ALTERNATIVE DISPUTE RESOLUTION (A.D.R.

1. Which are the correct methods of ADR?

A. Legislation, Arbitration and Negotiation
B. Negotiation, Legislation and Mediation
C. Arbitration, Negotiation, Conciliation and Mediation
D. Legislation and Mediation

2. Which are the correct advantages of Negotiation?

A. Its Quick, Cheap Process and Privacy.
B. Cheap Process and Might not come to a decision.
C. Privacy and Lack of certainty.
D. Might not come to a decision and its Quick.

3. Which of the following matters are not referred to arbitration?

A. Civil matters.
B. Matrimonial matters.
C. Banking matters.
D. Property matters.

4. What’s the similarity with mediation and conciliation?

A. They sound the same
B. They both use a messenger
C. They are the same
D. There is no similarit

5. What’s an arbitrator’s role?

A. Sit and talk
B. Acts like a judge
C. Acts like a jury
D. Acts like a police officer

6. Which are the correct disadvantages of Arbitration?

A. Legal point, Flexible, Fees expensive and Delays
B. Fees expensive, Legal point, Delays and Limited appeal
C. Limited appeal and Its Quick
D. Flexible

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7. What does ADR actually stand for?
A. Alternative desperate resolution
B. Alternative despite resolution
C. Alternative dispute resolution
D. Additional dispute resolution

8. The term “International Commercial Arbitration” is defined under

A. Section 2 (f).
B. Section 2 (b).
C. Section 2 (c).
D. Section 2 (d).

9. The term “Arbitration Agreement “comes under-

A. Chapter I
B. Chapter II
C. Chapter III
D. Chapter IV

10. The ADR mechanism of dispute resolution in India, mainly comprise of the following:
A. Arbitration and litigation;
B. Litigation, Negotiation and Arbitration;
C. Mini Trials, Early Neutral Evaluation and Mediation;
D. Arbitration, Mediation, Conciliation and Negotiation.

11. Which of the following is the most accurate description of arbitration?

A. An informal meeting between the parties involving a discussion as to how the issue
may be resolved
B. An adjudicative process where the parties submit their dispute, for a binding decision,
to an impartial tribunal.
C. A meeting between the parties where an impartial third party facilitates discussions
D. None of the options given is correct
12. A conciliator is appointed-
A. By the parties to the dispute.
B. By the Chief Justice of the high court.
C. By the Civil Court.
D. None of the above.

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13. In ADR the issue is-
A. Proved.
B. Inquired into.
C. Agreed upon.
D. Disposed.

14. The mediator is-

A. Judge.
B. Advisor.
C. Expert.
D. Facilitator.

15. How many arbitrators are normally appointed by the parties in an arbitration?
A. Parties are free to determine the number of arbitrators provided that such number shall
not be even number.
B. Parties are free to determine the number of arbitrators provided that such number shall
not be odd number.
C. Only sole arbitrator should be appointed
D. None of the above

16. What are the important International Conventions, applicable to part II of the Act?
A. New York Convention.
B. Geneva Convention.
C. None of the above.
D. Both the above a and b.

17. The Chairperson of the Arbitration Council of India appointed under,

A. Section 43C (1) (a)
B. Section 45 (1) (a)
C. Section 34
D. Section 54

18) Is the Arbitral tribunal Competent to appoint an expert in certain cases-?

A. Yes
B. No

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19. Committee for implanting Legal Aid Schemes (CILAS 1980) is replaced by-
A. State Legal Service Authority
B. District Legal Service Authority
C. National Legal Service Authority
D. None of the above

20. Arbitral tribunal has no jurisdiction to issue-

A. Interim award.
B. Award
C. Winding up orders
D. Ex-parte Orders.

21. An application under Section 8 of the Act must be filed by a defendant to the suit:
A. Before filing written statement to the suit
B. At the time of filing its written
C. Any time during the pendency of the suit
D. Can be filed at any time, but only to challenge the appointment of arbitrator

22. An interim relief application be made before the court under s 8 of the Arbitration and
Conciliation Act, 1996:
A. Both before and after commencement of arbitration proceedings
B. Only During arbitration proceedings
C. Only before the appointment of arbitrator
D. Only after the commencement of arbitration proceedings.

23. Which statement is True with respect to Jurisdiction in domestic arbitrations?

A. Arbitrator cannot decide his own jurisdiction
B. Parties can choose a place of jurisdiction
C. Only High Courts have the jurisdiction under the A&C Act
D. Parties can only appoint Arbitrators from a pre-set list given by the High Courts of
each state.

