL AKHTAR LECTURER BIOLOGY
1. Building Structures of Cell: Proteins build many structures of the cell.

2. As Enzymes: All enzymes are proteins in this way they control the whole metabolism of
the cell.
3. As Hormones: As hormones, proteins regulates metabolic processes.
4. As carriers: Some proteins work as carriers and transport specific substances such as
oxygen, lipids, ions etc.
5. As Antibodies: Some proteins called antibodies, defend the body against pathogens.
6. Blood Clotting Proteins: They prevent loss of blood from the body after an injury.
7. Movement of Organs: Movement of organs and organisms, and movement of
chromosomes during anaphase of cell division are caused by proteins.

Q 35.What are amino acids? Give its general formula.
Ans. Proteins are polymers of amino acid, the compounds containing nitrogen oxygen and
hydrogen. All the amino acids have an amino group (-NH2) and a carboxyl group(-COOH)
attached to the same carbon atom, also known as alpha carbon.
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Q 36. How peptide bond is formed between two amino acids?
Ans. The linkage between the hydroxyl group of carboxyl group of one amino acid and the
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hydrogen of amino group of another amino acid release H2) and C-N link to form a bond called
peptide bond,. The resultant compound of glycylalanine has two amino acid subunits and is a
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dipeptide. A dipeptide has an amino group at one end and a carboxyl group at the other end of
the molecule.
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Q 37. Who was the first scientist who determined the sequence of amino acids in a protein
molecule?
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Ans. F.Sanger was the first scientist who determined the sequence of amino acids in a protein
molecules. After ten years, of careful work he concluded, that insulin is composed of 51 amino
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acids in two chain. One of the chains had 21 amino acids and the other had 30 amino acids and
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they were held together by disulphide bridges. Haemoglobin is composed of four chains, two
alpha and two beta chains. Each alpha chain contain 141 amino acids, while beta chain contains
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146 amino acids.
Q 38. What is ribosomal RNA?

Ans. It is the major portion of RNA in the cell, and may be up to 80% of the total RNA. It is
strongly associated with the ribosomal protein where 40 to 50% of it is present. It acts as a
machinery for the synthesis of proteins. On the surface of the ribosomal the mRNA and tRNA
molecules interact to translate the information from genes into a specific protein.
Q 39. Why are fats considered as high energy compounds?

Ans. Because of higher proportions of C-H bonds and very low proportion of oxygen, lipids
store double the amount of energy as compared to the same amount of any carbohydrate.
Q 40. How were nucleic acids isolated?

Ans. Nucleic acids were isolated in 1870 by F.

Miesches from the nuclei of the pus cells. Due to their isolation from nuclei and their acidic
nature, they were named nucleic acids.
Q 41. Differentiate between a nucleotide and a nucleoside?

Ans. Nucleotide: A nucleoside and a phosphoric acid combine to form a nucleotide.
Nucleoside: The compound formed by combination of a base and pentose sugar is called
nucleoside. BIOLOGY 1st FLASH CARDS BY NABEEL AKHTAR LECTURER BIOLOGY
Q 42. What is a gene?
Ans. Gene is a unit of biological inheritance.
Q 43. Which was the first microbe have the genome completely sequenced?
Ans. Haemophilus influenzae is the first microbe to have the genome completely sequenced
and this was published on July 28, 1995.
Q 44. What is transpiration?
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Ans. RNA is synthesizes by DNA in a process as transcription.
Q 45. What is messenger RNA? BIOLOGY 1st FLASH CARDS BY NABEEL AKHTAR LECTURER BIOLOGY
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Ans. it takes the genetic message from the nucleus to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm to form
particular proteins messenger RNA carries the genetic information from DNA to ribosomes,
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where amino acids are arranged according to the information in mRNA to form specific protein
molecule. This is a type of a single strand of variable length. Its length depends upon the size of
the gene as well as the protein form which it is taking the message. mRNA is about 3 to 4% of
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the total RNA in the cell.
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Q 46. What is transfer RNA? BIOLOGY 1st FLASH CARDS BY NABEEL AKHTAR LECTURER BIOLOGY
Ans. It comprises about 10 to 20% of the cellular RNA Transfer RNA molecule are small, each
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with a chain length of 75 to 90 nucleotides. It is involved in protein synthesis.

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Q 47. What are conjugated molecules? Give some examples of it.

Ans. Two different molecules belonging to different categories usually combine together to
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form conjugated molecules. For exp: Glycoproteins, glycolipids, nucleoproteins, lipoproteins,

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etc.
Q 48. What are nucleohistones? What is their function?

Ans. Nucleic acids have special affinity for basic proteins. Nucleohistones are present in
chromosomes. They play important role in regulation of gene expression.
Q 49. What are lipoproteins? What is their function?

Ans. Lipoproteins are formed by combination of lipids and proteins. They are basic structural
framework of all types pf membranes in the cell.
Q 50. Differentiate between glycoproteins and glycolipids.

Ans. Glycoproteins: Carbohydrate may combine with proteins to form glycoproteins. Most of
the secretions are glycoprotein in nature and they are integral structural components of plasma
membrane.

Glycolipids: Carbohydrate may combine with, lipids to form glycolipids. They are also integral
structural components of plasma membrane.
Q 51. What is the contribution of Erwin Chargaff in biology regarding structure of DNA?
Ans. In 1951 Erwin Chargaff provided data about the ratios of different bases present in the
DNA molecule. This data suggested that adenine and thymine are equal in ratio and so are
guanine and cytosine.
Q 52. Who used the technique of X-ray diffraction to determine structure of DNA?
Ans. Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin Used the technique of X-ray diffraction to
determine structure of DNA.
Q 53. Who built the scale model of DNA?

Ans. James-D Watson and Francis Crick built the scale model of DNA.
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Q 54. Differentiate between purines and pyrimidines?
Ans. Purines: These are double ringed nitrogenous bases. Adenine and guanine are purines.
Pyrimidines: These are single ringed nitrogenous bases. Cytosine, thymine and uracil are
pyrimidines.
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Q 55. Which one is more soluble in organic solvent Palmitic acid or Butyric acid? Support
your answer.
Ans. Palmitic acid is more soluble in organic solvents than butyric acid because it has more
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carbon atoms that butyric acid and its melting point is also more then butyric acid.
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Q 56. Differentiate between saturated and unsaturated.

Ans. Saturated Fatty Acid: Saturated fatty acid contains double bond. These are oils and liquids
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at room temperature.
Unsaturated Fatty Acid: Unsaturated fatty acids have no double bonds. They are fats and solid at
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room temperature.
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Q 57. Describe primary structure of proteins.

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Ans. The primary structure comprises the number and sequence of amino acids in a single chain
in a protein molecule. The size of protein molecule is determined by the type of amino acids and
the number of amino acids comprising that particular molecule.
Q 58. What is the secondary structure of proteins?

Ans. The polypeptide chain in secondary do not lie flat. They coil into a helix or some other
configuration. Common secondary structure is alpha-helix which involves spiral formation of the
polypeptide chain. It has 3.6 amino acids in each turn. This structure is kept by the formation of
hydrogen bonds among amino acids molecules. Beta-pleated Sheet is formed by folding back of
the polypeptide. BIOLOGY 1st FLASH CARDS BY NABEEL AKHTAR LECTURER BIOLOGY
Q 59. What is tertiary structure? How it is maintained?

Ans. A polypeptide chain bends and folds upon itself forming a globular shape. This is the
proteins tertiary structure. It is maintained by ionic, hydrogen and disulphide bonds.

Q 60. How many type of cell walls are present in different organisms?
Ans. Organism Cell Wall
Bacteria Pepidoglycan and lipopolysaccharides (lipoprotein
complex)
Blue green algae Muramic acid
Fungi Chitin
Algae and other Plants Mainly cellulose
Q 61. Write down the differences between DNA and RNA?

Ans. Feature DNA RNA
Nucleotides Deoxyribonucleotides Ribonucleotides
Pentose Sugar Deoxyribose Ribose
Nitrogenous Bases A.G.C.T A.G.C.U
Physical Structure Double strands Single strand
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Location Nuclei and in much lesser Nucleolus, ribosomes, cystosol
amount in mitochondria and in smaller amount in other
and chloroplasts. parts of the cell.
Amount Constant in each cell of species. Variable from cell to cell.
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Role Heredity pk Protein Synthesis
Q 62. Compare four levels of protein molecules.

Ans. Feature Primary Secondary Tertiary Quaternary
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Information No and sequence Coiling Bending and Aggregation
of amino acids folding
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Bonds Disulphide Hydrogen Ionic, hydrogen, Hydrophobic,

disulphide ionic, hydrogen
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Example Insulin, Hb Alpha Helix Single chain of Hb Hb molecule

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Q 63. Differentiate between different structure of proteins.

Ans. Feature Fibrous Protein Globular Protein
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Shape Fibrils Spherical or ellipsoidal

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Structural Organization Secondary Tertiary

Solubility in aqueous media Insoluble Soluble
Crystal Nature Non-crystalline Crystalline
Elasticity Elastic Inelastic
Role Structural Functional
Stability Stable Unstable
Examples Silk fibers, actin, myosin, Enzymes antibodies,
fibrin, keratin hemoglobin, hormones
Q 64. Describe conjugating molecules.

Ans. Components Molecule Role
Carbohydrates + Proteins Glycoproteins Cellular secretions, integral part
of biological membranes.
Carbohydrates + Lipids Glycolipids Integral component of biological

membranes.
Nucleic acid + Histones Nucleohistones Chromosome regulation of gene
Expression.
Chapter 3 Enzymes
Q 1. What is catalyst?
Ans. A substrate which in minute amounts promotes chemical change without itself being used
up in the reaction.
Q 2. Where are the enzymes important in photosynthesis found in the green cells?
Ans. These enzymes are found in chloroplasts.
Q 3. Do all the enzymes need a co-factor for their proper function?

Ans. No, some enzymes require a co-factor for their proper functioning.
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Q 4. What is the inactive state of the enzyme pepsin known as ?
Ans. It is known as pepsinogen.
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Q 5. How many types of inhibitor? pk
Ans. There are two types of inhibitors:
 Irreversible
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 Reversible
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Q 6. What is the optimum temperature for human enzyme?

Ans. It is 37C
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Q 7. Define enzyme.
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Ans. The enzyme us a proteinaceous compound that catalyses biochemical reactions.

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Q 8. Write important characteristics of enzymes.

Ans. Enzymes have the following characteristics:
 Globular proteins
 Increase reaction rate
 No effect on end product
 Required in small amount
 Specific in action
 Sensitivity
 Require a co-factor
 Lower the activation energy
 Inhibition
 Pure form

 May be damaging
Q 9. How do extreme changes in pH effect the enzyme activity?

Ans. Extreme changes in pH cause the bonds in the enzyme to break, resulting in the enzyme
denaturation.
Q 10. How can the effect of reversible inhibitors be naturalized?

Ans. Their effect can be neutralized completely or partly by an increase in the concentration of
the substrate.
Q 11. Name the scientist who proposed lock and key model in 1890 to account for
substrate-enzyme interaction?
Ans. The name of the scientist is Emil Fischer.
Q 12. What is substrate?
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Ans. Substrate is a substance on which enzyme acts.
Q 13. Name the definite regions of the active site of an enzyme?
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Ans. The definite regions are the binding site and the catalytic state.
Q 14. Quote few examples of inhibitors of enzyme.

pk
Ans. These are cyanides, antibodies, anti-metabolism and some drugs.
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Q 15. What is co-enzyme?

Ans. It is an organic compound which combines with an enzyme and plays an important part in
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its catalytic reaction, without being consumed in the process.

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Q 16. Write down the optimum pHs for th enzyme pepsin, enterokinase, salivary amylase,
catalase and orginase.
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Ans. The optimum pHs for these are 2, 5.5, 6.8, 7.6 and 9.7 respectively.
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Q 17. How dose heat accelerate chemical reactions at high temperature.

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Ans. Heat provides activation energy which serves to accelerate chemical reactions at high
temperature.
Q 18. List two conditions that destroy enzymatic activity by disrupting bonds between the
atoms in an enzyme?
Ans. These conditions may be extreme increase in temperature and extreme changes in pH.
Q 19. Define prosthetic group.

Ans. Prosthetic group is the non-protein part of an enzyme which is covalently bonded to the
protein.
Q 20. How do irreversible inhibitors check the reaction rate?

Ans. The irreversible inhibitors check the reaction rate by occupying the active sites of the
enzyme or by destroying their globular structure.

Q 21. How do the irreversible inhibitors occupy the active sites if the enzyme?
Ans. They occupy the active sites either by forming covalent bonds or by blocking the active
sites physically.
Q 22. How do low and high temperatures respectively affect the enzyme activity?
Ans. Low temperature decreases while the high temperature increases the enzyme activity but
within certain limits. BIOLOGY 1st FLASH CARDS BY NABEEL AKHTAR LECTURER BIOLOGY
Q 23. What are inhibitors?
Ans. An inhibitor is a chemical substance that can react with the enzyme but it is not
transformed into products and thus blocks the active site temporarily or permanently.
Q 24. Who and when proposed induce Fit Model regarding substrate and enzyme
interaction?
Ans. Koshland in 1959 proposed induce fit model regarding substrate and enzyme interaction.
Q 25. What sort of medium is required by an enzyme, for its activity?
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Ans. Aqueous medium is required by an enzyme, for its activity.
Q 26. Where are the enzymes involved in cellular respiration found in the living cells?
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Ans. These enzymes are found in the mitochondria.
Q 27. What is the active site of an enzyme?

pk
Ans. Active sites is the small portion of the enzyme to which is its catalytic activity restricted.
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Q 28. Define co-factor?

Ans. Any non-protein molecule or ion that is required for the proper functioning of an enzyme is
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called co-factor. Co-factor can be permanently bound to the active site or ma bind loosely with
the substrate during catalysis.
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Q 29. Differentiate between apoenzyme and holoenzyme.

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Ans. An enzyme whose co-factor has been removed, rendering i.e., catalytically machine is
known as an apoenzyme. When apoenzyme is combined with is co-enzyme, it forms a
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holoenzyme.
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Q 30. Would bio-chemical reaction not operate, if the lining body were without enzymes?
Ans. The bio-chemical reaction would operate but at such a slow speed that life would be
impossible.
Q 31. List two conditions that destroy enzymatic activity by disrupting bonds between the
atoms in an enzyme.
Ans. High temperature and high pH
Q 32. How do low and high temperature, respectively effect an enzyme activity?
Ans. Temperature and Enzyme Activity: The rate of enzyme controlled reaction may increase
with increase in temperature but up to certain limit. All enzymes can work at their specific
temperature called as optimum temperature. For enzymes of human body 37C is the optimum
temperature. Heat provides activation energy and therefore chemical reactions are accelerated at
high temperature. Heat also supplies kinetic energy to the reacting molecules, causing them to
move rapidly. Thus the reactants move more

quickly and chances of their collision with each other are increased.However, further increase in
heat energy also increases the vibrations of atoms which make up the enzyme molecule. If the
vibrations become too violent, globular structure essential for enzyme activity is lost and the
enzyme is said to be denatured.
Low Temperature: At low temperature kinetic energy become very low due to which enzyme
activity cease.
Chapter 4 The Cell

Q 1. State salient features of cell theory.
Ans. The salient features of cell theory are:
1. All organisms are composed of one or more cells.

2. All cells arise from pre-existing cells.
3. Cell is the basic structural as well as functional unit for all organisms.
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Q 2. What are the basic components of cell?
Ans. A cell consist of following basic components:
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Plasma membrane, also a cell wall in plant cell.
pk
1. Cytoplasm, containing cell organelles.
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2. Nucleus, with nuclear or chromatin material.
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Q 3. What is the chemical composition of plasma membrane?

Ans. Cell membrane is chemically composed of lipids and proteins, 60-80% are protein, while 20-40%
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are lipids. In addition there is a small quantity of carbohydrates.

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Q 4. Differentiate between unit membrane and fluid mosaic model of membrane.

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Ans. Unit Membrane: It was proposed earlier by J.D. Robertson in 1959 that cell membranes is
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composed of lipid bi-layer sandwiched between inner and outer layers of protein. This basic structure is
called the unit membrane and is present in all the cellular organelles.
Fluid Mosaic Model: The protein layers are not continuous and are not confined to the surface of the
membrane but are embedded in lipid layers in a mosaic manner. This discovery which was given by S-
Singer and Nicolson in 1972 led to the proposal of fluid mosaic model. This model at present is the most
accepted one.
Q 5. What is the basic function of cell wall?
Ans. Cell wall is very important. It provides a definite shape to cell and keeps it rigid. It does not act as a
barrier to the materials passing through it.
Q 6. What is cytosol?
Ans. The soluble part of the cytoplasm is called cytosol.

Q 7. What is the main function of cytoplasm?
Ans. The main function of cytoplasm is to act as a store house of vital chemicals. Is is also a site for
certain metabolic processes such as glycolysis.
Q 8. Who was the first person to study ribosomes?
Ans. Palade (1955) was the first person to study them.
Q 9. What is polysome?
Ans. A group of ribosomes attached to mRNA is known as polysome.
Q 10.Who first isolated lysosomes?
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Ans. These were isolated as a separate component for the first time by De Duve (1949).
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Q 11. Who discovered Golgi apparatus?
Ans. Golgi apparatus was discovered by Golgi in 1898.

pk
Q 12. What are the functions of Golgi apparatus?
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Ans. Functions of Golgi Apparatus:

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1. Cell Secretions: Golgi complex is concerned with cell secretions. Secretions are products formed
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within the cell on ribosomes and then passed to the outside through endoplasmic reticulum and
Golgi apparatus. The secretions are converted into finished products and are packed inside
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membrane, before export. Exp: In mammals, the secrete granules containing enzymes that help
in digestion. The Golgi complex has a role in information of these granules.
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2. Transportation: The proteins or enzymes which have to be transported out of the cell pass
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through the Golgi apparatus.

