Mark Scheme (Results)

Summer 2016

Pearson Edexcel GCE

in Chemistry (6CH02) Paper 01
Application of Core Principles of
Chemistry
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Summer 2016
Publications Code 46658_MS*
All the material in this publication is copyright
© Pearson Education Ltd 2016
General Marking Guidance

 All candidates must receive the same treatment. Examiners must mark
the first candidate in exactly the same way as they mark the last.
 Mark schemes should be applied positively. Candidates must be
rewarded for what they have shown they can do rather than penalised
for omissions.
 Examiners should mark according to the mark scheme not according
to their perception of where the grade boundaries may lie.
 There is no ceiling on achievement. All marks on the mark scheme
should be used appropriately.
 All the marks on the mark scheme are designed to be awarded.
Examiners should always award full marks if deserved, i.e. if the
answer matches the mark scheme. Examiners should also be prepared
to award zero marks if the candidate’s response is not worthy of credit
according to the mark scheme.
 Where some judgement is required, mark schemes will provide the
principles by which marks will be awarded and exemplification may be
limited.
 When examiners are in doubt regarding the application of the mark
scheme to a candidate’s response, the team leader must be consulted.
 Crossed out work should be marked UNLESS the candidate has
replaced it with an alternative response.
 Mark schemes will indicate within the table where, and which strands
of QWC, are being assessed. The strands are as follows:

i) ensure that text is legible and that spelling, punctuation and

grammar are accurate so that meaning is clear
ii) select and use a form and style of writing appropriate to purpose
and to complex subject matter
iii) organise information clearly and coherently, using specialist
vocabulary when appropriate
Using the Mark Scheme

Examiners should look for qualities to reward rather than faults to penalise.
This does NOT mean giving credit for incorrect or inadequate answers, but it
does mean allowing candidates to be rewarded for answers showing correct
application of principles and knowledge. Examiners should therefore read
carefully and consider every response: even if it is not what is expected it may
be worthy of credit.

The mark scheme gives examiners:

 an idea of the types of response expected
 how individual marks are to be awarded
 the total mark for each question
 examples of responses that should NOT receive credit.

/ means that the responses are alternatives and either answer should receive
full credit.
( ) means that a phrase/word is not essential for the award of the mark, but
helps the examiner to get the sense of the expected answer.
Phrases/words in bold indicate that the meaning of the phrase or the actual
word is essential to the answer.
ecf/TE/cq (error carried forward) means that a wrong answer given in an
earlier part of a question is used correctly in answer to a later part of the same
question.

Candidates must make their meaning clear to the examiner to gain the mark.
Make sure that the answer makes sense. Do not give credit for correct
words/phrases which are put together in a meaningless manner. Answers
must be in the correct context.

Quality of Written Communication

Questions which involve the writing of continuous prose will expect candidates
to:
 write legibly, with accurate use of spelling, grammar and punctuation in
order to make the meaning clear
 select and use a form and style of writing appropriate to purpose and to
complex subject matter
 organise information clearly and coherently, using specialist vocabulary
when appropriate.
Full marks will be awarded if the candidate has demonstrated the above
abilities.
Questions where QWC is likely to be particularly important are indicated
(QWC) in the mark scheme, but this does not preclude others.
Section A (multiple choice)

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
1 C (1)

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
2(a) B (1)

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
2(b) D (1)

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
2(c) B (1)

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
2(d) A (1)

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
3 B (1)

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
4(a) D (1)

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
4(b) A (1)

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
4(c) B (1)

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
4(d) C (1)

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
5 C (1)

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
6(a) A (1)
Question Correct Answer Reject Mark
Number
6(b) C (1)

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
7 D (1)

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
8 C (1)

9 C (1)

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
10 (a) D (1)

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
10(b) D (1)

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
11 B (1)

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
12 B (1)

Total for Section A = 20 marks

Section B

Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark

Number
13(a)(i) Ignore drawn shapes …pyramidal (20

Shape is trigonal planar/ triangular Just

planar planar
(1)

Bond angle 120(o)