24. Execution of a domestic arbitral award is governed by:

A. Section 34
B. Section 36

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 C. Section 35
D. Section 14s

25. Arbitration is a legal process

A. Difference relating to their mutual rights and obligations
B. difference relating to intoxication
C. Difference relating to drugs
D. Difference relating to sexual assault

26. Advantages of Arbitration

A. Less time consuming
B. More time consuming
C. Time pass
D. Wastage of time

27. ADR plays a significant role in reducing the burden

A. Upon police station
B. Upon political parties
C. Upon underworld
D. Upon Court

28. Negotiation is a procedure

A. Binding procedure
B. Non-binding procedure
C. Prospective binding
D. Retrospective binding

29. Lok Adalat basically means

A. Women's court
B. Men's court
C. People's court
D. Children court

30. The power of court to refer parties for arbitration would and must necessarily include,
imply and inhere in it
A. the power and jurisdiction to advise the parties
B. the power and jurisdiction to review the award
C. the power and jurisdiction to appoint the arbitrator
D. the power and jurisdiction to call for another arbitrator.

31. A sum directed to be paid by an arbitral award shall carry interest

A. @ 6% per annum from the date of the award till the date of payment
B. @ 12% per annum from the date of the award till the date of payment
C. 18% per annum from the date of the award till the date of payment
D. 24 % per annum from the date of the award till the date of payment.

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32. Sanjay and Mohit partners in a partnership firm make an agreement in writing to refer a
dispute between them in business to an arbitrator. Inspite of this agreement Sanjay files a
suit against Mohit relating to the dispute in a court. With regard to above answer the
following questions.
A. The jurisdiction of court is ousted as a valid arbitration agreement exists
B. Court has jurisdiction over the matter and it overpowers arbitration agreement and such
dispute cannot be referred to jurisdiction
C. Sanjay can file an appeal in Court only against arbitral award
D. The court does not has jurisdiction

33. Conciliator would independently investigate into the dispute and draft his report indicating
the method of settlement of disputes.
A. The conciliator would take help from the court on the settlement of the method
B. The conciliator would rely on the application filed by the parties
C. The conciliator would take help from the disputing parties on the settlement of the
method
D. The conciliator will hear both the parties separately

34. The award made by the Lok Adalat

A. is deemed to be a decree of the civil court like arbitration Award
B. is deemed to be a decree of the civil court
C. is effective as an Arbitral award
D. is not binding on the party

35. Arbitral proceedings commence

A. on the date on which a request for a dispute to be referred to arbitration is received by
the respondent
B. on the date when the respondent gives consent to the appointment of the arbitrator
C. on the date when the arbitrator issues notice of the parties
D. on the date when the statement of claim and written submission of defence is made.

36. An arbitral award

A. has to be in writing but need not be signed
B. has to be in writing and signed by the members of the arbitral tribunal
C. may be oral
D. may be in writing but no signature required

37. After the arbitral award is made, each party shall be delivered
A. the original award
B. a signed copy of the award
C. a photocopy of the award
D. an unsigned copy of the award.

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38. A sum directed to be paid by an arbitral award shall carry interest of
A. 6% per annum from the date of the award till the date of payment
B. 12% per annum from the date of the award till the date of payment
C. 18% per annum from the date of the award till the date of payment
D. 24 % per annum from the date of the award till the date of payment.

39. In case of three arbitrators, the ‘third arbitrator’ shall act as:
A. an umpire
B. a Presiding Arbitrator
C. sole arbitrator
D. Assistant Arbitrator

40. Which of the following Special Act does not provide for arbitration in respect of
disputes covered by those Acts?
A. Land Acquisition Act, 1894
B. The Cantonments Act, 1924
C. Forward Contracts Regulation Act, 1956
D. Easement Act, 1882

41. During conciliation proceeding, a party to the dispute shall not initiate any judicial
proceeding except.
A. With the permission of the Conciliator
B. For preserving his rights
C. With the permission of the Court
D. With the consent of the other party

42. In Part I of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, no judicial authority shall
intervene with arbitration proceeding except.
A. For setting aside an award
B. For removal of arbitrator/s
C. For modification of award
D. For replacing the arbitrator/s

43. Which type of cases are not dealt by Lok Adalat?

A. Compoundable criminal offences

B. Family disputes
C. Non-compoundable criminal offences
D. Motor accident claims

44. Recourse to a Court against an Arbitral Award may be made only if.

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A. party to the dispute is not happy with the award
B. Even number of arbitrators were appointed by the parties
C. A party was unable to present his case
D. The party is not satisfied with the award passed