3. Modification of Proteins and Lipids: The most important function of this apparatus is to modify
the proteins and lipids by adding carbohydrates and converting them into glyco-proteins and
glycolipids.
Q 13. What is autophagy? How it is beneficial for the cell?

Ans. Autophagy: Self eating process of cell is called autophagy.
Benefits: Lysosomes are also involved in the autpphagy. During this process some old, worn out parts of
cell, such as old mitochondria are digested . In this way, materials of cell may be recycled and cell may
be renewed. Their enzymes can also result in degeneration of cell, as may occur during some
developmental processes. Lysosomes also release enzymes for extra cellular digestion.
Q 14. What are lysosomes? What is the main function of lysosomes?
Ans. Lysosomes: Lysosomes are cytoplasmic organelles and are different from others due to their

morphology. Lysosomes(Lyso = splitting, soma = body) are found in eukaryotic cells.
Function of Lysosomes: Any foreign that gains entry into the cell is immediately engulfed by the
lysosome and is completely broken into simple digestible pieces. The process is known as phagocytosis.
They are most abundant in those animal cell which exhibit phagocytic activity. They are bounded by
single membrane and are simple sacs rich in acid phosphatese and several other hydrolytic enzymes.
Q 15. Differentiate between primary lysosome and secondary lysosome.
Ans. Primary Lysosome: The hydrolytic enzymes are synthesized on Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum and
are future processed in the Golgi apparatus. These processed enzymes are budded off as Golgi vesicles
and are called as primary lysosomes.
Secondary Lysosomes: The phagocytic vacuoles fuse with the primary lysosomes to form digestive
vacuoles. These digestive vacuoles and autophagosomes are known as secondary lysosomes.
Q 16. Differentiate between Gel and Sol.
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Ans. Gel: Viscous colloidal solution of cytoplasm is called gel. Peripheral parts of cell are gel like.
Sol: Non-viscous colloidal solution of cytoplasm is called sol. Central parts of cell are sol.
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Q 17. What are storage disease?
Ans. Several congenital disease have been found to be due to accumulation within the cell of substances
pk
such as glycogen or various glycolipids. These are also called storage disease and are produced by a
mutation that effect one of the lysosomal enzymes involved in the catabolism of a certain substance.
es
Q 18. Who first isolated peroxisomes?

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Ans. De Duve and coworkers isolated in 1965 particles from liver and other tissues which were enriched
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with some oxidative enzymes, such as peroxidase, catalase, glycolic acid oxidase and some other
enzymes.
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Q 19. Briefly describe the structure of peroxisomes.

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Ans. These are single membrane enclosed endoplasmic organelle found both in animal and plants cells.
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These are characterized by containing H2O2 - producing oxidases and catalase. They are approximately
0.5 micro meter in diameter. They have also been found in protozoa, yeast and many cell types of higher
plants.
Q 20. What is the function of peroxisomes?
Ans. This organelle is specifically involved in the formation and decomposition of hydrogen peroxide in
the cell.
Q 21. What are glyoxisomes?
Ans. Plants contain an organelle, which in addition to glycolic acid oxidase and catalase, also possess a
number of enzymes that are not found in animal cells.

This organelle called glyoxisomes are most abundant in plant seedlings, which rely upon stored fatty
acids to provide them with the energy and material to begin the formation of the cell.
Q 22. What is the basic function of vacuole?
Ans. The plant vacuole is the major contributor to the turgor that provides support to the individual
plant cell and contributes to the rigidity of the leaves and younger parts of the plant.
Q 23. What are the main proteins present in cytoskeleton?
Ans. The main proteins that are present in cytoskeleton are tubulin actin, myosin, tropomyosin and
others which are also found in muscles.
Q 24. What are the functions of centriole?
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Ans. Centrioles play an important part in the location of furrowing during cell division and in the
formation of cilia.
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Q 25. Justify that mitochondria is a self replicating organelle.
pk
Ans. The presence of ribosomes and DNA indicates that some proteins are synthesized in them. It is a
self replicating organelle.
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Q 26. What are F1 particles?

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Ans. The inner surface of cristae in the mitochondrial matrix has small knob like structure known as F1
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particles.
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Q 27. What are plastids?

Ans. Membrane bounded, mostly pigment containing bodies present in the cell and are called plastids.
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Plastids are present in plant cells only.

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Q 28. What is stroma and what is its function?
Ans. Stroma: Stroma covers most of the volume of chloroplast. Stroma is a fluid which surrounds a
thylakoids. It contains proteins, some ribosomes and a small circular DNA.
Function of Stroma: It is the part of the chloroplast where CO2 is fixed to manufacture sugars. Some
proteins are also synthesized in this part.
Q 29. Why granum appears green?
Ans. On the layer of thylakoids, chlorophyll molecules are arranged and that is why granum appears to
be green.
Q 30. What is intergranum?

Ans. Each granum is inter connected with others by the non-green part called intergranum.
Q 31. What are the functions of chromoplast?
Ans. They impart colors to the plant other than green. They are present in the petal of the flower and in
the ripened fruit. They help in the pollination and dispersal of seed.
Q 32. What are lecoplasts? What is its function?
Ans. Leucoplasts: They are colorless. They are triangular, tubular or of some other shape.
Function: They are found in the underground parts of the plant and store food.
Q 33. How nuclear pores are formed? What is its function?
Ans. The outer and inner membranes are continuous at certain points resulting in the formation of
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pores, the nuclear pores. The nuclear pores allow the exchange of materials between the nucleus and
the cytoplasm.
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Q 34. What is the function of chromosomes? pk
Ans. All the information necessary to control the activities of the cell is located on the chromosomes in
the form of genes, which are transferred from one generation to the other. The number of
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chromosomes in all individuals of the same species remain constant generation after generation.
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Q 35. What are the functions of glyoxysomes?

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Ans. 1.One of the primary activities in these germinating seedlings is the conversion of stored fatty acids
to carbohydrates. This is achieved through a cycle, glyoxlate cycle, the enzymes of which are located in
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the glyoxysomes and the process is called gluconeogenesis.

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2. Glyoxysomes are the sites for breakdown of fatty acids to succinate.

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Q 36. What is the difference between thylakoids and grana?
Ans. Thylakoids: Thylakoids are flattened vesicles which arrange themselves to form grana and
intergrana.
Grana: A granum appears to be a pile of thylakoids stacked on each other like coins. On an average,
there are 50 or more thylakoids piled to form one granum. Membranes of the gran are sites where
sunlight energy is trapped and where ATP is formed.
Q 37. What is nucleolus? What is its function?
Ans. Nucleolus: It is darkly stained body within the nucleus, and is without any membranes to separate
it from the rest of the nuclear material. They are composed of two regions:
1. The peripheral granular area composed of precursors of ribosomal subunits.

2. The central fibril area consisting of large molecules weight RNA and rDNA.
Q 38. Why mitochondria is called power house of the cell?

Ans. Mitochondria extract energy from different components of food and convert it in form of ATP. This
energy is used for various cellular activities. The spent energy is in form of ADP is regenerated by
mitochondria into ATP. As mitochondria are involved in manufacture and supply of energy to the cell. So
they are called power house of the cell.
Q 39. What is Tay Sach's disease?
Ans. Tay Sach's disease is because of absence of Hexoseaminidase enzyme that is involved in the
catabolism of lipids. Accumulation of lipids in brain cells lead to mental retardation and even death.
Q 40. Differentiate between Microtubules, Microfilaments and intermediate filaments.
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Ans.
Microtubules:
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They are long, unbranched, slender proteins structures.
pk
Functions: Several cell organelles are derived from special assemblies of microtubulues for e.g., cilia,
flagella, basal bodies and centrioles.
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Assembly and dis-assembly of spindle structure during mitosis.
Microfilaments: BIOLOGY 1st FLASH CARDS BY NABEEL AKHTAR LECTURER BIOLOGY

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These are considerably more slender cylinders made up of contractile actin protein, linked to the inner
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surface of plasma membrane.

Functions: They are involved in the internal cell motion like movement of cyclosis and amoeboid
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movements.
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Intermediate Filaments: BIOLOGY 1st FLASH CARDS BY NABEEL AKHTAR LECTURER BIOLOGY
They have diameter in between those of Microtubules and Microfilaments.
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Functions: They are involved in maintenance of cell shape and integration of cellular compartments.
Q 41. What is the difference between chlorophyll and hemoglobin?
Ans. Chlorophyll: Chlorophyll has Mg+2 as the central atom in its molecule.
Haemoglobin: Haemoglobin has Fe+2 as the central atom in its molecule.
Q 42. What is the difference between chromatids and chromosomes?
Ans. Chromosomes: Chromosomes are thread like structures consisting of chromatids and centromere.
Chromatids: Chromatids is exact replica of the chromosome.

Q 43. Briefly describe the structure of cell wall of plant cells.
Ans. The outer most boundary in most of the plant cells is called cell wall. It is secreted by the
protoplasm of the cell and consists of :
Primary Wall: The primary wall is composed of cellulose deposition of pectin and hemi-celluloses. It is
true wall and develops into newly growing cells.
Secondary Wall: It is formed on the inner surface and is completely thick and rigid. It is composed of
silica, waxes, cutin, lignin, etc.
Middle Lamella: It is formed in between primary walls of the neighboring cells.
Q 44. Differentiate between phagocytosis and pinocytosis.
Ans. Phagocytosis: The cell membrane helps to take in or engulf solid particles by enfolding in the form
of vacuoles.
Pinocytosis: The cell membrane helps to take in or engulf liquid particles by enfolding in the form of
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vacuoles.
Q 45. What are the basic functions performed by plasma membrane?
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Ans. Transport of Materials: Cell membrane offers a barrier between the cell contents and their
surroundings, allowing only selective substances to pass through like lipid soluble substance, glucose,
pk
small gas molecules and water can pass through while ions cannot.
Endocytosis: In many animal cells, the cell membranes helps to take in materials by enfolding in the
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form of vacuoles. This can either be phagocytosis or pinocytosis.
Transport Nerve Impulses: In neuron the cell membrane transmits nerve impulses from one part of the
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body to another to keep coordination.

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Q 46. Differentiate between active and passive transport.

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Ans. Passive Transport: The substances from the area of high concentration to the area of low
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concentration. It does not require energy.

Active Transport: The substances move from the area of low concentration to the area of the high
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concentration. It is uphill movement which requires energy.
Q 47. Describe different types of functions performed by animal and plant cells.
Ans.
Animal Cells:
Muscle Cells: They contract and relax.
Nerve Cells: They transmit impulses.
Gland Cells: They secrete their secretions.
Red Blood: Cells: They carry oxygen.
White Blood Cells: They defend the body against pathogens.

Stomach Cells: They secrete gastric juice.
Plant Cells:
Xylem Cells: They conduct water and mineral salts from soil to the aerial parts of the plant.
Phloem Cells: They trans-locate food.
Sclerenchymatous Cells: They give support to plants.
Collenchymatous Cells: They give support to young plants.
Chrolenchymatous Cells: They carry out photosynthesis.
Parechymatous Cells: They store surplus food.
Meristematic Cells: They produce new cells for growth and development of the plant.
Q 48. What is the difference between animal and plant cells?
Ans. Animal Cells Plant cells

Nucleus is central Nucleus is peripheral.
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Small sized vacuole. Large vacuole present in center.
No cell wall. Cell wall present.
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Chloroplast absent Chloroplast present.
Centriole and lysosomes present. Centriole ans lysosomes absent.
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Flagellum present. Flagellum absent.
Glyoxysome absent. Glyoxysome present.
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Q 49. Differentiate between Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic cell.

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Ans. Prokaryotic Cell BIOLOGY 1st FLASH CARDS BY NABEEL AKHTAR LECTURER BIOLOGY
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 No well defined nucleus.

 Nuclear material DNA and chromosomes and are directly submerged in cytoplasm without
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nuclear covering.
 Organisms possessing prokaryotic cell are celled prokaryotes.
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 They lack many of the membrane bounded organelles like mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum,
chloroplasts, Golgi apparatus.
 Prokayotes have small sized ribosomes.
 Prokaryotic cell has cell wall composed of polysaccharides chains bounded covalently to shorter
chains of amino acids forming peptidoglycan or murein. The cell wall is regarded as sacculus.
Eukaryotic Cell:
 They have well defined nucleus.

 Nuclear material DNA and chromosomes are enclosed in double nuclear membrane.
 Organisms possessing eukaryotic cells are called eukaryote.
 Eukaryotic cells are rich in membrane bounded organelles. They possess mitochondria,
endoplasmic reticulum, chloroplast and Golgi apparatus.
 Eukaryotes have large sized ribosomes.

 Eukaryotic cells have cellulose in their cell wall.
Q 50. Differentiate between Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum and Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum.
Ans. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum:
 Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum is marked by the presence of ribosomes on its membranes.

 It is involved in the synthesis of protein.
Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum:
 Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum is without ribosomes.

 It helps in the metabolism of lipids and other molecules. They also detoxify harmful drugs. They
also transmit impulses. They are also involved in the transport of materials from one cell to
another.
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Q 51. Differentiate between Cristac and Cisternae.
Ans. Cristac:
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The inner membrane of mitochondria forms infolding into chamber or matrix. These infolds are celled
cristae.
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Cisternae:
The material present in Endoplasmic reticulum and golgi apparatus is separated from the cytoplasmic
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materials by structures that are spherical or tubular membranes called cisternae.
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Q 52. Describe the emergence and implication of cell theory/

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Ans.
Robert Hook Was the first who discovered and named the cell, by studying a thin section of cork.
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Published the report in "Micrographia". He stated, cell is an empty space bounded by thick wall.
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Lorenz Oken Believed "all living beings originate from or consist of vesicles or cells".
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Jean Baptist de-Lamarck Expressed no body can have life if its constituent parts are not cellular tissue
or formed by cellular tissue.
Robert Brown Reported the presence of nucleus, thus changed the ideas about the cell being an
empty space.
Theodor Schwann and Schleiden Presented cell theory.
Rudolph Virchow Opposed the ideas of abiogenesis and hypothesized, "omnis cellula e cellula", mew
cells are formed formed only by division of previously existing living cells.
Louis Pasteur Provided experimental proof for Virchow's hypothesis by demonstrating than micro-
organisms could be formed only from existing bacteria.

August Weismann Stated "all presently living cells have a common origin because they have basic
similarities in structure and molecules".
Q 53. Compare different cytoskeleton of cell.
Ans. Feature Microtubules Microfilaments Intermediate Filaments

Size Long, unbranched Short, Slender Diameter between both types
and slenderic
Protein Tubulin Actin Actin
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Role Assembly & Internal cell Maintenance of cell shape
dis-assembly of Integration of cellular compartments
spindles during
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mitosis.
From cilia, flagella,
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basal bodies and centrioles
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Q 54. Write note on plastids?
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Ans. Plastids:
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 These are membranes bounded mostly pigment containing bodies present only in plant cells.
 These are three main types of plastids.
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Feature Chloroplasts Chromoplasts Leucoplasts

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Color of pigment Green Other than green Colorless

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Location Green parts of plant Petals of flower and Underground parts of plant
in ripened fruits
Morphology Double membrane Triangular, tubular or of some
containing matrix and other shape
thylakoids
Main Function Absorbs the light Impart color to Storage of food
energy and utilize it to different parts
manufacture food Help in pollination
Dispersal of seeds
Q 55. Describe various movements involved in the transport of materials across cell membrane.
Ans. Movements involved in the transport of materials:
Cell membrane plays an important role in the

movement of materials from and to the cell. There are two main processes which are involved in the
transport of materials:
 Non-facilitated Transport:
Non Polar molecules like oil droplets, phospholipids, fatty acids etc., move across the membrane freely
through the lipid bi-layer. This is called non-facilitated transport.
 Facilitated Transport:
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The movement of ionic materials like water molecules oxygen carbon dioxide or radicals is carried out
across the cell membrane only with the help of proteins. So it is called facilitated transport. There are
two types of facilitated transport.
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 Active Transport:
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The transport of molecules across the membrane against concentration gradient with the expenditure
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of energy is called active transport.

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Passive Transport:
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The transport of molecules across the membrane along concentration gradient without utilizing energy
is called passive transport. There are two types of passive transport.
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 Diffusion:
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Soluble materials are in constant motion and moves from an area of higher concentration to an area of
lower concentration across the membranes by a process called diffusion.
 Osmosis:
The movement of water molecules from an area of its higher concentration to an area of lower
concentration through differentially permeable membrane is called osmosis.
Exocytosis: BIOLOGY 1st FLASH CARDS BY NABEEL AKHTAR LECTURER BIOLOGY
 If the transportation takes place from the cell to the exterior or to the other cells then such a
process is known as exocytosis. By exocytosis either the waste products or secretions move
across the membrane.

 Endocytosis:
The inward movement of the materials by infolding of the cell membrane in the form of vacuole or
vesicle is known as endocytosis. There are two types of endocytosis.
 Phagocytosis:
If the large solid particles are taken in then such a process is called phagocytosis.
 Pinocytosis:
The ingestion of liquid materials into the cell is called pinocytosis.
Q 56. State various structural modifications in a cell involved in secretion.