(1)

o
Mark independently BUT no TE on incorrect C
shape
Question Acceptable Answers Reject Mark
Number
*13(a)(ii) (Shape) (4)
Ignore references to tetrahedral/pyramidal No M1 if
incorrect
name for
shape
eg
bipyramidal

NOTE:
Lone pair on central N atom NOT required
ALLOW:
Any correct variation as long as the shape is
clear
(1)

(Bond angle) 107o

ALLOW
Any angle between 106o – 108o
OR 102o (as this is the actual bond angle)
(1)
Mark independently

(Explanation)

Minimum repulsion/maximum separation

(between pairs of electrons)
(1)

Lone pair-bond pair repulsions are

…between
greater/more than bond pair-bond pair
atoms /
repulsions
Just
bonds repel
ALLOW

Lone pair(s) repel more than bond pair(s)

(1)

Mark independently
Question Correct Answer Reject Mark
Number
13(a)(iii) M1 (2)
F F
| |
F―N→B―F
| |
F F

OR

F F
| |
F―N―B―F
| |
F F
No M1 if
OR dative bond
Dot and cross diagram, allow all dots or categorically
crosses. from B to N

IGNORE omission of non-bonding

electrons on Fs.

But no mark if dot and cross shown for

N-B bond.

(1)

M2 Dative covalent (bond)

(1)

Mark independently

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
13(b)(i) +2 (1)
ALLOW
2+

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
13(b)(ii) (1)
OF2 + H2O → 2HF + O2 H2F2

Ignore state symbols even if incorrect

Allow multiples
Question Correct Answer Reject Mark
Number
13(c) Accept all dots OR all crosses (1)

(Total for Question 13 = 11 marks)

 Question Correct Answer Reject Mark
Number
14(a)(i) As a (co-)solvent for both aqueous silver (1)
nitrate and bromoalkane

OR

As a (co-)solvent for polar and non-polar

molecules

OR

To dissolve the halogenoalkane (as it is

not water soluble)

OR

To allow the reagents/reactants to

mix/dissolve

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
14(a)(ii) C4H9Br + H2 O → C4H9OH + HBr (1)

OR

C4H9Br + H2O → C4H9OH + H+ + Br−

Ignore state symbols even if incorrect

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
14(a)(iii) Cream Just “yellow” (2)
Just “white”
ALLOW

Pale yellow/off-white
(1)

Ag+(aq) + Br―(aq) → AgBr(s)

(1)
Question Correct Answer Reject Mark
Number
14(a)(iv) Concentrated ammonia (solution) (1)
/ Concentrated NH3 ((aq))

ALLOW ‘c’ or ‘conc’ for concentrated

IGNORE
References to “excess”

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
14(a)(v) 1
C, B, A
NOTE
The letters must be in this order
Question Correct Answer Reject Mark
Number
*14(a)(vi) Any two from (2)

 Tertiary is the fastest / primary is If states that

the slowest tertiary
bromoalkane
 The C-Br bond is weakest in dissolves
2-methylbromopropane / in the fastest
tertiary (compound)

ALLOW here: The weaker the C-Br bond,

the faster the hydrolysis

 (This is because the) methyl

groups donate electrons

OR

methyl groups are electron

releasing

OR

(positive) inductive effect of

methyl groups

IGNORE

Any resultant effect on the polarity

of the C-Br bond, even if incorrect

 Tertiary carbocation OR
intermediate formed by tertiary is
(more) stable

ALLOW branched for tertiary in all points

IGNORE
Any references to steric hindrance
Any references to SN1 and/or SN2
Question Correct Answer Reject Mark
Number
14(b)(i) (2)

M1: All three of the following points

 (Cotton) wool / mineral wool / ceramic

fibre (soaked in reactant)

 in a reasonably horizontal test tube

 heating (shown anywhere under

horizontal tube)
(1)

M2:
Collection of gas over water / in a gas syringe
(1)

Ignore Bunsen valve

Mark these scoring points independently

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark
Number
14(b)(ii) But-1-ene Butene (2)

ALLOW Butan-1-ene

1-butene Butanene
(1)

(1)