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 LAW OF EVIDENCE
1. Which section deal with Oral Evidence?
A. Section 54
B. Section 14
C. Section 37
D. Section 60

2. Documentary Evidence is included in the Act under-

A. Section 3
B. Section 53
C. Section 65
D. Section 8

3. Which is not the essential of the Doctrine of Res Gestae?

A. The statement made should not be an opinion and must be a statement.
B. The statements should be made by the participants of the transaction.
C. The statements should have enough information to explain or brief about the incident
D. The statement must be as per the advice of legal expert

4. Conspiracy means-
A. An act done b few person
B. An act of illegal nature
C. An act of legal nature by illegal means
D. All of above

5. The confession by a person will be considered not relevant if they are-

A. Inducement
B. Threat
C. Promise
D. All of above

6. A statement, [oral or documentary or contained in electronic form], which suggests

any inference as to any fact in issue or relevant fact, and which is made by any of the
persons, and under the circumstances, hereinafter mentioned is-
A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Dying Declaration
D. None of the above

7. When one person has, by his declaration, act or omission, intentionally caused or
permitted another person to believe a thing to be true and to act upon such belief,
neither he nor his representative shall be allowed, in any suit or proceeding between
himself and such person or his representative, to deny the truth of that thing is-

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A. Proof
B. Primary proof
C. Etoppel
D. Oral evidence

8. The conditions for dying declaration are-

A. It must be a written or verbal statement
B. The statement must be relate to the cause of death
C. The cause of death person must be in question
D. All of above

9. Section 65A deals with-

A. Primary evidence
B. Secondary evidence
C. Electronic record
D. Oral evidence

10. Resumption of Dowry death is included in the Evidence Act under-

A. Section 54
B. Section 113B
C. Section 67
D. Section 86

11. Section 133 deals with-

A. A person who take part in the commission of crime
B. A person who give information of crime
C. A court which entertains the case
D. A police officer who Is related to the case

12. No public officer shall be compelled to disclose communications made to him in

official confidence when he considers that the public interests would suffer by the
disclosure is-
A. Privileged communication
B. Official communication
C. Private communication
D. Confidential communication

13. All persons shall be competent to testify unless the Court considers that they are
prevented from understanding the questions put to them, or from giving rational
answers to those questions, by tender years, extreme old age, disease, whether of body
or mind or any other cause of the same kind is-
A. Child witness
B. Adult witness

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C. Dumb witness
D. Lunatic witness

14. A witness who is unable to speak may give his evidence in any other manner in
which he can make it intelligible, as by writing or by signs; but such writing must be
written and the signs made in open Court, the evidence so given shall be deemed to be
oral evidence is known as-

A. Dumb witness
E. An informer
F. Female witness
G. Hostile witness

15. If a married woman is dies within the period of…… from the date of marriage, it will
be considered as presumption as to abetment of suicide by a married woman.
A. 15 years
B. 5 years
C. 7 years
D. None of the above

16. How many numbers of witnesses is required in any case to prove the facts?
A. Two
B. Five
C. Seven
D. No particular number has been specified in the Act.

17. The examination of a witness by the party who calls him shall be called as-
A. Advocate
B. Examination –In-Chief
C. Re-Examination
D. Cross-Examination

18. The examination of a witness by the adverse party shall be called as-
A. Cross-Examination
B. Re-Examination
C. Examination In-Chief
D. Leading questions

19. Any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or expects to
receive as-
A. Ordinary question
B. Relevant question
C. Leading question
D. Interrogative question

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20. Production of documents is included under-
A. Section 145
B. Section 163
C. Section 164
D. Section 162

21. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to all judicial proceedings in or before any
Court, including Courts-martial, but not to
A. affidavits presented to any Court or Officer, nor to proceedings before an arbitrator
B. power of attorney presented to any Court or Officer, nor to proceedings before an
arbitrator
C. only to high courts and supreme court
D. only to criminal courts

22. When there is a question whether an act was accidental or intentional or done with a
particular knowledge or intention, the fact that such act formed part of a series of
similar occurrences, in each of which the person doing the act was concerned,
A. is relevant.
B. is irrelevant.
C. Is material.
D. Is immaterial.

23. Confession made to a police officer,

A. shall be proved as against a person accused of any offence.
B. shall not be proved as against a person accused of any offence.
C. Must be proved as against a person accused of any offence.
D. May be proved as against a person accused of any offence.