Ans. Secretions are the products produced within the cell on ribosomes and then passed to the outside
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through endoplasmic reticulum and golgi apparatus. The secretions are converted into finished product
and are packed inside membrane, before export.
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Q 57. List the processes blocked by mitochondrial failure in a cell.
pk
Ans. Process blocked by mitochondrial failure in a cell.
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1. Krebs cycle.
2. Electron transport chain.
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3. Fatty acid metabolism.

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Q 58. What will happen if a chromosome loses its centromere?

Ans. The loss of centromere will cause:
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1. A change in the physical composition.

2. Separation of chromosome.
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3. Degeneration of chromosome,
Q 59. How does autophagy help in converting a tadpole larva into an adult amphibian?
Ans. Autophagy is involved in breakdown of cell organelles of tail of tadpole larva. Autophagy is
followed by autolysis by which cell is destroyed. In this way tail would disappear.
Q 60. Is there any similarity between bacterial and plant cell wall?
Ans. No, Peptidoglycan found in bacterial cell wall and cellulose found in plant cell wall are
carbohydrates.

Chapter 5 Variety of Life
Q 1.What is vaccine?
Ans. A harmless variant or derivative of a pathogen that stimulates host's immune system to
mount defenses against the pathogen.
Q 2. Which are the kinds of the hepatitis caused by virus yet unidentified?
Ans. There are hepatitis F and hepatitis G.
Q 3. What is virology? BIOLOGY 1st FLASH CARDS BY NABEEL AKHTAR LECTURER BIOLOGY
Ans. The study if viruses is known as virology.
Q 4. What is the origin of the word virus?

Ans. The word virus is derived from a Latin word venome which means poisonous fluid.
Q 5. Define the term species?
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Ans. Species is a group of individual which resemble with one another and can freely breed
among themselves in nature to produce fertile offspring.
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Q 6. Who isolated the virus from the host tobacco cells in and when?
Ans. Stanley isolated viruses from the host tobacco cells in 1935.
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Q 7. When did small pox occur as epidermic in China?
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Ans. In 12th Century B.C.
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Q 8. Name the organism which shares the characters of both the plants as well as animals/
Ans. The organism is Euglena.
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Q 9. How do antibodies like penicillin and streptomycin etc. Affect the pathogenic viruses?
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Ans. The viruses are generally resistant to antibodies.

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Q 10. What is the nature of nucleic acid in phages?

Ans. The nucleic acid in phages is the DNA.
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Q 11. What is autotrophy?

Ans. An organism which can prepare its own food from simple inorganic material is called an
autotrophic and this phenomenon is called autotrophy.
Q 12. What us HAV abbreviation for?

Ans. HAV is abbreviation for Hepatitis A virus.
Q 13. How is HIV transmitted?

Ans. It is transmitted by intimate sexual contact, use of common syringes, contact with blood
and breast feeding etc.
Q 14. What does bacteriophage mean?

Ans. Bacteriophage means "bacteria eater".
Q 15. List the divisions of the biological classification system of animals.

Ans. These are the phylum, class, order, family, genus, and species.
Q 16. Is silver fish really a fish?

Ans. Not it is an insect. BIOLOGY 1st FLASH CARDS BY NABEEL AKHTAR LECTURER BIOLOGY
Q 17. Name the five kingdoms of Whittekar.
Ans. These are Monera, Protista, Plantae, Fungi and Animalia.
Q 18. What is an obligate parasite?

Ans. An organisms which can live only as parasite in the body of the host is called as obligate
parasite.
Q 19. Write down the cause and symptoms of hepatitis B.

Ans. Hepatitis B is caused by hepatitis virus HGV. Its symptoms are fatigue, loss of appetite and
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Jaundice.
Q 20. When was AIDS virus named and what?
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Ans. AIDS virus was named in 1986 as human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
Q 21. Define obligate parasite.

pk
Ans. A parasite which reproduces or multiplies only in the host cell is called obligate parasite.
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Q 22. Who introduced the technique of vaccination and when?

Ans. Edward Jenner introduced the technique of vaccination in 1796.
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Q 23. Write down the phylum and class of zea mays.

.n
Ans. These are anthophyta (Tracheophyta) and Monocodyledonae respectively.

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Q 24. How do viruses range in size?

Ans. The viruses range in size is from 20 nm of parvoviruses to 250 nm of pox viruses.
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Q 25. What is temperature phage?

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Ans. The phage which causes lysogen is called temperature (lysogenic) phage.
Q 26. What is the role of capsid?

Ans. Capsid is a protein shell that encloses the virol genome. It gives definite shape to virion.
Q 27. What is the Swedish botanist, Carolus Linnaeus famous for?

Ans. Carolus Linnaeus devised a system for giving scientific names to plants and animals in
1753.
Q 28. What term did Chatton use in 1937 to describe bacteria?

Ans. The term used was procariotique

Chapter 6 Kingdom Prokaryotae (Monera)
Q 1. Differentiate between eubacteria and archacobacteria.
Ans. Eubacteria: Eubacteria (Greek of "true bacteria") and a much smaller division. Cell wall is of
peptidoglycan or murein. for e.g E.Coli.
Archacobacteria: The archacobacteria (Greek for "ancient bacteria"). Cell wall is of protein,
Glycoprotein. polysaccharide. for e.g Methanogenic bacteria.
Q 2. Who was the first scientist who discovered bacteria?

Ans. A dutch scientist "Antone Van Leeuwenhoek" (1673) was the first to report th microbes such as
bacteria and protozoa. BIOLOGY 1st FLASH CARDS BY NABEEL AKHTAR LECTURER BIOLOGY
Q 3. Leeuwenhoek observed bacteria in which substances?
Ans. He firstly observed small creatures in rainwater, then confirmed these in saliva, vinegar, infusions
and other substances.
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Q 4. Who formulated the germ theory of disease?
Ans. Robert Koch formulated the "germ theory of disease".
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Q 5. Give the postulates of germ theory of disease. pk
Ans. The postulates of germ theory of disease are:
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1. A specific organism can always be found in association with a given disease.
2. The organism can be isolated and grown in pure culture in laboratory.
3. The pure culture will produce the disease when inoculated into susceptible animal.
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4. It is possible to recover the organism in pure culture from experimentally infected animals.
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Q 6. What is flagella? What are the important functions performed by flagella?

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Ans. Flagella: These are extremely thin, hair like appendages. They come out through cell wall and
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originate from basal body, structure just beneath the cell membrane in the cytoplasm. They are made
up of protein flagellin.
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Functions: Primary function of flagella is to help in motility. With the help of flagella, flagellate bacteria
can also detect and move in response to chemical signals which is a type of behavior called as
chemotaxis.
Q 7. Give classification on the basis of presence of flagella.

Ans. On basis of presence of flagella, pattern pf attachment of flagella and the number of flagella
present bacteria are classified into different taxonomic groups:
Atrichous:
Atrichous means bacteria are without any flagella.
Monotrichous:
When single polar flagellum is present then condition is known as monotrichous.
Lophotrichous:

If tuft of flagella is present only at one pole of bacteria then these are lophotrichous flagella.
Amphitrichous:
Amphitrichous is a condition when tuft of flagella at each of two poles is present.
Peritrichous:
In peritrichous form, flagella surround the whole cell.
Q 8. What is pilli? Describe its functions.

Ans. Pilli: These are hollow, non-helical, filamentous appendages. Pilli are smaller than flagella and are
not involved in motility. True pili are only present in gram-negative bacteria. They are made up of special
protein called pilin.
Function: BIOLOGY 1st FLASH CARDS BY NABEEL AKHTAR LECTURER BIOLOGY
1. They are primarily involved in a mating process between cells called conjugation process.
2. Some pili function as a means of attachment of bacteria to various surfaces.
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Q 9. Who developed the technique of gram stain?
Ans. Christian Gram developed the technique of gram stain.
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Q 10. Define cell envelope.
pk
Ans. Collectively complexes of layer external to the cell protoplasm are called a cell envelope.
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Q 11. Differentiate between capsule and slime.
Ans.
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Capsule:
Bacteria produce capsule, which is made up of repeating polysaccharides units, and of protein, or both,
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capsule is tightly bound to the cell. It has a thicker, gummy nature that gives sticky characters to
colonies of encapsulated bacteria.
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Slime:
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Some bacteria are covered with loose, soluble shield of macromolecules which is called as slime capsule
and slime provides greater pathogenicity to bacteria and protects them against phagocytosis.
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Q 12. Describe the function of cell wall.

Ans. It is a rigid structure. It determines the shape of bacterium. Cell wall also protects the cells from
osmotic lysis.
Q 13. What is protoplast?

Ans. The plasma membrane and every thing present within it is known as protoplast.
Q 14. Differentiate between Gram-positive ans Gram-negative bacteria.

Ans. Characteristics Gram-positive Gram-negative
Staining It is stained purple It is stained pink
No. of major layers 1 2
Chemical make up Peptidoglycan Techoic acid

Lipopolysaccharides
Lipotechoic acid Lipoproteins peptidoglycan
Lipids (1 - 4%) Lipids (11 - 12%)
Overall thickness 20 - 80 nm 8 - 11 nm
Outer membrane No Yes
Periplasmic space Present in some Present in all
Permeability More permeable Less permeable
Q 15. List function that the cell membrane performs in bacteria.

Ans. The functions performed by cell membrane in bacteria are:
1. Cell membrane performed regulates the transport of proteins, nutrients, sugar and electrons or
other metabolites.
2. The plasma membranes of bacteria also contain enzymes for respiratory metabolism.
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Q 16. What are mesosomes? And what are some of their possible functions?
Ans. Mesosomes: The cell membrane, invaginates into the cytoplasm forming structure called as
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mesosomes. Mesosomes are in the form of vesicles, tubules or lamellae.
Functions: Mesosomes are involved in DNA replication and cell division where as some mesosomes are
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also involved in export of exocellular enzyme. Respiratory enzyme are also present on the mesosomes.
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Q 17. Name a bacterium that has no cell wall?
Ans. Cell wall is only absent in mycoplasma.
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Q 18. What is unique about the structure of bacterial ribosomes?

Ans. Ribosomes are composed of RNA and proteins. Some may also be loosely attached to plasma
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membranes. They are protein factories. There are thousands of ribosomes in each healthy growing cell.
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They are smaller then eukaryotic ribosomes. They are 70S, small unit of 30S and large of 50S.
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Q 19. What are plasmids? What is the role played by the plasmids?
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Ans. Many bacteria contains plasmid in addition to chromosomes. These are the circular, double
stranded DNA molecules. They are self-replicating and are not essential for bacterial growth and
metabolism. They often contain drug resistant, heavy metals, disease and insect resistant genes on
them, Plasmids are important vectors, in modern engineering techniques.
Q 20. Name the substances that bacteria store.

Ans. Bacteria store glycogen, sulphur, fat and phosphate.
Q 21. Name the common waste materials of bacteria.
Ans. Common waste materials are alcohol lactic acid and acetic acid.
Q 22. Differentiate between autotrophic and heterotrophic bacteria.

Ans. Autotrophic Bacteria: Some kinds of bacteria are autotrophic i.e., they can synthesize compounds
which are necessary for their survival from inorganic

substances.
Heterotrophic Bacteria: Most bacteria are heterotrophic i.e., they cannot synthesize their organic
compounds from simple inorganic compounds.
Q 23. Differentiate between saprophytic and parasitic bacteria.

Ans. Saprophytic Bacteria: Saprophytic bacteria get their food from dead organic matter.
Parasitic Bacteria: Parasitic bacteria for their nutrition are fully dependent on their host.
Q 24. Differentiate between photosynthetic and chemo-synthetic bacteria.

Ans. Photosynthetic Bacteria: Photosynthetic bacteria possess chlorophyll which differs from the
chlorophyll of green plants.
Chemo-synthetic bacteria: Nitrifying bacteria are chemo-synthetic. Chemosynthetic bacteria oxidize
inorganic compounds like ammonia, nitrate, nitrite, sulphur on ferrous iron and trap energy thus
released for their synthetic reaction.
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Q 25. Differentiate between aerobic, anaerobic, facultative and microaerophillic bacteria.
Ans. Aerobic Bacteria: Bacteria, which are able to grow in the presence of oxygen, are called aerobic
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bacteria. Exp: Pseudomonas is an aerobic bacterium.
Anaerobic Bacteria: Bacteria, which can grow in the absence of oxygen are known as anaerobic
bacteria. Exp: Spirochete is an anaerobic bacterium.
pk
Facultative Bacteria: Facultative bacteria grow either in the presence or absence of oxygen. Exp: E.Coli is
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a facultative anaerobic bacterium.
Microaerophilic Bacteria: Some bacteria require a low concentration of oxygen for growth and are
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known as microaerophilic. Exp: Campylobacter is a microaerophilic bacteria.

Q 26. What is the type of asexual reproduction in bacteria?
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Ans. Bacteria increase in number by an asexual means of reproduction, called binary fission. In binary
fission parent cell enlarges, its chromosomes duplicates, and plasma membrane pinches inward at the
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center of the cell. When nuclear material has been evenly distributed, the cell wall grows inward to
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separate cell into two.

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Q 27. Define generation time.

Ans. The interval of time until the completion of next division is known as generation time.
Q 28. Describe the four distinct phases recognized in bacterial growth curve.
Ans. Four distinct phases are recognized in bacterial growth curve:
Lag Phase:
It is the phase of no growth. Bacteria prepare themselves for division.
Log Phase:
It is the phase of rapid growth. Bacteria divide at exponential rate.
Stationary Phase:
Bacterial death rate is equal to bacterial rate of reproduction and multiplication.
Death/Decline Phase:

Bacteria start dying. Here the death rate is more than reproduction rate.
Q 29. What is the ecological importance of bacteria?

Ans. Bacteria are ecologically very important. They are highly adaptable as a group and are found nearly
everywhere. They are able to decompose organic matter and play a significant role in the completion of
cycles of nitrogen, phosphorous, sulphur and carbon.
Q 30. How many species of bacteria cause disease in human?

Ans. Approximately 200 species are known to cause disease in humans.

Q 31. What is the sterilization process?
Ans. The process in which we use physical agents to control bacteria/microorganisms is known as
sterilization process. Sterilization is deduction of all life forms.
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Q 32. How dry and moist heat are effective in killing bacteria?
Ans. Both dry and moist heat are effective. Moist heat cause coagulation of proteins and kills the
microbes. Dry heat cause of oxidation of chemical constituents of microbes and kills them.
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pk
Q 33. How electromagnetic radiations are effective in killing bacteria?
Ans. Certain electromagnetic radiations below 300 nm are effective in killing of microorganisms. Gamma
rays are in general used for sterilization process.
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Q 34. How heat sensitive compounds are sterilized?

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Ans. Heat sensitive compounds like antibiotics, sears, hormones etc., can be sterilized by means of
membrane filters.
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Q 35. Differentiate between antiseptic, disinfectants and chemotherapeutic agents?

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Ans. Antiseptics: Chemical substances used on living tissues that inhibits the growth of microorganisms
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are called antiseptics.

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Disinfectants: The important chemical agents used for disinfection are oxidizing and reducing agents.
For example halogen and phenols, hydrogen peroxide, Potassium permanganate, alcohol and
formaldehyde etc. inhibit the growth of vegetative cells and are used on non-living materials.
Chemotherapeutic Agents: Chemotherapeutic agents and antibodies work with natural defense and
stop the growth of bacteria and other microbes. These are sulfonamides, tetracycline, penicillin, etc.
They destroy or inhibit the growth of microorganisms in living tissues.
Q 36. Differentiate between microbicidal and microbistatic effect.

Ans. Microbicidal Effect: Microbicidal effect is one that kills the microbes immediately.
Microbistatic Effect: Microbistatic effect inhibits the reproductive capacities of the cells and maintains
the microbial population at constant.

Q 37. Define antibodies.
Ans. Antibodies, substances that protect the host against infection sue to subsequent exposure to the
virulent organism.
Q 38. What is hydrophobia?

Ans. Hydrophobia, or rabies, a disease transmitted to people by bites from rabid dogs, cats and other
animals.
Q 39. What are antibodies?

Ans. Antibodies is a Greek word ANTI, against and BIOS, life. Antibodies are the chemotherapeutic
chemical substances which are used in treatment of infectious diseases. Antibodies are synthesized and
secreted by certain bacteria, antinomycetes and fungi.
Q 40. How misuse of antibodies effect human health?
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Ans. Misuse of antibodies such as penicillin can cause allergic reactions. Streptomycin can affect
auditory nerve thus causing deafness. Tetracycline and its related compounds cause permanent
discoloration of teeth in young children.
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Q 41. What are cyanobacteria? pk
Ans. The cyanobacteria are the largest and most diverse group pf photosynthetic bacteria which was
previously known as "blue green algae". Cyanobacteria are true prokaryotes.
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Q 42. What is the size of cyanobacteria?

Ans. They range in diameter from about 1 - 10 micro meter.
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Q 43. How cyanobacteria exist in nature?

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Ans. They may be unicellular, exist as colonies of many shapes, or form filaments consisting of trichomes
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surrounded by mucilaginous sheath.

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Q 44. Describe locomotion in cyanobacteria?

Ans. They lack flagella and often use gas vesicles to move in the water, and many filamentous species
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have gliding motility.
Q 45. How the photosynthetic system of cyanobacteria resembles that of eukaryote?

Ans. Their photosynthetic system closely resembles that of eukaryotes because they have chlorophyll
and photo-system II. They carry out oxygenic photosynthesis i.e. they use water as an electron donor
and generate oxygen during photosynthesis.
Q 46. Differentiate between phycobilins and phycobilisomes.

Ans. Phycobilins: Cyanobacteria use phycobilins as necessary pigment.
Phycobilisomes: Photosynthetic pigments and electron transport chain components are located in
thylakoid membranes linked with particles called phycobilisomes.