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
14(c)(i) (Type) substitution Elimination (2)
(1)

(Mechanism) nucleophilic Electrophilic /

(1) (free) radical

Allow words in either order

Just “SN 2” scores one mark SN 1

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
14(c)(ii) Butylamine/1-aminobutane/1-butylamine (1)

(Total for Question 14 = 15 marks)

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark
Number
15(a) M1: (3)
The salt dissolves in the water (of Any mention
crystallization) / the salt dissolves in (its) of ‘melt(s)’
water of crystallization

NOTE:

For M1 it needs to be clear that the water

came from the initial solid
(1)
M2:
Water boils/water evaporates
(1)

M3:
(Anhydrous) magnesium nitrate / Mg(NO3)2
crystallizes
OR
(Anhydrous) magnesium nitrate / Mg(NO3)2
is formed

ALLOW for M3:

(White) solid formed as the concentration
becomes too high / as water is driven off

OR
Solid reforms/forms

(1)
Question Correct Answer Reject Mark
Number
15(b)(i) NOTE 1: (3)
The chemicals identified MUST correspond
to the correct Stage number

NOTE 2:
Award mark in each case for either the
correct name or the correct formula.
HOWEVER if both a name AND a formula
are given, BOTH must be correct.

Stage 5:
Nitrogen dioxide / NO2 / N2O4 (is the brown
gas)
(1)

Stage 6:
Oxygen / O2 (relights a glowing splint) Just “O” for
(1) oxygen’s
formula
Stage 7:
Magnesium oxide / MgO (is the white
solid)
(1)

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
15(b)(ii) 2Mg(NO3)2.6H2O → 2MgO + 4NO2 + O2 +12H2O (2)
Ignore state symbols even if incorrect

ALLOW multiples
ALLOW 2N2O4 for 4NO2

M1 Correct entities (1)

M2 Balancing (1)
M2 depends on M1

Special case

If the anhydrous salt equation is given:

2Mg(NO3)2 → 2MgO + 4NO2 + O2 scores 1 max
Question Correct Answer Reject Mark
Number
15(c)(i) (Magnesium chloride) UV/white/bright (2)
Colourless / no colour white
(1)

(Calcium chloride)
Yellow-red OR brick-red OR red Crimson

ALLOW Just ‘orange’

Orange-red Just ‘yellow’
(1)

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
*15(c)(ii) M1 – for idea of electrons being Just (3)
promoted molecules
(Heating) promotes electrons / excites gain energy
electrons (to higher energy levels)
(1)

M2 – for idea of electrons falling back

down
Electrons fall back (to lower levels /
ground states)
(1)
M3 – for idea of emission of light No M3 if
Emitting (visible) light / emitting photons mention of
energy / light
(1) absorbed
Question Correct Answer Reject Mark
Number
15(c)(iii) M1: (2)

EITHER

In magnesium the energy levels are Just “no

further apart / the energy levels are transitions for
different magnesium”

OR

In calcium the energy levels are closer /

the energy levels are different

IGNORE

Any comparison of the relative numbers of

energy levels

M2:

For magnesium, the energy released is

outside the visible spectrum / visible
region

OR

For calcium, the energy released is inside

the visible spectrum / visible region

OR

the energy released is in the red region (of

the spectrum)

OR

Different amounts of energy are released

OR

Different frequencies / wavelengths

emitted
(1)

Mark these points independently

(Total for Question 15 = 15 marks)

Total for Section B = 41 marks

Section C

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
16(a)(i) Cl H Skeletal / (1)
| | structural
Cl―C―C―H formulae
| |
Cl H

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
16(a)(ii) Read the whole answer first (2)

Any two from

 (Higher boiling temperature) because it Any

has stronger/more London forces reference to
breaking
 (Because it has) more electrons (66 covalent
compared with 50) bonds scores
(0) overall
IGNORE

References to larger electron cloud / higher

electron density / greater Mr / incorrect
‘counting’ of electrons in either or both
molecules

 1,1,1-trichloroethane has dipole-dipole

interactions

 (Because the molecule is polar due to)

polar C-Cl bonds

OR

 Cl is more electronegative than C OR Cl

is more electronegative than H

OR

Cl atoms on same side (of molecule)