24. Certified copies are considered as

A. Secondary evidence
B. primary evidence
C. accepted evidence
D. invalid form of evidence.

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25. Evidence of terms of contracts, grants and other dispositions of property reduced to
form of documents, covered under section
A. S.91
B. S.92
C. S.93
D. S.94 of Indian Evidence Act.

26. Under The Indian Evidence Act, 1872, Section 17 to 31 applies to

A. Admissions
B. Confessions
C. Both Admissions and Confessions
D. Opinion of third person

27. In civil cases no admission is not relevant if

A. If it is made upon an express condition that evidence of it is not to be given
B. If it is not clear in terms and intention
C. Court is not satisfied
D. All of the above

28. ‘Fact judicially noticeable need not be proved’ is given under which section?
A. Section 56
B. Section 57
C. Section 58
D. Section 59

29. Section 63 - Secondary evidence means and includes-

A. Certified copies given under the provisions of the Act
B. Copies made from the original by mechanical processes which in themselves insure
the accuracy of the copy, and copies compared with such copies;
C. Copies made from or compared with the original and Counterparts of documents as
against the parties who did not execute them;
D. All of above

30. Provisions regarding admissibility of electronic records are given under

section
A. Section 65

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B. Section 65A
C. Section 65B
D. All of above

31. Burden of proof under section 101 of Evidence Act

A. never shifts
B. goes on shifting as the trial proceeds
C. may shift
D. both b and c are correct

32. section 105 of Evidence Act applies to

A. criminal trials
B. civil trials
C. both a and b
D. neither a nor b

33. In the criminal trials, the onus is on the accused to prove that his case falls in
A. any of the general exception
B. any of special exception
C. any of the proviso to any provisions
D. all of the above

34. A person in section 106 of the Evidence Act refers to

A. a party to the suit
B. a stranger to the state
C. a person who is not a party to the suit but interested in the outcome of the suit
D. a witness

35. For presumption under section 107 of Evidence Act, the person to be shown to be
alive within
A. 7 years
B. 12 years
C. 3 years
D. 30 years

36. A dying declaration is admissible

A. Only in Criminal proceedings
B. Only in civil proceedings
C. In civil as well as criminal proceedings both D.
In Administrative proceeding

37. Burden of proving that case of accused comes within exception lies on….

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 A. Prosecution
B. Accused
C. Magistrate
D. Any one

38. What is conclusive proof of legitimacy under the law of Evidence?

A. Birth during marriage
B. DNA Test
C. Father’s acceptance
D. Child statement

39. The following need not be proved

A. Admitted facts and Judicially noticeable facts
B. Confession to police
C. Legitimacy of child
D. Relevant fact

40. The following can be proved by oral evidence

A. Contents of a document
B. Electronic statement
C. All facts except a)
D. Anything and everything

41. According to S. 25 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872, a confession made before a police
officer
A. Must be proved
B. Need not be proved
C. Must be proved only in certain cases
D. Must be proved by that police officer

42. According to Section 62, a Primary Evidence means –

A. the document itself produced for the inspection of the Court.
B. The true copy of the document produced for the inspection of the Court.
C. the Xerox copy of the document produced for the inspection of the Court.
D. Notarized copy of the document

43. According to which section of The Indian Evidence Act, 1872, The Court may direct
any person present in Court to write any words or figures for the purpose of enabling
the Court to compare the words or figures so written with any words or figures
alleged to have been written by such person.
A. Section 62
B. Section 65A

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 C. Section 12
D. Section 73

44. According to S. 113A of Indian Evidence Act, 1872, Presumption as to abetment of

suicide by a married woman, it must be shown that the suicide must be committed:
A. within a period of ten years from the date of her marriage
B. within a period of six years from the date of her marriage
C. within a period of seven years from the date of her marriage
D. within a period of one year from the date of her marriage

45. According to S. 60, Oral Evidence must be ––

A. Suitable
B. Satisfactory
C. Obtained
D. Direct

46. A, an accused wants to submit true copy of a document as secondary evidence. The
original is with the opposite party and he has failed to produce the same. Which of the
following statements will hold true in the case?