Q 47. What is phycocyanin?
Ans. Phycocyanin is a pigment-protein complex from the light-harvesting phycobiliprotein family. It is an
accessory pigment to chlorophyll..
Q 48. How cyanobacteria reproduce?

Ans. Cyanobacteria reproduce by binary fission, fragmentation.
Q 49. What is the reserve food material in cyanobacteria?
Ans. The reserve food material in cyanobacteria is glycogen.
Q 50. What is the hormogonia?

Ans. Hormogonia are motile filaments of cells formed by some cyanobacteria in the order Nostocales
and Stigonematales.
Q 51. Differentiate between heterocyst and akinetes.

Ans. Heterocyst: All cells in trichome are mostly similar in structure but at slightly large, round, light
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yellowish thick walled cells called as heterocyst.
Akinetes: Akinetes are thick walled, enlarged vegetative cells which accumulate food and become
resting cells. On arrival of favorable conditions they form normal vegetative cells.
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Q 52. What is super blue green algae?

pk
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Ans. Super blue green algae are basically expensive pond scum, in which cyanobacterium is a single
called organism that produces its own food through photosynthesis. It serves as a "complete whole
food" which contains 60% protein with all essential amino acids in perfect balance.
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Q 53. What is nucleoid?

.n
Ans. The nuclear material or DNA in bacterial cells occupies position near to the center of the cell. This
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material is a single circular and double stranded DNA molecule. It aggregates as an irregular shaped
dense area called nucleoid. This chromatin body is actually an extremely long molecule of DNA that is
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tightly folded so as to fit inside the cell component.

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Q 54. How nucleoid is visible in light microscope?

Ans. It is visible in the light microscope after staining with Feulagen stain.
Q 55. What is the size of E.Coli chromosome?

Ans. Escherichia coil closed circle chromosome measures approximately 14,000 micro meter.
Q 56. Give the economic importance of cyanobacteria.
Ans. Advantages of Cyanobacteria:

Reclamation of Alkaline Soils:
They help in the reclamation of alkaline soils.
Fixation of Nitrogen:
They have heterocysts which are helpful in the fixation

of atmospheric nitrogen.
Photosynthetic Activity:
They release oxygen gas in environment due to their photosynthetic activity.
Pollution Indicator:
Oscillation and few other cyanobacteria can be used as pollution indicator.
Symbiotic Associations:
They have symbiotic relationships with protozoa, fungi and nitrogen fixing species from associations
with angiosperms. They are photosynthetic partner in most of lichen association.
Disadvantage of Cyanobacteria:
Water Blooms:
Many species form water blooms where they often impart unpleasant smell and due to large amount of
suspended organic matter water becomes unfit for consumption.
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Q 57. Differentiate between spores and cyst.
Ans. Spores: Spores are metabolically dormant bodies, produced at a large stage of cell growth. They
are resistant to change in light, pH,high temperature, dessication. They form vegetative cells.
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Cyst: Cyst are thick walled, dormant dessication resistant forms and develop during differentiation of
vegetative cells which can germinate. They are not heat resistant.
pk
Q 58. What is the difference between photosynthesis in plants and photosynthesis in bacteria?
Ans. During photosynthesis the autotrophic bacteria utilize hydrogen sulphide instead of water as in
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plants as a hydrogen source ans liberate sulphur instead of oxygen.
In Bacteria:
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Light
CO2 + 2H2S ----------------> (CH2O)n + H2O + 2S
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Chlorophyll
In Plants:
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Light
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6CO2 + 12H2O ------------------> C6H12O6 +6O2 + Energy

Chlorophyll
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Q 59. How cell wall of archeobacteria differ from other bacteria or eubacteria?
Ans. The cell walls of most bacteria have a unique macromolecules called peptidoglycan. It also contains
sugar molecules, techoic acid, lipoproteins and lipopolysaccharides which are linked to peptidoglycan.
Whereas cell wall of archeobacteria do not contain peptidoglycan. Their cell walls are composed of
proteins, glycoproteins and polysaccharides.
Q 60. Write shapes and plane of division of different bacterium?

Ans. Shapes of Bacteria:
 Bacteria may be Cocci (Spherical or oval in shape), Bacilli (Rod shaped) and Spiral (curved/ spring
shaped).

 Some have characteristic shapes: others are pleomorphic (variable shape)
Type Shape Division

Coccus Spherical No
Diplococcus Two cocci Single plane of division
Streptococcus Cocci in chain Single plane of division
Staphylococcus Irregular arrangement Random planes
Tetrad Group of four Two planes of division
Sarcina Group of eight Three planes of division
Bacillus Rod shaped No
Diplobacillus Two bacilli Single planes of division
Streplobacillus Chain of bacilli Single planes of division
Spirals Spirally coiled No
Vibrio Comma shaped No
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Spirillum Thick, rigid spiral No
Spirochete Thin, flexible spiral No
Q 61. Write down the range of different sizes of bacterium?
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Ans. Size of Bacteria: pk
Type: Size:
Range 0.1 - 600 micro meter
Mycoplasma (smallest) 100 - 200 nano meter
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Escherichia coli 1.1 - 1.5 micro meter (width), 2.0 - 2.6 micro meter (length)
Spirochete 500 micro meter
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Staphylococci and Streptococci 0.75 - 1.25 micro meter

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Q 62. Name a bacterium that has no cell wall.

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Ans. Mycoplasmas
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Q 63. A gram stain of discharge from an abscess shows cocci in irregular, grape like clusters. What is
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the most likely genus of this bacterium?

Ans. Streptococci
Q 64. State the diameter of an average sized coccus shaped bacterium.

Ans. An average sized coccus bacterium has a diameter from 0.5 - 1.0 micro meter.
Q 65. Name several general characteristics that could be used to define the prokaryotes.
Ans. Characteristics of Prokaryotes:
1. Organisms possessing prokaryotic cells are called prokaryotes e.g., bacteria and cyanobacteria.
2. They lack many of the membranes bound structures e.g., mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum,
Golgi bodies and chloroplasts etc.
3. Nuclear membrane is absent, therefore prokaryotic cell has no distinct nucleus.

4. Prokaryotes have small sized ribosomes i.e., 70S.
5. Mitosis is missing and cell divides by fission.
6. The cell wall of prokaryotic cell is composed of polysaccharide chains bounded covalently to
shorter chains of amino acids forming peptidoglycan or murein. The entire cell wall is often
regarded as a single huge molecule or molecule complex called murein.
Q 66. Do any other microbial groups besides bacteria have prokaryotic cell?
Ans. Yes, Cyanobacteria.
Q 67. In what habitats are bacteria found? Give some general means by which bacteria derive
nutrients.
Ans. "Bacteria are ubiquitous" it means that they are found everywhere in air, land, lakes , oceans, oil
deposits, still ponds, ditches, running streams, rivers, in food, rubbish and manure heaps, decaying
organic matter, plant roots, body surface and cavities, as well in intestinal tracts of man and animals.
General means of nutrition in Bacteria:
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Photosynthetic Autotrophs: They utilize sunlight as a source of energy. They have chlorophyll like
pigment which is dispersed in the cytoplasm. During photosynthesis they use hydrogen sulphide instead
of water as hydrogen source and liberate sulphur instead of oxygen.
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Light
CO2 + 2H2S --------------> (CH2O) + H2O + 2S pk
Chlorophyll
Chemosynthetic Autotrophs: They obtain energy from oxidation of some inorganic substances like
ammonia, nitrogen, sulphur or iron. BIOLOGY 1st FLASH CARDS BY NABEEL AKHTAR LECTURER BIOLOGY
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Saprophytes: Saprophytic bacteria are those which get their food from dead organic matter.
Parasites: Parasitic bacteria are fully dependent in their host for their nutrition.
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Q 68. List five functions that the cell membrane performs in bacteria.
Ans. Functions that cell membrane perform in bacteria:
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1. Give shape to bacteria.

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2. It protects bacteria.
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3. Homeostasis.
4. Exocytosis.
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5. Endocytosis.
Q 69. What are mesosomes and some of their possible functions?

Ans. Mesosomes: The cell membrane invaginates into the cytoplasm forming a structure called
mesosomes. Mesosomes are in the form of vesicles, tubules or lamellae, which may be central or
peripheral in position. Central mesosomes are involved in DNA replication and cell division where as
peripheral mesosomes are involved in export of exocellular enzyme.
Q 70. What is unique about the structure of bacterial ribosomes?

Ans. They are 70S smaller than eukaryotic ribosomes.

Chapter 7 The Kingdom Protista or Protoctista
Q 1. Write characteristics of protists.
Ans. The protists are unicellular, colonial or simple multicellular organisms that posses a eukaryotic cell
organization. e.g., Algae, Protozoa.
Q 2. What are the major groups of eukaryotic organisms of kingdom protista?
Ans. The kingdom protista contain four major groups i.e.
1. Single cell protozoans.

2. Unicellular algae.
3. Multicellular algae.
4. Slime molds and Oomycotes.
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Q 3. Who proposed kingdom protista?
Ans. John Hogg proposed kingdom protista for microscopic organisms.
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pk
Q 4. In which respects during course of evolutionary history, organisms in kingdom protists have
evolved diversity?
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Ans.
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1. Size and structure.

2. Means of locomotion.
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3. Ways of obtaining nutrients.

4. Interactions with other organisms.
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5. Habitat.
6. Modes of reproduction.
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Q 5. Write two characteristics of protozoans.

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Ans. Characteristics of Protozoans:
1. All protozoans are unicellular.

2. Most ingest their food by endocytosis.
Q 6. How zoo-flagellates obtain their food?

Ans. They obtain food either by ingesting living or dead organisms e.g., Euglena, Amoeba or by
decomposing organic matter. e.g., Slime Algae.
Q 7. What is the habitat of zoo-flagellates?
Ans. Zooflagellates are free living, parasite, or symbionts.

Q 8. What is trypanosoma?
Ans. Trypanosoma is a human parasite causing African sleeping sickness. It is transmitted by the bite of
infected tsetse fly.
Q 9. What is the habitat of choanoflagellates?
Ans. Choanoflagellates are sessile marine or freshwater flagellates which are attached by a stalk.
Q 10. Define pellicle.
Ans. Pellicle is a flexible outer covering of cilliates that gives them definite but changeable shape.
Q 11. In which way cillates differ from other protozoans.
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Ans. Cilliates differ from other protozoans in having two kinds of nuclei large is meganucleus and small is
micronucleus.
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Q 12. From what tests of forminifera and of actinopods are made of?
pk
Ans. Tests of forminifera all made of calcium where as those of actinopode are made of silica.
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Q 13. Write two characteristics of Apicomplexans.
Ans. Characteristics of Apicomplexans:
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1. Apicomplexans are unicellular.

2. They are non-motile.
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Q 14. Write the name of apicomplexans that cause malaria.

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Ans. Plasmodium, the apicomplexans that cause malaria enters human body by the bite of infected
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female anopheles mosquito.

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Q 15. What kind of body algae possessed?
Ans. The plant body of algae is thallus i.e., not differentiated into true roots, stems and leave and lack
vascular bundles.
Q 16. Write two characteristics of dinoflagellates.
Ans. Characteristics of dinoflagellates:
1. Most dinoflagellates are unicellular.

2. Their cells are often covered with shells of interlocking cellulose plates impregnated with
silicates.

Q 17. What stage is called plasmodium in slime molds?
Ans. The feeding stage of a slime mold is a multinucleate mass of cytoplasm that can grow to 30cm (1
foot) in diameter. This stage is called plasmodium.
Q 18. What are the similarities between fungus like protists and fungi?
Ans. Some protists resemble fungi in that they are not photosynthetic and some have bodies formed of
thread like structure called hyphae.
Q 19. What causes late blight of potatoes?
Ans. Late blight of potatoes is caused by a water mold called phytopthora infestans.
Q 20. Why Euglena is placed in kingdom protists?
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Ans. They are placed in kingdom protista because they have chlorophyll and are photosynthetic but at
the same time it had cell wall and is motile.
Q 21. What stage of material parasite causes chill and fever?
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Ans. The simultaneous bursting of red blood cells cause the symptoms of malaria, chill, followed by high
pk
fever.
Q 22. What is conjugation?

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Ans. Conjugation is a sexual process of cilliates during which two individuals come together and
exchange genetic material.
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Q 23. What is phylum of red algae?

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Ans. The phylum of red algae is Rhodophyta.

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Q 24. Name the pigments present in diatoms.

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Ans. Chlorophyll a, chlorophyll c caroteins and fucoxanthin are pigments present in diatoms.
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Q 25. What cause red tides?

Ans. Dinoflagellates are known to have occasional population explosions or blooms. These blooms color
the water orange, red or brown and are called red tides.
Q 26. What are kelps?
Ans. The largest brown algae, which are tough and leathery in appearance. Whose leaf like structure
called blade, stem like called stipes and root like structure called hold fast.
Q 27. Do slime moulds have definite cellular organization?
Ans. No, they do not have definite cellular organization.
Q 28. What is the causes of Irish potato?

Ans. Phytophthora is the cause of Irish potato.

Q 29. Do red algae has flagellated cells?
Ans. No, they does not have flagellated cells.
Q 30. What is the role of diatoms in ecosystem?

Ans. They are major producers in the aquatic ecosystem because of their extremely large numbers.
Q 31. What is common in Eukaryotic Red algae and Blue Green algae?
Ans. They do not have flagellated cells.
Q 32. What is sporangia?

Ans. During unfavorable condition, slime mold forms resistant haploid spore by meiosis with in stalked
structure called sporangia.
Q 33. Write two characteristics of slime molds.
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Ans. Characteristics of slime molds.
1. The feeding stage of a slime mold is a multinucleate mass of cytoplasm.
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The plasmodium streams over damp, decaying logs and leaf litter. It often forms a network of channels
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that covers a large surface area. BIOLOGY 1st FLASH CARDS BY NABEEL AKHTAR LECTURER BIOLOGY
Q 34. Write two differences between algae and plants.
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Ans. Algae:
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1. Sex organs are unicellular.

2. The parent body does not protect the zygote.
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Plants:
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1. A plant zygote grows into a multicellular embryo.

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2. Zygote is protected by parental tissue.

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Q 35. Write two characteristics of Oomycotes.

Ans. Characteristics of Oomycotes.
1. Their cell walls contain cellulose, not chitin.

2. Their hyphae are aseptate (without cross walls).
Q 36. How are protists important to humans? What is their ecological importance?
Ans. Importance of Protists:
1. Disease:
 The intestinal parasite, Entamoeba Histolytica that causes amoebic dysentery, germinates from

resistant cysts with the digestive tracts of their mammalian hosts including humans.
 Trypansoma is a human parasite causing African sleeping sickness. It is transmitted by the bite of
infected tsetse fly.
 Some Apicomplexans such as Plasmodium cause serious diseases such as malaria in humans.
 Phytophthora Infestans have played infamous roles in human history as they were the cause of
Irish potato famine of the 19th century. It causes a disease commonly known as late blight of
potatoes. Because of several rainy, cool summers in Ireland in the 1840's, the water mold
multiplied unchecked, causing potato tubers to rot in the fields. Since potatoes were the staple
of Irish peasant's diet, many people (250,000 to more than 1 million) starved to death. The
famine prompted a mass migration out of Ireland to such countries as the United States.
2. Chalk Formation:
 Dead foraminiferans sink to the bottom of the oceans where their shells form a grey mud that is
gradually transformed into chalk. Foraminiferans of the past have created vast limestone
deposits.
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3. As Food:
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 Some algae such as kelps are edible and may be used to overcome shortage of food in the
world.
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 Larvae of some aquatic insects feed on aquatic protozoans. While these larvae are taken as food
by clam, prawn and young fishes which are the ultimate source of food of man.
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4. Useful Substances:
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 Marine algae are also source of many useful substance like algin, agar, carrageenan and
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antiseptics.
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5. Produces:
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 Algae are major producers of the aquatic ecosystem, thus they play a basic role in food chains,
providing food and oxygen to other organisms.
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 Ecologically, diatoms and dinoflagellates are the most important groups of producers in marine
ecosystem.
6. Symbiotic Organism: BIOLOGY 1st FLASH CARDS BY NABEEL AKHTAR LECTURER BIOLOGY
 Trichonymophas are complex, specialized flagellates with many flagella which lives as symbionts
in the guts of termites and help in the digestion of dry wood.
7. Helpful in the Study of Biological Processes:
 The plasmodial slime mod Physarum Polycephalum is a model organisms that has been used to
study many fundamental biological processes, such as growth and differentiation, cytoplasmic
streaming, and the function of cytoskeleton.

8. Helpful in Sanitation:
 Some protozoans play an important role in the sanitary betterment and improvement of the
modern civilization in keeping water safe for drinking purpose. The protozoans living in polluted
water feed upon waste organic substances and thus purify it. Some bacteria feed on the bacteria
and purify the water indirectly.
9. Building Coral Reefs:
 Some red algae incorporate calcium carbonate in their cell walls from the ocean and take part in
building coral reefs along with coral animals.
Q 37. What are three major groups of protists?

Ans. Major groups of protists:
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 Protozoa Animal-like protists.
 Algae Plant-like protists.
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 Slime molds and Oomycotes Fungi-like protists.
pk
Q 38. Give at least two examples of each group of protists.
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Ans. Examples of groups of protists:
 Protozoa: Plasmodium, Amoeba.

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 Algae: Euglena, Spirogyra.


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Slime molds and Oomycotes Phytophthora infestans, Physarum polycephalum.