OR

C-Cl dipoles do not cancel

 Hexane has only London forces

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark
Number
16(a)(iii) Because they damage the ozone layer Any statement (1)
that this
OR compound is a
CFC / forms Cl2
(Halothane products like) (on breaking
1,1,1-trichloroethane are narcotic down)
inhalants / poisonous / toxic

IGNORE

References to just:

 formation of chlorine radicals

 formation of Cl●
 carcinogen

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
16(b)(i) ICl is a stronger electrophile / better Any references to (1)
electrophile Cl attacking the
C=C
Allow a correct description of an
electrophile even if the term is not
used.
e.g. ICl has a vacancy for a bonding
pair of electrons

OR

the ICl (bond) is polar

NOTE:

ALLOW the ICl (bond) is more polar

OR

Mention of presence of the Iδ+ (in ICl)

ALLOW

‘It’ for ICl

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark
Number
16(b)(ii) (1)
I Cl
| | I and Cl on the
CH3(CH2)7 ― C ― C ― (CH2)7COOH same carbon
| |
H H

I and Cl can be interchanged and on

either side

Look out for only I or Cl added without

hydrogen, also 2I and 2Cl added.

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
16(b)(iii) To prevent formation of free radicals Causes oxidation (1)

OR C-Cl breaks

To prevent (free radical) substitution

OR

To prevent (I-Cl) bonds breaking

homolytically

ALLOW

UV causes it to react / to decompose

IGNORE
light causes it to react / to decompose
Question Correct Answer Reject Mark
Number
16(b)(iv) (2)
ALL THREE oxidation numbers must
be correct:
(Iodine monochloride) +1
ALLOW 1+
(Iodide ion) -1
ALLOW 1-
(Iodine) 0
(1)
(Ionic equation)

ICl + I― → I2 + Cl―

Ignore state symbols even if incorrect

Both partial and full charges on ICl are

acceptable, provided they are the right way
around (1)

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
16(c) (Indicator) (2)

Starch (solution)
(1)

(Colour change from)

Blue-black to colourless No M2 if
states “From
ALLOW purple to …”
Blue to colourless
OR
Black to colourless

IGNORE
References to ‘clear’
(1)

Mark independently
In 16(d) penalise incorrect units once only

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
16(d)(i) Number of moles of thiosulfate = (1)

20.0 x 0.100 = 2(.00) x 10−3 / 0.002(00)

1000

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
16(d)(ii) (2S2O32―(aq) + I2(aq)→) S4O62― + 2I― (1)
IGNORE state symbols even if incorrect

ALLOW TE in all remaining parts from the previous part(s) Calculators needed!

PENALISE rounding errors in (d)(v) to (d)(vii) only once

Also penalise 1 SF in (d)(v) to (d)(vii) only once

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
16(d)(iii) Number of moles of iodine (1)
= 0.002(00)÷2
= 1(.00) x 10−3 / 0.001(00) (mol)

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
16(d)(iv) 1(.00) x 10−3 / 0.001(00) (mol) (1)

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
16(d)(v) (0.001(00) - 0.000365) (1)
= 6.35 x 10−4 / 0.000635 (mol)

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
16(d)(vi) (0.000635 x 100 OR 0.000635 x 500) (1)
0.2(00)
= 0.3175 (mol)

Question Correct Answer Reject Mark

Number
16(d)(vii) 0.3175 x 2 x 126.9 = 80.5815 (g) (1)

If student uses Ar for I = 127, final

answer equals 80.645 (g)

If d(iii)/(iv) is 0.002 this gives 0.001635, 0.8175 and 207.4815 for (v) to (vii)

If d(iii)/(iv) is 0.0005 this gives 0.000135, 0.0675 and 17.1315 for (v) to (vii)
Question Correct Answer Reject Mark
Number
16(e) (Sample titre) 1
Higher
and
(Iodine value)
Lower

(Total for Section C = 19 Marks)

TOTAL FOR PAPER = 80 MARKS

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