A. The evidence cannot be admitted because it fails to satisfy the requirements of

section 64 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
B. The evidence cannot be admitted because it fails to satisfy the requirements of
section 65 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
C. The evidence can be admitted as it satisfies the requirements of both section 63 and
section 65 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
D. The evidence can be admitted under section 60

47. A person summoned to produce a document in the Court

A. Does not become a witness in the case unless he is called as a witness
B. Automatically becomes a witness in the case
C. Automatically becomes a hostile witness in the case
D. Can be cross examined without being called as a witness

48. Opinion of an expert expressed in a book commonly offered for sale can be proved by
the production of such book if the author

A. is dead
B. lives outside the jurisdiction of the trial court
C. is capable of giving evidence but fails to appear before the court
D. is not willing to give evidence

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49. Declaration in course of business are admissible under

A. Section 32(1) of the Act

B. Section 32(2) of the Act
C. Section 32(4) of the Act
D. Section 32(7) of the Act

50. Confession made by an accused to a police officer is admissible under Indian

Evidence Act under

A. S.25
B. S.26
C. S.27
D. S.28

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 INTELLECTUAL PROPERTY RIGHTS

1. Which of the following is an “intellectual property” as per IPR Laws in India.

A. Original literary work
B. Industrial Design of Maruti800 car
C. Trademark of Tata Company
D. All the above

2. What protects the intellectual property created by inventors?

A. Copyright
B. Geographical indications
C. Patents
D. Trademarks

3. How long do patents usually last for?

A. 10 years
B. 20 years
C. 40 years
D. 60 years

4. What protects the intellectual property created by artists?

A. Copyright
B. Geographical indications
C. Patents
D. Trademarks

5. In India, the literary work is protected until

A. Lifetime of author
B. 25 years after the death of author
C. 40 years after the death of author
D. 60 years after the death of author

6. Which of the following principles is applicable to trademarks?

A. A trademark should be distinctive
B. A trademark should be capable of distinguishing goods or services
C. A trademark should not be deceptive
D. All of the above

7. Trademark law protects…

A. Words, symbols or devices that differentiate goods or services from one

another.
B. Only brand names
C. Names of specific people and places

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 D. Inventions that feature some sort of utility function

8. Why an invention should be patented?

i. It gives protection to a patentable invention.
ii. It gives legal recognition to the invention.
iii. It makes others aware of the fact as to whom does the invention belong
iv. Patenting one’s invention make useful data relating to the invention available
to other inventions for further research and development.

Out of four reasons given above, identify the correct reasons:

A. (ii) and (iii)
B. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
C. None of the above
D. All of the above

9. The rights of a patentee are

A. Sell or distribute
B. License
C. Assign the property to others
D. All of the above

10. Patentability criteria includes

A. Novelty
B. Inventive step
C. Capable of Industrial application
D. All the above

11. The following can be patented

A. Machine
B. Process
C. Composition of matter
D. All of the above

12. The rights provided by copyrights are

A. Reproduction of the work in various forms
B. Public performance and translate into other languages
C. Broadcasting by radio or cable
D. All of the above

13. A singer wishes to assign the rights to reproduce a video she has made of her concert.
A. Copy rights
B. Trade mark
C. Patent
D. Geographical indications

14. Which of the following can not be exploited by assigning or by licensing

the rights to others.
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 A. Patents
B. Designs
C. Trademark
D. All of the above

15. Trade mark

A. is represented graphically
B. is capable of distinguishing the goods or services of one
person from those of others
C. may includes shapes of goods or combination of colours
D. All of the above

16. A company wishes to ensure that no one else can use their logo.
A. Copy rights
B. Trade mark
C. Patent
D. Geographical indications

17. What is term of trademark registration in India?

A. 10 years
B. 20 years
C. 40 years
D. 60 years

18. A new way to process milk so that there is no fat in any cheese made from it.
A. Copy rights
B. Trade mark
C. Patent
D. Geographical indications

19. In your view, who can be the right holder of IPR?

A. Owner of the intellectual property.
B. The successor in title of the owner of intellectual property.
C. A licensee duly authorized by the owner of the intellectual property.
D. All the above

20. Prior art includes

A. Prior publication
B. Prior Use
C. Prior Knowledge
D. All the above

21. Prior art search includes

A. Search of Patent literatures
B. Search of Non-patent literature
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of the above

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0
22. IPC means
A. Indian Patent Classification
B. International Panel Code
C. International Patent Classification
D. International Postal Code

23. Copyright law applies to forms of expression contained in

A. Song lyrics and musical compositions
B. Sculptures and paintings
C. Dramatic and literary works
D. All of the above

24. Invention means

A. New product having inventive step and but not capable industrial application
B. New product do not have inventive step and capable industrial application
C. New product or process having inventive step and capable industrial application
D. None of the above