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Q 39. Green algae are considered ancestral organisms of green land plants. Discuss.
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Ans. Due to the presence of starch and cellulose cell wall, it is generally accepted that plants arose from
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ancestral green algae. Evidence from RNA sequencing also indicates that green algae and the plants
from a monophyletic lineage.
Q 40. What features distinguish Oomycotes from Fungi?

Ans. Features that distinguish Oomycotes from Fungi.
1. They are regarded as more ancient group.

2. Their cell walls contain cellulose, not chitin.

Chapter 8 Fungi
Q 1. What is hypha?
Ans. Hypha is a long, slender, branched and thread like filament of fungal body.
Q 2. What are fungi?

Ans. The eukaryotic organisms which have cell wall but cannot synthesize their food are called
fungi.
Q 3. What is mycelium?
Ans. Mycelium is body of fungi which represent group of hyphae.
Q 4. What do you mean by Bio-remediation?

Ans. Bioremediation means degrading or removal of environmental poisons or pollutants by the
help of organisms.
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Q 5. What is haustoria?
Ans. There are special hyphae produced in parasitic fungi. These hyphae penetrate into the host
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tissue and absorb food.
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Q 6. What is the advantage of incomplete septa in septate hyphae?
Ans. Septa of many septate fungi have a pore through which cytoplasm flows from cell to cell,
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carrying materials to growing tips.
Q 7. Why yeasts are different from other fungi?

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Ans. Yeasts are different from other fungi as they are unicellular.
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Q 8. Name sexual and asexual spores of Ascomycota.

Ans. Sexual spores are called ascospores borne in asci while asexual spores are called conidia in
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Ascomycota.
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Q 9. What are the main types of mycorrhiza?

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Ans. (i) Endomycorrhizae: In which fungal hyphae penetrate the outer cell of the plant root,
forming coils, swellings and minute branches, and also extend out into surrounding soil.
(ii) Ectomycorrhizae: In which the hyphae surround and extend between the cells but do not
penetrate the cell wall of the roots. These are found in pines, firs etc.
Q 10. Why is green mould more likely to contaminate an orange kept in refrigerator than
the bacteria?
Ans. Fungi can tolerate temperature extremes 5-6 C below freezing and hence are more likely to
contaminate an orange kept in a refrigerator than the bacteria.
Q 11. How fungi gets its nutrients?

Ans. (i) Most fungi are decomposers i.e., obtain food from dead organisms. e.g., Yeast,
Agaricus.

(ii) Some fungi are parasites i.e., obtain food from living host. e.g., rust and smut.
(iii) Some are predators e.g. Arthrobotrys.
Q 12. What do you mean by term karyogamy?
Ans. The fusion of nuclie in different mycelia is called karyogamy.
Q 13. What are yeasts?

Ans. Yeasts are unicellular microscopic fungi which are non-hyphal in structure.
Q 14. What is parasexuality?

Ans. The exchange of portion of chromosomes of two nuclei lying in the same hyphae.
Q 15. What are the benefits of mycorrhizae?

Ans. The fungal hyphae of mycorrhizae increase the amount of soil contact and total surface
area for absorption and help in direct absorption of minerals and nutrients from the soil.
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Q 16. Name any four important fungal diseases of plants.
Ans. (i) Rusts (ii) Smuts (iii) Powdery mildews (iv) Potato wilt
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Q 17. Name any important fungal disease of humans. pk
Ans. (i) Ringworm (ii) Aspergillosis (iii) Histoplasmosis (iv) Oral and vaginal thrush.
Q 18. Some enzymes of fungi are useful on one hand and harmful on other. Discuss.
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Ans. Some fungal enzymes are used in fermentation and brewing industry but digesting
enzymes of some saprotrophic fungi spoil our food, plastic, paper and textile.
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Q 19. What do you mean by Rust?

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Ans. It is a fungal disease of plants. As its color is brown like that of iron, so it is called as rust.
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Q 20. What is the difference between dikaryotic and diploid?

Ans. Fungal cells having two nuclei of different genetic make up are called dikaryotic while
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having two sets of chromosomes in the nucleus of a cell or hypha is called diploid condition.
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Q 21. Define obligate parasites.

Ans. Obligate parasites can grow only on their living host and cannot grow on available defined
growth culture medium. For example many suit species.
Q 22. Differentiate between plasmogamy and karyogamy?

Ans. Fusion of cytoplasm is plasmogamy and fusion of nuclei is karyogamy.
Q 23. Define facultative parasite.

Ans. They can grow parasitically on their host as well as by themselves on artificial growth
media.
Q 24. What are ascospores?

Ans. Most sac fungi have asci inside macroscopic fruiting bodies called ascospores, the visible

morels.
Q 25. Write two differences between fungal and animal.

Ans. Fungi are different from animals as:
(i)They are non-motile.
(ii)They have absorptive mode of nutrition.
Q 26. What is ergotism?

Ans. Ergotism is caused by eating bread made from purple ergot-contaminated rye flour. The
poisonous material in the ergot causes nervous spasm convulsion, even gangrene.
Q 27. What is the method of traping nematodes in arthrobotrys?

Ans. Some species of Arthrobotrys trap soil nematodes by forming constricting ring, their
hyphae invading and digesting unlucky victim.
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Q 28. How asexual reproduction takes place in fungi?
Ans. Asexual reproduction takes place by spores, conidia, fragmentation and budding.
Q 29. What is Rhodotorula?
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Ans. Rhodotorula is a pink yeast which grows on shower curtains and other moist surfaces.
pk
Q 30. Give a single characteristic that differentiates zygomycota from basidiomycota.
Ans. Zygospores are formed in zygomycota while basidiospores are the sexually reproducing
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spores in basidiomycota.
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Q 31. What is the composition of fungal cell wall and how is this composition advantageous
to fungi.
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Ans. Cell wall of fungi is composed of chitin, which is more resistant to decay than are cellulose
and lignin which make up plant cell wall.
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Q 32. What do you mean by histoplasmosis?

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Ans. It is serious infection of lungs caused by inhaling spores of a fungus, which is common in
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soil contaminated with bird's feces.
Q 33. Write two similarities of plants with fungi?

Ans. They resemble plants in some respects i.e.
(i) They have cell wall.
(ii) They lack centrioles and are non-motile.
Q 34. Write two dissimilarities of plants with fungi?

Ans. They differ plants as:
(i) Fungi are heterotrophs.
(ii) They lack cellulose in their cell walls and contain chitin.
Q 35. Differentiate between the members of Spore / Conidium.

Ans. Spore / Conidium: Spores are non-motile, small asexual structures produced inside the

reproductive structures called sporangia, which are cut off from the hyphae by complete septa.
Conidia are non-motile, asexual spores which are cut off at the end of modified hyphae called
conidiophores, and not inside the
sporangia, usually in chains or clusters.
Q 36. Differentiate between the members of Ascus / Basidium.

Ans. Ascus / Basidium: Basidiomycotes have sexual reproductive structure, the basidium, on
which basidiospores are formed. Ascomycetes produce haploid sexual spores called ascospores
inside their characteristic sac like structures called asci.
Q 37. Differentiate between the members of Dikaryotic / diploid.

Ans. Dikaryotic / diploid: A fungal hypha / cell having 2 nuclei of different genetic types is
called dikaryotic hypha / cell. A cell or organism having full set of chromosomes e.g., 46 or 23
pairs in man, is called diploid.
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Q 38. Differentiate between the members of Ascocarp / Ascus.
Ans. Ascocarp / Ascus: Ascus is the characteristic sac like structure in which ascoposores are
formed by meiosis while ascocarp is the macroscopic fruiting body in which asci are present.
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Q 39. Differentiate between the members of Obligate parasite / Facultative parasite.
pk
Ans. Obligate parasite / Facultative parasite: Obligate parasites can grow only on their living
host and cannot be grown on available defined growth culture medium e.g., various mildews and
most rust species. Facultative parasite can grow parasitically on their host as well as by
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themselves on artificial growth media
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Q 40. Differentiate between the members of Endomycorrhizae / Ectomycorrhizae.

Ans. Endomycorrhizae, in which the fungal penetrate the outer cell of the plant root, forming
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coils, swellings and minute branches, and also extend out into surrounding soil.
Ectomycorrhizae, in which the hyphae surround and extend between the cells but do not
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penetrate the cell walls of the roots. These are mostly formed with pines, firs etc. However, the
mycelium extends far out into the soil in both kinds of mycorrhizae.
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Q 41. Differentiate between the members of Plasmogamy / Karyogamy.

Ans. Plasmogamy / Karyogamy: The fusion of nuclei is called karyogamy while the fusion of
cytoplasm is called plasmogamy.
Q 42. What are Hyphae? What is the advantage of having incomplete septa?
Ans. Hyphae: Mycelium consists of long slender, branched, tubular, thread like filaments called
hyphae. Hyphae spread extensively over the surface of substratum. Their cell walls are
composed of chitin, so their wall is highly resistant to decay. Hyphae may be septate or non-
septate.
Advantage of having incomplete Septa: Cytoplasm flow from cell to cell, carrying the materials
to growing tips and enabling the hyphae to grow rapidly when food and water are abundant and
temperature is favorable.
Q 43. What is the composition of fungal cell wall and how it is this composition

advantageous to fungi?
Ans. Fungal cell wall are composed of chitin, so their wall is more resistant to decay than
cellulose and lignin which make up plant cell wall.
Q 44. To which phyla do the yeasts belong? How they differ from other fungi?
Ans. Yeasts are unicellular microscopic fungi, derived from all the three different groups of
fungi but mostly Ascomycetes, and reproducing mostly asexually by budding. However, yeasts
reproduce sexually by forming asci / ascospores or basidia / basidiospores. They ferment
carbohydrate to ethanol and carbon dioxide. They are non-hyphal.
Q 45. Name sexual and asexual spores of ascomycetes.

Ans. Sexual spores are ascospores while asexual spores are conidia.
Q 46. What are mycorrhizae?

Ans. Mycorrhizae are mutualistic association between certain fungi and roots of vascular plants.
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The fungal hyphae dramatically increase the amount of soil contact and the total surface area for
absorption and help in the direct absorption of phosphorus, zinc, copper and other nutrients from
the soil into the roots. Such plants show better growth than those without this association. The
plant, on the other hand, supplies organic carbon to fungal hyphae.
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pk
Q 47. By what means can individuals in imperfect fungi be classified?
Ans. Individuals in imperfect fungi can be classified on the basis of DNA sequence, though
sexual structures may not be found.
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Q 48. Give a single characteristic that differentiates Zygomycota from Basidiomycota.

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Ans. In Zygomycota, non-septate, multinucleate hyphae are present while in Basidiomycota,

septate dikaryotic hyphae are found.
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Q 49. State two paralleled characteristic of ascomycete and Basidiomycetes.
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Ans.(i) Their sexual spores are called ascopsores.

(ii) Nuclear fusion in the basidium is followed by meiosis.
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Chapter 9 Kingdom Plantae
Q 1. What is Oospore?
Ans. A thick walled zygote that is formed after the fertilization of an Oospore.
Q 2. Define a spike.
Ans. A racemose inflorescence is which the flowers are sessile and borne on an elongated axis as
in wheat.
Q 3. Are all the seed plants also known as the flowering plants?
Ans. No, only the angiosperms are also called flowering plants but not the gymnosperms.
Q 4. Which are the probable ancestors of bryophytes?

Ans. These are the green algae.
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Q 5. Name the most primitive group of vascular plants?
Ans. It is the Psilopsida.
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Q 6. Name a heterosporus lycopsid.
Ans. It is the Selaginella.
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Q 7. What is a sorus in ferns?
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Ans. A group of sporangia is known as a sorus in Adiantum.
Q 8. What is prothallus?
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Ans. The gametophyte of fern is also called as the prothallus. It has leaf like shape.
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Q 9. What does a stamen of flower consist of?

Ans. The stamen consists of a filament and an anther.
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Q 10. From which part of the flower fruit is formed?

Ans. The fruit is formed from the ovary of the flower.
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Q 11. How many sperms are carried by one pollen tube?

Ans. One pollen tube carries two sperms.
Q 12. What is scientific name of Kachnar?

Ans. It is Bauhinia variegata.
Q 13. Which drugs are obtained from Atropa belladona and Datura?
Ans. These drugs are atropine and daturin.
Q 14. What are the names of the pea family?

Ans. The pea family is called Papilionaceae or Fabaceae.

Q 15. Write down the names of the parts of typical carpel.
Ans. The parts of a typical carpel of flower are the ovary, style and stigma.
Q 16. What is sporophyll?

Ans. A leaf bearing sporangia is called a sporophyll.
Q 17. State some examples of important ferns.

Ans. These are Dryopteris, Pteridium, Adiantum and Pteris.
Q 18. Which vascular plant first evolved true roots and leaves?
Ans. These were the lycopods.
Q 19. Classify horsetails.

Ans. Kingdom Plantae, division Tracheophyta and sub-division Sphenopsida.
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Q 20. What is a thallus i.e., thalloid plant body?
Ans. The body of plant which is not differentiated into root, stem and leaves is called a thallus or
thalloid plant body.
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Q 21. What are paraphyses in mosses?
pk
Ans. In mosses, paraphyses are the sterile hairs which lie between the antheridia and the
archegonia.
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Q 22. How do the psilopsids manufacture their food when they lack leaves?
ot
Ans. The aerial branches of psilopsids are green and photosynthesis.

.n
Q 23. Explain indusium.

Ans. Indusium is flap of tissues that partially or completely covers each sorus in certain ferns.
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Q 24. Explain racemose inflorescence.

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Ans. A racemose inflorescence is that in which the flowers are formed on individual pedicels on
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the main axis.

Q 25. Define didynamous condition.
Ans. Having two long stamens and two short stamens in single whirl.
Q 26. What is perianth?

Ans. The structure that protects the developing reproductive parts of the flower.
Q 27. What is the principal function of xylem?

Ans. The principle function of xylem in the plants is the upward transportation of water and
solutes.
Q 28. What are the seed producing plants normally called?

Ans. The seed producing plants are normally called spermatophytes.

Q 29. What is compound leaf?
Ans. A leaf, the blade of which is divided into several pieces or leaflets is called a compound
leaf.
Q 30. Where do the ferns grow?

Ans. The ferns grow in moist and shady places on the hills and in the plants.
Q 31. How are ferns better adapted to life on land than liverworts and mosses?
Ans. (i) Reproduction is not dependent on water.
(ii) Sporophyte and gametophyte are independent generations.
Q 32. Which of the following are nutritionally self supporting:

(i) Mature liverwort and moss gametophyte.
(ii) Mature liverwort and moss sporophyte.
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Ans. Mature liverwort and moss gametophyte.
Q 33. The chance of survival and development of wind blown pollen grains are much less
than those of spores of Adiantum. Comment on this statement.
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Ans. Although spores of Adiantum are also dispersed by wind, however when a spore falls on a
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moist soil, it germinates at suitable temperature and produces a haploid gametophyte or
prothallus. But is case of wind-blown pollen grains, if they fall on soil, they are wasted. for their
survival and development it is must for then to fall on the stigma of flower.
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Q 34. Account for the fact that megaspores are large and microspores are small.
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Ans. Megaspores are large since they have to store food for the growth of embryo.
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Q 35. What important advances have angiosperms made towards the seed plant life?
Ans. One of the most significant events in the history of land plants was the development of seed
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habit. It was and important change in the reproductive system of the vascular plants. Technically
as seed may be defined as a fertilized ovule. An ovule is an integumented indehiscent
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megasporangium, integuments are specialized protective coverings around megasporangium

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which very in number. Megasporangium is also called Nucleus. All seed producing plants are
called spermatophytes.
Major steps in Evolution of Seed:
The major steps associated with the evolution of seed habit are as follows:
 The evolution of heterospory.

 Retention and germination of megaspore within the megasporangium.
 Development of protective layers around megasporangium.
 Reduction to a single functional megaspore per sporangium.
 Development of an embryo sac within the sporangium.
 Modification of distal end of megasporangium for pollen capture.
Q 36. Write a note on the alternation of generations.

Ans. Alternation of Generations: It is the phenomenon in the life cycle of the many plants in
which haploid gametophyte and diploid sporophyte regularly alternate with each other.
In the life history of bryophytes, pteridophytes and spermatophytes, there are two distinct phases
or generations.
Example of Moss Plant:
(i) Gametophyte: The gametophyte is the dominant generation because it is more conspicuous.
It produces gametes called spermatozoid and eggs and is, therefore, called gamete producing
generation. A haploid spermatozoid fuses with a haploid egg to produce diploid oospore. The
oospore produces a totally different plant called sporophyte.
(ii) Sporophyte: The sporophyte is a less conspicuous generation, which is usually differentiated
into foot, seta and capsule. Spores develop within the capsule by meiosis from spore mother
cells. The sporophyte produces spores and is, therefore, called spore producing generation. Each
spore on germination gives rise to the gametophyte.
It is should be notes that the generation or haploid stage begins with spores and ends at gametes,
whereas the sporophytes begins with oospore and ends at spore mother cell.
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Significance of Alternation of Generation: Alternation of generation is very significant
because:
(iii) It promotes the chance of survival of organism.
(iv) The population become increasingly better adapted to environment.
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pk
Q 37. What is the importance of the following:
(i) Seed (ii) Double fertilization (iii) Heterospory
Ans. Seed: Seed is very important structure in angiosperms as it leads to next generation. It has
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protective coverings so it can tolerate unfavorable condition. Whenever it finds suitable
environment it will germinate.
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Double Fertilization: It is the phenomenon in life of angiosperms in which one sperm fertilizes
the egg forming zygote while other sperm fertilizes fusion nucleus to form a triploid endosperm.
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The zygote leads to the formation of embryo and then seed while endosperm has stored food
which is used for the development of embryo. In certain cases endosperm is the part of the seed
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and provides food for the germination of seed.