25. The term “WIPO” stands for…

A. World Investment policy organization
B. World intellectual property organization
C. Wildlife Investigation and Policing organization
D. World institute for Prevention of organized crime

26. Transmission means, transmission by operation of Law, devolution on the personal

representative of deceased person and any other mode of transfer, not being……
A. Transfer
B. Sale
C. Assignment
D. License

27. Under Section 2 (ze) of the Trade Marks Act, 1999, Tribunal means
A. Registrar
B. Appellate Board
C. Chairman of Appellate Board
D. a and b both

28. Under the Trade Marks Act, 1999, registration of trade mark is valid for ………….
A. Seven (07) years from registration date
B. ten (10) years from registration date
C. seven (07) years from application date
D. ten (10) years application date

29. GATT stands for

A. General Agreements on Tariffs, Trade
B. General Agreement on Trade & Tariffs

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1
 C. General Agreement on Tariffs & Trade
D. General Agreement on International Trade & Tariffs

30. Under the Copyright Act 1957, work means –

A. Literary, dramatic, musical or artistic work.
B. Cinematograph film, Sound recording.
C. a & b
D. wood craft

31. Copyright shall subsist in any work of architecture, if

A. Author is citizen of India.
B. Work is located in India.
C. Both a. and b.
D. author is NRI

32. In assignment document, if period of assignment of copyright is not stated than it shall
be deemed to be for period of –
A. 2 years.
B. 3 years.
C. 5 years.
D. Lifetime.

33. Which authority shall have power to register Copyright Society under the Copyright
Act 1957?
A. Registrar of Copyright.
B. Copyright Board.
C. State Government.
D. Central Government.

34. Under the Copyright Act 1957, ‘Broadcast reproduction right’ shall subsists for period
of-
A. 25 years.
B. 50 years
C. 60 years.
D. Lifetime of owner.

35. Design does not include

A. Features of shape
B. Composition of lines or colours

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2
 C. Mode or principle of construction
D. Movie Song

36. In India, the literacy work is protected until

A. Life of author
B. 25 years after the death of author
C. 40 years after the death of author
D. 60 years after the death of author

37. Which of the following is not an intellectual property?

A. Copyright act 1957
B. Trade marks act 1999
C. Patents act 1970
D. Customs act 1962

38. The following can be patented

A. Machines
B. Process
C. Composition of matters
D. Printed Book

39. A Singer wishes to assign the rights to produce a video she has made of a concert
A. Copyrights
B. Trademark
C. Patent
D. Industrial designs

40. Which statement is incorrect as regards to patent :

A. can be granted for research
B. must be for novel
C. must be for industrial application
D. must be obvious

41. Patent is granted for :

A. 25 years
B. 20 years
C. 60 years
D. 15 years

42. Which is not protected by copyright ?

A. Novel Process
B. Books
C. Piece of architecture
D. Drama

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3
43. Which IPR is protected for software related to computer program.
A. Copyright
B. Trademarks
C. Patents
D. Designs

44. IPR grants :

A. its title
B. Status to the owners
C. Grants ownership rights
D. Advertisement of product

45. Which of the following can not be classified as service mark?

A. Hotels
B. Beauty salon
C. Educational Institution
D. Government

46. Wipo Convention applies to:

A. Geographical Indications
B. Integrated Circuits
C. All IPs
D. Trade Secrets

47. Idea + quality + identity:

A. Copyright
B. Trademark
C. Patent
D. Geographical Indication

48. Strike the odd man out:

A. Odisha Rasagulla
B. Tirupati Ladoo
C. Dhanu Chikoo
D. Juhu bhel puri

Answer : 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A, 5-D, 6-D, 7-A, 8-B, 9-D, 10-D, 11-D, 12-D, 13-A, 14-C, 15-D,
16-B, 17-A, 18-C, 19D, 20-D, 21-C, 22-C, 23-D, 24-C, 25-B, 26-C, 27-D, 28-D, 29-C, 30-D,
31-B, 32-C, 33-D, 34-A, 35-C, 36-D, 37-D, 38-D, 39-A, 40-A, 41-B, 42-A, 43-A, 44-C, 45-
D, 46-C, 47-B, 48-D .

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 LAW RELATING TO WOMEN AND CHILDREN

1. No child under the age of 14 years is allowed to work in hazardous industry under
Article:
A. 15(3)
B. 23
C. 24
D. 45

2. Testimony of the child is –

A. Always allowed
B. Never allowed
C. Allowed only if the child can understand the question
D. Allowed only if he can answer all the questions.

3. “Women employee in Indian Foreign Service must take prior permission of the
Government before getting married”. This rule has been struck down in-
A. Shah Bano Case
B. Hussainara Khatoon Case
C. Nargeesh Mirza Case
D. Muthuamma Case

4. The custom of “ Sati” was first banned in 1929 due to the efforts by:
A. Mahatma Phule
B. Indira Gandhi
C. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
D. Mahatma Gandhi

5. The only International Organization specifically aiming to protect rights of child:

A. WHO
B. UNICEF
C. UNESCO
D. ILO

6. Child Welfare Board is constituted under-

A. The Children’s Act, 1960
B. Juvenile Justice ( Care and Protection of Children) Act,2000
C. Guardians and Wards Act,1890
D. Family Court Act,1984.

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7. Under the dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act,1939, the Muslim Wife can seek
Divorce on the following grounds:
A. Husband is missing for four years or more
B. Failure to maintain for a period of one year
C. Imprisonment for 3 years.
D. Bigamy.

8. “Delinquent Juvenile” under the Juvenile Justice ( Care and Protection of Children)
Act,2000.
A. Means a juvenile who has been abandoned or abused by its parents or relatives.
B. Means a juvenile who is alleged to have committed a crime and has not completed
18 years of age.
C. Means a juvenile institution where persons in need of correction are detained
D. Means a court for trial of juvenile cases.

9. “ Amniocentesis” Test is
A. Test to determine health and sex of foetus.
B. Test to determine ketone bodies in urine
C. Test to determine breast cancer
D. Test to detect HIV.

10. Invalid or Irregular Marriage is known as-

A. Batil Marriage
B. Muta Marriage
C. Sahih Marriage
D. Fasid Marriage.

11. The Convention on the elimination of all forms of discrimination against Women was
adopted by the U.N. General Assembly on-
A. 15th December 1979
B. 15th December 1978
C. 18th December 1979
D. 18th December 1978

12. The expression ‘quick with child’ means-

A. To take immediate custody of the child.
B. Stage of pregnancy where motion of foetus can be felt.
C. The guardian for the ‘minor’ appointed by the court.
D. None of the above.

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13. Punishment for Dowry Death is-
A. Death Punishment
B. Imprisonment not less than 7 years and may extend to life
C. Imprisonment upto 10 years and fine upto Rs. 50,000/-
D. No imprisonment, only fine.

14. Which Section of I.P.C. deals with the intention to insult the Modesty of a Women
A. 304
B. 376
C. 504
D. 509

15. Which of the following article of the Constitution of India provides for equal pay for
equal work for both men and women-
A. Article 39 ( c)
B. Article 39 ( d)
C. Article 39( b)
D. Article 39 ( a)

16. In case of a Hindu woman dying intestate, if two or more heirs succeed together to the
property, they shall take the property-
A. Per capita
B. Per stirpes
C. Per family
D. Per heir

17. Where a husband charges his wife of adultery and the charge is false, his wife is
ethical to sue for and obtain divorce which is:
A. Khula
B. Lian
C. Mubara’at
D. Zihar

18. A de facto guardian of minor is-

A. A guardian appointed by the Court
B. A natural guardian
C. Who himself takes over the management of the affairs of the minor
D. A legal guardian

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19. ‘Child’ under the Child Marriage Restraint Act, 1929 means-
A. If a male, has not completed 21 years of age, and if a female, has not completed
18 years of age.
B. If a male has not completed 18 years of age, and if a female who has also not
completed 18 years of age.
C. If a male, has not completed 18 years of age, and if a female, has not completed
21 years of age.
D. If a male, has not completed 21 years of age, and if a female who has also not
completed 21 years of age.

20. If the adoption is by a female, and the person to be adopted is a male, adoptive mother
should be how many years older than the person to be adopted-
A. 18
B. 21
C. 14
D. 16

21. State can make special provisions for women.

A. Statement is true according to Article 15(3) of the Constitution of India
B. Statement is false according to Artice 15(3) of the Constitution of India
C. Statement is true according to Artice 15(4) of the Constitution of India
D. Statement is true according to Artice 15(2) of the Constitution of India

22. According to Maternity Benefits Act, for how many days, a woman has to work in an
establishment to be eligible for maternity benefits.
A. 80 days in the past 12 month
B. 160 days in the past 12 month
C. 90 days in the past 12 month
D. 180 days in the past 12 month