Heterospory: It is the condition in which plants make two type of spores i.e., microspores and
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megaspores, which are different morphologically, structurally and functionally. They lead to
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more variations in the next generations.
Q 38. To what does alternation of generation refer in the plants? Define sporophyte and
gametophyte. With which stage is an adult animal comparable? How they reproductively
dissimilar?
Ans. Alternation of Generation: It is the phenomenon in the life cycle of many plants in which
haploid gametophyte and diploid sporophyte regularly alternates with each other.
Sporophyte and Gametophyte: The spore producing generation is called sporophyte while
gamete producing generation is called gametophyte.
Reproductive Dissimilarity between Sporophyte and Gametophyte: The sporophyte is
diploid, multicellular generation which produces spores by meiosis. The spores develop into
gametophyte. The gametophyte is haploid, multicellular generation which produces gametes by
mitosis. The gametes develop into sporophyte.

Q 39. What is seed? Why is the seed a crucial adaptation to terrestrial life?
Ans. Seed: Technically a seed may be defined as a fertilized ovule. An ovule is an integumented
indehiscent megasporangium. Integuments are specialized protective coverings around
megasporangium which vary in number.
Seed a Crucial Adaption to Terrestrial Life: The seed offers maximum degree of protection to
a developing embryo under the unfavorable terrestrial environment. The development and
evolution of seed habit was a great success and a giant leap which ultimately enabled plants to
colonize land permanently.
Chapter 11 Bioenergetics
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Q 1. What is thylakoid?
Ans. In photosynthetic organisms, chloroplasts have vesicles a wall of which bears
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photosynthetic pigments, called thylakoid. They vary in form and arrangement in different
groups of organisms. pk
Q 2. What is the function of stomata?
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Ans. Stomata are pores present in the epidermis of plants in large numbers, particularly in leaves,
through which gaseous exchange takes place.
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Q 3. Define bioenergetics.
Ans. The study of energy transfer in living beings is called bioenergetics.
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Q 4. Give approximate estimate of chloroplasts in a green leaf.

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Ans. The number of chloroplasts is about half a million per square millimeter of the leaf surface.
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Q 5. What does the absorption spectrum of a pigment mean?

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Ans. A graph showing the absorption of light of different wavelength by a pigment is called its
absorption spectrum.
Q 6. How does light affect opening and closing of stomata?

Ans. The stomata open in light and close in darkness.
Q 7. Where does Krebs cycle take place in the cell?

Ans. The Krebs cycle takes place in the mitochondria of the cell.
Q 8. What is the net production of ATP during glycolysis?

Ans. The net production of ATP during glycolysis is two molecules of ATP.
Q 9. What is FAD abbreviation for?

Ans. Fad is abbreviation for flavin adenine dinucleotide.
Q 10. Name two solvents of chlorophyll?

Ans. The solvents of chlorophyll are carbon tetrachloride and alcohol.
Q 11. Write down the first step in Krebs cycle?

Ans. The first step in the Krebs cycle is the union of acetyl CoA with oxaloacetate to form
citrate.
Q 12. Give definition of glycolysis.
Ans. Glycolysis is the conversion of glucose by means of enzymes and co-enzymes till the
formation of pyruvic acid.
Q 13. What does a photo system of photosynthesis cell consist of?

Ans. A photo system consists of a light gathering antenna complex and a reaction center.
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Q 14. How much of the total photosynthesis take place in water and on land?
Ans. Of the total photo synthesis 90 % takes place in water and 10 % on land.
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Q 15. What is the source of energy used on earth? pk
Ans. Almost all the energy used on earth comes directly from the sun.
Q 16. Write down the summarized equation for photosynthesis.

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Ans. Light
6CO2 + 12H2O --------------> C6H12O6 + 6O2 + 6H2O
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Q 17. What is the source of oxygen released during photosynthesis in plants?

Ans. The source of oxygen released during photosynthesis in plants is the water.
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Q 18. Write down molecular formula of chlorophyll's 'a' and 'b'.

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Ans. Chlorophyll 'a' C55H72O5N4Mg

Chlorophyll 'b'C55H70O6N4Mg
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Q 19. What are the end products of light reactions?

Ans. These are ATP and NADPH.
Q 20. What are the different kinds of chlorophyll and where are these found?
Ans. Chlorophyll a,b,c and d are found in eukaryotic photosynthetic plants and algae while the
other found in photosynthetic bacteria are known as bacteria chlorophylls.
Q 21. What is the approximate number of chloroplasts in each mesophyll cell of the leaf?
Ans. It is about 20 to 1000 per mesophyll cell.
Q 22. Which wavelength of the light spectrum are least absorbed by the chlorophyll?
Ans. Green and yellow wavelength are least absorbed by the chlorophylls.
Q 23. What are the colors of chlorophylls 'a' and 'b'?

Ans. The colors of chlorophyll 'a' is blue-green while that of chlorophyll 'b' is yellow-green.
Q 24. What is the role of accessory pigments in light absorption?

Ans. The accessory pigments absorb light and transfer the energy to chlorophyll "a" which then
initiates the light reactions.
Q 25. Who obtained first action spectrum and when?

Ans. A German biologist T.W. Engelmam obtained first action spectrum in 1883 using
spirogyra.
Q 26. What is Z.scheme in photosynthesis?

Ans. The path of electrons through the photo systems during non-cyclic photo-phosphorylation
is known as Z-scheme from its shape.
Q 27. What is chemiosmosis in photosynthesis?
om
Ans. The synthesis of ATP by obtaining the energy through electrons of the electron transport
chain is called chemiosmosis.
Q 28. Who and when was awarded Nobel Prize for his work on dark reactions in
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photosynthesis? pk
Ans. Melvin Calvin was awarded Nobel Prize in 1961 for his work on dark reactions on
photosynthesis.
es
Q 29. Name the chain of acids which are formed in a cycle, starting from the citrate, during
the Krebs cycle of respiration.
ot
Ans. The chain is from citrate to a-ketoglutorate to succinate to fumarate to malate and finally to
oxaloacetate.
.n

Q 30. Define grana.
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Ans. In chloroplasts group of disc-shaped, flattened vesicles stacked like coins in a pile, vesicle
membranes bearing photosynthetic pigments are called grana. They are most highly developed in
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chloroplasts of higher plants.

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Q 31. Compare which medium, water or air is better for oxygen?

Ans. Feature Water Air
Oxygen contents 10 ml O2 / liter 200 ml O2 / liter
Rate of diffusion less More (8000 times water)
Viscosity More (50 times) Less
Density More (8000 times) Less
Ventilation Difficult Easy
Q 32. Compare different phases of breathing?

Ans. Feature Inspiration Expiration
Other name Inhalation Exhalation
Basic Mechanism Passive expansion of lungs Passive contraction of lungs
Definition Taking in of air Removal of air from lungs outside body

Diaphragm Contracts, moves down Relaxes, moves up, become more
becomes less dome-like dome-like
Rib Muscles Contract Relax
Rib cage Moves upward and forward Moves downward and inward
Volume of thorax Increases Decreases
Pressure on lungs Decreases Increases
Air moves Into lungs Out of lungs
Q 33. Write down the differences between photorespiration and Calvin cycle.
Ans. Photorespiration Calvin Cycle
Oxygen is fixed Carbon dioxide is fixed
Carbon dioxide is produced Oxygen is produced
Oxygenase is involved Carboxylase is involved
It retards growth It promotes growth
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Q 34. Describe respiratory disorders briefly.
Ans. Disease: Respiratory distress syndrome
Feature: Syndrome of premature infants with gestation period less than 7 months
Cause: Decreased surfactant production
.c
Symptom: No gaseous exchange pk
Disease: Cancer
Feature: Malignant tumor of lung cancer
Cause: Smoking
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Disease: Tuberculosis
Feature: Pulmonary tuberculosis, contagious
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Cause: Mycobacterium tuberculosis, poor people, malnutrition, poor living conditions

Symptom: Cough, fever
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Disease: Asthma
Feature: Allergic reaction of respiratory tract
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Cause: Pollen, spores, humidity, pollution

Symptom: Severe paroxysm of difficult breathing followed by a period of complete relief with
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recurrent attacks
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Disease: Emphysema
Feature: Breakdown of alveoli
Cause: Smoke
Symptom: Smoker's cough. decrease in absorptive area, breathlessness, increased airway
resistance
Q 35. How much carbon dioxide is present in venous and arterial blood?
Ans. Arterial blood contains about 50 ml of carbon dioxide per 100 ml of blood while venous
blood contains about 54 ml.
Q 36. How does air always remain in the lungs of human beings?
Ans. About 1.5 liter air always remain in the lungs of human beings.
Q 37. What are the products which are produced during photorespiration?

Ans. Glycolate, glycine, serine.
Q 38. How much a water medium is denser than air medium for exchange of respiratory
gases?
Ans. Water medium is 8000 times denser than air medium for exchange of respiratory gases.
Q 39. Write difference between Aerobic and Anaerobic respiration.

Ans. Aerobic Respiration Anaerobic Respiration
Free O2 is required Reaction occurs in the absence of free O2
Glucose is completely oxidized Some intermediate components are formed due to
into CO2 and H2O incomplete oxidation e.g., lactic acid and alcohol
Relatively larger amount of energy Small amount of energy is formed (2 ATP)
(38 ATP) is released
In addition to glycolysis, Krebs Only glycolysis occurs
cycle and ETC also occur
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Q 40. List four features of lead which show that it is able to carry out photosynthesis
effectively.
Ans. Feature Significance
.c
Flatness of lamina Maximum light absorption
pk
Thickness of lamina Deep penetration of light and efficient, rapid interval
diffusion
of gases (CO2, O2) throughout the leaf
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Supported on petiole and green Exposure to sunlight and air
mosaic
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Cuticle Reduce loss of water by transpiration

Mesophyll tissue; with chloroplasts, The photosynthetic tissue
.n
more in palisade than in spongy:

Palisade mesophyll Characteristic arrangement chloroplast can orient
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themselves
according to incident light. Also act as screen against
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intense
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light. Main photosynthetic tissue

Spongy mesophyll Loose arrangement of cells and air spaces absorption
and rapid
diffusion of CO2 to mesophyll cells; photosynthetic tissue.
Q 41. How does light affect opening of stomata?

Ans. Guard cells are the only photosynthesizing cells of lower epidermis. So in the presence of
light, photosynthesis starts and water is used. More water moves into guard cells form
surroundings cells, they become turgid, and the inner thick walls bend outwards at the center,
thus they produce an opening or pore. It would happen when osmotic potential of guard cells
becomes less then that of surrounding epidermal cells. It means light is the driving force for
opening of stomata.
Q 42. What causes the variation of osmotic potential in the guard cells?

Ans. Photosynthesis causes the variations of osmotic potential in the guard cells, by use and
disuse of water. If photosynthesis is going on, water is being used causing an increase in osmotic
potential and movement of water into guard cells. On the other hand when there is no
photosynthesis, there will be no use of water so it accumulates in guard cells, thus decreasing
osmotic potential and water may move out of the guard cells.
Q 43. Compare cyclic and non-cyclic phosphorylation.

Ans. Non-Cyclic Cyclic
Electrons are not reused Electrons are reused
It involves both PS I and II It involves only PS I
It is long circuit It is short circuit
It is normal process It occurs when ATP are less and NADPH more.
It generates both ATP and NADPH It generates only ATP
Oxygen is released Oxygen is not released
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Q 44. Write down the differences between light and dark reaction.
Ans. Light Reaction Dark Reaction
Occur in grana of chloroplast Occurs in matrix of chloroplast
Light is required Light is not required
.c
O2, ATP and NADPH2 are the In Calvin cyclic, ATP and NADPH2
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end products used to prepare carbohydrates
Q 45. Compare Haemoglobin with Myoglobin?

es
Ans. Hemoglobin Myoglobin
It is found in blood It is found in muscles
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It transfers oxygen from lungs to blood It transfers oxygen from hemoglobin to

and then to tissues aerobic respiring muscle cells
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It cannot store oxygen It can store oxygen

It consists of four polypeptide chains It consists of one polypeptide chain
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associated with an iron containing associated with an iron containing ring

ring structure structure
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Q 46. Define organismic and cellular respiration.

Ans. Organismic Respiration: It is also known as breathing or ventilation during which moist
surface absorbs oxygen from the surrounding and carbon dioxide is removed. Organismic
respiration in fact provides the basis of cellular respiration.
Cellular Respiration: The cellular respiration is directly involved in the production of energy,
necessary for all living activities. Cellular respiration is the process by which cell utilizes
oxygen, produce carbon dioxide, extracts and conserves the energy from food molecules in
biologically useful form such as ATP. Cellular respiration in cells consists of three steps i.e.,
glycolysis, Krebs cycle and electron transport chain.The glycolysis takes place in the cytoplasm
while other two steps are carried out in the mitochondria.
Q 47. Why are the carotenoids usually not obvious in the leaves? They can be seen in the
leaves before leaf fall. Why?
Ans. The carotenoids are usually not obvious in the leaves as their yellowish color is covered by

dark green color of chlorophyll. But just before leaf fall, the chlorophyll is destroyed and
carotenoids can be seen.
Q 48. How is the formation of Vitamin A linked with eating of carrot?

Ans. Carrots contain carotenoids which are the precursors of vitamin A. This is why the
formation of vitamin A is linked with eating of carrot.
Q 49. Explain the roles of the following in aerobic respiration: (a) NAD and FAD (b)
Oxygen.
Ans. NAD and FAD are the co-enzymes which help enzymes to carry out the reactions during
aerobic respiration, whereas oxygen accepts the H atoms and make water in the last step of
respiratory chain.
Q 50. Sum up how much energy (as ATP) is made available to cell from a single glucose
molecule by the operation of glycolysis, the formation of acetyl CoA the citric acid cycle,
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and the electron transport chain.
Ans. For each glucose molecule that is completely broken down to CO2 and H2O molecules by
the sequential actions of glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and respiratory electron transport, 38 ATP
molecules can be formed. 2 ATP molecules are obtained during glycolysis, 2 during Krebs cycle
.c
and 34 during respiratory chain. pk
Q 51. Trace the fate of hydrogen atoms removed from glucose during glycolysis when
oxygen is present in muscle; compare this to the fate of hydrogen atoms removed from
es
glucose when the amount of the available oxygen is insufficient to support aerobic
respiration.
ot
Ans. When oxygen is present in muscle cells, the hydrogen atoms removed from glucose during
glycolysis are carried to respiratory chain but in the absence of oxygen they are used in alcoholic
.n
or lactic acid fermentation.

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Q 52. What is the difference between an action spectrum and absorption spectrum?
Ans. Action Spectrum: Different wavelengths are not only differently absorbed by
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photosynthetic pigments but are also differently effective in photosynthesis. Plot showing
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relative effectiveness of different wavelengths of light in arriving photosynthesis is called action

spectrum of photosynthesis.
Absorption Spectrum: A graph plotting absorption of light of different wavelength by a
pigment is called absorption spectrum of the pigment. The peaks represent the light that is
absorbed by the pigment, while the valleys represent the light that is reflected or transmitted.
Q 53. What is the net production of ATP during glycolysis?

Ans. 10 ATP are produced but 2 ATP are used in the beginning so there is a net gain of 8 ATP
molecules.
Q 54. What is the main difference between photo-phosphorylation and oxidative

phosphorylation?
Ans. Synthesis of ATP in the presence of light is called photo-phosphorylation while synthesis
of ATP int the presence of oxygen is called oxidative phosphorylation.

Q 55. What is the location of ETC and chemiosmosis in photosynthesis and cellular
respiration?
Ans. Thylakoid membranes in photosynthesis, and mitochondrial membranes in cellular
respiration.
Q 56. How did the evolution of photosynthesis affect the metabolic pathway?
Ans. With the emergence of photosynthesis on earth, molecular oxygen began to accumulate
slowly in the atmosphere. The presence of free oxygen made possible the evolution of
respiration. Respiration releases great deal of energy, and some of this energy is used in the
formation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) molecules. ATP is a kind of chemical link between
catabolism and anabolism.
Q 57. How does absorption spectrum of chlorophyll a differ from that of chlorophyll b?
Ans. The molecular formula fro chlorophyll a and b are:
om
Chlorophyll A C55H72O5N4Mg
Chlorophyll B C55H70O6N4Mg
Due to this slight difference in their structure, the two chlorophylls show slightly different
absorption spectra and hence different colors. Some wave length not absorbed by chlorophyll a
.c
are very effectively absorbed by chlorophyll b and vice-versa. Such differences in structure of
pk
different pigments increase the range of wavelength of the light absorbed. Chlorophyll a is blue-
green while chlorophyll b is yellow-green.
es
Q 58. Write difference between Chlorophyll a and Chlorophyll b.
Ans. Difference Chlorophyll A Chlorophyll B
ot
Molecular formula C55H72O5N4Mg C55H70O6N4Mg

Functional group -CH3 -CHO
.n
Occurrence All photosynthetic In association with

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organism except chlorophyll a in all green

photosynthetic bacteria plants and green algae
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Forms Differ slightly in their red No such different forms

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absorbing peaks e.g.,

670,680,690,700 nm
Color Blue-green Yellow-green

Chapter 10 Kingdom Animalia
Q 1. What is flame cell?

Ans. It is cup shaped cell with a bunch of cilia which work in its lumen. It is concerned with
excretion. Flame cells are usually connected together by canals which ultimately open to the
exterior of the animal.
Q 2. What are tetrapods?

Ans. All the animals having four limbs are called tetrapods. This super class is divided into
following classes:
1. Class Amphibia
2. Class Aves
3. Class Reptilia
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4. Class Mammalia
.c
Q 3. Name the glass sponge of antarctica which is more than meter tall.
Ans. Its name Scolymastra joubini.
pk
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Q 4. What are nematocytes?
Ans. The nematocytes are the organs of offense and defense in the coelenterates.
ot
Q 5. Quote examples of jawless fishes.

Ans. These are lampreys and hagfishes.
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Q 6. Give example of a legless amphibian.

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Ans. It is the Caecilian.

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Q 7. Who proposed the word mammal?

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Ans. Linnaeus proposed the word mammal.
Q 8. How many aortic arches are formed in birds and mammals?

Ans. Only a single aortic arch is formed, right in birds and left in mammals.
Q 9. Name a phylum which is exclusively marine.

Ans. It is phylum Echinodermata and Oxidaria.
Q 10. How do annelids respire?

Ans. The annelids respire through skin.
Q 11. State an example of a free living flat worm.

Ans. Planaria is a free living flat worm.

Q 12. Name the intermediate host in the life cycle of tapeworm.
Ans. It is pig or cattle.
Q 13. What is the coelom of arthropods known as ?

Ans. The coelom of arthropods is known as the haemocoel.
Q 14. What is the cause of malaria?

Ans. The cause of malaria is a protozoan known as Plasmodium.
Q 15. What does the term calcareous mean?

Ans. The term calcareous means made up of calcium carbonate.
Q 16. What are the molluscs with coiled shells known as?
Ans. These are called gas tropods.
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Q 17. Why has the name craniata been given to Vertebrate?
Ans. Since the vertebrates posses cranium, the vertebrate is also known as Craniata.
.c
Q 18. State examples of bony fishes. pk
Ans. These are trout, perch plaice.
Q 19. Name two flight less birds.

es
Ans. These are ostrich and kiwi.
ot
Q 20. What is the other name of external ear of mammals?

Ans. The external ear of mammals is called pinna.
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Q 21. Name the early mammal like reptile which was found as fossil in Texas.
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Ans. Its name is Varanope.

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Q 22. What is hydrostatic skeleton?

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Ans. Arrangement in animal or organ conferring rigidity by distension with fluid as movement
of Oligochaeta, Polychaeta and Nematoda.
Q 23. What is book lung?

Ans. It is respiratory organ of some air breathing arachnids, consisting of projections containing
blood and arranged like leaves of a book in a depression of body wall.
Q 24. Where is the food masticated in birds?

Ans. The food in birds is masticated in a thick muscular structure known as the gizzard.
Q 25. Name the protective embryonic membranes of reptiles.

Ans. These are the amnion, allantios and chorion.
Q 26. Distinguish oviparous animals from viviparous ones.

Ans. The animals which lay eggs are called oviparous e.g., birds while those which give birth to
the young ones are known as viviparous. e.g., mammals.
Q 27. The teeth of some mammals asmon are known in two sets. Name them.
Ans. These are deciduous or milk set and the permanent teeth.
Q 28. In which geological period did the mammals become dominant?

Ans. The mammals became dominant in cenozoic period.
Q 29. How is malaria spread?

Ans. Malaria is spread by the bite of the female Anopheles mosquito.
Q 30. Differentiate between Anamniotes and Amniotes.

Ans. Anamniotes: The animals without fetal membrane for exp Cyclostomata, Chondrichthyes,
Osteichthyes and Amphibia known as anamniotes.
om
Amniotes: The animals with fetal membranes for exp reptilia, aves and mammals are called
amniotes.
.c
pk
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Chapter 12 Nutrition
Q 1. What is stomach?
Ans. It is enlargement of the anterior region of the gut. In vertebrates it follows oesophagus and
usually has muscular walls which are helpful in crushing the food, and the lining cells secrete
pepsin and hydrochloric acid.
Q 2. Write down two function of tongue.

Ans. (1) Manipulation of food.
(2) Holds food in position between the teeth.
Q 3. Define nutrition.
Ans. Nutrition is the sum total of all the processes concerned with growth, repair and
maintenance of the living organism as a whole or its constituent parts.
om
Q 4. What does bolus of food mean?
Ans. As a result of mastication in the oral cavity, the softened, partly digested, slimy food mass
.c
is rolled by the tongue into small oval lump called as bolus.
pk
Q 5. Name the bacteria which commonly cause food poisoning?
Ans. These bacteria are Salmonella and Campylobacter.
es
Q 6. What is the number and nature of sphincters around the areas of man?
Ans. The human anus is surrounded by two sphincters, the internal of smooth and the outer of
ot
striped muscles.
.n
Q 7. Name the parts of the large intestine of man.

Ans. These are the colon, caecum and the rectum from in-front backwards.
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Q 8. How is Jaundice caused? BIOLOGY 1st FLASH CARDS BY NABEEL AKHTAR LECTURER BIOLOGY
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Ans. Jaundice is caused by the accumulation of bile pigments in the blood.

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Q 9. What is the innermost layer of the human stomach and the other points of the
alimentary canal known as?
Ans. It is known as the mucosa.
Q 10. Name two animals which possess a sac like digestive system.
Ans.These animals are Hydra and Pslanaria.
Q 11. How does Amoeba engulf solid food particles?

Ans. The Amoeba engulfs solid food particles with the help pf pseudopodia.
Q 12. What is most appropriate name for digestive cavity of Hydra?

Ans. It is the coelenteron.
Q 13. Name the opening through which undigested food is ejected in Hydra and the
Planaria?

Ans. It is the mouth.
Q 14. Which parts are included in the fore-gut of cockroach?

Ans. These are mouth, cavity, pharynx, crop and gizzard.
Q 15. What is botulism? What is its cause?

Ans. The severe form of food poisoning is called botulism. Its cause is a bacterium known as
Clostridium botulinum. BIOLOGY 1st FLASH CARDS BY NABEEL AKHTAR LECTURER BIOLOGY
Q 16. Define obesity.
Ans. The deposition of abnormal amount of fat on the body is termed as obesity.
Q 17. In which machine form is trypsin secreted? How is it activated?

Ans. Trypsin is secreted in the inactive form of trypsinogen which is activated by an enzyme,
enterokinase, secreted by the duodenum.
Q 18. Explain heart burn or pyrosis.
om
Ans. It is a painful burning sensation in the chest usually associated with the back flush of acidic
chyme into the oesophagus.
.c
Q 19. How do the farmers replenish the deficiency of nutrient salts?
Ans. The deficiency of nutrient salts is replenished by adding animal manure, sewage sludge or
pk
artificial chemical fertilizers to the soil.
es
Q 20. Explain a predation.
Ans. A predator is an animal which captures and readily kills other animals for its food.
ot
Q 21. Define detritus.

Ans. Detritus is the organic debris derived from the decomposing plants and animals.
.n
Q 22. Why some people develop intestinal gas and diarrhea by consuming milk products?
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Ans. Many humans develop intestinal gas and diarrhea by consuming milk products because
they lack the enzymes for digesting lactose in milk.
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Q 23. Write down the pH of fresh and stale human saliva.

Ans. The pH of the fresh human saliva is about 8 and that of the stale saliva is 6.
Q 24. Define dyspepsia. What are its symptoms?

Ans. Imperfect digestion is called dyspepsia. Its symptoms are abdominal discomfort, flatulence,
heartburn, nausea and vomiting.
Q 25. How is constipation caused in man?

Ans. Constipation may be caused due to excessive absorption of water through the large
intestine.
Q 26. What are piles or haemonhoids?

Ans. These are masses of dilated, tortuous veins in the anorectal mucosa which bleed during
bowl movements.

Q 27. How are gallstones formed in the gall bladder?
Ans. The gallstones are formed in the gall bladder due to the precipitation of cholesterol,
secreted by the liver.
Q 28. What are the functions of the enzymes amino-peptidase and erepsin of the intestinal
juice?
Ans. The amino-peptidase converts poly-peptidase into dipeptidase whereas the erepsin splits
dipeptides into amino acid.
Q 29. What is the emulsification of fats? Which secretion emulsifies fats?

Ans. The breaking down of fats into small globules is called emulsification. It is brought about
by the bile.
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Chapter 13 Gaseous Exchange
Q 1. How much CO2 is present in venous and arterial blood?
.c
Ans. Arterial blood contains 50 ml of carbon dioxide per 100 ml of blood whereas venous blood
has 54 ml of carbon dioxide per 100 ml of blood. pk
Q 2. How much denser is a water medium than air medium for exchange of respiratory
gases?
es
Ans. Water is 8000 times more dense than air.
Q 3. How aquatic plants obtain oxygen?
Ans. Aquatic plants obtain their oxygen by diffusion from dissolved oxygen is water.
ot
Q 4. Define photo-respiration.
.n
Ans. Respiratory activity which occurs in plants during daytime is called photorespiration.
Photorespiraiton is a light dependent process during which oxygen is absorbed and carbon
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dioxide is released. This oxygen is derived from the early reaction of photosynthesis. The
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pathway in which RuBP (Ribulose Biphosphala) is converted into serine is called

photorespiration.
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Q 5. Describe briefly as to how gaseous exchange takes place in plants.

Ans. Gaseous Exchange in Plants:
Gaseous exchange is plants takes place through three methods:
Through Stomata: In most cells of mesophyll which are specialized for photosynthesis, there
are present large spaces. Theses air spaces are directly involved in gaseous exchange. Stomata
are the main sites of exchange of gases in plants. Stomata are largely present in the leaves and in
young stem. These stomata lead to intercellular spaces of mesophyll tissue.
Through Lenticels: In older stems, cork tissue is present which is formed of dead cells. The
cork tissue has special pores called lenticles which are involved in gaseous exchange.
Through Roots: The roots of the land plants get their oxygen from the air existing in the spaces
between the soil particles.
Q 6. How does breathing differ from respiration?

Ans. Respiration: Respiration is one of the most important metabolic activities of all organisms.
Cellular respiration is the process where by cell utilizes oxygen, produce carbon dioxide, extract
and conserves the energy from food molecules in biologically useful form, such as ATP.
Breathing: Organismic respiration is also known as breathing or ventilation. During which
oxygen is taken from atmosphere and carbon dioxide is released. Breathing provides the basis of
cellular respiration. BIOLOGY 1st FLASH CARDS BY NABEEL AKHTAR LECTURER BIOLOGY
Q 7. How the rate of carbon dioxide fixation is lowered?
Ans. The photorespiration is a process in which ribulose biphosphala carboxylase / oxygenase
fixes oxygen instead of carbon dioxide which results in lowering the overall rate of carbon
dioxide fixation and plant growth.
Q 8. What is Rubisco?
Ans. Rubisco, the most abundant protein in chloroplasts and probably the most abundant protein
in the world. The rubisco is carboxylase as well as oxygenase.
Q 9. How glycolate is produced?
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Ans. When RuBP react with oxygen, a two carbon compound glycolate is produced:
RuBP +O2 -----------> Glycolate
That glycolate thus produced diffuses into membrane bounded by organelles known as
.c
peroxisomes. pk
Q 10. What is glycine? How it is converted to serine?
Ans. In the peroxisomes the glycolate is converted into glycine, through a series of reactions.
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Glycolate -----------> Glycine
The glycine is the simplest amino acid which soon after its formation diffuses into the
mitochondria where two glycine molecules are converted into serine and a molecule of carbon
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dioxide is formed.
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2 Glycine ----------> Serine CO2
Q 11. How does air always remain in the lungs of Human beings?
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Ans. Air always remain in the lungs pf human beings due to difference in the concentration
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gradient of carbon dioxide and oxygen in the lungs.

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Q 12. What is the difference between photosynthesis and photorespiration?

Ans. Photosynthesis:
1. Photosynthesis is the process by which energy is acquired by inorganic oxidized

compounds of carbon and hydrogen are reduced to energy rich carbohydrates using light
energy that is absorbed by chlorophyll.
2. During photosynthesis carbon dioxide is absorbed and oxygen is released.
3. In this process Rubisco acts as carboxylase.
Photorespiration:
1. Respiratory activity that occurs during daytime is called photorespiration.

2. It is a light dependent process during which oxygen is absorbed and carbon dioxide is
released.

3. During this process Rubisco acts as oxygenase and in this way rate of oxygen in
atmosphere is lowered.
Q 13. What are the properties of respiratory surfaces?
Ans. The respiratory surfaces in most animals exhibit the following features:
Large Surface and Moisture: The surface area should be large and kept moist as is in lungs and
gills.
Thin Epithelium: The distance for diffusion must be short. In animals, the epithelium is only
two cells thick which separates blood and air.
Ventilation: Their should be the difference is the gases at two points which bring about
diffusion.
Capillary Network: The respiratory site should possess steps diffusion gradient and extensive
network of capillaries through which blood should flow all the time at a n adequate speed.
Q 14. Differentiate between inspiration and expiration.
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Ans. Inspiration:
1. Inspiration is the intake of air inside the lungs.

2. During inspiration the space inside the chest cavity is raised.
.c
3. Muscles of ribs contract and elevate the rib upwards and forwards.
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4. The muscles of diaphragm contract and become less dome-like.
5. Pressure from the lungs is removed and they expand and vacuum is created due to which
air rushes inside the lungs.
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Expiration:
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1. Expiration is the expulsion of air from the lungs.

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2. During expiration from the sides of chest cavity the space becomes less.
3. The muscles of ribs and relaxed and ribs move downward and inward.
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4. The muscles of diaphragm relax becoming more dome-like.

5. The lungs are pressed and the air moves outside the lungs.
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Q 15. If photorespiration is inhibited chemically, the plant can still grow. Then why does
photorespiration exist?
Ans. The active site of rubisco is evolved to bind both carbon dioxide and oxygen together.
Originally it was not a problem as there was little oxygen in the atmosphere and the carbon
dioxide binding activity was the only one used . The photorespiration started when the quantity
of oxygen became more.
Q 16. What are respiratory surfaces?

Ans. Respiratory surfaces in animals are the sites where gaseous exchange takes place.
Q 17. What are respiratory surfaces in hydra?

Ans. Hydra has no specialized organs for respiration. Exchange of gases i.e., intake of oxygen
and removal of carbon dioxide, occurs through entire general surface in contact with water.
Q 18. How skin is kept moist in earthworm?

Ans. Skin is richly supplied with blood capillaries and is always kept moist by the secretion of
epidermal mucous gland cells and also by coelomic fluid exuding out through the dorsal pores.
Oxygen dissolved on the wet surfaces passes through the cuticle and epidermal cells into the
blood.
Q 19. What are spiracles?

Ans. The main tracheal trunk communicates with exterior by 10 pairs of apertures called
spiracles. BIOLOGY 1st FLASH CARDS BY NABEEL AKHTAR LECTURER BIOLOGY
Q 20. What are tracheoles?
Ans. The main tracheae divide and subdivide forming very fine thin walled tubules called
tracheoles.
Q 21. What happens when abdominal muscles of cockroach expand?

Ans. When abdomen muscles expands, the first four pairs of spiracles open, air rushes in through
these spiracles into tracheoles.
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Q 22. What happens when abdominal muscles of cockroach contract?
Ans. When abdomen muscles contracts, the anterior four pairs of spiracle close and posterior six
pairs of spiracle open.
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Q 23. What are gills?
pk
Ans. Fish respires through the gills which are paired structures present on either side of the body
almost at the junction of head and trunk. Gills are most effective and highly modified for gaseous
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exchange in aquatic animals. They are in four to five pairs which may open through gill slits and
are visible on the surface of pharynx or are placed in bronchial cavities which are covered by
operculum. Gills have great surface area for gaseous exchange. The gill surface is all the time
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ventilated by constant flow of water.

.n
Q 24. What is cutaneous respiration?

Ans. The gaseous exchange through skin is known as cutaneous respiration.
w
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Q 25. What is pulmonary respiration?

Ans. The gaseous exchange through gills or lungs is called pulmonary respiration.
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Q 26. What are parabronchi?

Ans. In the lungs of birds, tiny thin walled ducts called parabronchi are present instead of
alveoli. These parabronchi are open at both ends and the air is constantly ventilated. The walls of
parabronchi are chief sites of gaseous exchange.
Q 27. Why respiration in birds is specialized than any other animal?

Ans. Respiratory system in birds is the most efficient and elaborate. The birds are very active
animals with high metabolic rates, and thus need large amount of oxygen. The respiratory system
in the birds is so arranged there is one way flow of air through the lungs and the air is renewed
after inspiration.
Q 28. What are air sacs?

Ans. The lungs have developed several extensions known as air sacs which reach all parts of the

body and even penetrate some of the bones. In most birds, air sacs are nine in number which
become inflated by air at atmospheric pressure when the rib articulation are rotated forward and
upward. The inflated air sacs act as bellows and send air into the parabronchi for gaseous
exchange.
Q 29. What air passage consist of?

Ans. Air passage ways consist of nostrils, nasal cavities, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi,
bronchioles and alveolar ducts which ultimately lead into alveolar sacs.
Q 30. What is the function of mucous membrane?

Ans. Air enters the nasal cavity through nostril and the larger dust particles are trapped by the
hair and mucus in the nostrils. Air, while passing through the nasal cavity, becomes moist, warm
and filtered of smaller foreign particles by mucous membrane.
Q 31. What is pharynx?

Ans. The pharynx is a muscular passage lined with mucous membrane. The air is channelized
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from the pharynx into the larynx. BIOLOGY 1st FLASH CARDS BY NABEEL AKHTAR LECTURER BIOLOGY
Q 32. What is larynx?
Ans. The larynx or voice box is a complex cartilaginous structure surrounding the upper end of
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the trachea. pk
Q 33. What is glottis?
Ans. The opening of larynx is called glottis is also lined with mucous membrane.
es
Q 34. What are vocal cords? What is their purpose?