23. Which of the following landmark case led to amendment in the Criminal Law in the
year 1983.
A. Mukesh &Anr V. State for Nct of Delhi & Ors
B. Hussainara Khatoon & 0rs V. Home Secretary, State of Bihar
C. Sheela Barse V. State of Maharashtra
D. Tukaram and Anr V. State of Maharashtra

24. Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage criminalises

A. Khula
B. Mubarat
C. Talaq- E- Sunnat
D. Talaq-E-Biddat

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25. How much punishment is prescribed for a person who is living on the earnings of a
minor prostitute according to Section 4 of The Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act,
1956?
A. Imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, or a fine which may
extend to one thousand rupees, or with both.
B. imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years, or a fine which may
extend to ten thousand rupees, or with both
C. Imprisonment for a term of not less than seven years and not more than ten years.
D. Imprisonment for a term of not less than three years and not more than seven
years.

26. The objective of Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act is

A. to give rights to all females only.
B. to provide for the termination of certain pregnancies by registered medical
practitioners and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
C. to protect male children of the family.
D. protection of pregnant females only.

27. The concept of Triple Talaq under Muslim Law is

A. approved form of talaq.
B. mostly approved form of talaq.
C. protected form of talaq.
D. mostly disapproved form of talaq.

28. If a female Hindu dies intestate leaving behind her two children and her parents, her
property will be divided amongst
A. her parents only equally.
B. her children only equally.
C. her parents and children equally.
D. her son only.

29. Under which Act a female can ask protection if she is subject of cruelty by her
guardians
A. Hindu Marriage Act.
B. Hindu Succession Act.
C. The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act
D. Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act

30. If a Christian woman wants to claim succession from her husband's intestate
property, which of the following laws is applicable?
A. Christian Succession Act
B. Christian Marriage Act
C. Indian Succession Act
D. Christian Divorce Act

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31. Under the Indian Constitution special provisions can be made for women and children
under which of the following articles:
A. Art. 14
B. Art. 15 (3)
C. Art. 16 (4)
D. Art. 17

32. When prosecution for an offence under Section 4 of Commission of Sati (Prevention)
Act, 1987 takes place, the burden of proof of not having committed the offence lies on
whom of the following:
A. The State
B. The Accused
C. In-laws of the deceased woman
D. Witness

33. “Sexual harassment” includes which of the following acts:

A. Sending birthday gift to a female employee
B. Scolding female employee for committing a mistake
C. Offering promotion/raise in return for sexual favours
D. selecting a lady for reward on her merits

34. The term of the office of the members of National Commission for Women shall be:
A. 2 years
B. 10 years
C. 3 years
D. 7 years

35. In special circumstances, the court can impose a sentence of imprisonment for up to
months for the offence of offering dowry through advertisement:
A. 6 months
B. 8 months
C. 7 months
D. 10 months

36. For the medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) of an adult woman in sound health,
whose consent is mandatory among the following?

46
 A. Only the woman concerned
B. The woman and the father of the unborn
C. The woman, her parents and the father of the unborn
D. The woman and her in-laws

37. Which of the following can provide redressal in case a female domestic worker files a
sexual harassment complaint against her employer?
A. Women’s Cell
B. Internal Complaints Committee
C. Local Complaints Committee
D. Managing Committee

38. The Convention on the Elimination of all forms of Discrimination Against Women
(CEDAW), was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in
A. 1981
B. 1975
C. 1979
D. 1983

39. NCW stands for

A. National Council for Women
B. National Committee for Women
C. National Commission for Women
D. National Congress for Women

40. Which among the following constitutes “sexual harassment” according to the Sexual
Harassment at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013?
A. Unwelcome physical contact and advances, or unwelcome sexually colored
remarks
B. Trafficking
C. Acid attack
D. Robbery

41. A family Court shall not have jurisdiction exercised by the

A. District Court
B. Subordinate Civil Court
C. Magistrate of First Class
D. Sessions Court

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42. Which Court shall try an offence under Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 if the offence
is committed in Mumbai?
A. Judicial Magistrate First Class
B. Metropolitan Magistrate
C. High Court
D. Family Court

43. An offence committed by a child below 15 years of age shall be tried by

A. Children’s Court
B. Juvenile Justice Board
C. Magistrate’s Court
D. Child Welfare Committee

44. Offence committed under The Child Marriage Restraint Act, 1929 shall not be

A. Cognizable
B. Tried by Judicial Magistrate First Class
C. Investigated as per Code of Criminal Procedure
D. Non-cognizable

45. Which of the following is not a gender-based violence?

A. Prostitution
B. Female Infanticide
C. Sex-selective Abortion
D. Culpable homicide

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