Ans. In the glottis, the mucous membrane is stretched across into two thin edged fibrous bands
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called vocal cords, which help in voice production, when vibrated by air.
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Q 35. How food is prevented from going into respiratory track?

Ans. One of the cartilages, the epiglottis has a muscularly controlled, hinge-like action and
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serves as a lid which automatically covers the opening of the larynx during the act of swallowing
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so as to prevent the entry of food or liquids into the larynx.

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Q 36. What is trachea?

Ans. The trachea or wind pipe is a tubular structure lying ventral to the oesophagus and extends
to the chest cavity or thorax where it is divided into right and left bronchi.
Q 37. What is the function of cartilage rings in trachea?

Ans. In the wall of trachea there are series of C shaped cartilage rings which prevent the trachea
from collapsing and keep the passage of air open.
Q 38. What is functional unit of lungs?

Ans. Air sacs is the functional unit of lungs.
Q 39. What is the difference between bronchi and bronchioles?

Ans. Bronchi:
Each bronchus on entering the lung divides and subdivides progressively into smaller and
smaller bronchi. Bronchi have the same cartilage

rings as the trachea, but the rings are progressively replaced by irregularly distributes cartilage
plates.
Bronchioles:
When the smaller bronchi attain a diameter of one mm or less, then they are called bronchioles.
Bronchioles totally lack cartilages. Bronchioles are made up of mainly circular smooth muscles.
Q 40. What are alveoli?

Ans. Each air sac consists of several microscopic single structures called alveoli.
Q 41. What is diaphragm?

Ans. The floor of the chest is called diaphragm. Diaphragm is a sheet of skeletal muscles.
Q 42. What us pleura?

Ans. Lungs are covered with double layered thin membranous sacs called pleura.
Q 43. What are three aspects related to lungs and associated structures?
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Ans. The three aspects related to lungs and associated structures are:
1. Lungs are spongy in nature. The lungs themselves neither pull air in nor can they push it
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out. During inspiration passive expansion of elastic lungs occurs and expiration is due to
a passive contraction of lungs.
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2. The floor of the chest cavity is diaphragm, which is a muscular sheet. The shape of the
diaphragm is more domelike when its muscles are relaxed. On the other hand when the
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muscles of diaphragm contract its shape becomes less domelike.
3. Walls of chest cavity are composed of ribs and intercostal muscles. When muscles
between ribs contract, the ribs are elevated and when muscles between ribs are relaxed
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the ribs settle down.

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Q 44. Explain respiratory distress syndrome in premature infant.

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Ans. In premature infant, respiratory distress syndrome is common, especially for infant with a
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gestation age of less than 7 months. This occurs because enough infant surfactant is not produced
to reduce the tendency of the lungs to collapse.
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Q 45. On which factors transport of gases depend?

Ans. Intake of oxygen ans release of carbon dioxide by blood passing through capillaries of
alveoli is brought by the following factors:
Diffusion of oxygen in and carbon dioxide out occurs because of difference in partial pressure of
these gases.
Within the rich network of capillaries surrounding the alveoli, blood is distributed in extremely
thin layers and, therefore, exposed to large alveolar surface.
Blood in the large is separated from the alveolar air by extremely thin membranes of the
capillaries and alveoli. BIOLOGY 1st FLASH CARDS BY NABEEL AKHTAR LECTURER BIOLOGY
Q 46. What is Myoglobin? What is its function?
Ans. Myoglobin is hemoglobin like iron containing protein pigment occurring in muscle fibers.
Myoglobin is also known as muscle hemoglobin.
It serves as an intermediate compound for the

transfer of oxygen from hemoglobin to aerobic metabolic processes of the muscle cells. It can
also store oxygen. Myoglobin consists of just one peptide chain associated with an iron
containing ring structure which can bind with one molecule of oxygen. The affinity of
myoglobins to combine with oxygen is much higher as compared to haemoglobin. BIOLOGY 1st
FLASH CARDS BY NABEEL AKHTAR LECTURER BIOLOGY
Q 47. How haemoglobin acts as an efficient oxygen carrier?
Ans. In human beings the respiratory pigment is haemoglobin. It is contained in the red blood
corpuscles. Haemoglobin readily combines with oxygen to form bright red oxyhaemoglobin and
oxygen in the conditions of low oxygen concentration and less pressure. Carbonic anhydrase
enzyme in R.B.C facilitates this activity. In this way haemoglobin acts as an efficient oxygen
carrier.
Q 48. What is the maximum amount of oxygen gas which normal human blood absorbs
and carries at sea level?
Ans. Normal human blood absorbs and carries oxygen at sea level is about 20 ml / 100 ml of
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blood.
Q 49. What adaptations a diver adopt when he descends in the sea?

Ans. As a scuba diver descends in the sea, the pressure of the water on his body prevents normal
.c
expansion of the lungs. To compensate, the diver breaths pressurized air from air cylinders,
which has a greater pressure than sea level air pressure.
pk
Q 50. What are important factors which affect capacity of haemoglobin to combine with
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oxygen gas?
Ans. There are three factors which affect the capacity of haemoglobin to combine with oxygen.
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1. Carbon Dioxide: When carbon dioxide pressure increases, the oxygen tension decreases,
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the capacity of haemoglobin to hold oxygen becomes less. In this way increased carbon
dioxide tension favors the greater liberation of oxygen from the blood to the tissue.
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2. Temperature: Rise in temperature also causes a decrease in the oxygen carrying

capacity of blood. e.g., in the increased muscular activity.
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3. pH: As the pH of the blood declines, the amount of oxygen bound to haemoglobin also
declines. This occurs because of decreased pH results from an increase in hydrogen ions,
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and the hydrogen ions combine with the protein part of the haemoglobin molecules,
causing a decrease in the ability of haemoglobin to bind oxygen, Conversely, an increase
in blood pH results in an increased ability of haemoglobin to bind oxygen.
Q 51. What is carboxyhaemoglobin?

Ans. Carboxyhaemoglobin is formed when carbon dioxide combines with amino group of
haemoglobin.
Q 52. How much percentage of carbon dioxide is carried as carboxyhaemoglobin?

Ans. About 20% of the carbon dioxide is carried as carboxyhaemoglobin.
Q 53. How much percentage of carbon dioxide is carried by plasma proteins?

Ans. Plasma proteins carry about 5% carbon dioxide form the body fluids to the capillaries of
lungs.

Q 54. How carbon dioxide is carried as bicarbonate ion?
Ans. About 70% carbon dioxide is carried as bicarbonate ion with sodium in plasma. As carbon
dioxide from tissue fluid enters the capillaries it combines to form carbonic acid.
Carbonic anhydrase
CO2 + H2O ------------------------> H2CO3
The carbonic acid spits quickly and ionized to produce hydrogen ions and bicarbonate ions.
H2CO3 ------------------> H+ + (HCO3)-
When blood leaves the capillary bed most of the carbon dioxide is in the form of bicarbonate
ions. In the lungs bicarbonate ions combine with hydrogen ions to form carbonic acid which
splits into water and carbon dioxide. It is this carbon dioxide which diffuses out from the
capillaries of the lungs into the space of alveolar sac.
Q 55. What is metastasis? BIOLOGY 1st FLASH CARDS BY NABEEL AKHTAR LECTURER BIOLOGY
Ans. Metastasis is a process that involves the spread of a tumor or cancer to different parts of the
body from its original site.
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Q 56. What is malignant tumor?
Ans. Malignant tumour is a tumour in which cancerous cells transport by means of circulatory
system.
.c
Q 57. What is cancer?
pk
Ans. Cancer or carcinoma is basically malignant tumour of potentially unlimited growth that
expands locally by invasion and systematically by metastasis.
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Q 58. What is tuberculosis? How it is caused?

Ans. Tuberculosis is a disorder of respiratory system, In fact, it is the general name of a group of
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diseases caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Pulmonary tuberculosis is a diseases of lungs in

which inside of the lung is damaged resulting in cough and fever. It is more common in poor
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people. Malnutrition and poor living conditions facilitate Mycobacterium to grow. The disease is
curable with proper medical attention. It is a contagious disease.
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Q 59. What is asthma?

Ans. Asthma is a serious respiratory disease associated with severe paroxysm of difficult
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breathing, usually followed by a period of complete relief, with recurrence of attack at more or
less frequent intervals. It is an allergic reaction to pollen, spores, cold, humidity, pollution etc.,
which manifests itself by spasmodic contraction of small bronchiole tubes. Asthma results in the
release of inflammatory chemicals such as histamines into circulatory system that cause severe
contraction of the bronchiole.
Q 60. Why there is an increased rate and depth of breathing during exercise?
Ans. At rest we inhale and exhale 15 - 20 times per minute. During exercise breathing rate may
rise to 30 times per minute. The increased rate and depth of breathing during exercise allows
more oxygen to dissolve in blood and be supplied to the active muscles. The extra carbon
dioxide which the muscles put into the blood is removed by deep and fast breathing
.
Q 61. What is the total capacity of lungs?

Ans. The total inside capacity of lungs is about 5 liters.
Q 62. What is the volume of air expelled from the lungs during exercise?
Ans. The volume of air taken inside the lungs and expelled during exercise is about 3.5 liters.
Q 63. What is the residual volume of lungs?

Ans. Residual volumes of lungs is 1.5 liters which cannot be expelled even during exercise.
Q 64. How diving mammals differ from the other animals?

Ans. Diving mammals have almost twice the volume of blood in relation to their body weight as
compared to non divers. Most of the diving mammals have high concentration of myoglobin in
their muscles. Myoglobin binds extra oxygen and store it.
Q 65. How diving reflex is activated in mammals?

Ans. When mammals dives to its limit the diving reflex is activated. The breathing stops, the rate
of heart slows down to one tenth of the normal rate, the consumption of oxygen and energy is
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reduced. The blood is redistributed but most of the blood goes to the brain and heart which can
least withstand anoxia. Skin muscles and digestive organs and other internal organs receive very
little blood while an animal is submerged because these areas can survive with less oxygen,
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Muscles shift from aerobic to anaerobic respiration.
Q 66. What is emphysema?

pk
Ans. Emphysema is a break down of alveoli. This respiratory problem is more common among
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smokers. The substances present in the smoke of tobacco weaken the alveoli wall. The irritant
substances of smoke generally cause bursting of weakened of alveoli. In the result of constant
coughing the absorbing surface of the lung is greatly reduced. The person suffering from
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emphysema cannot oxygenate his blood properly and least exertion makes him breathers and
exhausted. Emphysema produces increased airway resistance because the bronchioles are
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abstracted as a result and inflammation and because damaged bronchioles collapse during
expiration, trapping air within alveolar sacs.
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Q 67. Why the amount of oxygen increase in the blood of birds during gaseous exchange?
Ans.The direction of the blood flow in capillaries around the lungs is opposite to that of the
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airflow through the parabronchi. This counter current exchange increases the amount of oxygen
which enters the blood.

Chapter 14 Transport
Q 1. What do you know about active transport?
Ans. Transfer of substances from region where its concentration is low to where it is high
especially through a membrane accomplished by means of expenditure of energy from
metabolism. Probably all cells can do this.
Q 2. How much of the total surface area of the root is provided by the root hairs?
Ans. Root hairs provide 67% of the total area of the root.
Q 3. Which two factors determine the water potential in plant cells?

Ans. These factors are solute potential and the pressure potential.
Q 4. What is pericardial sinus in cockroach?

Ans. It is the cavity in which lies 13-chambered heart of cockroach.
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Q 5. Write down the kinds of agranulocytes.
Ans. These are monocytes and lymphocytes.
.c
Q 6. Which veins bring blood from the legs?
Ans. The iliac veins bring blood from the legs.
pk
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Q 7. What us haemorrhage?
Ans. The discharges of the blood from the blood vessels is called haemorrhage.
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Q 8. What us an antiserum?
Ans. The antiserum is serum, containing antibodies.
.n
Q 9. What are blood vessels?

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Ans. The vessels in which blood flows are called blood vessels. There are three types of blood
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vessels.
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1. Arteries
2. Veins
3. Capillaries
Q 10. Define osmotic or solute potential.

Ans. It is the component of water potential that takes into account the concentration of solutes in
the cell. It is represented by Ψs and is always negative.
Q 11. Where are the old and worn out red blood cells destroyed?
Ans. The old and worn out red blood cells are destroyed in the spleen and liver.
Q 12. What is the condition of high blood pressure in man known as?
Ans. It is known as hypertension.

Q 13. What is thrombus?
Ans. A solid mass or plug of blood clot in a blood vessel is called thrombus.
Q 14. Why is thalassemia also called Cooley's anaemia?

Ans. It is named after an American Pediatrician, Thomas B Cooley who investigated on it.
Q 15. How much water is found in human blood plasma?

Ans. The human blood contains about 90% of water.
Q 16. Who proposed "pressure flow theory" and when?

Ans. Ernest Munch proposed ""pressure flow theory' in 1930.
Q 17. Which parts of the root serve to absorb water and salts from the soil?
Ans. These parts are the root hairs.
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Q 18. Name the components of the cell wall which can imbibe water.
Ans. These are the cellulose pectin and lignin etc.
Q 19. Define transpiration.
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Ans. The loss of water from the surface of the plant in the form of water vapors is known as
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transpiration. BIOLOGY 1st FLASH CARDS BY NABEEL AKHTAR LECTURER BIOLOGY
Q 20. How does the rise of temperature affect the rate of transpiration in plants?
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Ans. The rate of transpiration doubles for every temperature rise of about 10C within certain
limits.
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Q 21. Name the three main blood vessels of Earth-worm.

.n
Ans. These are the dorsal vessel, the ventral vessel and the sub natural vessel.
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Q 22. What is the average life of red blood cell of man?

Ans. The average life of a red blood cell of a man is about 120 days (4 months).
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Q 23. Write a short note on heart attack.

Ans. Blockage of blood vessel in the heart by an embolus causes necrosis or damage to portion
of heart muscles, a condition known as heart attack or technically myocardial infarction. Heart
attack is due to disruption of control system of the heart with accompanying arrhythmia,
especially ventricular fibrillation.
Q 24. Name the chambers of the human heart.

Ans. These are right and left atria and the right and left ventricles.
Q 25. Which is the chief blood distributing vessel in man?

Ans. Aorta is the chief blood distributing vessel in man.
Q 26. Define immunity.

Ans. The ability of the living organisms to withstand harmful, foreign infective agents and toxins

is called immunity. BIOLOGY 1st FLASH CARDS BY NABEEL AKHTAR LECTURER BIOLOGY
Q 27. What are lacteals?
Ans. The branches of lymph capillaries within the villi of the intestine are called lacteals.
Q 28. Define arteriosclerosis.

Ans. It is a degenerative arterial change associated with advancing age.
Q 29. What is the significance of valves in the heart of man?

Ans. The valves allow the blood to flow only in one direction.
Q 30. How much time does a heartbeat of man take?

Ans. It takes about 0.8 second.
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Q 4. What is the other name of seawater?

Q 6. What is the gene therapy?

Q 7. Name a fatal viral disease of human liver?

Ans. Its name is hepatitis.

Q 8. What are antibiotics?

treatment of bacterial diseases.

Ans. Its name is cretaceous period.

Q 10. Define population?

Q 11. What is a theory?

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Q 14. Name all the sixteen bio-elements.

Q 16. What is tissue culture technique?

Q 19. What are the literal meanings of the word biology?

Q 20. What is the function of the glandular tissue?

glands secrete gastric juice.

Q 22. Define theology.

Q 23. What does the word "Pathogenic" mean?

Q 24. What is pedigree?

Q 26. What is community?

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Q 27. Are the protists unicellular or multicellular organism?

Q 29. Who introduced the technique of vaccination and when?

Q 31. What do you mean by hypothesis?

Q 33. What is deduction?

Q 33. Define Vaccination.

Q 34. Write a short note on cloning.

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BIOLOGY 1st FLASH CARDS BY NABEEL AKHTAR LECTURER BIOLOGY

may produce mature plants when planted in soil.

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Q 3. Compare the chemical composition of bacterial and mammalian cell.

Inorganic ions (Na+, K+. Ca+2, Mg+2, Cl-, (SO-2)4) 1% 1%

Q 4. Differentiate between Metabolism, Catabolism and Anabolism.

Energy is taken and released simultaneously.

Q 5. Why carbon is considered as the basic element of organic compounds?

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Q 7. Water is excellent solvent for polar substances. Justify this statement.

Q 8. What is the function of non-polar substances?

Q 9. Define specific heat capacity of water.

Q 10. How water works as a temperature stabilizer for living organisms?

Q 11. How heat of vaporization of water is beneficial in daily life?

is transpired, or to animals hen water is respired.

Q 13. How water act as an effective lubricant?

Q 14. List some important functions of carbohydrates.

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Q 15. What are carbohydrates?

Chemically, carbohydrates are defined as polyhydroxy aldehydes, or complex substances which

Q 16. What is hydrolysis?

Q 17. Carbohydrates are classified into how many groups?

sugar. Examples are glyceraldehyde. ribose and glucose, etc.

Q 19. How glucose is prepared / produced naturally?

Q 20. How much glucose our blood contains?

Q 21. How much energy is used to synthesize 10g of glucose?

Q 22. What are digosaccharides? Give some examples of important disacchraides.

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Q 23. What are polysaccharides? Name some biologically important polysaccharides.

Q 24. Differentiate between amylase and amylopectin.

Q 25. Differentiate between starch, cellulose and glycogen.